October 2011

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2011 : Hindi (Compulsory) - Question Paper

UPSC

(Download) UPSC Mains 2011 : Hindi (Compulsory) Question Paper

Subject: Hindi  (Compulsory)

Exam Date: 31th October 201

File Size: 2.42 MB

File Type: Zipped PDF

(Syllabus) West Bengal PSC: Assistant Engineer (Civil) Exam

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West Bengal Public Service Commission
Syllabus: Assistant Engineer (Civil) Recruitment Examination - 2011

Assistant Engineer (Civil) Recruitment Examination, 2011 Scheme and Syllabus:

The Examination shall be held in two successive stages viz.

  • Written Examination
  • Interview.

Final merit list will be prepared on the basis of total marks obtained by the candidates in the written examination and interview. The Commission shall have the discretion to fix qualifying marks in the written examination, interview as also in the aggregate.

Syllabus For The Written Examination:

The course content of the syllabus for the paper will be of the degree level. The syllabus is given below with distribution of marks as indicated against the respective subject module.

Theory and Design of Structures:

Theory of structures and strength of materials :

  • Solid Mechanics – properties of material, Mohr’s circle of stress-strain, plain stress & strain, combined stress, Elastic theories of failure, simple bending, shear, torsion of circular and rectangular sections, columns and struts, moving loads and influence lines for shear force and bending moment for-simple and continuous beams and frames.

  • Structural Analysis – Analysis of determinate structures. Different methods of analysis of indeterminate structures – moment distribution, slope-deflection, column analogy, strain energy method, three moment theorem, Muller Breslau Principle and application, etc. Analysis of determinate and indeterminate arches.

Steel Design – (Design of Steel Structures) :

  • Principle of working stress method, Design of all types of connection, Simple members, Built up sections and frames, Design of Industrial structures and Multistoried frames, Design of steel bridges and tanks of different types, Design of tubular structures, codal provisions for design of all those steel structures including foundation.

  • Principle of ultimate load design; Plastic design of continuous frames and portals.

Design of Reinforced Concrete and Masonry Structures:

Limit state method of design. Codal provisions for design. Working stress method of design. Concrete mix design & Quality control, Principles of prestressed concrete design, materials, methods of prestressing, losses in prestressing, anchorages. Design of Brick masonry as per I.S. codes.

Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics:

Fluid properties and definitions, Flow kinematics, continuity momentum and energy equations applicable to fluid flow, Bernoulli’s theorem, flow through conduits, flow through open channels, Hydraulic jump, flow through pipes and losses in pipe flows, siphons, pipe network, forces in pipe ends, hydraulic energy grade line, water hammer. Viscosity, definition of ideal fluid

Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering:

  • Properties of soils, classifications and interrelationship; definitions of terms used; soil testing in laboratory and in-situ; compaction behaviour, methods of compaction and their choice; permeability and seepage, flow nets, flow under hydraulic structure, uplift and quicksand condition inverted filters, unconfined and direct shear stress, tri-axial test, shearing resistance, Earth pressure theories, stability of slopes; compressibility and consolidation. Theories of consolidation, pressure distribution in soils, soil stabilization, soil exploration and  penetration tests, Pore water pressure.

  • Types of foundation, selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement, laboratory and field tests, codal provisions in all types of foundation including testing of piles etc. Types of piles and their design and layout; Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and its prevention, Design of  retaining walls, wells, sheet piles and caissons, Reinforced earth technique and its use.

Surveying:

Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy; Measurement of distances-by direct and indirect methods, optical and electronic devices, Measurement of directions, Prismatic compass, local attractions; Theodolities-types, Measurement of elevations, trigonometric leveling, contours, Establishment of control by triangulations and traversing. Measurements and adjustment of observation, Computation of coordinates; Errors and their corrections of measurement of length, bearing horizontal and vertical angles and leveling operation, Correction due to refraction and curvatures, Map preparation by plane tabling and photogrammetry; Field astronomy, concept of global positioning system; Remote sensing concepts, map substitutes; Setting out directions and grades; types of curves, setting out of curves and excavation lines for building foundation.

Construction Materials, Practices, Planning and Management:

  • Building Materials specifications, tests, uses and codal provisions.
  • Concrete technology – Cement its properties, classification and specification – Provisions in I.S. code. Properties of coarse and fine aggregates – Provisions in I.S. code, concrete mix design, Laboratory concrete, Ready mixed concrete, field tests for quality control of concrete, concreting equipments.

  • Earth moving machineries and pile driving equipments.
  • Construction planning and management – Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow diagrams, critical path, probabilistic activity durations, Eventbased network, PERT Network, Time Cost study, crashing, Resource allocation, Rescheduling of construction programme.

Special Class Railway Apprentices (SCRA)

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : Basic Numeracy - MCQ 3

Basic Numeracy (MCQ - 3)

1. A salesman is allowed 11/2% discount on the total sales made by him plus a bonus of 1/2% on the sales over Rs. 10,000. If his total earningswere Rs. 1990, then his total sales (in Rs.) were:
1. 60,000
2. 42,000
3. 34,000
4. 35,000

2. In an examination, there are three papers and a candidate has to get 35% of the total to pass. In one paper, he gets 62 out of 150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How much must he get, out of 180, in the third paper to just qualify for a pass?
1. 50.5
2. 88
3. 70 4. 71

3. In a History examination, the average for the entire class was 80 marks. If 10% of the students scored 95 marks and 20% scored 90 marks, what was the average marks of the remaining students of the class?
1. 60
2. 72
3. 75
4. 85

4. A scored 30% marks and failed by 15 marks. B scored 40% marks and obtained 35 marksmore than those required to pass. The pass percentage is:
1. 33%
2. 40%
3. 34%
4. 48%

5. The price of a table is Rs. 400 more than that of a chair. If6 tables and6 chairs together cost Rs. 4800, by what percent is the price of the chair less than that of the table?
1. 66.9%
2. 60%
3. 200/3
4. 44%

Answers

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3)


(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian Polity - MCQ 2

Indian Polity (MCQ - 2)

Directions: The following questions consist of two statements, are labelled as ‘Assertion A’ and other labelled as ‘Reason R’. You are to examine the twostatements  carefully and decide of the ‘Assertion A’ and the ‘Reason R’ individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer to these item using the codes given below.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of A’.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true, but ‘R’ is not a correct explanation of ‘.A’.
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

1. (A): In February 2004, Government-of India constituted a National commission on farmers.
(R): The commission examines various issues that Indian farmers are confronting and suggests appropriate interventions for improving the economic viability and sustainability of diversified agriculture.

2. (A): Globalization per se demands liberalization of ideas government regulations, delicensing and greater people’s participation in the economic affairs which in turn leads to political empowerment.
(R): The concept of democracy has taken deeper roots in the current age of globalization.

3. (A): Dual citizenship was announced by Prime Minister at the 3rd Pravasi Bhartiva Divas in Jan. 2005.
(R): Dual citizenship for all overseas Indians who migrated after January 26, 1950. subject to the laws prevailing in their home country.

4. (A): A money bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
(R): The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a money bill.

5. The Indian Constitution is unitary in spirit because :
(a) Parliament can make laws for the states under some circumstances
(b) All India Services are provided for both Union and States
(c) Only the Union Parliament has the power to propose amendment in the Constitution
(d) All of these are true

Answers

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2011 : English (Compulsory Paper)

UPSC

IAS Mains 2011
English (Compulsory Paper)

Subject: English (Compulsory Paper)

Exam Date: 30th October 2011

File Size: 2.76 MB

File Type: ZIPPED PDF

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Paper 2011 : Essay

UPSC

IAS Mains 2011
Essay

Subject: Essay

Exam Date: 30th October 2011

File Size: 1.30 MB

File Type: ZIPPED PDF

(Notification) Department of Higher Education : Central Scheme of Scholarship For College and University Students

Ministry of Human Resource Development
Department of Higher Education

National Merit Scholarship Scheme was introduced by Department of Education in 1961- 62. It was available to brilliant but poor students from class XI to Post-Graduation level. In addition, a Scheme of Scholarship at the Secondary stage for talented children from rural areas was also introduced by Department of Education in 1971-72. It was available to talented but poor students from rural areas from class VI to class XII. These two Schemes were merged and a single Scheme, namely, the ‘National Merit Scholarship Scheme’ was established by Department of Education for implementation from 2005-06. This was available to meritorious students from class IX to Post-Graduation level. However, since funds were not provided by the Planning Commission for the year 2007- 08, the Scheme has been discontinued w.e.f. 1.4.2007. School Education has come under a new Department, namely, Department of School Education & Literacy w.e.f. the year 2007-08. The Department of School Education and Literacy has introduced a new Scheme: ‘National Means-Cum-Merit Scholarship Scheme’. This Scheme will cover students from class IX to XII. The Department of Higher Education has introduced a new scheme for meritorious students from low income families going to colleges / universities for implementation during the XI Five Year Plan period with an approved outlay of Rs.1000 crore. This is a Central sector scheme titled “ Central Sector Scheme of Scholarship for College and University Students”.

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2011 : General Studies - Question Paper - II

UPSC

(Download) UPSC Mains 2011 : General Studies
Question Paper - I I

Subject: General Studies

Exam Date: 29th October 2011

Paper : II

File Size: 3.59 MB

File Type: Zipped PDF

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2011 : General Studies - Question Paper - I

UPSC

(Download) UPSC Mains 2011 : General Studies
Question Paper - I

Subject: General Studies

Exam Date: 29th October 2011

Paper : I

File Size: 2.78 MB

File Type: Zipped PDF

(Sample Essay) Oil Politics and US Imperialism by Vivek Kumar Singh

Oil Politics and US Imperialism

By: Vivek Kumar Singh
Course Coordinator
Essay Programme
WWW.UPSCPORTAL.COM

The U.S. game plan, since the oil shock of 1973, has been to control the oil market by keeping the focus on the West Asian region. Jimmy Carter, in 1980, as President of the United States ,declared the Persian Gulf an exclusive zone of American influence and created a Rapid Deployment Force, which later became the U.S. Central Command, or CENTCOM.

Oil imperialism rests on our continued dependence on oil, which not only threatens the future of humanity through prolonged and bloody conflict, but through another even more insidious threat--climate change and ecological collapse.Oil is not only an indicator of the international economy’s direction, it also sets the stage for political alliances, military posturing and lives and deaths of millions as countries rush to secure energy supplies in the ruthless, zero-sum game of nations. Being the largest energy consumer, in addition to boasting the world’s biggest military, the US naturally takes the lead in deciding the future, be it through negotiations, sanctions, or outright war. Critics of oil imperialism theories suggest that because the United States is the third largest oil producer, and that it has historically been the leading oil producer in the world, the United States would be unlikely to predicate its foreign policy on the acquisition of oil with such an undue focus. They point out that, relative to its consumption rate, oil is not an expensive commodity in the market The U.S. invasion of Iraq to loot its oil and politically restructure the Middle East, is part of a policy of militaristic imperialism that the American and British ruling circles have been engaged in for several centuries.

The Oil policy of the United States is determined by federal, state and local public entities in the United States, which address issues of Oil production, distribution, and consumption. Oil policy may include legislation, international treaties, subsidies and incentives to investment, guidelines for Oil conservation, taxation and other public policy techniques. Oil is the world’s most important traded commodity and its significance will only increase as developing nations, from China to Brazil, demand more energy. The move to higher prices will have a profound impact on the global economy, acting as a tax in consuming countries, depressing growth worldwide and pushing inflation higher.

Oil politics have been an increasingly important aspect of diplomacy since the rise of the petroleum industry in the Middle East in the early 20th century. Every president since Richard Nixon has asserted that we are running out of oil. Meaning: We are sitting ducks for those who brandish the oil weapon. To keep the evildoers at bay, the government must adopt policies that ensure our energy independence. Both George W. Bush and his challenger John Kerry worship at this altar. In the century-and-a-half since Edwin L. Drake drilled the first oil well, the history of the oil industry has been a story of vast swings between periods of overproduction, when low prices and profits led oil producers to devise ways to restrict output and raise prices, and periods when oil supplies appeared to be on the brink of exhaustion, stimulating a global search for new supplies. This cycle may now be approaching an end. It appears that world oil supplies may truly be reaching their natural limits. In the years to come, the search for new sources of oil will be transformed into a quest for entirely new sources of energy.

The following are some factors that affect the prices of oil:

  1. These prices are affected by supply and demand because, at present, oil trades in a global commodity market where increased demand or reduced supply in one place instantly translates into price shifts everywhere.
  2. Even if there were significant sources of high quality oil remaining, it is getting increasingly difficult and expensive to drill. These factors, along with aging infrastructure for oil exploration and a retiring workforce are also contributing to high oil prices.
  3. Again, oil traders are fearful that the supply will not remain stable forever.

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : Basic Numeracy - MCQ 2

Basic Numeracy (MCQ - 2)

1. The weight of a body as calculated by the average of 7 different experiments is 53.735 g. The average of the first three experiments is 54.005 g, of the fourth is 0.004 g greater than the fifth, while the average of the sixth and seventh experiment was 0.010 g less than the average of the first three. Find the weight of the body obtained by the fourth experiment.
1. 49.353 g
2. 51.718 g
3. 53.342 g
4. 54.512 g

2. Find the average weight of four containers, if it is known that the weight of the first container is 100 kg and the total of the second, third and fourth containers’ weight is defined by f(x) = x2 – 3/4 (x2), where x = 100.
1. 650 kg
2. 880 kg
3. 760 kg
4. 460 kg

3. There are five boxes in a cargo hold. The weight of the first box is 200 kg and theweight of the second box is 20% higher than the weight of the third box, whose weight is 25% higher than the first box’s weight. The fourth box at 350 kg is 30% lighter than the fifth box.  Find the difference in the average weight of the four heaviest boxes and the four lightest boxes.
1. 80 kg
2. 75 kg
3. 37.5 kg
4. 116.8 kg

4. In a class of 52 students the number of boys is two less than the number of girls. Average weight of the boys is 42 kg, while the average weight of all the 52 students is 40 kg. What is the approx. average weight of the girls.
1. 38 kg
2. 39 kg
3. 40 kg
4. 42 kg

5. 19 persons went to a hotel for a combined dinner party. 13 of them spent Rs. 79 each on their dinner and the rest spent Rs. 4 more thanthe average expenditure of all the 19. What was the total money spent by them?
1. 1628.4
2. 1536
3. 1492
4. 1673

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : English Language & Comprehension - MCQ 1

English Language and Comprehension

Directions (Q. 1–9): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. I was ten years old then, and my brother, Nick, was fourteen. For both of us this buying of a gift our mother on Mother's daywas a time of excitement and great imprtance.

It was our first gift to her. We were very poor. It was just after the first World War and we lived in difficult times of trouble. Our father worked now sometimes as a waiter. Birthday and Christmas gifts were taken care of by him as well as he could, but such a thing as a mother's day gift was out-of-theordinary luxury. But we had been lucky, Nick and myself. A second hand furniture store had opened on the block, and deliveries were made by means of loading the furniture on a wobbly pushcart, which we carefully pushed through traffic, to the customer's home. We got a nickel each and, perhaps, a tip.

I remember how Nick's thin, dark face lighted up with the joy of the present. He had first thought of it in shool; and the thought of surprise and giving grew in him, and myself, andwe were highly excited.When, we secretly told our father, he was very pleased. He stroked our heads proudly. "It's a fine idea", he said. "It will make your mother very happy". From his town, we knew what he was thinking. He had given our mother very little in their life together. She worked all day, cooking and buying, looking after us in illness and stoking the stove in the kitchen with wood and coal to keep us warm in winter. She did her own washing of the family clothes in the bath tub. And she did all these things silently. She did not laugh much, but when she smiled at us it was a beautiful thingwell worth waiting for.

1. How old is the narrator, the one who is telling you the story and how old is Nick?
(1) Fourteen years and ten years.
(2) Ten years and fourteen years.
(3) Fourteen years and thirteen years.
(4) Thirteen years and fourteen years.

2. Why were the narrator and his brother excited?
(1) Because they were going to give a gift to theirmother.
(2) It was their first gift.
(3) They were learning French.
(1) Only (1) and
(2) (2) Only (2) and (3)
(3) Only (1) and (3)
(4) Only (1)

3. Nick came to know aboutMother's day at .......
(1) Home
(2) Office
(3) The shop
(4) School

4. To whom did the boys tell their secret?
(1) to their mother
(2) to their master
(3) to their father
(4) to their teacher

5. How do you know that the narrator's family was poor?
(1) they live in difficult times
(2) father worked as a waiter
(3) father worked only sometimes
(4) giving gifts was a luxury
(1) (1) and (2)
(2) (2) and (3)
(3) (3) and (4)
(4) All the above

6. What work did the two boys do?
(1) They delivered the furniture.
(2) They work in Mines.
(3) They worked as waiters.
(4) They worked as labourers.

7. According to the given passage, what work did the father do?
(1) Heworked as a teacher.
(2) He worked as a waiter.
(3) He worked as an artist
(4) Heworked as an intelligent artisan.

8. Which sentence tells us that Nick was very happy at the thought of giving his mother a gift?
(1) Hetook advice of his brother happily.
(2) His face had lighted up with the joy of the present.
(3) Heworked when he was merely ten years old.
(4) He encouraged his brother to bring a gift.

9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?
(1) The mother was a lazy woman.
(2) Their fatherworked sometimes as awaiter.
(3) Brithday and Christmas gifts were taken care of by them.
(4) Nick and his brother had been very lucky.

Directions (Q. 10): Choose the word/group of wordswhich is most nearly the SAME inmeaning as the word given in CAPITALS as used in the passage.

10. OUT-OF THE ORDINARY LUXURY
(1) something for sadness and not common.
(2) something for enjoyment and not need; not common.
(3) something dirty.
(4) something indifferent to social problems.

Answer

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2)


(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : Logical Reasoning & General Mental Ability - MCQ 1

Logical Reasoning & General Mental Ability

1. If the letters in the word UNDERTAKING are rearranged in the alphabetical order, which one will be in the middle in order after the rearrangement?
(1) G
(2) I
(3) K
(4) N

2. Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet?
(1) C
(2) E
(3) I
(4) T

3. If the first and second letters in the word DEPRESSION were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right?
(1) R
(2) O
(3) S
(4) None of these

4. If the positions of the first and the sixth letters in the word DISTRIBUTE are interchanged; similarly the positions of the second and the seventh, the third and the eighth and so on,  which of the following letterswill be the fifth from left after interchanging the positions?
(1) E
(2) I
(3) S
(4) T

5. The positions of the first and the eighth letters in the word WORKINGS are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the seventh letters are interchanged and the positions of the third letter and the sixth letter are interchanged and the positions of the remaining two letters are interchanged with each other, which of the followingwill be the third letter to the left ofR after rearrangement?
(1) G
(2) I
(3) N
(4) S

Directions (Q. No. 6 to 10): In each of the following questions, five groups of letters are given. Four of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Select the one which is different

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Coconut
(2) Lotus
(3) Lilly
(4) Rose

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Table
(2) Chair
(3) Bench
(4) Wood

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Clove
(2) Cinnamon
(3) Pepper
(4) Apricot

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Sodium
(2) Chlorine
(3) Magnesium
(4) Nitrogen

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Radish
(2) Carrot
(3) Garlic
(4) Gourd

Answers

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (4) 8. (5) 9. (4) 10. (4)

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : Basic Numeracy - MCQ 1

Basic Numeracy

1. The numerator of a fraction ismultiple of two numbers. One of the numbers is greater than the other by 2. The greater number is smaller than the denominator by 1. If the denominator is given as 5 + c(c is a constant), then the minimum value of the fraction is:
1. 2/3
2. –2
3. –1/2
4. 1/2

2. Find the number which when multiplied by 13 is increased by 180:
1. 20
2. 15
3. 12
4. 5

3. Find the number of divisors of 10800.
1. 57
2. 60
3. 72
4. 62

4. The sum of the digits in a two-digit number is 5. If 9 is subtracted fromthe number, the result is the number with the digits reversed. The number is:
1. 23
2. 24
3. 14
4. 32

5. Three consecutive numbers such that twice the first, 3 times the second and 4 times the third together make 182. The numbers in question are:
1. 18, 22 and 23
2. 18, 19 and 20
3. 19, 20 and 21
4. 20, 21 and 22

6. There are 5 consecutive natural numberswith LCM as 60. The product of the first two numbers is equal to the 5th number. What is the sum of the 5 numbers?
1. 0
2. 19
3. 20
4. 25

7. Find the least numberwhichwhen divided by 16, 18 and 20 leaves a remainder 4 in each case, but is completely divisible by 7.
1. 465
2. 3234
3. 2884
4. 3234

8. HCF of two numbers is 15 and their LCM is 180. If their sum is 105, then the numbers are:
1. 30 and 70
2. 35 and 70
3. 50 and 75
4. 45 and 60

9. A certain type of board is sold in lengths of multiples of 2 feet. The shortest board sold is 6 feet, and the longest is 24 feet. A builder needs a large quantity of this type of board in 5 1 2 feet lengths. For minimum waste the lengths to be ordered should be:
1. 23 ft
2. 28 ft
3. 22 ft
4. 52 ft

10. The LCMand HCF of two positive numbers is 1000 and 50 respectively. Which of the following could be the pair of such numbers?
1. 150 and 200
2. 175 and 300
3. 50 and 100
4. 200 and 250

Answers

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)


(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Science and Technology - MCQ 1

Science and Technology

Q.1. The largest human cell is?
(a) Blood cell
(b) Female ovum
(c) Mycoplamsa
(d) Sperm cell

Q.2. During the transformation of tadpole into frog. The embryonic tissues like gills and tail are digested by?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Sieve cell
(c) Matrix
(d) None of the above

Q.3. Consider the following Statements:-
(i) Cell wall is present in both plant and animal cells.
(ii) Vacuoles is present only in animal cells.
(iii) Centrioles are absent in plant cells.
(iv) Plastids are present only in plant cells.
Which of the above statement is/are incorrect?
(a) i, ii
(b) i, iii, iv
(c) iii, iv
(d) None of the above

Q.4. Consider the following statements
(i) Chromosomes are usually found is pairs.
(ii) Pea only have 12, a human being have 46 chromosomes.
(iii) The number of chromosomes are related to the intelligence or complexity of the creature.
Which of the above statement is incorrect?
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) iii only
(d) All of the above

Q.5. Which one of this is known as suicide bags of the cell?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Lysosomes.
(c) Golgi apparatus.
(d) Vacuoles.

Q.6. Consider the following statements.
(i) Phloem is used to transport dissolved substance food all around the plant.
(ii) Xylem transport water and minerals from the roots, towards all parts of plant.
(iii) In Phloem movement of water is facilitated due to positive hydrostatic pressure.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) i only
(b) both i and ii
(c) i, ii, iii
(d) None of the above

Q.7. Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) Voluntary muscles and cardiac muscles are richly supplied with water.
(b) Involuntary muscles are poorly supplied with blood.
(c) Fat storing tissues are found below the skin.
(d) The main function of fluid tissue is to storage of fat and to conserve heat.

Q.8. Which tissue is specialized with a capability to conduct electrical impulses and convey information from one are of the body to another?
(a) Muscular tissue.
(b) Fluid tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) None of the above

Q.9. Muscles contain special protein, which is called?
(a) Contractile protein
(b) Compital protein
(c) Neuroglia protein
(d) None of the above

Q.10. Which is the chief mechanical tissue in plants?
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Selerenchyma
(d) None of the above

Answer Key

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)

 

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian Polity - MCQ 1

Indian Polity

1. Match the following
List I                                                                        List II
(Name of the Case)                                            (Subject matter)
(A) Golak Nath Case                                            1. Power of Parliament to amend the constitution
(B) Nagrajan Case                                                2. Balance between fundamen tal rights and D.P.S.P
(C) Maneka Gandhi Case                                      3. Dynamic scope of right to life.
(D) Minerav Mills Case                                          4. Reservation of seats for back ward classes.
Code
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 1 3 4

2. In India Secularism is used in which context?
(i) Secularism means that the state cannot patronise any religion at all.
(ii) It means Political Parties with religion affiliations from contesting elections.
Which of the above statement is /are correct,
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2.

3. Who of the following determines the number of members and their conditions of service in case of the UPSC?
(a) Prime Minister.
(b) President.
(c) Ministry of Personnel.
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs.

4. If any body holds a public office illegally, which one of the following writs will be issued by the Supreme Court?
(a) Quo warrnato.
(b) Certiorari
(c) Prohibition
(d) Mandamus

5. President’s recommendation is required for introduction of which of the following bills?
1. Money Bill.
2. Finance Bill.
3. Amendment Bill.
4. Bill for the formation of new states or alteration of boundaries of a state.
(a) 1 and 2.
(b) 1, 2 and 3.
(c) 1, 2 and 4.
(d) All of the above

6. Which of the following are features of a true democracy?
1. One man one vote principle.
2. Territorial representation.
3. Adult suffrage
4. Single transferable system of voting.
(a) 1 and 2.
(b) 1 and 3.
(c) 1, 2 and 3.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

7. If uniform Civil Code is enacted, then it will regulate which aspect of the citizens?
(a) Personal Laws.
(b) Public Laws.
(c) Private laws.
(d) None of the above.

8. Which one of the following has given the final seal of approval to the Five Year Plan in India?
(a) Parliament
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Planning Commission
(d) National Development Council

9. An Amendment to the Indian Constitution becomes applicable to the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(a) Only after it is given clearance by the state Cabinet.
(b) Only after it is amended to by the Governor of J & K.
(c) Only after it is ratified by the state Assembly by two third majority.
(d) Six months after it come into force.

10. Under the Constitution of India, the System of Proportional representation has been partially adopted for
1. Lok Sabha.
2. State Assemblies.
3. Rajya Sabha.
4. State Legislative Councils.
(a) 1 and 2.
(b) 2 and 3.
(c) 2 and 4.
(d) 3 and 4

Answer Key

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)


(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Geography - MCQ 1

Geography

1. Consider the following statements
(i) Geographically India covers an area of 32, 87, 263 sq km.
(ii) India is now the sixth nation to have gone into outer space.
(iii) India’s mainland extend between latitudes 8o4’ and 37o6’ worth, longitudes 68o7’ and 97o25’ east.
(iv) The total length of the coast line of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman & Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.
Which of the above statements is in correct?
(a) i and iv only.
(b) ii and iii only.
(c) Ii and iv only.
(d) None of the above.

2. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meets in?
(a) Nilgiri Hills.
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Lushi Hills
(d) None of the above.

3. Consider the following statements.
(i) Indus rises near Mansarovar is Tibet.
(ii) Satluj a tributarie of Indus also originated in Tibet.
(iii) Bhagirathi and the Alkananda which joint at Dev Prayag to form the Ganga.
Which of the above statements is correct?
(a) i and iii only
(b) i and ii only
(c) ii and iii only
(d) all of the above

4. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Brahamputra rises in Tibet, where it is known as Tsangpo.
(b) Near Passighat, the Debang and Lohit join the river Brahmaputra.
(c) The Barak river, the Head Stream of Meghna, rises in the Hills of Meghalaya.
(d) In the Deccan region, most of the major river system flowing generally in the east direction.

5. Consider the following statements.
(i) Godavari is the Southern Peninsula has the second largest river basis covering 10% of the area of India.
(ii) Narmada & Kavaeri river are about the same size.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) i only.
(b) ii only.
(c) Both i and ii
(d) Neither i nor ii.

Answer Key

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d)


(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian History - MCQ 2

History (MCQ - 2)

Q.1. Match the following
A. Rajaji Formula 1. 1944
B. Forward Bloc. 2. 1939
C. Individual Satyagraha 3. 1940
D. INA Trials 4. 1945
     A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 1 2 4

Q.2. Match the following.
(A) Formation of Muslim League 1. 1906
(B) Partition of Bengal 2. 1905
(C) The Congress Split 3. 1907
(D) Abhinav Bharat 4. 1904
      A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 4 3

Q.3. Match the following.
(A) Failure of Cripps Mission. 1. The Government of India declared India to be at war with Germany.
(B) Resignation of Congress 2. Individual Satyagraha Ministries in the Provinces.
(C) August offer 3. Quit India movement
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Direct Action Davy.
      A B C D
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1

Q.4. Match the following
(A) Execution of Bhagat Singh and his Colleagues 1. 1930
(B) The Turks abolished the Caliphate 2. 1924
(C) Announcement of Dominion States as the goal of British Policy in India. 3. 1929
(D) Gandhi Irwin Pact. 4. 192
     A B C D
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 4 1 2 3

Q.5. A. Dadabhai Naoroji,                         1. Poverty & Un- British rule
B. Dinabandhu Mitra.                                  2. Nil Dar-Pan
C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhayaya.        3. Hind Swaraj
D. M. K. Gandhi                                         4. Anand Math.
     A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3

Answer Key

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a)


(Download) IAS (Main) Hindi Optional Paper - V : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Hindi Optional Paper - V

1. निम्नलिखित पद्यांशों में से किन्हीं तीन की संदर्भगत व्याख्या कीजिए। (काव्यांश प्रश्न-प्रत्र से ज्लचम करें)

2. (क) सतसैया के दोहरे, ज्यों नाविक के तीर देखन में छोटे लगे, घाव करे गंभीर’ इस दोहे के आधार पर बिहारी की विशेषताओं पर प्रकाश डालिए।

(Download) IAS (Main) Hindi Optional Paper - IV : 2011

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IAS Main Hindi Optional Paper - IV

1. किन्हीं तीन पद्यांशों की सप्रसंग व्याख्या करते हुए, उनके काव्य सौंदर्य को उद्धारित कीजिए। (पद्यांशों को प्रश्न-प्रत्रा से यहाँ से जोड़ें)

(Download) IAS (Main) Hindi Optional Paper - III : 2011

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IAS Main Hindi Optional Paper - III

1. निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं तीन पर टिप्पण्यिा लिखें।
(क) प्रगतिवाद का राजनीतिक अभिलक्षण
(ख) हिन्दी की पहली कहानी
(ग) अमीर खुसरो

(Download) IAS (Main) Hindi Optional Paper - II : 2011

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IAS Main Hindi Optional Paper - II

प्रश्न 1. किन्हीं तीन पर टिप्पणियाँ लिखें
(क) हिन्दी के प्रमुख समालोचक
(ख) छायावाद की प्रवृत्तियाँ

(Download) IAS (Main) Hindi Optional Paper - I : 2011

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IAS Main Hindi Optional Paper - I

प्रश्न 1. हिन्दीं तीन पर टिप्पणियाँ लिखें।
(क) राजभाषा के रूप में हिन्दी
(ख) हिन्दी की उपभाषाएँ
(ग) मानक हिन्दी का व्याकरणिक लक्षण

UPSC Main: Previous Year Papers : (Compulsory)

UPSC

CIVIL SERVICE MAIN EXAMINATION

List of Compulsory Subjects Papers

The main Examination is intended to assess the overall intellectual traits and depth of understanding of candidates rather t

(Paper) IAS Mains Essay (Compulsory) Exam Papers : 2010

UPSC

CIVIL SERVICE MAIN EXAMINATION - 2010

Compulsory Subjects Paper (ESSAY)

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 200

Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate's grasp of his material, its relvance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think constructively and to present his ideas concisely, logically and effeictvely.

UPSC Main: Compulsory Papers Syllabus

UPSC

CIVIL SERVICE MAIN EXAMINATION

List of Compulsory Subjects Syllabus: Civil Service (Main) Examination

The main Examination is intended to assess the overall intellectual traits and depth of understanding of candidates rather than merely the range of their information and memory. The scope of the syllabus for the optional subject papers for the examination is broadly of the honours degree level i.e. a level higher than the bachelors degree and lower than the masters degree. In the case of Engineering and law, the level corresponds to the bachelor's degree.

UPSC Main: Compulsory Papers Syllabus (Essay)

UPSC

CIVIL SERVICE MAIN EXAMINATION

Compulsory Subjects Syllabus

  ESSAY

UPSC Main: Compulsory Paper Syllabus (English & Indian Languages)

UPSC

CIVIL SERVICE MAIN EXAMINATION

  ENGLISH

The aim of the paper is to test the candidate's ability to read and understand serious discursive prose, and to express his ideas clearly and correctly in English/ Indian language concerned.

UPSC Main: Previous Year Papers (Optional)

UPSC

CIVIL SERVICE MAIN EXAMINATION

Optional Subjects: Civil Service (Main) Examination

Previous Year Question Papers:

Year 2013

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper - VIII : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Geography Optional Paper - VIII

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ecological/environmental/ cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Subansiri
(b) Bomdila
(c) Harike Barrage
(d) Keoladeo Ghana
(e) Tso Moriri
(f) Dhupgarh
(g) Bailadila
(h) Gulmarg
(i) Pilibhit
(j) Kaziranga
(k) Paradeep
(l) Kalpakkam
(m) Dhaula Dhar
(n) Shyok
(o) Hirakud

2. (a) Discuss the functional classification of Indian cities. 30
(b) Assess the severity of problem of urban sprawl faced by Indian cities. 30

3. Discuss the types, patterns and morphology of Indian rural settlements. 60

4. (a) Discuss the problems faced by the metropolitan cities in India due to urbanisation. 30
(b) Examine the urban developments in middle and lower Ganga plain. 30

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Morphology of Indian cities
(b) Relevance of Five Year Plans
(c) Command Area Development Programme
(d) Experience of regional planning in India

6. (a) Discuss the regional planning and development of Andaman and Nicobar islands. 30
(b) Assess the necessities for multi level planning in India. 30

7. (a) Discuss the problems and prospects associated with the drought prone area in India. 30
(b) Suggest strategies for the development of drought prone area in India. 30

8. (a) “Genesis of regional imbalances lies in geography; however, it is the government policies that aggravate it further.” Comment 30
(b) “Panchayati Raj Institutions has not lived up with their objectives.” Comment 30

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper - VII : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Geography Optional Paper - VII

1. On the outline map of World provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological /environmental /cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Canterbury Plains
(b) Brunswick
(c) Tonle Sap
(d) Jeddah
(e) Bern
(f) Pampas
(g) Ural mountain
(h) Californian desert
(i) Chindwin
(j) Artesian Basin of Australia
(k) Falkland islands
(l) Zagreb
(m) Strait of Malacca
(n) Himadri
(o) Diego Garcia

2. Discuss the methods of measuring the world economic development. Also discuss the problems or limitations associated with such methods. 60

3. (a) “Nature has discriminated between regions while endowing them with natural resources.” How far do you agree with this statement? 30
(b) Discuss the strategies that can reduce the global regional imbalances. 30

4. Discuss the causes that can lead to famine. Also discuss the remedies to avert such situation. 60

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15×4= 60
(a) Limits to growth
(b) Over-under-and optimum population
(c) Energy Crises
(d) Primate city and rank-size rule

6. Discuss the problems associated with urbanisation. Suggest remedies to o vercome such problems. 60

 7. (a) Discuss the environmental issues associated with rural settlements. 30
(b) Discuss the relevance of population theories in geography. 30

8. Discuss the causes and consequences of migration. 60

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper - VI : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Geography Optional Paper - VI

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological/ environmental/ cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Karakoram Pass
(b) Barak
(c) Rae Bareilly
(d) Ankleshwar
(e) Loktak Lake
(f) Barren Island
(g) Jorhat
(h) Dharmashala
(i) Kapurthala
(j) Rana Pratap Sagar
(k) Amarkantak
(l) Durgapur
(m) Gulf of Mannar
(n) Korba
(o) Salem

2. “Road, railway, waterway, airway and pipeline networks play complementary roles in regional development.” Comment 60

3. (a) Discuss the growing importance of ports on national and foreign trade. 30
(b) “Indian space programme is underway to achieve maturity.” Discuss 30

4. Discuss the developments in communication and information technology and their impacts on economy and society. 60

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Indian trade policy
(b) Historical perspective of Indian society
(c) Export processing zones
(d) Linguistic regions of India

6. (a) Identify and discuss the major tribes living in the major tribal areas of India 30
(b) Highlight the problems faced by the tribal people in India and suggest suitable measures to bring them into the mainstream of development. 30

7. (a) Examine the population problems in India and suggest some measures to overcome them. 30
(b) Discuss the relevance of health indicators. 30

8. (a) Spatially analyse the skewed sex ratio in India. Suggest practical measures, which can be incorporated by the policy makers. 30
(b) Examine the problems faced by the religious minorities in India. Suggest strategies to integrate them further with the mainstream.

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper - V : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Geography Optional Paper - V

1. On the outline map of World provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological/ environmental/ cultural innot more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Nairobi
(b) Geneva
(c) Pustaz
(d) Khartoum
(e) Bali
(f) Aghulas current
(g) Kara Kum
(h) Mekong
(i) Kosovo
(j) Kiruna
(k) Lake Winnipeg
(l) Bay of Biscay
(m) Asuncion
(n) Auckland
(o) Kinshasa

2. Discuss with examples the global and regional ecological changes and imbalances. Outline strategies to mitigate the ill effects arisen due to these changes. 60

3. (a) How far do you agree with the fact that conservation of biodiversity is important for sustainable development? Comment 30
(b) Discuss the importance of environment policies. 30

4. “Nature dictates the behaviour of man”. How far do you agree with this statement, discuss with suitable examples. 60

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Environment Education and Legislation
(b) Relevance of concept of areal differentiation in geography
(c) Principle of ecology
(d) Environmentalism

6. (a) Discuss the importance of Human Development Index. 30
(b) Critically analyse the methodology adopted by the UNDP to measure the Human Development Index. 30

7. Examine the influence of languages, religions and secularisation in shaping the geographical landscape of the earth. 60

8. (a) Give a vivid account of cultural regions of the world. 30
(b) “Radical and Welfare approaches in geography are complementary to each other.” Comment 30

UPSC Main: Optional Subjects

UPSC

CIVIL SERVICE MAIN EXAMINATION

List of Optional Subjects: Civil Service (Main) Examination

See Note below List of Optional Subjects

Agriculture Management
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science Mathematics
Anthropology Mechanical Engineering
Botany Medical Science
Chemistry Philosophy
Civil Engineering Physics
Commerce & Accountancy Political Science & International Relations
Economics Psychology
Electrical Engineering Public Administration
Geography Sociology
Geology Statistics
Indian History Zoology
Law  

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper-IV : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Geography Optional Paper - IV

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological /environmental/ cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4×15=60
(a) Ramganga
(b) Nathu la
(c) Farakka
(d) Simlipal
(e) Sambhar Lake
(f) Mount Abu
(g) Makum
(h) Panchmarhi
(i) Nashik
(j) Nokrek
(k) Haldia
(l) Tarapur
(m) Nilgiris
(n) Hunza
(o) Renukoot

2. (a) Discuss the green revolution and its socioeconomic and ecological implications. 30
(b) Assess as to how second green revolution can mitigate the ill effects of the first green revolution. 30

3. (a) Discuss the emerging patterns of agricultural regionalization in India. 30
(b) Assess as to how agricultural regionalization affects the food production and food security in India. 30

4. (a) Discuss the significance of dry farming in India 30
(b) Examine the problems and prospects of agrobased industries in middle & lower Ganga plain. 30

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) New industrial policies
(b) Assessment of Land capability and its utility in plan formulation.
(c) Examine the importance of Special Economic Zones
(d) Suggest measure to increase agricultural productivity in India

6. (a) Discuss the emerging patterns of industrial regionalisation in India. 30
(b) Assess as to how industrial regionalisation affects the economy and ecology in the country. 30

7. (a) Examine the problems and prospects of tourism including eco-tourism in India. 30
(b) Examine the role of animal husbandry in boosting the food production and food security in the country. 30

8. (a) “Government should disinvest its stake in public sector undertakings.” How far do you agree with this statement? 30
(b) Examine the role of industrial houses and complexes on economy and ecology of a region. 30

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper-III : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Geography Optional Paper - III

1. On the outline map of World provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ ecological/ environmental/ cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4 × 15 = 60
(a) Gran Chaco
(b) Shanghai
(c) Dead Sea
(d) Dublin
(e) Vienna
(f) Selvas
(g) Tarim basin
(h) Atacama desert
(i) Ebro
(j) Katanga
(k) Haiti
(l) Juba
(m) Strait of Gibraltar
(n) Maitri
(o) Seychelles

2. Discuss the global climatic changes and role and response of man in climatic changes. 60

3. (a) Discuss the heat budget of Earth and outline the factors that are adding dynamicity to it. 30
(b) Discuss the similarities and differences between temperate and tropical cyclones. 30

4. (a) Discuss the Koppen’s classification of world climate. 30
(b) How does atmospheric stability and instability affects the weather of a region? Discuss with suitable examples. 30

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Applied climatology
(b) Soil profile
(c) Hydrological cycle
(d) Major gene pool centres

6. (a) Discuss the classification and distribution of soil over the Earth’s surface. 30
(b) Discuss the benefits of social and agro forestry. 30

7. Discuss the factors leading to soil degradation and suggest measures to combat w ith this chronic problem. 60

8. (a) Discuss the factors influencing the world distribution of plants and animals. 30
(b) Discuss the problems of deforestation and conservation measures. 30

(Download) IAS (Main) Law Optional Paper : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Law Optional Paper

Answer any three of the following (Each answer should not exceed 200 words) 20 × 3 = 60

Q.1 (a) “Whenever there is a breach of duty there is a cause of action in tort, Discuss.
(b) The doctrine of “alternative danger” is the extension of the doctrine of contributory negligence” Discuss ?
(c) “In tort the plaintiff wins his case only when he proves as to what particular tort the defendant has committed against him” examine
(d) Which one of the following two expressions is correct and why ? ‘Law of Torts ‘ or ‘Law of Tort’

Q.2 (a) The liability of joint tort feasors is joint and several. In the light of This statement discuss who are joint tort feasors and their liability with the help of illustrations and case law? 30
(b) Discuss the rule of strict liability with the help of relevant case law. Is there any difference between strict liability and absolute liability 30

Q.3 (a) “In the tort of negligence the question as to whether the defendant has acted as a reasonable man or not depends on many factors” Discuss? 30
(b) The defendant establishes a flour mill in the heart of a city adjacent to the plaintiff’s house in a residential area. Running of the mill causes vibrations to the house and unpleasant noise. The plaintiff sues the defendant and claims damages and injunction. The defendant argues that he has a freedom to establish his own trade and business and that his flourmill is also beneficial to a large number of residents in the area ? Decide. 30

Q.4 (a) What are the exceptions to the rule of strict liability ? Briefly examine each of them. 20 × 3 = 60
(b) Distinguish between the following:
(i) Libel and slander.
(ii) Public nuisance and private nuisance.

Q.5 Answer any three of the following (Each answer should not exceed 200 words). 20 × 3 = 60
(a) “The maxim Res Ipsa Liquitor is not a rule of law but a rule of evidence” explain and illustrate?
(b) Voilenti non fit injuria Discuss?
(c) Doctrine of remoteness of damages is based on some principle for determining the liability of defendants ? Discuss.
(d) Absolute liability is a apex points of justice in which no any exception lies. Discuss

Q.6 (a) Civil wrong are always not actionable what a basic principle by which if is teslified is ?
(b) State cannot gets immunity in all acts under principles of sovereigntygive your answer with decided cases? 30

Q.7 (a) Res Ipsa loquitor lignite is presumption against the defendants discuss the law points which is involved above principle? 30
(b) Assault and battery is a tort as well as offence discuss it? 30

Q.8 Differentiate between torts of the following: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Melicious prosection and false imprisonment?
(b) tresspass and Nuisance?
(c) Private nuisance and public nuisance?
(d) Slander and Lebel?

(Download) IAS (Main) History Optional Paper - IV : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main History Optional Paper - IV

1. Comment on any three of the following statements in about 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) Mansabdari System.
(b) Mughal architecture.
(c) Pahari Painting.
(d) Emergence of Afghan power and war of Panipat, 1761

2. “The recurring famine were the inevitable consequence of the British policy and expose the real character of the paternal solitude for the peasantry on the part of the British administration.” Examine this statement critically. 60

3. (a) What is meant by ‘un-British rule’ in India? How did the Indian nationalists react against it? 30
(b) Write a critique on the impact of the Drain theory of Dadabhai Naoroji in the growth of economic nationalism. 30

4. (a) Define the policy of subsidiary alliance and doctrine of Lapse. 30.
(b) What were the factors behind British success against Indian powers?

5. Write a brief note on the following (not more than 100 words) 10 × 6 = 60
(a) Sawai Jai Sing the astronomer,
(b) Dara Sikoh
(c) Lord Auckland & Sindh
(d) Aryasamaj
(e) Mysore under Tipu Sultan
(f) Deindustrialisation

6. Discuss the main features of permanent settlement. Absentee landlordism was consequential feature of Bengal’s permanent land settlements. 60

7. (a) Characterise the main features of Indian Renaissance. 30
(b) The name of Raja Rammohan Roy stands foremost in the field of religious and social reforms. Elucidate. 30

8. What were the causes, nature and impact of the Revolt of 1857? Elaborate.? 60

(Download) IAS (Main) History Optional Paper - III : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main History Optional Paper - III

1. Mark the following places on the map supplied to you and write short descriptive notes on the places plotted by you on the map: 20 × 3 = 60
(i) Jalalabad
(ii) Daultabad
(iii) Kamtapura
(iv) Allahabad
(v) Mursidabad
(vi) Kara Manikpur,
(vii) Chanderi
(viii) Mandu
(ix) Multan
(x) Devgiri
(xi) Jaunpur
(xii) Sasaram
(xiii) Asirgarh
(xiv) Hampi
(xv) Ahmednagar
(xvi) Amarkot
(xvii) Fatehpur Sikri
(xviii) Golkunda
(xix) Ujjain
(xx) Raichur

2. Assess the impact of the market reforms of Alauddin Khalji on contemporary economy and society 60

3. Muhammad-Bin-Tughlak was an extraordinarily intelligent man but his moves were not well timed. Assess this statement. 60

4. Firoz-Shah-Tughlak was a weak emperor but somehow he managed to survive 40 years on the throne and became very popular for his concessions and public works. Analyse. 60

5. Write a short notes on following (not more than 100 words) 10 × 6 = 60
(a) Corpsfourty
(b) Amir Khusrau
(c) Ziauddin Barani
(d) Hemu
(e) Hasan Gangu
(f) Chaitanya

6. What were the causes of rise of the Bhakti and Sufi movement? What impact did Kabir and Nanak leave on Indian society and culture? 60

7. (a) Akbar built the mughal empire by enlisting the support of the Rajputs, Aurangzeb destroyed it by alienating the rajputs. Do you agree? 30
(b) Write a precise essay on Akbar religious policy 30

8. (a) What are the distinguishing components of the 18th century debate? 30
(b) Marathas were restricted by their geopolitical liimitation from becoming the premier power of India. Examine. 30

(Download) IAS (Main) History Optional Paper - II : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main History Optional Paper - II

1. Comment on any three of the following statements in about 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) Post Mauryan period was a ‘dark age’
(b) Sangam literature
(c) Sankaracharya’s Vedanta
(d) Kalhan the historian

2. Examine the information of fahien about political, religious, social and economic condition of India. How far is it true that Gupta period was ‘Golden Age’? 60

3. (a) Economic condition of India and Foreign trade after Guptas. Explain 30
(b) Harsh was the last great Hindu emperor. Analyse. 30

4. Muslim invasion was the cause of a political vacuum created by the triangular conflict between the Rashtrakutas, Gurjara Pratiharas and Palas. Explain. 30

5. Comment on any three of the following statements in about 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) Social stratification during Rajput period .
(b) Indian feudal system.
(c) Pallav Administration.
(d) Local self governance under the chollas.

6. (a) What were the causes of defeat of rajputas at hands of muslim invadors? 30
(b) Explain Various types of temple architecture. 30

7. Attempt a critical essay of the Indian science and civilization in the light of al-beruni’s writing what merits and drawbacks, do you find in his account? 60

8. (a) How did arrival of Islam in India effected Hindu religion and society? 30
(b) What was the situation in scientific and technological developments in India up to C. A. D 750. 30

(Download) IAS (Main) History Optional Paper - I : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main History Optional Paper - I

1. Mark the following places on the map supplied to you and write short descriptive notes on the places plotted by you on the map
(i) Harappa
(ii) Lothal
(iii) Mohenjodaro
(iv) Mirzapur
(v) Daimabad
(vi) Sannati
(vii) Koldhihwa
(viii) Mehargarh
(ix) Burzhome
(x) Dhollavira
(xi) Indraprastha
(xii) Ahichattra
(xiii) Kashi
(xiv) Gandhar
(xv) Magadh
(xvi) Kausambi
(xvii) Kapilvastu
(xviii) Kushinagar
(xix) Vaishali
(xx) Kundalvan

2. Discuss the sources and approaches to study early Indian history 60

3. Define distribution and significance of pre- Harappan era lead way back to neolithic phase with special reference to pastoral and agricultural communities. 60

4. (a) Analyse the causes of decline of Indus valley civilization. 30
(b) Was Indus Valley civilization an urban civilization? Give evidences in support of your view. 30

5. Write short essays in not more than 200 words each on any three of the following topics: 20 × 3 = 60
(a) The religion of Indus valley civilization
(b) Rigvedic religion
(c) Later vedic society
(d) Brahmans and Sanhitas

6. Teachings of Mahavira and Budha were the demand of the time. How did Budha was more practical in the approach than Mahavira? 60

7. (a) Discuss the process and causes of rise of Mahajanpadas. 30
(b) How did Magadh had an upper hand and started imperialism? 30

8. (a) Pair of chankaya-Chandragupta did the mega task of making a pan India empire under Mauryas first ever in Indian history. Explain. 30
(b) How did the policy of Ashoka was much ahead of its time and can get along very well in present foreign policy of any country? 30

(Sample Essay) My Vision of a Prosperous India by Vivek Kumar Singh

My Vision of a Prosperous India

By: Vivek Kumar Singh
Course Coordinator
Essay Programme
WWW.UPSCPORTAL.COM

The following poem by the great Indian poet Rabindranath Tagore adumbrates my vision of a prosperous INDIA .

  • Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high.
  • Where the knowledge is free
  • Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
  • By narrow domestic walls
  • Where the words come out from the depth of truth
  • Where the tireless striving stretches its arms towards the perfection
  • Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way
  • Into the dreary desert sand of dead habit
  • Where the mind is led forward by Thee
  • Into ever-widening thought and action
  • Into that heaven of freedom, my Father, let my country

India: once upon a time mockingly and on occasions disrespectfully referred to as “The Land of the Snake charmers, Elephants and Beggars”, “The Land of a Million Gods” etc., with the advent of time has undergone a stark metamorphosis & is now being referred to using flattering epithets such as “The Silicon Valley of the East”, “The Cradle of the IT industry” & “The World’s Outsourcing Hub”; clearly signaling India’s arrival on the ‘big’ stage in a ‘big’ way. As understanding of the historical traditions is very important in order to form a concrete futuristic vision of nation like India. India has a long history and as it is understood presently, it has covered a span of five thousand years since the period of its first known civilization. In a bid to provide my vision for and of India in the 21st century, I put forward my perception, views and opinions under different topics

UPSC: SCRA Examination 2012 - How to Apply

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Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination - 2012

  HOW TO APPLY (ONLINE)

Candidates may apply Online by using the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above mentioned website. The applicants are advised to submit only single application, however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he/she submits another/multiple applications, then he/she must ensure that application with the higher RID is complete in all respects like applicants details, examination centre, photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note that only the applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.

All candidates, whether already in Government Service, or in Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organisations or in private employment should submit their applications direct to the Commission. Persons already in Government service, whether in a permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under Public Enterprises are however, required to inform in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the Examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE 1 : While filling in his/her application form, the candidate should carefully decide about his/her choice for the centre. More than one application from a candidate giving different centres will not be accepted in any case. If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation. Candidates are not required to submit along with their applications any certificate in support of their claims regarding Age, Educational Qualifications, Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes etc. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination and Interview Test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written Examination or Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the Examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

(Notification) UPSC: Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination 2012

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Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination - 2012

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About The Examination:
Direct Recruitment to the Special Class Railway Apprentices' is made through the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on the basis of the Annual Competitive Examinations. The examination will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 29th January, 2012 in accordance with the Rules published by the Ministry of Railways (Railway Board) in the Gazette of India dated the 22nd October, 2011  Here we are providing the detailed description about the examination in categorised & lucid form.

We hope you all appreciate our this small effort.

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http://static.upscportal.com/images/arrow-blue.jpg Scheme & Syllabus
http://static.upscportal.com/images/arrow-blue.jpg Eligibility Conditions
http://static.upscportal.com/images/arrow-blue.jpg Fee Structure
http://static.upscportal.com/images/arrow-blue.jpg How to Apply
http://static.upscportal.com/images/arrow-blue.jpg Special Instruction for SCRA 2012
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Previous Year Papers

Year 2010

Year 2009

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http://static.upscportal.com/images/arrow-blue.jpg Our Resources
http://static.upscportal.com/images/arrow-blue.jpg See Official Notification:- In English  |  In Hindi
 
Disclaimer: We are not responsible for any damage done by this given information. However we have tried our best to provide accurate information to the candidates. If the above information creates any confusion, then please refer to the original notification.

UPSC: SCRA Examination - Fee Structure

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Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

  FEE STRUCTURE OF SCRA EXAMINATION:

Candidates applying Online (excepting Female/SC/ST/PH candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred Only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.

UPSC: SCRA Examination - Eligibility Conditions

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Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

  ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR SCRA:

(I) Nationality:

A candidate must be either:
(a) A citizen of India, or
(b) a subject of Nepal, or
(c) a subject of Bhutan, or
(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India. or (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, The United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia or from Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.

(II) Age Limits :

(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 17 years and must not have attained the age of 21 years on 1st January, i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd January, 1991 and not later than 1st January, 1995.
(b) The upper age limit is relaxable as follows:
(i) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.

(ii) upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates. ‘‘The closing date fixed for the receipt of the application will be treated as the date for determining the OBC status (including that of creamy layer) of the candidates.’’

(iii) upto a maximum of five years if a candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from the 1st January, 1980 to the 31st day of December, 1989.

(iv) upto a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof:

(v) upto a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/ SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st January and have been released(1) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st January) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, or (2) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service, or (3) on invalidment.

(vi) Upto a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service as on 1st January and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three month's notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.

UPSC: SCRA Examination Syllabus (Paper - 3)

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Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

SYLLABUS (Paper - 3)

MATHEMATICS:
1. Algebra: Concept of a set, Union and Intersection of sets, Complement of a set, Null set, Universal set and Power set, Venn diagrams and simple applications. Cartesian product of two sets, relation and mapping — examples, Binary operation on a set — examples. Representation of real numbers on a line.
Complex numbers: Modulus, Argument, Algebraic operations on complex numbers. Cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers, Conversion of a decimal number to a binary number and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Summation of series involving A.P., G.P., and H.P.. Quadratic equations with real co- fficients. Quadratic expressions: extreme values. Permutation and Combination, Binomial theorem and its applications.

Matrices and Determinants: Types of matrices, equality, matrix addition and scalar multiplication - properties. Matrix multiplication — non-commutative and distributive property over addition. Transpose of a matrix, Determinant of a matrix. Minors and Cofactors. Properties of determinants. Singular and non-singular matrices. Adjoint and Inverse of a square-matrix, Solution of a system of linear equations in two and three variables- limination method, Cramers rule and Matrix inversion method (Matrices with m rows and n columns where m, n < to 3 are to be considered). Idea of a Group, Order of a Group, Abelian Group. Identitiy and inverse elements- Illustration by simple examples.

UPSC: SCRA Examination Syllabus (Paper - 2)

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Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

SYLLABUS (Paper - 2)

(I) PHYSICS:

  • Length measurements using vernier, screw gauge, spherometer and optical lever.
  • Measurement of time and mass.
  • Straight line motion and relationships among displacement, velocity and acceleration.
  • Newton's Laws of Motion, Momentum, impulse, work, energy and power.
  • Coefficient of friction.
  • Equilibrium of bodies under action of forces. Moment of a force, couple. Newton’s Law of Gravitation. Escape velocity. Acceleration due to gravity.
  • Mass and Weight; Centre of gravity, Uniform circular motion, centripetal force, simple Harmonic motion. Simple pendulum.
  • Pressure in a fluid and its variation with depth. Pascal’s Law. Principle of Archimedes.
  • Floating bodies, Atmospheric pressure and its measurement.
  • Temperature and its measurement. Thermal expansion, Gas laws and absolute temperature.
  • Specific heat, latent heats and their measurement. Specific heat of gases.
  • Mechanical equivalent of heat. Internal energy and First law of thermodynamics, Isothermal and adiabatic changes. Transmission of heat; thermal conductivity. Wave motion; Longitudinal and transverse waves. Progressive and stationary waves, Velocity of sound in gas and its dependence on various factors. Resonance phenomena (air columns and strings).
  • Reflection and refraction of light. Image formation by curved mirrors and lenses, Microscopes and telescopes. Defects of vision.
  • Prisms, deviation and dispersion, Minimum deviation. Visible spectrum. Field due to a bar magnet, Magnetic moment, Elements of Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetometers.
  • Dia, para and ferromagnetism.
  • Electric charge, electric field and potential, Coulomb’s Law.
  • Electric current; electric cells, e.m.f. resistance, ammeters and voltmeters. Ohm’s law; resistances in series and parallel, specific resistance and conductivity. Heating effect of current.
  • Wheatstone’s bridge, Potentiometer.
  • Magnetic effect of current; straight wire, coil and solenoid electromagnet; electric bell.
  • Force on a current-carrying conductor in magnetic field; moving coil galvanometers; conversion to ammeter or voltmeter.
  • Chemical effects of current; Primary and storage cells and their functioning, Laws of electrolysis.
  • Electromagnetic induction; Simple A.C. and D.C. generators. Transformers, Induction coil, Cathode rays, discovery of the electron, Bohr model of the atom. Diode and its use as a rectifier.
  • Production, properties and uses of X-rays.
  • Radioactivity; Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays.
  • Nuclear energy; fission and fusion, conversion of mass into energy, chain reaction.

UPSC: SCRA Examination Syllabus (Paper - 1)

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Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination

SYLLABUS (Paper - 1)

(I) ENGLISH: The questions will be designed to test the candidates' understanding and command of the language.

(II) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE: The questions will be designed to test a candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him/her and its application to society. The standard of answers to questions should be as expected of students of standard 12 or equivalent.

Man and his environment: Evolution of life, plants and animals, heredity and environment-Genetics, cells, chromosomes, genes.
Knowledge of the human body-nutrition, balanced diet, substitute foods, public health and sanitation including control of epidemics and common diseases. Environmental pollution and its control. Food adulteration, proper storage and preservation of food grains and finished products, population explosion, population control. Production of food and raw materials. Breeding of animals and plants, artificial insemination, manures and fertilizers, crop protection measures, high yielding varieties and green revolution, main cereal and cash crops of India.

Solar system and the earth. Seasons, Climate, Weather, Soil—its formation, erosion. Forests and their uses. Natural calamities cyclones, floods, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions. Mountains and rivers and their role in irrigation in India. Distribution of natural resources and industries in India. Exploration of under—ground minerals including Oil Conservation of natural resources with particular reference to the flora and fauna of India.

History, Politics and Society in India: Vedic, Mahavir, Budhdha, Mauryan, Sunga, Andhra, Kushan. Gupta ages (Mauryan Pillars, Stupa Caves, Sanchi, Mathura and Gandharva Schools, Temple architecture, Ajanta and Ellora). The rise of new social forces with the coming of Islam and establishment of broader contacts. Transition from feudalism to capitalism. Opening of European contacts. Establishment of British rule in India. Rise of nationalism and national struggle for freedom culminating in Independence.

Constitution of India and its characteristic features: Democracy, Secularism, Socialism, equality of opportunity and Parliamentary form of Government.

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Comprehensive Paper - II : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Comprehensive Paper - II

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “The volatile competitive environment of both private and public organizations is subject to fundamental global-local debate”.
(b) Comment: “…………..Politics and Principles have seldom gone together……………..if at all they did, it was generally in the nature of an
exception, or that the principle itself was distorted to suit the political objective”.
(c) Comment: “Information is regarded as the oxygen of democracy. It invigorates where it percolates”.
(d) Comment: “Democratic policing is both a process and an outcome”.

2. Discuss the role of NGOs as the Non-State Actor, Government-NGOs relations and problems affecting the performance of NGOs in India. 60 Marks

3. Discuss relevance of development issues to the environment and, legislative measures and administrative action of the Government of India for the protection of overall environment. 60 Marks

4. Disaster management studies have again and again highlighted the magical transformation of administration from a soulless machine to a committed, humane and cohesive enterprise. During the course of relief management and rehabilitation ,the entire machine of governance functioned in unison. Explain 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “ The fallout of ‘globalization’ in India’s case is being closely watched”.
(b) Comment: “New localism emphasizes the devolution of managerial power over political power”.
(c) Comment: “Social Audit is basically a scrutiny  of the public utility against its social relevance”
(d) Comment: “Civil servants are the servants of the state and not of the government.”

6. Discuss techniques of centralization and conflict of forces within Union-State-Local relations in India. 60 Marks

7. Discuss the points of similarities and dissimilarities between Sarkaria Commission and Punchhi Commission on Centre-state relations and also explain to what extent Punchhi Commission modified, corrected and followed the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission. 60 Marks

8. Write short notes on the following: 10 × 6 = 60 Marks
(a) Report of the Secretariat Reorganisation Committee(1947)
(b) Report on the Reorganisation of the Machinery of Government(1949)
(c) Mayor-in-Council form of Urban Local Government
(d) Politics and Administration with special reference to city management
(e) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee(1963-66)
(f) National Commission on Urbanisation(1985)

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Comprehensive Paper-I : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Comprehensive Paper - I

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “Market emerges as the new god to reorder both domestic and international economy”.
(b) Comment: “New Public Management, an antithesis approach to Development Administration.”
(c) Comment: “Role of Mass Media in promoting accountability and Control”.
(d) Comment: “ The public-private partnership model has emerged as the favoured model of project execution in India”.

2. Write short notes on the following: 15 × 4 = 60 Marks
(a) Public-Private dichotomy
(b) Environment and Organisation
(c) Matrix Organisation
(d) The Garbage Can Model

3. Discuss the development of regulatory commissions and case for and against its independence. 60 Marks

4. What do you mean by Participative Management? Critically examine the various proponents of Participative Management theory. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “Development here implies the effort for the transformation of an unequal ,unjust, socio-economic system into a system which is capable of restoring the dignity and self-respect of everyman”.
(b) Comment: “Anti-development thesis basically stems out from F W Riggs‘s diffraction idea.”
(c) Comment: “There is no empirical evidence tosuggest a causal relationship between a balanced polity and superior administrative performance.”
(d) Comment: “Policy science,which is emerging as a separate field,is encountering many problems, hindering its growth”.

6. From Macaulay committee to Y K Alagh committee discuss the evolution of recruitment policy and selection methods in Civil services examinations in India. 60 Marks

7. Write short notes on the following: 15 × 4 = 60Marks
(a) Critical Path Method
(b) Postmodernism and Public Administration
(c) E-Government Vs. E-Governance
(d) Women and development

8. Discuss the nature, scope and significance of Public Policy,and gaps and problems in Public Policy Implementation, and approaches and techniques of Policy Monitoring and Policy Evaluation. 60 Marks

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper - VIII : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - VIII

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: ‘The role of public sector has been changing tremendously in the context of liberalization”.
(b) Comment: ‘The departmental public undertakings have necessarily been placed under the full control of the government and parliament”.
(c) Comment:” National Development Council, it seems, is like a super-cabinet”.
(d) Comment:” Although District Planning Committee and Metropolitan Planning Committees have been provided, those remain mostly on paper”.

2. Discuss the major problems of management and working of Public Sector Undertaking is India . Give suggestions in the light of liberalization policy to improve their performance. 60 Marks

3. Discuss the changing role of Planning Commission in the era of ‘Indicative Planning’. 60 Marks

4. Discuss the planning procedures and problems at the state and sub-state levels. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: ‘After the creation of the Planning Commission, the role of the Finance Commission has started diminishing’.
(b) Comment: “Effective implementation of plan projects has been the weakest link in the chain of the entire planning program”.
(c) Comment: “The CAG is the friend, philosopher and guide of Public Accounts Committee.”
(d) Comment: “Public Accounts Committee of Parliament is the real watch dog of the financer of Union Government.”

6. (a) “Audit provides a healthy safeguard against public money going down the drain.” Explain
(b) “The role of CAG is a limited one” Elucidate.30 × 2 = 60 Marks

7. Discuss the various means available for legislative control over Public Administration. What have you to suggest to make legislative control over public administration healthy and purposeful? 60 Marks

8. “In so far as budgeting is successful or otherwise ,it depends not only on its internal workings but upon the environment in which it operates.” Explain. 60 Marks

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper - VII : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - VII

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “Central Services are more `All-India’ in character than are the All-India Services”.
(b) Comment: “The institution of ‘Lok Pal’ in India is likely to confront a different set of problems as compared to the set of problems experienced by the ‘Lokayuktas’ in the past.”
(c) Comment: “One of the most distinctive characteristics of Indian Administrative Service is its multipurpose character”.
(d) Comment: “Generalism in Civil Service is a powerful bulwark against committed bureaucracy”.

2 (a) Discuss the recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission on reforming the Civil services. 30 Marks
(b) “Corruption is more of an environmental than an administrative problem”Discuss. 30 Marks

3. What do you understand by ‘People’s participation in administration’? Suggest measures to sensitise administrators to citizen’s grievances and enlist co-operation from voluntary agencies. 60 Marks

4. It is argued that the recruitment and training of All India and Central Services have not kept pace with the changing needs and time. Give suggestions for improving these processes in order to make administrators more effective, committed and honest. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “Maintenance of law and order is a State subject but the Union Government can deploy armed forces in any state”.
(b) Comment: “The word ‘Police’ in the title of the Central Reserve Police Force and the Indo- Tibetan Border Police is a misnomer.”
(c) Comment: “Most administrative reforms have a political cost.”
(d) Comment: “Administrative Reforms in India are not necessarily the result of the recommendations of any specific committees or commissions”.

6. “Criminalisation of politics and administration in India has been extended to politicization of criminals”. Discuss. 60 Marks

7. Do you agree with the view that the Indian reform effort has been conservative or orthodox ,not breaking radically but only modifying the existing structures and process? Give arguments. 60 Marks

8. Write brief recommendations of following: 15 × 4 = 60 Marks
(a) Surinder Nath Committee
(b) B N Yugandhar Committee
(c) P C Hota Committee
(d) Punchhi Commission

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper - VI : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - VI

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment:” The Governor of a State wears two hats, and therefore, dilemmas have arisen in practice”.
(b) Comment: “It is a major challenge to balance the role of District Collector with the powers of democratic bodies”.
(c) Comment: “District Administration is like a small tortoise carrying the load of an elephant”.
(d) Comment: “The legislative and financial relations between Union and State governments are more biased towards Union government”.

2. The role of local self-government in the state administration is of considerable importance. Evaluate the statement in the context of the changes after 73rd and 74th amendments. 60 Marks

3 (a) “State Directorates are administrative and implementation units assisting the Department functioning from the Secretariat’. Explain. 30 Marks
(b) “In the Chief Secretary, the State Government has an officer whose counterpart does not available in the Union Government”. Elucidate. 30 Marks

4. Critically review the evolving relationship between the district magistrate and the superintendent of police in the field of law and order management in a district”. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “Special development programmes seek to solve special problems, but their successful implementation depends on complex inter-institutional linkages”.
(b) Comment: ‘NGOs are fast replacing the government in the implementation of a large number of programmes’.
(c) Comment: “As such for district plan to be meaningful, there has to be a District list”
(d) “The District Rural Development Agency is presently serving as the nodal agency of rural development at the district level”. Comment.

6. “Do you think that the Constitutionalisation of three-tier Federalism in India will be a viable model for a future liberal democracy.” Describe 60 Marks

7. “The position of Governors towards exercising their discretion and powers has considerably changed after 1967”.Discuss. 60 Marks

8. “The Chief Minister symbolizes ruling power structure and is the real executive head of the State Government.” Discuss the above statement in the light of his position in present Coalition Government. 60 Marks

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper-V : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - V

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “The Arthashastra is India’s oldest complete text on Public Administration”.
(b) Comment: “Kautilya’s Arthashastra has significant relevance to the contemporary Indian administration”.
(c) Comment: ‘The Mughal Administrative system was a military rule by nature and was centralized despotism”.
(d) Comment: “The period of British rule generated most of the structural and behavioral values of Indian Administration not by imitation but through interaction”.

2. Indian federalism is described as federal in form but unitary in spirit”.Discuss. 60 Marks

3. ‘The Indian Constitution considerably influences the nature, role and structure of Indian administration”. Elucidate. 60 Marks

4. “The Central Secretariat is a policy formulating coordinating and supervisory agency besides being the principal executive agency of the government”. Explain. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3=60 Marks
(a) Comment: “The use of the word `Socialist” in the Indian Constitution has become redundant in the context of the liberalized economy”.
(b) Comment: “In India, Prime Minister carries de facto powers of the Union Government.”
(c) Comment: “ In India, President has some special powers where he has to act upon his discretion”.
(d) Comment: “ Indian Constitution conferred supreme power to the President”.

6. “The Secretariat system of work has lent balance, consistency and continuity to the administration and serves as a nucleus for the total machinery of a ministry. The concept of Secretariat and Directorate method of working revived the hidden differences between Generalist Vs Specialist” .Explain. 60 Marks

7. “Rather than describing the Prime Minister’s position through phrases, it is better to examine how the office of the Prime Minister has actually evolved over time “. Explain 60 Marks

8. (a) The Planning Commission should reinvent itself a systems reforms commission in the backdrop of changed global domestic scenarios. Discuss 30 Marks
(b) “The essential purpose of Cabinet Committee is to relieve the cabinet of some burden of work”. Discuss. 30 Marks

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper-IV : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - IV

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Comment: “Executive control over administration is much more real.”
(b) Comment: “The basic question in the relationship between political and permanent executives is the separation of facts and values at the operational level.”
(c) Comment: Recruitment is the backbone of Public Administration.
(d) Comment: Civil Service neutrality is thing of past.

2. To what extent has the human relations movement contributed to the knowledge and practice within the field of personnel administration? 60 Marks

3. Describe the methods by which the Public Accounts Committee and the Estimates Committee control administration. 60 Marks

4. Examine the government budget as an instrument of public policy and a tool of legislative control. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Auditing in Government is an exercise in post-mortem.Comment.
(b) Whitleyism represents a typical British response to Trade Unionism by Public Servants. Comment.
(c) The entire process of development and nation  building hinges on the effectiveness of administrative reforms. Comment.
(d) The budget is an instrument of Coordination. Comment.

6. Bring out the importance of O & M. Do you think that there should be a separate O & M organization? 60 Marks

7. Analyse the constitutional ,political and operational dimensions of employer –employee relations. What are your suggestions to bring about a satisfactory relationship between them? 60 Marks

8. Explain the principles involved in the preparation of budget. Asses the scope of budgetary techniques in financial management. 60 Marks

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper-III : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - III

1 Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) “The distinction between line and staff is relative rather than absolute.” Comment.
(b) “ In a hierarchy every employee tends to rise to his level of incompetence”. Comment.
(c) “Autonomy and accountability in Public enterprises cannot walk together.” Comment.
(d) “Dicey was wrong not only in his concept of the rule of law, but he also overlooked the significance of the administrative law.” – Comment.

2 (a) A Public Corporation is a combination of public ownership, public accountability and business managements for public ends.Discuss. 30 Marks
(b) Headquarter and field relationship determines the tender of implementation of programmes. Discuss. 30 Marks

3. Describe the changing profile of development administration and identify its efforts towards people’s empowerment and environmental concern. 60 Marks

4. Define Public Policy. How does its formulation and implementation involve participation by administrators, voluntary agencies and pressure groups in a democracy? 60 Marks 

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) Delegated Legislation is not absolute. Comment.
(b) Committed bureaucracy is unsuitable in a Parliamentary democracy. Comment.
(c) Public Policy is what politics is about. Substantiate.
(d) Rigg’s key concepts have altered the researcher that Weberian bureaucracy might not be entirely predictive of behaviour in most Third World Countries. Comment.

6. Bazar Canteen Model developed by Riggs, truly explains emerging nexus among politicians, traders, criminals and bureaucrats in India. Examine critically.

7. Effectiveness and Utility of Central and State Administrative Tribunals. Discuss. 60 Marks

8. Discuss the major conceptual approaches to the study of Comparative Public Administration and explain how Marx Weber is considered to be the foremost mentor in the field. 60 Marks

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper-II : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - II

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) “Mary Parker Follett was far ahead of her times.” Comment
(b) “ ‘Consensus’ and ‘Unanimity’ are used as styles in decision – making.” Comment.
(c) “Administrative efficiency is enhanced by keeping at a minimum the number of organizational levels through which a mater must pass before it is acted upon.” – (Herbert A. Simon). Comment.
(d) “Modifications of basic findings of Elton Mayo by Behavioural Scientists.” Comment.

2. Critically examine the models of Max Weber and Chester I. Barnard with reference to ‘bureaucratic authority.’ 60 Marks

3 (a) Examine the basic postulates of the Human Relations Theory and show how far it differs from the classical theory of organizations. 30 Marks
(b) Rabble hypothesis cannot be totally rejected in present metro society of India. Analyze.30 Marks

4. ”Frederick Herzberg’s Two-factor theory is more or less an extension of Abraham Maslow’s theory of motivation.” Explain. What are the main reasons behind the low motivation level of civil servants in India? Analyze the reasons with reference to researches of Maslow and Herzberg. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) A manager must compare traditional and modern theories of management before deriving his own way.Comment in the light of McGregor’s view.
(b) “Motivation theory is not synonymous with behaviour theory.”Comment.
(c) “Communication is authority”.’ Comment.
(d) “Morale and Productivity go hand in hand and higher the morale, higher the productivity.” Comment

6. What is morale? State its significance and suggest methods to foster and sustain morale in an organization. 60 Marks

7. Examine the view that Systems theory, despite its promises to the contrary, followed similar patterns that characterized the Structural Classical theories. 60 Marks

8. The ‘decision-making scheme, and ‘satisfying model’ of Herbert A Simon is the major component of administrative theory. Examine the respective roles of facts and values in the decision-making process. It is possible to make value – free decision in government system? 60 Marks

Recruitment of Chemist at Haryana Public Service Commission, Oct., 2011

Haryana Public Service Commission

In partial modification of Advertisement No. 12(3) for recruitment to 3 posts of Chemist (Group-B) in Public Health Engineering Department Haryana published
on 16.12.2010 in The Tribune and Times of India, it is announced for the general information of the candidates that the number of posts has been increased from 3 to 11 and the break up of posts is as under:-

Location: 
SUBJECTS: 
UPSC Services: 
GENERAL: 

(Notification) UPSC: Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination 2012

http://upscportal.com/civilservices/images/upsc.JPG

Union Public Service Commission

Special Class Railway Apprentices Examination 2012

An examination for selection of candidates for appointment as Special Class Apprentices in Mechanical Department of Indian Railways will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 29th January, 2012 in accordance with the Rules published by the Ministry of Railways (Railway Board) in the Gazette of India dated the 22nd October, 2011 at the following centres :

 ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS - SCRA 2012 :

Nationality
A candidate must be either:
(a) A citizen of India, or
(b) a subject of Nepal, or
(c) a subject of Bhutan, or
(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India.

Age Limits: A candidate must have attained the age of 17 years and must not have attained the age of 21 years on 1st January, 2012,

Educational Qualifications:
For admission to the examination a candidate:

1. Must have passed in the first or second division, the Intermediate or an equivalent Examination of a University or Board approved by the Government of India with Mathematics and at least one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as subjects of the examination. Graduates with Mathematics and at least one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as their degree subjects may also apply.

Note II : Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them eligible to appear at the Examination but have not been informed of the results, may apply for admission to the examination.

Mere issue of admission certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Commission take up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/ Personality Test.

 FEE - SCRA 2012:

(Current Affairs) Person in News | October: 2011

Person in News

  • Helle Thorning-Schmidt
  • Mustafa Abdul-Jalil
  • Major General (retd) BC Khanduri
  • Shah Rukh Khan
  • Anil Kumar Chaudhary
  • Dinesh Kumar Likhi
  • Wangari Maathai
  • Mansur Ali Khan Pataudi
  • Burhanuddin Rabbani
  • Gursharan Singh (Bhajji)
  • C Achuthan
  • Vasant Sathe
  • T.K. Govinda Rao
  • Gautam Rajadhyaksha pas sed
  • Ganapati Sthapati
  • D.U. Sastry
  • Justice Shivaraj Patil
  • Tim Nielsen
  • Abu Salem
  • Miss Universe 2011, Leila Lope
  • Abhinav Bindra & MS Dhoni
  • Eddie Murphy

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (Science & Technology) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies Science & Technology Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer) 20×2=40
(a) What do you understand by the term Neutrinos? Bring out the position of India in Neutrino physics. Bring out the application of Neutrino technology.
(b) What do you understand by the term breeder reactor? Assess the contributions made by the fast Breeder Test Reactor at Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) in Kalpakkam. Bring out Homi Bhabha’s Vision for the Country’s nuclear electricity programme.

2. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each. 12×2=24
(a) What do you understand by Hap Map project? Why Hap Map project has been in news recently?
(b) What is Cryogenics? Bring out the use of cryogenics.
(c) What do you understand by Dark energy?

3. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each. 12×2=24
(a) What do you understand by the term Reprocessing of Nuclear fuel? Bring out the Significance of the Reprocessing accord signed between Indian and the U.S.
(b) What is International Cancer Genome Consortium (ICGS)? Bring out the India’s Contribution to ICGC.
(c) Write a short note on India’s Aircraft Carriers.

4. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each.
(a) What is S band Spectrum? Bring out the importance of S band spectrum.
(b) Write a short note on Indian human Space flight program.
(c) What is GAGAN? Bring out the uses of GAGAN.

5. Write brief but precise notes on any six of the following, you answer should not exceed 50 words in each case. 5×6=30
(a) Trsnsgenesis
(b) Edison 2
(c) Google’s new prius
(d) Looxcie
(e) Dragon Capsule
(f) Resourcesat-2
(g) Phishing

6. Answer any three of the following in about 150 words each. 12×3=36
(a) What do you understand by the term “Cloud Computing” Bring out the uses of cloud Computing.
(b) What do you understand by the term New Delhi metallo - beta - lactamase-1 (NDM-1). Write about Superbug.
(c) What do you understand by the term Nuclear triad? Do you thing India is N-triad?
(d) Write about Bhuvan and its features.
(e) Write a short note on IMEI number.

7. Answer any five of the following in about 150 words each. 12×5=60
(a) What is a Nuclear Submarine? How far India has developed this technology?
(b) What is cluster Munitions? Write about the convention on cluster Munitions.
(c) What is AWACS? Write about India’s AWACS.
(d) Bring out the details regarding National Geospatial Data Authority.
(e) What is Biometrics? How a Biometric System can operate?
(f) Give a brief account of Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project.

8. Answer each of the following briefly but precisely. Each answer should be less than 50 words.
(a) C 2 D Project
(b) Fiber – optic Communication
(c) INS Vikrant
(d) Vaxiflu – S
(e) Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
(f) Garima

9. Write brief notes on each of the following in about 20 words each: 2×8=16
(a) OSDD
(b) LHC
(c) RISORINE
(d) Pulsars
(e) GNSS
(f) ATV
(g) Ocean sat-II
(h) CCS

10. Write brief notes on each of the following. Each answer should not exceed 20 words. 2×8=16
(a) TERC gene.
(b) Anchor Babies.
(c) Martin Jetpack
(d) WWW.
(e) 3 G.
(f) FOSS.
(g) Middle Ware.
(h) Bug.

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (International) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies International Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer): 20×2=40
(a) What do you understand by the term Currency War? Bring out the recent Controversy between China and US over Currency depreciation?
(b) Trace the transformation of BRIC into BRICS. Bring out the implications of expanded cooperation among BRICS to the world.

2. Answer the following about 150 words each: 12×2=24
(a) Comment on the present status of Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT)
(b) Write about new START Treaty and its positive impact on US-Russia relations.

3. Answer the following in about 150 words each: 12×2=24
(a) Bring out the reason why Gulf of Aden has been in the news.
(b) Trace the origin of ETA (Basque Homeland and Freedom) why ETA has been in news recently.

4. Answer the following in about 150 words each.
(a) Write about (Ground Zero Mosque) Park 51 project.
(b) Give a detailed account of Disarmament treaties.

5. Write brief but precise notes on any six of the following. Your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case. 5×6=30
(a) GNH
(b) Treaty of Pelindaba
(c) Kanishka report
(d) Banana Republic
(e) Schengen Area.
(f) Lisbon Treaty.
(g) Kimberley process Certification Scheme.

6. Answer the following in about 150 words each. 12×3=36
(a) Why Arctic Sea route between Europe and Asia was in news in August 2010.
(b) Write about ICJS Judgment on Kosovo’s independence and write your views on implications of this judgment.
(c) Write a short note on Russia, Kazakhstan, Belarus Customs Union.

7. Answer any five of the following in about 150 words each. 12×5=60
(a) What is Perestroika? Bring out its implication.
(b) Southern Sudanese independence referendum, 2011.
(c) The 2011 Egyptian revolution
(d) The 2011 Libyan civil war.
(e) European Austerity Measures.
(f) Tunisia’s Political Crisis.

8. Answer each of the following briefly but precisely. Each answer should be less than 50 words. 5×6=30
(a) IRENA.
(b) IONS.
(c) WIPO.
(d) Asia Pacific Community.
(e) World Anti Doping Agency.
(f) UNSC.

9. Write brief notes on each of the following in about 20 words each. 2×8=16
(a) Twitter
(b) Wikipedia
(c) OHCHR.
(d) FMCT.
(e) ICTT.
(f) IWD.
(g) WEF.
(h) Interpol.

10. Write brief notes on each of the following. Each answer should not exceed 20 words. 2×8=16
(a) Confrence on Disarmament
(b) Golden Globe Awards
(c) Crystal Award
(d) Elysee Treaty
(e) ICC-IMB
(f) OSCE
(g) SCOPE
(h) Global Competitiveness Report.

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (India & The World) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies India & The World Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer) 20×2=40
(a) What do you understand by convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage? Why this Convention is important for Indo U.S. relations?
(b) Bring out the fishing conflict in Indo Sri Lankan waters. Trace the origin of Katchatheevu island dispute between India and Sri Lanka.

2. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each: 12×2=24
(a) Zangmu project and Sino-Indian relations.
(b) The Trans-Afghanistan Pipeline (TAP) or Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline.
(c) What is a hot line Commission System? Bring out the Countries with which India has hot line communication system.

3. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each: 12×2=24
(a) What do you understand by Kishenganga dispute? Bring out the current status of Kishenganga dispute?
(b) Bring out the salient features of Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with Japan.
(c) Discuss Indo Russia relation with reference to nuclear agreement.

4. Answer the following in about 150 words each: 12×2=24
(a) Write about India-France Civil nuclear deal and bring out the Significance of this deal.
(b) Write a short note on prime minister’s Global Advisory Council of oversees Indians.

5. Write brief but precise notes on any six of the following your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case.
(a) India-U.S. Shale gas exploration initiatives.
(b) Global INK.
(c) Green Politics.
(d) NSG.
(e) Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
(f) Indian Community Welfare Fund.
(g) Back channel diplomacy.

6. Answer the following in about 150 words each: 12×3=36
(a) US-India Economic and Financial Partnership.
(b) Indo-Canadian Cooperation in the atomic sector.
(c) The Indus Waters Treaty.

7. Answer any five of the following in about 150 words each.
(a) SAARC Food Bank.
(b) Write a brief account on National Security Strategy 2010 of the U.S. and its relationship with India.
(c) SAARC Development fund.
(d) The Pan-African E-network project for Telemedicine.
(e) Mc Mahon Line and Indo-Chinese relation.
(f) South Asian University.

8. Answer each of the following briefly but precisely. Each answer should be lern than 50 words. 5×6=30
(a) Significance of Indian’s membership with SCO.
(b) Obama-Singh 21st century knowledge Initiative.
(c) Water Wars.
(d) HTCG.
(e) Indo-Bangladesh relations.
(f) India-Vietnam relations.

9. Write brief notes on each of the following in about 20 words each: 2×8=16
(a) OIFC.
(b) Global INK.
(c) OCI.
(d) KIP.
(e) SPDC.
(f) SSA.
(g) OWRC.
(h) ICWF.

10. Write brief notes on each of the following. Each answer should not exceed 20 words each. 2×8=16
(a) ICOE
(b) ICWA.
(c) ICCR.
(d) Public diplomacy
(e) Disarmament and International Security Affairs.
(f) India-West Asia.
(g) India- UN.

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (Comprehensive) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies Comprehensive Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer) 20×2=40
(a) Explain how economic policies of Britishers led to the transformation of India’s economy into a colonial economy.
(b) Explain how the Socio-religious reforms contribute to the national awakening in India?

2. Answer the following about 150 words each: 12×2=24
(a) Bring out the Salient features of the Public features of the Public Interest Disclosure and protection to Persons Making the Disclosures Bill, 2010.
(b) Bring out the Salient features of the Prevention of  Torture Bill, 2010.

3. Answer any of the following in about 150 words each. 12×2=24
(a) What do you understand by Contempt of Parliament.
(b) How the Political Parties in India are classified as state parties or National Parties or both by the Election Commission of India.

4. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each.
(a) Give a brief account of National Water Mission approved by the Prime Minister Council on climate change.
(b) Give a brief account of Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor.
(c) What do you understand by the term Paid News?  Give some recent example regarding this.

5. Write brief but precise notes on any six of the following. Your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case. 5×6=30
(a) Raja Ravi Varma.
(b) The Chernoby disaster.
(c) Raja Raja Cholan.
(d) Durga bai Deshmukh.
(e) Corporate faming.
(f) The South Pole.
(g) Geothermal Power.

6. Answer any there of the following in about 150 words each. 12×3=36
(a) Bring out the Salient features of the forward contracts (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2010.
(b) What do you understand by the term Teaser Loan? Why it has been in the news recently?
(c) What is a micro finance institution? Bring out the recommendations of Male-gam Panel.

7. Answer any five of the following in about 150 words each: 12×5=60
(a) What do you understand by the term Strategic Sale of a Company? Bring out the government with reference to profit making public sector undertaking (PSUs)
(b) What is Human Papillomavirus (HPV)? Write about recent Controversies associated with HPV vaccines project in India.
(c) Bring out Salient features of the recent draft on protection of children from sexual offences Bill, 2010.
(d) Bring out the N.R. Madhava Menon Committee recommendations on Autonomy of Central Educational Institutions.
(e) Write about the National e-government plan (NeGP) and its status in India.
(f) Bring out the recommendations of Vaidhyanathan Committee on Agriculture Statistics.

8. Answer each of the following briefly but precisely. Each answer should be leess than 50 words. 5×6=30
(a) UMPP
(b) RTI
(c) Sanchar Shaktri
(d) Diclofenac drug Controversy.
(e) Gram Nyayalayas Act.
(f) Double Jeopardy.

9. Write brief notes on each of the following in about 20 words each. 2×8=16
(a) Green bonus.
(b) Electronic waste.
(c) Green diesel.
(d) Codex Alimentarius
(e) Ramsar Convention.
(f) RBI.
(g) Anchor Investors.
(h) EET.

10. Write brief notes on each of the following in about 20 words each. 2×8=16
(a) Liu Xiaobo.
(b) Salva Kiir.
(c) Mother Teresa.
(d) Bobby Jindal.
(e) Binayak Sen.
(f) Homi Selhna.
(g) L.C. Sain.
(h) Kamala Harris.

(Syllabus) CSAT Paper - II

Syllabus CSAT Paper - II

Paper II- (200 marks) Duration: Two Hours:

1. Comprehension

2. Interpersonal skills including communication skills;

3. Logical reasoning and analytical ability

4. Decision making and problem solving

5. General mental ability

6. Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. -Class X level)

7. English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level).

8. Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : Basic Numeracy

Basic Numeracy

Syllabus of Basic Numeracy for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • Basic Numeracy  (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level),

Study Materials of Basic Nu

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : General Mental Ability

General Mental Ability

Syllabus of General Mental Ability for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • General mental ability

Study Materials of General Mental

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : Decision Making & Problem Solving

Decision Making & Problem Solving

Syllabus of Decision Making for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • Decision making and problem solving

Study Materia

(IGP) CSAT Paper - II : English Language & Comprehension Skills

English Language & Comprehension Skills

Syllabus of English Language for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level).

(Syllabus) CSAT Paper - I

Syllabus CSAT Paper - I

Paper I - (200 marks) Duration: Two Hours:

1. Current events of national and international importance

2. History of India and Indian National Movement

3. Indian and World Geography - Physical, Social, Economic geography of India and the World.

4. Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

(Paper) UPSC : IAS MAIN - 2006 (General Studies - Paper - I)

UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2006
GENERAL STUDIES Paper- I

Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS: Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): 30
a) Regardless of distance in time, there were lots of similarities between Lord Curzon and Jawahar Lal Nehru. Discuss.
b) How did the Government of India Act, 1935 mark a point of no return in the history of constitutional development in India?

2. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each): 2x15=30
a) What was the attitude of Indian industrialists towards the Indian National Congress in the pre- independent era?
b) Critically assess Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru's views on Indian Nationalism.
c) Characterise the main features of Indian Renaissance.

3. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each): 15x2=30
a) Kalhana
b) Panini
c) Yakshagana
d) Natyasastra
e) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
t) Madhura Vijayam
g) Pandurang Mahatmya
h) Prithviraj Raso
q) "The Insider"
J) Ali Sardar J afri
k) Aruna Roy
l) Dr. J.C. Daniel
m) Balwant Gargi
n) Dr. JayantNarlikar
0) Shashi Tharoor

(Current Affairs) Awards and Prizes | October: 2011

Awards and Prizes

  • 45th & 46th Jnanpith for 2009 & 2010
  • Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize
  • CSIR Young Scientist Awards 2011
  • Vayoshrestha Samman, 2011
  • Hridaynath Award
  • 63rd Annual Primetime Emmy Awards
  • FICCI Excellence Award
  • Rajiv Gandhi International Prize
  • Best Performance Award by Government

(Paper) UPSC : IAS MAIN - 2007 (General Studies - Paper - II )

UPSC: IAS MAIN - 2007
GENERAL STUDIES Paper- II

Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS: Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15x2=30
(a) Indo-Russian Defence Co-operation
(b) India's response, to political crisis In Bangladesh
(c) Elaborate on India's Nuclear Doctrine

2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 wordS): 2x5= I 0
(a) SAFTA
(b) India and East Asia Summit (EAS)
(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization, (S.C.O.)
(d) Panchsheel in India's Foreign Policy
(e) Relevance of NAM

3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words) : 2x5=10
(a) Pravasi Bhartiya Bima Yojana, 2006
(b) Indian All-Women Contingent to Liberia
(c) Madheshis in Nepal
(d) Know India Programme (KIP)
(e) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs

4. Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): 30
(a). What is Dumping? Evaluate the remedial measures taken by Government of India vis-à-vis WTO provisions regarding dumping.
(b) Comment on the relationship between credit availability and agricultural growth in India.

5. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words )
(a). What is the meaning and aim of social forestry ? What are the main weakness noticed in social forestry programme?
(b). Bring out the main objective of Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojana. The scheme is being implemented by which agency.

(Current Affairs) Sports | October: 2011

Sports

  • Australia Won Test Series against Sri Lanka
  • ICC Rankings for ODI Team Ranking
  • Kochi Tuskers’ Contract Terminated
  • Dominic Cork Announced Retirement
  • World Athletics Championships
  • Berlin Course Marathon
  • 51st National Open Athletics Championships
  • All-India Ranking Senior Badminton Championship
  • Baichung Bhutia Announced Retirement
  • Singapore Grand Prix
  • Global Green Bangalore Open
  • National Institute of Hockey
  • Agreement with AIFF to Develope J.L.N. Stadium as Football hub
  • Come & Play Scheme Nationwide Launched

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (Social Issues) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies Social Issues Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer)
(a) Discuss how e-governance as an instrument to utilize for rural development and highlight some e-governance initiative in India.
(b) The further decline in child sex ratio, in spite of 15 years of ban on sex determination test, makes us Sober with realization that social legislations serve a purpose only upto a point. Do you agree?

2. Answer the following in about 150 words each
(a) Discuss the Causes for the growth of agricultural labourers in India. In this Context can you suggest some measure for the important of the Socio-economic position of the agricultural labour in India.
(b) Among the Schedule tribes of India. Mortality morbidity and malnutrition rates remain particularly high when compared to the India at large. Explain the reason for this and suggest some measure to tackle this problem.

3. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each.
(a) Suggest some measure to control over growth of population in India.
(b) Discuss some of the main features of the census 2011.
(c) Suggest how can we use IT in health management in India.

4. Answer only two of the following in about 150 words each
(a) Discussed about the five pillars of National Rural Health Mission, which was implemented on 12 April, 2005.
(b) Who are unorganised workers? Discuss some of the measure taken by the government to take care of the social security & welfare of unorganised workers.
(c) Highlight the benefits under the Rashtriya Swanthya Bima Yojana.

5. Write brief but precise notes on any six of the following. Your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case.
(a) Vishwakarma Rashtriya Puraskar.
(b) Skill Development Initiative.
(c) Swadhar.
(d) Ujjawala.
(e) General Budgeting.
(f) National Mission for Empowerment of women.
(g) I.C.D.S.

UPSC Main: General Studies - Syllabus

http://upscportal.com/civilservices/images/upsc.JPG

Union Public Service Commission

SYLLABI FOR THE EXAMINATION PART-B
MAIN EXAMINATION

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I

Essay: Candidates may be required to write essays on multiple topics. They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion and to write concisely. Credit will be given for effective and exact expression.

English Comprehension & English Precis will be to test the English language Comprehension and English précis writing skills (at 10th standard level).

PAPER-II

General Studies- I: Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society.

  • Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times.
  • Modern Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until the present- significant events, personalities, issues
  • The Freedom Struggle - its various stages and important contributors /contributions from different parts of the country.
  • Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country.
  • History of the world will include events from 18th century such as industrial revolution, world wars, redrawal of national boundaries, colonization, decolonization, political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism etc.- their forms and effect on the society.
  • Salient features of Indian Society, Diversity of India.
  • Role of women and women’s organization, population and associated issues, poverty and developmental issues, urbanization, their problems and their remedies.
  • Effects of globalization on Indian society
  • Social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism.
  • Salient features of world’s physical geography.
  • Distribution of key natural resources across the world (including South Asia and the Indian subcontinent); factors responsible for the location of primary, secondary, and tertiary sector industries in various parts of the world (including India)
  • Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc., geographical features and their location- changes in critical geographical features (including waterbodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes.

(Download) IAS (Main) Public Administration Optional Paper-I : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Public Administration Optional Paper - I

1. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) A theory of public administration means in our time a theory of politics also. Comment.
(b) “Public and Private Administrations are two species of the same genus, but they also have special values and techniques of their own.”Comment.
(c) Politics-Administration dichotomy may be acceptable in theory but may not be acceptable in practice. Comment with reference to Wilson’s view.
(d) Scientific Management theory has no space for human aspects. Comment.

2. Describe the evolution of the discipline of public administration with special emphasis on post-1970 developments. What are the possible trends in its growth in the first decade of 21st Century? 60 Marks

3. “The themes developed at MINNOWBROOK conferences I, II & III largely focus on the current and future visions in the field of public administration.” Elucidate. 60 Marks

4. Bring out the core values, approaches and assumptions of traditional public administration, New Public Management and digital era of governance and how new has attempted to change or retain old, and to what extent. 60 Marks

5. Comment on any Three of the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 × 3 = 60 Marks
(a) “In the science of administration, whether public or private, the basic ‘good’ is efficiency.” Comment.
(b) “Calling Woodrow Wilson, the father of Public Administration is doing injustice to equally or even more eminent contributions made prior to him.” Comment.
(c) “Once fully established, bureaucracy is among those social structures which are the hardest to destroy.” Comment.
(d) The Classical Science of Administration with special reference to its criticism by Dwight Waldo and Robert Dahl. Comment

6. Discuss the Classical theory of Administration with special reference to Fayol,Gullick & Urwick. 60 Marks

7. Max Weber tried his level best to ensure social acceptance of bureaucracy. Do you agree? Discuss. 60 Marks

8. (a) “Once fully established, bureaucracy is among those social structures which are the hardest to destroy.” Discuss. 30 Marks
(b) “The failure of classical theory of administration lies in its capacity to confront theory with evidence.” Discuss. 30 Marks

(Download) IAS (Main) Sociology Optional Paper-II : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Sociology Optional Paper - II

1. Write short notes on any four of the following,keeping sociological perspectives in view (each short note in about 200 words): 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Reference Group
(b) Manifest and Latent function
(c) Social Fact
(d) Alienation
(e) Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism

2. (a) Critically evaluate the main features of Weber’s thesis on religion and economy. 30
(b) Analyse Marx’s notion of religion and explain why he regarded it as an aspect of superstructure. 30

3. What are the major tenets of functionalism? Substantiate your answer with examples from the approaches of Talcott Parsons and Robert K. Merton. 60

4. (a) Explain the concept of Self, according to Mead. 30
(b) Discuss the concept of Anomie. 30

5. Write short notes on any four the following from a sociological perspective (each short note in about 200 words): 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Social Class and Social Status
(b) Social inequality and Social stratification
(c) Social Mobility
(d) Social Action
(e) Suicide

6. “Social inequality is the device by which societies ensure that the most important positions are filled by the most qualified persons.” Critically evaluate. 60

7. (a) Examine the nature and application of Ideal Types with suitable examples. 30
(b) “The ruling ideas of each age have ever been the ideas of its ruling class”. Analyse. 30

8. (a) Define ethnicity and race. Analyse it according to Marxist perspective. 30
(b) Examine the role of bureaucracy as an organizational apparatus of the modern state. 30

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper-II : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main
Geography Optional Paper - II

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economical/ecological/environmental/cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 15x4=60
(a) Jawahar Tunnel
(b) Chambal
(c) Singur
(d) Anand
(e) Vembanad Lake
(f) Sriharikota
(g) Dimapur
(h) Leh
(i) Amritsar
(j) Nizam Sagar
(k) Manas
(l) Bokaro
(m) Sunderbans
(n) Panipat
(o) Dibrugarh

2. Explain the mechanism of Indian monsoon and rainfall patterns. Discuss how it gives rise to floods & droughts in India. 60

3. (a) Discuss the spatial distribution of soil types in India with the help of a sketched map. 30
(b) Examine the problems and prospects of Natural Vegetation in India. 30

4. (a) Discuss the various physiographic regions of India. 30
(b) Examine the space relationship of India with neighbouring countries. 30

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Energy crisis
(b) Climatic regions of India
(c) Examine the link between surface water utilization and food production in India.
(d) Steps taken in India to conserve marine resources.

6. (a) Discuss the emerging pattern of utilization of land resources in India. 30
(b) Assess as to how land resources utilization affects the economy and ecology in the country. 30

7. (a) Examine the spatial variation in the distribution of forest and wild life resources in India. 30
(b) Discuss the prospects of alternate energy resources in India. 30

8. (a) “India is poor because nature has endowed her with limited mineral resources.” How far do you agree with this statement? 30
(b) Examine the affect of mining on economy and ecology of a region. 30

(Current Affairs) Science & Technology, Defence, Environment | October: 2011

Science & Technology

Science & Technology, Defense, Environment

  • Boeing’s P-8I Completed First Flight in Seattle
  • NPCDCS : Managing Non- Communicable Diseases
  • National Programme on Prevention & Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD & Stroke
  • Cancer
  • Cardiovascular Diseases (CVD), Diabetes & Stroke
  • Achievements so far
  • New Laser to help Detect Roadside Bombs
  • First Planet Orbiting Two Stars
  • WISE Captured Black Hole’s Wildly Flaring Jet
  • GRAIL to Study Moon from Crust to Core
  • A Plant Discovered that Sows its Own Seeds
  • Laccognathus Embryi
  • Major Histocompatibility Complex
  • Perfomax
  • Universe is Bound by Cosmic Thread
  • Our Galaxy’s Spiral Arms Caused by its Crashes with Dwarf Galaxy

(Current Affairs) India and The World | October: 2011

India & The World

  • India and Bangladesh
  • India and Pakistan
  • India and China
  • India and USA
  • India and Germany
  • India and South Africa
  • India and Myanmar
  • India and Israel
  • India and Nepal
  • India and Uruguay
  • India and Canada
  • India and Libya
  • India and Zimbabwe
  • India and Turkey
  • India and Bhutan
  • India and Uganda
  • India and Estonia

(Download) IAS (Main) Sociology Optional Paper-I : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Sociology Optional Paper - 1

1. Write short notes on any four of the following, keeping sociological perspectives in view (each short note in about 200 words): 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Reference Group
(b) Manifest and Latent function
(c) Social Fact
(d) Alienation
(e) Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism

2. (a) Critically evaluate the main features of Weber’s thesis on religion and economy. 30
(b) Analyse Marx’s notion of religion and explain why he regarded it as an aspect of superstructure. 30

3. What are the major tenets of functionalism? Substantiate your answer with examples from the approaches of Talcott Parsons and Robert K. Merton. 60

4. (a) Explain the concept of Self, according to Mead. 30
(b) Discuss the concept of Anomie. 30

5. Write short notes on any four the following from a sociological perspective (each short note in about 200 words): 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Social Class and Social Status
(b) Social inequality and Social stratification
(c) Social Mobility
(d) Social Action
(e) Suicide

6. “Social inequality is the device by which societies ensure that the most important positions are filled by the most qualified persons.” Critically evaluate. 60

7. (a) Examine the nature and application of Ideal Types with suitable examples. 30
(b) “The ruling ideas of each age have ever been the ideas of its ruling class”. Analyse. 30

8. (a) Define ethnicity and race. Analyse it according to Marxist perspective. 30
(b) Examine the role of bureaucracy as an organizational apparatus of the modern state. 30

(Download) IAS (Main) Geography Optional Paper-I : 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main Geography Optional Paper-I

1. On the outline map of World provided to you, mark the location of ALL of the following for which 1 (one) mark is given to each correct entry. Write in your answer script the significant geographical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/ economical/ecological/environmental/cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. 3(three) marks are allotted for each write-up. 4 × 15 = 60
(a) Belfast
(b) Kyoto
(c) Steppes
(d) Kiev
(e) Borneo
(f) Peruvian current
(g) Namib desert
(h) Danube
(i) Lesotho
(j) Broken Hill
(k) Lake Victoria
(l) Persian Gulf
(m) Nuuk
(n) Sydney
(o) Cape Town

2. Discuss the various factors that control the landform development. 60

3. (a) Highlight the geomorphic features essentially found in topographies under the first cycle of erosion. 30
(b) Discuss how the continental drift theory has influenced the plate tectonics theory. 30

4. (a) Discuss the physical conditions of Earth’s interior. 30
(b) Examine the concept of Isostasy. 30

5. Write about the following in about 250 words each: 15 × 4 = 60
(a) Endogenetic and Exogenetic forces
(b) Causes and effects of sea level changes
(c) Applied Geomorphology
(d) Importance of coral reefs and measures to protect them

6. (a) Discuss the bottom topography of Atlantic Ocean. 30
(b) Examine the types of ocean deposits and their importance for mankind. 30

7. Examine the spatial variation of salinity and discuss the factors that influence the salinity of the ocean. 60

8. (a) Give a vivid account of ocean currents of Pacific Ocean. 30
(b) Analyze the spatial distribution of marine resources, over Earth’s surface. 30

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Science & Technology - Source of Reading

Science

  • NCERT- VI to X (New)
  • What, Why & How by CSIR.
  • Defence Current Affairs & Defence chapter of India Year Book
  • S&T Current Affairs & S&T Chapter of India Year Book.
  • Human Machine for Biology

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian Polity - Source of Reading

Polity

  • XI, XII NCERT (New).
  • Polity chapter of India Year Book.
  • General Information chapter of India Year Book.
  • Justice & Law chapter of India Year Book.
  • Indian Polity , by Laxmikant
  • Current Affairs of Polity

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian History - Source of Reading

History

  • Ancient - Ram Sharan Sharma, (old) NCERT
  • Medieval- Satish Chandra, (old) NCERT
  • Modern India- Bipin Chandra, (old) NCERT
  • Art & Culture chapter of India Year Book

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Geography - Source of Reading

Geography

  • XI, XII NCERT (New)
  • Read current affair with Atlas, locate each & everything which are in news.
  • Thoroughly use your Atlas

And following chapters of India Year Book:

  1. Land & The people.
  2. Agriculture.
  3. Energy.
  4. Environment.
  5. Water Resources.
  6. States & Union Territories

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian Environment - Source of Reading

Environment

  • Environment chapter of India Year Book.
  • Geography books of NCERT (new).
  • Current Affair.
  • Internet

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian Economy - Source of Reading

Economy

  • Clear your basic concepts of Economics with any book.
  • Current Affair of Economics
  • Economic Survey -summery of each chapter which is given in the last page. And see the boxes given in every chapter.

And following chapters of India Year Book:

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Science and Technology

General Science

Syllabus of General Science for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • General Science

Study Mater

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Geography

Geography

Syllabus of Geography for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • Indian and World Geography - Physical, Social, Economic geography of India and the World.

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian Economy

Indian Economy

Syllabus of Indian Economy for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • Economic and Social Development – Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.

Integrated Guidance Program: Our Strategy

General Studies (CSAT) Paper - I & II

Week- 1 (17th October to 22 October)

Day

Paper I

Paper II

Others

Monday

Polity M.C.Q

Basic Numeracy M.C.Q

Daily News

Tuesday

History M.C.Q

Logical Reasoning and General Mental Ability 

Daily News

Wednesday

Science M.C.Q

Comprehension M.C.Q

Daily News

Thursday

Geography M.C.Q

English Language

Daily News

Friday

Economy M.C.Q

Decision work

Daily News

Saturday

Current M.C.Q and G. K. and Material from our upcoming GS Pre Paper - I Study Material

Material from our upcoming GS Pre (CSAT) Paper - II Study Material

Daily News

Week- 2 (24th October to 29 October)

Day Paper I Paper II Others
Monday Polity M.C.Q Basic Numeracy M.C.Q Daily News
Tuesday History M.C.Q Logical Reasoning and General Mental Ability  Daily News
Wednesday Science M.C.Q Comprehension M.C.Q Daily News
Thursday Geography M.C.Q English Language Daily News
Friday Economy M.C.Q Decision work Daily News
Saturday Current M.C.Q and G. K. and Material from our upcoming GS Pre Paper - I Study Material Material from our upcoming GS Pre (CSAT) Paper - II Study Material Daily News

(Download) Millennium Development Goals India Country Report 2010

Millennium Development Goals India Country Report 2010

The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), made during the UN Millennium Summit on 8 September 2000, stand for solidarity and determination of the world leaders to rid the world of poverty  and improve the lot of humanity. The goals inter alia call for reducing by half the proportion of people  living below the poverty line; reducing by half the proportion of people who suffer from hunger between  1990 and 2015; ensuring that, by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls alike, will be able to complete  a full course of primary schooling; eliminating gender disparity in primary and secondary education,  preferably by 2005 and at all levels by 2015; reducing by two thirds, between 1990 and 2015, the underfive mortality rate; reducing by three quarters, between 1990 and 2015, the maternal mortality ratio;  halting and reversing the spread of HIV/AIDS and incidence of malaria and other major diseases by 2015. It also emphasized on integrating the principles of sustainable development into country policies  and programmes and reversing loss of environmental resources; reducing by half the proportion of people  without sustainable access to safe drinking water and improved sanitation; achieving significant  improvement in lives of at least 100 million slum dwellers, by 2020.

It also stressed on developing further  an open trading and financial system that is rule-based, predictable and non-discriminatory, with a  commitment to good governance at both national and international levels, development and poverty  reduction – nationally and internationally; dealing comprehensively with developing countries debt  problems through national and international measures to make debt sustainable in the long term; in cooperation with the developing countries, developing decent and productive work for youth; providing access to affordable essential drugs in developing countries in cooperation with pharmaceutical companies; and making available the benefits of new technologies – especially information and  communication technologies in cooperation with the private sector.  Eighteen (18) targets describe these objectives under the 8 goals (MDGs) in the United Nations  MDG framework of 2003. In the Indian context, 12 of the 18 targets are relevant.

(Current Affairs) Economic & Energy | October: 2011

Economic & Energy

  • Approach Paper for the 12th FYP (2012-17) Approved
  • State Portal Including Applications & e-forms
  • State Service Delivery Gateway (SSDG)
  • Gap Infrastructure - Identification of Gaps in Connectivity
  • Training
  • Manpower
  • Content Service Provider (CSP)
  • India will have Growth Rate of 8.1 Per cent: UNCTAD
  • Lohia Panel Suggestions
  • National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council
  • PMEAC revised GDP Growth to 8 Per cent in 2011-12
  • India’s GDP Growth will be 7.5-8% According to Moody’s
  • Export of Endosulfan allowed
  • Railway Revenue Jumps up by 8.52%
  • MOU between India Post & NSE for Financial Awareness
  • Additional Production of Pulses in Rabi 2011-12
  • Cropped Area Acreaged up
  • Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Bill, 2011
  • The Key Features of New MMDR Bill, 2011, are the Following:
  • YH Malegam Panel’s Suggestions
  • Agro Advisory Services
  • Review of Mineral Concession Regime in India
  • 8 Core Infrastructure Industries registered 3.5 % Growth
  • RBI hiked Repo Rate by 25 basis points
  • FDI Limit for FM radio up to 26%
  • Ban on the Export of Onions Lifted
  • Fraud Risk Management Practices will be Implemented
  • MOU between IIFCL, LIC and IDFC for TFS
  • Terms of Reference extended of the Nilekani Panel
  • $1 Billion ECBs in Yuan allowed
  • Post Offices to Provide Visa Related Services
  • Fiscal Deficit Surged to Rs 2.73 lakh crore
  • Public Private Partnership for Infrastructure Projects
  • India’s Spending on Green IT & Sustainability Initiatives to Double to $70 billion in 2015
  • Committee Set up by TRAI Submitted Report
  • The International Railway Equipment Exhibition -2011

(Current Affairs) International Events | October: 2011

International Events

  • Right to Vote for Women in Saudi Arabia
  • Ban on Oil Imports from Syria by European Union
  • Expanded EU Bailout Fund approved by German Parliament
  • US accusing Hakkani TerrorNetwork for attack on US Embassy in Kabul
  • For Reforms in the UN Security Council G-4 will Work together
  • Indian Mujahideen Declared Terrorist Organization
  • India Took over the Presidency of the G-24
  • NATO’s Mission in Libya extended by 3 Months
  • 7th ADB/OECD Anti- Corruption Initiative on Asia and the Pacific
  • 100 million Donation by Iran to Pakistan to Help Rehabilitate its Flood Victims
  • 8th International Abilympics to be held in Seoul
  • India Contributed $1 Million to UN Women Budget

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (Polity) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies Polity Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer)
(a)“India needs a law to protect its most vulnerable citizens from mass violence, its minorities.“ In this respect can you suggest.What are the main provision of the recently drafted “prevention of communal and Targeted violence: (Access to Justice and Reparations) Bill, 2011.
(b) In the light of recent corruptions and scandals in the country, Do you think that changing from parliamentary form of government to presidential form of government will be a solution for better governance? Substantiate your answer.

2. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each
(a) What are the duties and powers of the comptroller and Auditor General of India and suggest some measures to make this institution more independent from executive control.
(b) Give your views on the right to freedom enshrined under Article 19. Do you think the six basic freedoms prescribed in Article 19 should be made absolute?
(c) What is the doctrine of “Basic features of the constitution. Do you think that this doctrine have given judiciary an upper hand over legislature?

3. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each
(a) Do you think India is a secular country, and discuss the position of minorities in India.
(b) Is it possible to establish a socially just society in India by mearly providing reservation of seats for women in parliament?
(c) Briefly mention some of the measures taken by the union government for the implementation of the directive principles of state policy in recent years.

4. Answer any two of the following in about 150 word each
(a) Give your opinion regarding the relevance of Rajya Sabha as a second chamber in the federal structure of the Indian parliamentary system.
(b) Suggest some constitutional amendments to change the way elections are fought and held in India by freeing the process from criminalisation and corruption.
(c) Article 370

5. Write brief but precise notes on any six of the following. your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case.
(a) JPC
(b) Results Framework Document (RFD)
(c) Gorkhaland
(d) C.V.C
(e) Fast track Courts
(f) N.A.C.
(g) N. C. H. E. R

(Current Affairs) National Events | October: 2011

National Events

National Events

  • Land Acquisition Bill, 2011 Approved
  • Key Features of Land Draft Bill
  • Earthquake in Sikkim of 6.8 magnitude
  • PM visits Sikkim, Announces 1000 cr. Rupee Relief
  • Tripartite Agreement Signed for Peace in Assam
  • Geriatric OPD at AIIMS Dedicated to NPHCE
  • National Frequency Allocation Plan Released
  • Compensation should be given to Farmers for the Plantation on their Land
  • SC ordered Private Hospitals to Provide Free Treatment to Poor
  • Mercy Seeked for the Rajiv Gandhi Assassins
  • Training of Drivers by MOT
  • New National Policy on Senior Citizens under consideration
  • Amendments to NIMHANS, Bangalore Bill 2010 Proposed
  • Pictorial Warning on Tobacco Products Compulsory
  • Ration and Voter Cards to Sex Workers should be provided
  • Golden Jubilee for SCI
  • Bill to Check Cow Slaughter in Gujarat
  • To Deal with Naxalism New Policy unveiled
  • NDMA Observed 7th Formation Day
  • Rules of Reservation not Applicable to Upgraded Post s
  • NCCF asked to Expend its Network
  • For Better Governance leverage synergies between IT and Telecom
  • Rule of Law is an Integral Part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (History) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies History Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer)
(a) “The romance is that there is security of life and property in India, The reality is that there is no such thing. To millions in India life is simply “half-feeding or starvation of famines and disease” Examine the statement.
(b) Do you think that partition of India was inevitable? Discuss the back ground which lead to the partition.

2. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each
(a) Do you think that revolt of 1857 was inherent in constitution of company’s rule?
(b) “The British policy after 1857 was characterised by elements of caution and conservatism” Discuss.
(c) Do you agree with the view that socioreligious reform moments created the space for nationalistic thinking.

3. Answer any two of the following in about 100 words each
(a) Is it correct to say that Independence of India in 1947 was more the result of British weakness than the strength of Indian nationalism? Critically analyse.
(b) Having won political freedom is not enough India have to win economic and cultural freedom, Comment?
(c) Write the factors and forces responsible for the rise of revolutionary terrorism in India.

4. Answer any two of the following about 150 words each
(a) Gandhi restrained mass movement yet he retained his popularity among the masses. How do you explain this paradox.
(b) Analyse the main factors responsible for civil disobedience movement. How far its aim were realised by the government of India Act 1935?
(c) Do you think it is correct to say that Quit India Movement sealed the fate of British rule in India analyse.

5. Write brief but precise note on any six of the following your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case
(a) Lalit Kala Akademi
(b) Kathakali
(c) National School of Drama
(d) Archaeological Survey of India
(e) National Mission for Manuscripts
(f) National Mission on Monuments and anti antiquities.
(g) Difference between Gharanas and Sampradayas.

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian History - MCQ 1

Ancient India History

1. Which one of the Civilisation is not associated with the Harappan Civilisation.
(a) Sumerian
(b) Egyptian
(c) Mesopotamian
(d) Chinese

2. Which of the following Veda was complied first?
(a) Rigveda.
(b) Samaveda.
(c) Yajurveda.
(d) Atharvaveda.

3. Jatakas are the Stories of:
(a) Buddha’s life.
(b) Buddha’s previous lives.
(c) The lives of the future Buddhas.
(d) None of the above.

4. When Alexander invaded India Magdha was being ruled by?
(A) Haryankas.
(B) Nandas.
(C) Sisunagas
(D) Mauryas.

5. The most important official post with vest responsibilities created by Ashoka was:-
(a) Rajuka
(b) Yukta
(c) Dharma maha matya
(d) Prativedaka

Answer Key

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c)


Medieval India

1. The first medieval ruler to propound the divine theory of kinship was:
(a) Iltutmish.
(b) Raziya.
(c) Balban.
(d) Alauddin Khalji.

2. The first Sultan of Delhi to cross the Narmada and move to the South was:
(a) Iltutmish.
(b) Balban.
(c) Alauddin Khalji.
(d) Md. Bin Tughluq.

3. The University of Nalanda and vikramshila in Bihar were destroyed during the invasions of:
(a) Bakhtiyar Khalji.
(b) Ali Mardan Khalji.
(c) Mahmud of Ghazni
(d) Muhammad Ghori.

4. The first Indian ruler to have Concluded a series of treaties with the Portuguese was:-
(a) Krishnadeva Raga.
(b) Zamoria of Calicut.
(c) Sadasiva Raga.
(d) None of the above.

5. The Portuguese under the leadership of Vasco da Gama in 1498 first landed at:-
(a) Cochin.
(b) Calicut.
(c) Sui Lon.
(d) Pulicat.

Answer Key

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian Polity

Indian Polity

Syllabus of Indian Polity for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

(IGP) CSAT Paper - I : Indian History

Indian History

Syllabus of Indian History for Civil Services Preliminary Examination:

  • History of India and Indian National Movement

(Article) Growth for All with Sustainable Use of Resources: Civil Services Mentor Magazine October 2011

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Growth for All with Sustainable Use of Resources

Today the main challenge in front of international community is to sustain and accelerate the process of poverty eradication and ensure food and energy security, particularly to developing countries while shifting gradually to a Green Economy. A green economy approach to development holds the potential to achieve greater convergence between economic and environmental objectives. Agriculture plays a critical role in determining food, water, ecological and livelihood security. Integrating the strategies and policies for a green economy into agriculture has to proceed with an absolute imperative of ensuring these and not forgetting the differentiated needs of subsistence agriculture and market-oriented crops.

Also, transitioning to a greener model of agriculture will depend on the expeditious provision of green technologies and financial support to developing countries for productivity enhancement, improved resilience and diversification of production systems.

Sustainable development and management of agriculture would benefit from sharing of best practices including farm and non-farm development, improved post-harvest management, integration of supply chains and strengthening of public distribution systems. Eradicating poverty is an indispensible requirement for sustainable development. A major cause aggravating poverty is the unsustainable pattern of consumption and production. Poverty eradication remains an overriding objective of governments in developing countries, and efforts to build green economies should contribute substantially to realizing that objective.

Integrating green economy strategies and policies into poverty eradication, food security and energy security is an imperative for sustainable development.Food security and access to affordable clean energy are both crucial to eradicating poverty and promoting social development.The issue of energy security and universal energy access is intricately linked with economic development and growth, and rising energy needs to meet it.  Energy poverty coexists with inefficient energy use in much of the world, which – given continued heavy dependence on fossil fuels – has been a major contributor to greenhouse gas emissions. Understanding the flexibility or lack of flexibility of each country to change this energy mix and devising innovative methods to secure energy security are the need of the hour without compromising on the need for high economic growth to meet the aspirations of the people, especially in developing countries.

Energy security is a multi-faceted concept. In the current context, the primary focus is on poor people’s securing adequate energy supplies to raise their living standards, including through improved income generation, health and education. Renewable energy should be considered as an integral part of the solution to the energy needs of the poor, but that will only be feasible if it is affordable and technologically accessible. As affordability is a function in part of large-scale deployment and learning, the strategy to address energy poverty needs to be linked to a broader alternative energy strategy as part of a green economy.With respect to energy security, rural energy access remains seriously deficient in many developing countries, with well over a billion people lacking access to electricity and clean cooking and heating fuels. At the same time, even in urban areas, electricity is often underprovided and unreliable, especially for urban poor communities. This exacerbates poverty and closes off escape routes by limiting income generation opportunities as well as educational opportunities especially for girls.

What is Green Economy?

A green economy is typically understood as an economic system that is compatible with the natural environment, is environmentally friendly, is ecological, and for many groups, is also socially just. These attributes are the conditions that must be imposed on an economy from the perspective of many green economy advocates. This conventional concept of a green economy may be alternatively described as “the greening of an economy”.
Some fundamental criteria for meeting these conditions have been established since Rio, such as using renewable resources within their regenerative capacity, making up for the loss of non-renewable resources by creating their renewable substitutes, limiting pollution within the sink functions of nature, and maintaining ecosystem stability and resilience. A Green Economy is a system of economic activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services that results in improved human well-being over the long term, whilst not exposing future generations to significant environmental risks and ecological scarcities. Conditions for social justice may include: 1) not compromising future generations’ capability to meet their needs; 2) the rights of poor countries and poor people to development and the obligations of rich countries and rich people to changing their excessive consumption levels; 3) equal treatment of women in access to resources and opportunities; and 4) ensuring decent labor conditions. A green economy is one that results in improved human well-being and social equity, while significantly reducing environmental risks and ecological scarcities.

(Article) Ganga, The mother in a curse: Civil Services Mentor Magazine October 2011

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Ganga, The mother in a curse

The World Wildlife Fund in March listed the Ganges among the world’s 10 most endangered rivers. In India, the river provides more than 500 million people with water for drinking and farming. More than 100 cities and countless villages are situated along the 1,568-mile river, which stretches from the foothills of the Himalayas to the Bay of Bengal, and few of them have sewage treatment plants. But recent reports by scientists say the Ganges is under greater threat from water pollution & even greater from global warming. According to a U.N. climate report, the Himalayan glaciers that are the sources of the Ganges could disappear by 2030 as temperatures rise. The shrinking glaciers also threaten Asia’s supply of fresh water. The immediate effect of glacier recession is a short-lived surplus of water. But eventually the supply runs out, and experts predict that the Ganges eventually will become a seasonal river, largely dependent on monsoon rains.

Arrangement at the Central Level

The river cleaning program was started with Ganga Action Plan(GAP) in 1985 under the aegis of GPD established under the Ministry of Environment & Forest. A CGA under the chairmanship of the PM was constituted to finalise the policy framework and to oversee the implementation of GAP. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States, Union Ministers and Secretaries of the concerned Central Ministries and Experts were its members. The GAP was later extended to GAP II in 1993 and was broad-based in the form of NRCP in 1995. The GAP II was merged with NRCP in December 1996. Since then a single scheme of NRCP is under implementation as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. The CGA was renamed as National River Conservation Authority (NRCA) with a larger mandate to cover all the programmes supported by the NRCD.

National Ganga River Basin Authority

To face this challenge the Central Government by a notification on 20th February,2009, has set up the ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority’ (NGRBA) as an empowered planning, financing, monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganga River, to ensure effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the river Ganga by adopting a holistic approach with the river basin as the unit of planning .The Authority will perform its function under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister. It has as its members, the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others.

The Authority may co-opt one or more Chief Ministers from any of the States having major tributaries of the river Ganga. The objective of the NGRBA is to ensure effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach for comprehensive planning and management; and to maintain minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga with the aim of ensuring water quality and environmentally sustainable development.

Key Functions of the NGRBA

The NGRBA would be responsible for addressing the problem of pollution in Ganga in a bolistic and comprehensive manner. This will include water quality, minimum ecological flows, sustainable access and other issues relevant to river ecology and management. The NGRBA will not only be regulatory body but will also have developmental role in terms of planning & monitoring of the river conservation activities and ensuring that necessary resources are available. The NGRBA would work for maintaining the water quality of the river Ganga upto the acceptable standards. The pollution abatement activities will be taken up through the existing implementation mechanisms in the States and also through Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) at the pollution hotspots. The NGRBA will ensure minimum ecological flow in the Ganga by regulating water abstraction and by promoting water storage projects. The NGRBA will plan and monitor programmes for cleaning of Ganga and its tributaries. To begin with , it will concentrate on Gangamain stem. The NGRBA would draw upon professional expertise within and outside the Government for advice on techno-economic issues. The technical and administrative support to NGRBA shall be provided by the Ministry of Environment & Forests.

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (Geography) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies Geography Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer)
(a) Highlights the country specific approach of the Union Government in the field of water resources development with our neighboring countries. Suggest some suggestion which can be taken into consideration while formulating this policy.
(b) Efficient and reliable energy supplies are a precondition for accelerated growth of the Indian economy. In this context critically analyse the energy security policy of government India and also suggests some measures, to make India a energy efficient country.

2. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each:
(a) The National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru National Urban Renewable Mission
(c) National Mission for sustainable Agriculture.

3. Answer any two of the following in about 100 words each
(a) Differences between Himalayan River System and Peninsular river system.
(b) Name the main physiographic divisions of India and give the salient features of each division.
(c) Discuss the National Food Security Mission

4. Answer any two of the following about 150 words each
(a) Discuss about Jawahar Lal Nehru National Solar Mission.
(b) What are the major Components do the Integrated forest protection scheme?
(c) Highlights the differences between Maharatna Scheme and Navaratna Scheme

5. Write brief but precise note on any six of the following your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case
(a) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(b) Second Green revolution
(c) Rajiv Gandhi Gramin LPG Vitran Yojana
(d) Coal Bed Methane
(e) Shale Gas
(f) Ultra Mega Power Project
(g) Dedicated freight corridor project.

6. Answer any three of the following in about 150 words each
(a) What are ways through which forest are destroyed? What happens when the forests are destroyed?
(b) Discuss a road map to control flood in India.
(c) Discuss about the inland water transport in India?
(d) How far the inter-basin water transfer link can be helpful to tackle water problem in India? Analyse.

(Download) IAS (Main) General Studies (Economy) Sample Paper: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
IAS Main General Studies_Economy Sample Paper

1. Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer)
(a) Trade policy measures taken by the Government and the RBI in 2010–11 focused on reviving exports and imports related employment, in this regard suggest some of the trade policy taken by the government to check inflation in the country
(b). While agricultural productivity is adversely affected by climate change agricultural activity itself contributes to global warming in this respect discuss India’s Programmes of national mission for sustainable agriculture

2. Answer any two of the following about 150 words each
(a) In the back drop of financial crisis discuss the reason behind the continuing high growth rate of emerging economies.
(b) Despite the financial crises. Why Indian economy continue to perform well with high growth rate? Discuss only the major reasons.
(c) Assess India and G20

3. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each
(a) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
(b) Discuss some of the salient features of the member of parliament local area development scheme (MPLADS).
(c) Discuss the main negotiating issues and the key elements from India’s perspective in the Doha round.

4. Answer any two of the following in about 150 words each:
(a) What are the logic behind the decentralized planning in India?
(b) Critically evaluate the achievement and failure of the five year planning in India
(c) According to you what should be the major objectives of the XIIth plan? By learning a lesson from the previous planning.

5. Write brief but precise notes on any six of the following. Your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case.
(a) Swabhimaan Programme.
(b) Financial Inclusion.
(c) D.T.C.
(d) G.S.T.
(e) Swavalamban Scheme.
(f) Financial Action Task Force.
(g) Financial Stability Board.

(Notification) APPSC: Group-II Services Examination: 2008

Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission

Group-II Services 2008 (11/2009 & 38/2008) are scheduled to be held on 15/10/2011 FN and 16/10/2011 FN & AN. 4.5 lakhs candidates have applied for the examination. The Examination is going to be held at all District Head Quarters at 1064 venues.

Downloading of Hall Tickets is in progress. For the first time in history of APPSC two important changes are being introduced from this examination.

  • The OMR Sheets have to bubbled only by Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black). Bubbling by pencil / Ink Pen / Gel Pen is not permitted in this examination.
  • OMR Sheets supplied to the candidates consist of two copies, the original copy and duplicate copy below. After completion of the examination the candidates should handover the original OMR Answer Sheet (top sheet) to the invigilator and carry the bottom sheet (duplicate) for his / her record.

  • The candidates are also informed under no circumstances should the candidate take away he main Answer Sheet and if he does so he will be disqualified.

(Venue Details) UPSC: Civil Services (Main) Exam: 2011

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Union Public Service Commission
Civil Services (Main) Exam Venue: 2011

Union Public Service Commission will be conducting Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011 at 19 Centres from 29.10.2011. Admission Certificates to all eligible candidates have already been issued. Letters of rejection citing the ground (s) for rejection have also been sent. If any applicant has not received either of the above communications.

Information regarding venues of Examination is also available on Union Public Service Commission's Website at http://www.upsc.gov.in  The eligible candidates who have not received the Admission Certificates may download the “Venue Information” from the above mentioned website and use it for appearing in the examination. The candidates intending to appear in the examination using downloaded “Venue Information” are advised to reach the venue of their examination on the day of examination.

(Notification) UPSC: Civil Services (Main) Examination: 2011

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Union Public Service Commission
Civil Services (Main) Examination: 2011

While declaring the result of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011, the qualified candidates were advised to submit their Detailed Application Forms (DAFs) online and send a print-out of the same along with all necessary documents to the Commission for admission to the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011. Some of the candidates who have submitted their DAFs online have, however, not sent the print-outs of their online DAFs to the Commission. All such candidates have been informed through individual letters/email that they should submit their ink-signed DAFs within seven days, failing which their candidature for the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be treated as cancelled. All the candidates, who have submitted their DAFs online, but not sent the print-outs of their online DAFs to the Commission, are once again informed that they should submit the ink-signed copies of their DAFs along with their photographs, fees wherever required and all necessary documents to the Commission latest by 21.10.2011 failing which their candidature for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2011 scheduled to be held from 29th October, 2011 will be treated as cancelled.

(Download) BPSC: (PT) Exam Solved Paper Held on 17-04-2011

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Bihar Public Service Commission
(PT) Exam Solved Paper : 17-04-2011

1. In which country is ‘TaklaMakan’ desert situated?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B) Turkmenistan
(C) Uzbekistan
(D) China

2. Which strait connects Red Sea and Indian Ocean?
(A) Bab-el-Mandeb
(B) Hormuz
(C) Bosporus
(D) Malacca

3. Where is ‘Ninety East Ridge’ situated?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

4. Which of the following is not a capital city?
(A) Canberra
(B) Sydney
(C) Wellington
(D) Riyadh

5. The highest coal-producing country in the world is —
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) Russia

6. Folding is the result of—
(A) epeirogenetic force
(B) Cariolos force
(C) orogenetic force
(D) exogenetic force

7. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to—
(A) the difference in their altitudes
(B) their distance from sea
(C) snowfall in Shimla
(D) population in Amritsar

8. Coal mines in Jharkhand are located at—
(A) Jharia
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Ranchi
(D) Lohardaga

9. Major source of oceanic salinity is—
(A) rivers
(B) land
(C) wind
(D) ash from volcanoes

10. The large States of India in the order of area are—
(A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra
(C) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan

11. Bihar is the ……… largest States of India according to Census 2001.
(A) second
(B) third
(C) fourth
(D) fifth

12. The highest wheat-producing State of India is—
(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh

13. TISCO plant is located near—
(A) Patna
(B) Darbhanga
(C) Dhanbad
(D) Tatanagar

14. Which States in India are the largest producers of sugarcane?
(A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh

15. Which of the following States has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste?
(A) Bihar
(B) West Bengal
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab

16. According to 2001 Census, what is the total population of Bihar?
(A) 8,29,98,509
(B) 7,62,10,007
(C) 9,68,78,627
(D) 8,01,76,197

17. The East Central Railway zone headquarters is located at—
(A) Patna
(B) Haripur
(C) Muzaffarpur
(D) Katihar

18. Where is Industries Commissioner Office of Bihar situated?
(A) Patna
(B) Gaya
(C) Hajipur
(D) Muzaffarpur

19. North Bihar is famous for—
(A) agricultural prosperity
(B) heavy industries
(C) flood
(D) famine

20. Which one is not located on National Highway-2 (NH-2)?
(A) Aurangabad
(B) Sasaram
(C) Mohania
(D) Patna

(Notification) Karnataka PSC: Excise Sub Inspector: Dated - 12.10.2011

Karnataka Public Service Commission

Recruitment of  Excise Sub Inspector in Karnataka Public Service Commission:

(Download) Free Digital Magazine: Civil Services Mentor, October 2011

Free Digital Magazine: Civil Services Mentor, October 2011

Issue : October 2011
Size:
3.84 MB
File Type:
Zipped PDF
Publisher :
 UPSCPORTAL.COM 

Table of Contents:

Articles:

  • Ganga, The Mother in a Curse
  • Growth For All With Sustainable Use of Resources

Current Affairs:

  • National Issues

  • International Issues

  • Economy

  • India & The World

  • Science & Technology

  • Sports

  • Awards & Prizes

  • Persons in News

Study Material

  • SSC Data Entry Operator Practice Set

(Sample Essay) India towards a knowledge society by Vivek Kumar Singh

India towards a knowledge society

By: Vivek Kumar Singh
Course Coordinator
Essay Programme
WWW.UPSCPORTAL.COM

let knowledge come from all sides.(RIG VEDA):

Knowledge has always been an essential and distinguishing characteristic of human society, for human beings are unique among all species in their extended capacity to formulate, systematize, preserve and consciously transmit organized bodies of knowledge from one individual, community, generation and location to another. That is the essence of all that is known as education.

Historically, Indian society is a hierarchical society and its knowledge base has always been elitist. Whether it is the caste based system or the colonial education system, access to knowledge has primarily been the privilege of the few. But such a system can never lay the foundation for a holistic development strategy. Therefore, all socio-economic and political
ideas have to be focused on inclusive growth and socio-economic equality in the real sense.

There is almost universal recognition that knowledge as a product and as an instrument will be the basic foundation for competitiveness of individual business and of nations in the 21st century. Robust research findings suggest that knowledge as a factor of production explains a substantial proportion of economic growth internationally.

The recent focus of good governance is to enable inclusive growth and development. India has come a long way from the hierarchical society and its exclusive educational system which we imbibed from our cultural and social heritage, as well as our colonial past. The thrust of the envisaged changes in the society calls for knowledge for all and a shift towards an inclusive
knowledge based society.

“If we value the pursuit of knowledge, we must be free to follow wherever that search may lead us” said Adlai E. Stevenson . This is the idea behind the concept of an inclusive society based on free and easy access to knowledge for all.

Letters and the Numbers are the two eyes of man.Education is an engine of offence ,defence and ambition.Education and economic reforms are the keys to unlock the doors of development.The traditional notion- knowledge for its own sake, has today given place to the modern idea -knowledge is for development. We live in an increasingly global world where national borders are becoming meaningless.In the context we need to compete with the best from across the world .This necessitates that we benchmark ourselves with global best practices.

(Notification) Karnataka PSC: Departmental Examination (II Session): 2011

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Karnataka Public Service Commission

Departmental Examination 2011 II Session:

Karnataka Public Service Commission (KPSC) invites Online Applications from Departmental Candidates eligible for Promotion to appear for Departmental Exams 2011 II Session.

Fee : Rs. 50/- & Rs. 100/- varies from subject to subject.

How to Apply :

  • Visit the Online Application Link
  • Provide your Name, Mobile Number, Date of Birth, Subjects etc. and download the Syndicate Bank Challan OR NEFT Challan.
  • Pay fee at any Branch of Syndicate Bank or any bank with NEFT facility.
  • Scan your Photo with signature below the photo on a white paper & save it.
  • Fill all the details, Bank fee, journal No. Details etc. & upload photo with signature.
  • Take printout of the acknowledgement.

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  • 1. National
  • 2. International
  • 3. India & the World
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(Notification) J&K Combined Competitive (Main) Examination, 2011

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J&K COMBINED COMPETITIVE (MAIN) EXAMINATION, 2011

Applications, in prescribed forms, are invited from permanent residents of Jammu and Kashmir State for the Main Examination of J&K Combined Competitive Examination, 2010 for direct recruitment to the posts in the pay band of Rs. 9300-34800+4800 (Grade pay) in the below mentioned services, in accordance with SRO 387 dated 01.12.2008, read with SRO 168 dated 31.05.2011 and J&K Public Service Commission ( Conduct of Examination) Rules, 2005.

A. Junior Scale of J&K Administrative Service;
B. J&K Police (Gazetted) Service, and
C. J&K Accounts (Gazetted) Service.

The details of the number of vacancies to be filled up is as under:-
Total Number of Vacancies = 142
a. Junior Scale of J&K Administrative Service = 117
b. J&K Police (Gazetted) Service = 09
c. J&K Accounts (Gazetted) Service = 16

*Three posts in Junior Scale of J&K Administrative Service for a vacancy of Block Development Officer in the Rural Development Department, Tehsildar (Revenue) and Under Secretary (Secretariat) are earmarked for eligible Physically Challenged Candidates through Horizontal Reservation in accordance to Govt. Order No. 62-SW of 2001 dated 13-03-2001.

Plan of Examination:

The Combined Competitive (Main) Examination, 2011, will consist of two successive stages: Written and interview, for selection of candidates for various services and posts indicated above.

Eligibility Conditions:

The conditions of eligibility and age limits etc., as laid down in the Notification, SRO 387 dated 01.12.2008, read with SRO 168 dated 31.05.2011 shall be as under:-

A Candidate:
a) should have qualified the Combined Competitive (Preliminary) Examination, 2011.
b) must be a permanent resident of J&K State; and
c) must hold a Bachelor’s Degree in any subject from a recognized University in India or from a Foreign University declared by Government in consultation with the Commission to be equivalent to a degree of a recognized University.

The candidate shall have to provide the proof to the effect that he/she had appeared in the requisite examination upto the last date for receipt of Application for Preliminary Examination viz. up to 01.08.2011 and had qualified the Examination at the time of filling up the Application Forms for the Mains Examination, failing which, such candidate shall not be admitted to the Mains Examination.

Recruitment of Stenographers at UPSC: Oct., 2011

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Union Public Service Commission

Stenographers Limited Departmental Competitive Exam - 2009

All communications should be addressed to the Secretary, Union Public Service Commission. In every communication in respect of his application the candidate should clearly state the name of the Examination viz, Combined S.O.s’/Stenographers’ (Grade ‘B’/Grade-I) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination , 2009. Application Regn. No./Roll Number or the date of birth of candidate if the Application Regn. No./Roll Number has not been communicated and his name (in full and in Block Capitals) and complete Postal address as given in the application.

UPSC Services: 
GENERAL: 

(JOBS) UPSC: Advertisement No.19 | Last Date: 03 November, 2011

UPSC

UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Advertisement No.19

Vacancy Details:

1. Post Name: Specialist Grade-III (Paediatric Surgery)
No .of Posts: 01
Educational Qualification:

  • A  recognized MBBS Qualification included in the First or the Second Schedule or Part II of the Third Schedule (Other than licentiate qualifications) to the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Holders of Educational Qualifications included in Part II of the Third Schedule should also fulfil the conditions stipulated in Sub-section(3) of Section (13) of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned Super speciality i.e. M.Ch.Paediatric Surgery or equivalent.

Experience:

Three years’ experience in the concerned Super speciality (Paediatric Surgery) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree.

  • NOTE I: The Medical qualifications possessed by the candidates should have  the recognition of the Medical Council of India. In case of medical posts other than Allopathic system of  medicine, the qualifications should be included in the respective Schedule of the Act governing that system of medicine. The proof thereof may be attached.

  • NOTE II: In so far as Post-Graduation Medical  ualifications awarded by Indian Universities are concerned, they should also find a place in the Schedules to Indian Medical Council Act, 1956, as amended from time to time. Holder of equivalent Post- Graduate qualifications are approved by the Medical Council of India from time will be considered tohave requisite Post-Graduate qualification in the subject concerned. In case of medical posts other than  allopathic system of medicine, the qualification should be included in the respective Schedule of theAct  overning that system of medicine. The proof thereof may be attached.

  • NOTE III: Holders of speciality  oard of USA qualifications should complete the entire requirements of the Board concerned.

  • NOTE:IV: Completion of compulsory Rotating Internship Certificate, Registration Certificate, an official document showing name of College/Institution from where degree/diploma has been done and official document showing name of the University and College from where teaching experience has been gained to be furnished.

  • NOTE:V: M.R.C.P./F.R.C.P.,F.R.C.S refer to Diploma or Membership and ellowship awarded by all the Royal College of U.K. and Fellowship of Royal College of U.K. and  Fellowship of Royal College of Canada.

  • NOTE:VI: In the case of qualifications in Super-Specialities (M.Ch./D.M.) except in the case of holders of D.M./M.Ch. of five years duration, the holders should have obtained M.D.(General Medicine) or M.S.(General Surgery) or an equivalent qualification as prescribed by the said council in its recommendations on post graduate medical examination.

  • NOTE: VII: In the case of holder of D.M./M.Ch. qualification of five years duration, the period of Senior Post Graduate residency rendered in the last part of the said D.M/M.Ch. shall be counted towards requirement of experience.

DUTIES:

To work in the Dispensaries and Hospitals of the Govt. of NCT of Delhi and shall  be primarily handling patients of various types in these Hospitals and dispensaries for medical care. However they can, also be entrusted with other work including administrative and other related work as per exigencies of the public service.

ANY OTHER CONDITIONS:

Persons appointed to the service  shall not be allowed private practice of any kind whatsoever including any consultation and laboratory practice.

2. Post Name: Specialist Grade-III in Pulmonology (Tuberculosis & Respiratory Medicine Pulmonery Medicine)
No .of Posts: 01
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree/Diploma in the concerned Super speciality i.e. M.D(Tuberculosis)/M.D.( T.B. & Respiratory Disc)/M.D.(Medicine) with TDD,DTD or DTCD/MD(T.B. & Chest Diseases)/ TDD/DTD/DTCD or equivalent.

Experience:

  • Three years’ experience in the concerned Super speciality Pulmonology (Tuberculosis & Respiratory Medicine Pulmonery Medicine) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree or five years’ experience  after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Diploma.

NOTE I to NOTE VII, DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ: Same as in Item No.1 above.

3. Post Name: Specialists Grade-III(Cardiology)
No .of Posts: 03
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned Super speciality i.e. D.M.(Cardiology) or equivalent.

Experience:

  • Three years’ experience in the concerned Super speciality ( Cardiology) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree.

 NOTE I to NOTE VII, DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ: Same as in Item No.1 above.

4. Post Name: Specialists Grade-III (Nephrology)
No .of Posts: 02
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned Super speciality i.e. D.M(Nephrology) or equivalent.

Experience:

  • Three years’ experience in the concerned Super speciality ( Nephrology) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree

 NOTE I to NOTE VII, DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ: Same as in Item No.1 above.

5. Post Name: Specialist Grade-III (Urology)
No .of Posts: 01
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned Super speciality i.e. M.Ch. (Urology) or equivalent.

Experience:

  • Three years’ experience in the concerned Super speciality (Urology) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree.

NOTE I to NOTE VII, DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ: Same as in Item No.1 above.

6. Post Name: Specialists Grade-III (Neuro Surgery),
No .of Posts: 11
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned Super speciality i.e. M.Ch (Neuro Surgery) or equivalent.

Experience:

  • Three years’ experience in the concerned Super speciality (Neuro Surgery ) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree.

NOTE I to NOTE VII, DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ: Same as in Item No.1 above.

7. Post Name: Specialists Grade-III (Burn Plastic Surgery & Reconstructive Surgery)
No .of Posts: 08
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned Super Speciality i.e, M.Ch( Plastic Surgery)/M.Ch.(Burn Plastic Surgery & Reconstructive Surgery) or equivalent.

Experience:

  • Three years’ experience in the concerned Super speciality (Burn Plastic Surgery & Reconstructive Surgery) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree

NOTE I to NOTE VII, DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ: Same as in Item No.1 above.

8. Post Name: Specialists Grade-III ( Biochemistry)
No .of Posts: 03
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned speciality i.e. M.D(Biochemistry)/M.Sc. (Medical Biochemistry)/Ph.D (Biochemistry)/D.Sc.(Bio-chemistry) or equivalent.

Experience:

  • Three years’ experience in the  concerned speciality (Biochemistry) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree.

NOTE I to NOTE V,DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ: Same as in Item No.1 above.

9. Post Name: Specialists Grade-III (Forensic Medicine)
No .of Posts: 12
Educational Qualification:

  • Same as in Item No.1 above.

  • Post-Graduate Degree in the concerned speciality i.e. M.D(Forensic Medicine ) or equivalent

Experience:

  • (Three years’ experience in the concerned speciality (Forensic Medicine) after obtaining the first Post-Graduate Degree.

NOTE I to NOTE V, DUTIES, ANY OTHER CONDITIONS & HQ:

  •  Same as in Item No.1 above.

10. Post Name: Professor (Paediatrics)
No .of Posts:
01
Educational Qualification:

UPSC Services: 

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Important Facts From Yojana Solved Paper

Current Affairs Part- I
Important Facts From Yojana Solved Paper

1. Consider the following statements :
1. India’s nuclear power generation is only about 1800MWagainst an installed capacityof 4120 MW.
2. The present Indo-USCivil nuclear deal is valid for 40 years and extendable by another 10 years.
3. Out of its 22 operating /under construction nuclear facilities, Indiawill place 14 under IAEA safeguard.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The Kyoto protocol has put in place three flexibility mechanisms to reduce emission of Green House Gases.
(b) The three mechanisms are joint implementation, Emissions Trading andClean develoment.
(c) These three mechanism are based on the premise that reduction of emissions in anypart of the globe will have the same desired effect on the atmosphere.
(d) None of the above

3. Consider the following statements :
1. The women’s reservation Bill (108th Amendment) a proposed legislation to reserve 33.3% of seats in Parliament and State legislature for women.
2. In case of seats reserved for SC-ST candidates, 33.3% would have to be reserved for women.
3. The reservation of seats is proposed to be on rotation basis, which means that the 33% seats reserved in one election would lease to be reserved in the next election.
4. The provision for reservation is proposed to be in place for 15 years.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

4. Consider the following statements :
1. Human Development Index is composed from statistics for life expectancy, education and standard of living.
2. These were devised and launched by pakistani Economist Mahbub - ul in 1990. 3. Human Poverty Index-1 represents a multidimensional alternative to the $1.25 a day poverty measure.
4. The millennium Development Goals (MDGs)  are eight turnaround goals that provide concrete, numerical benchmarks for tackling extreme poverty in its many dimensions. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) All of the above

5. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding  Nuclear Liability Bill 2010?
(a) The nuclear liability Bill 2010 is introduce to define nuclear incidents and nuclear damage, nuclear fuel, material and nuclear installations and also operators of nuclear installations.
(b) It creates authorities who will assess claimsand distribute compensation in case of nuclear damage.
(c) The Bill States that the total liability for nuclear incident shall not exceed the rupee equivalent of 300 million special Drawing Rights  (Approximately Rs. 2100 crore at currentexchange rates.)
(d) The nuclear damage claims commission would be chaired by prime minister of India.

6. Consider the following statements regarding Common Wealth Games :
1. The Commonwealth Games are a unique, world class, multi-sport event held once every  four years amongst the member countries and territories of the Commonwealth.
2. The three core value of the commonwealth games are humanity, equality and destiny.
3. The Common wealth Games Federation has 71 member nations and territories called Commonwealth Games Association which include India.
4. The Common wealth Games formerly known as the British Empire Games, were first held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

7. Consider the following statements regarding Common wealth Games :
1. Queen’s Baton Relay is first started in 1958 in  Cardiff, Wales and has since then been the curtain raiser to every Common wealth Game.
 2. The Queens Baton Relay 2010 Delhi started from Buckingham Palace on 29 October, 2009 and end 340 days later at the opening  ceremony of the XIX commonwealth Games2010Delhi on 3 October  2010.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements regarding Direct Tax Code :
1. In the Union Budget 2005-06, the Government had announced its intention to revise, simplify,  rationalize and consolidate laws and procedure relating to direct taxes.
2. Direct tax include income tax, dividend distribution tax, fring benefit tax and wealth tax.
Which of the above statements is/ae correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. The Government has constituted a unique Identification Authority of Indian attached office under?
(a) Home Ministry
(b) Planning commission
(c) Prime Minister Office
(d) Human Resource Development Ministry

10. Consider the following statements :
1. Some 600 million Indians do not have access  to electricity and about 700million Indian use biomass as their primary energy resource for cooking and ensuring life line.
2. since India is short of uranium, the first phase plants cannot exceeds 10,000MW unless imported uranium is available.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. The Integrated Energy policy report is bought out by?
(a) Ministry of petroleum and Natural Gas.
(b) Ministry of power.
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
(d) Planning Commission.

12. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Energy Security.
1. The Integrated energy policy report estimates that in an 8% GDP growth Scenario, India’s total commercial energy requirmentswould be in the range of 1514mtoe (million tones of oil equivalent ) it to 1856Mtoe by 2031.
2. TERI estimates indicate an import dependency of 78%for coal, 91%for oil and 34%for gas by year 2031.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the statement is incorrect regarding Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuti Karan Yojna (RGGVY).
(a) RGGVY was launched in 2005.
(b) It aim for electrification of about 1.15 lakh un electrified villages.
(c) To provide free electricity connection to 2.34 crore Below Poverty House hold (BPL).
(d) The target year of achieving these targets is 2015.

14. Consider the following statements :
1. Lighting a Billion lives compaign aims to bring light into the live of one billion rural people by replacing the Kerosene and Paraffin lanterns with solar lighting devices.
2. Over 1.6 billion people in theWorld lac access to electricity, roughly25% are in India alone.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Important Facts From Yojana

Important Facts From Yojana

  • Important point of Energy Security
  • Facts Regarding Energy Security
  • Guiding principles of the integrated energy policy:
  • Growth in India’s energy demand:
  • Lighting A Billion Lives
  • The RGGVY was launched in 2005 with the following goals.   
  • Point You Should Know
  • Biofuls In India
  • Mitigation Service by India’s Forest and Tree Cover
  • Progress under the national horticulture Mission
  • For increasing the availability of food several steps have been taken such as the following
  • Indian Agri-Business Facts and Figures
  • Progress under the national horticulture Mission
  • Initiatives taken by the government of India
  • Coordinated Action on Skill Development
  • The main functions of the Council are
  • National Skill Development Corporation
  • Important Points of TourismIn India
  • Important Points of Inflation   
  • Inflation Basics
  • Inflation may be caused due to several economic factors
  • The problems due to inflation would be
  • Managing Food Inflation
  • Important Points of Water Resources In India
  • Irrigation
  • Drinking water supply
  • Hydropower
  • Flood Management
  • Challenges in Water Sector
  • The five goals identified for the National Water Mission are
  • Improved Management
  • Improving the efficiency of the Water facilities
  • Two Scheme Of RRR Of Water Bodies Approved
  • The main objectives of the scheme are
  • India After 60Years
  • A Math Matical Mind
  • The Peace Loving Country
  • Iindia’s Sporting Spirit
  • Challenges To India’s Democracy
  • Divisive tendencies
  • Extremism
  • Regionalism
  • Illiteracy
  • Corruption and nepotism
  • Important Persons Who Drafted Our Constitution
  • Other committees
  • Governments Investment For AAMADMI
  • Scheduled Banking Structure In India
  • What Government Is Doing To Develop India’s Infrastucture ?
  • Infrastructure –Deficit and Eleventh Plan Physical Targets
  • Status of Proposed UMPPs (Ultra Mega Power Project)
  • Priority Areas for Government
  • Telecome Sector: Ringing in new Era
  • Expansion of Network
  • Rural Telephony
  • 3G&Broad band Wireless Services (BWA)
  • Concept of Carbon Footprint
  • Offsetting carbon and obtaining credits for reduction of carbon emissions by adopting flexiblemechanisms
  • Carbon Dioxide Emissions from Fossil Fuels Burning in Top Ten Countries, 2006
  • Networking India
  • Wireline and Wireless subscriber numbers
  • Mobile Market Shares
  • E-Government Projects In India
  • eChoupal
  • TKS (TataKisan Sansars)
  • TNCDW (Tamil Nadu Corporation for Development Of Women Ltd.)
  • Drishtee
  • Gyandoot
  • Jagriti E-Sewa
  • Lokmitra
  • Bellandur
  • Janmitra
  • eUttaranchal
  • Telemedicine
  • Lokvani

UPSC: Authority for conducting Medical Examination

"UPSC do not conduct medical examination of the written qualified/recommended candidates for any of their examinations.

The Authorities who conduct the Medical Examination of written qualified/recommended candidates are the Ministries/Departments of Govt. of India concerned with the respective Examinations."

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Yojana Do You Know

YOJANA DO YOU KNOW

  • What is the Indo-U.S. Civilian Nuclear Deal?
  • What are theHydeAct and the 123Agreement?
  • Who are the Nuclear SuppliersGroup?
  • What does India get from theAgreement?
  • And what does India give?
  • What are the three flexibilitymechanisms put in place of the Kyoto Protocol for reducing GHGemission?
  • What is Joint Implementation?
  • What is Clean DevelopmentMechanism?
  • What is “Additionality” in a CDMproject ?
  • What are some of the concerns regarding CDM?
  • What does the Women’s Reservation Bill provide?
  • How did the Bill originate?
  • What is the objective of the Bill?
  • What are the apprehensions regarding theBill?
  • What is the status of the Bill now?
  • What is theHumanDevelopment index (HDl)?
  • How wasHDI Formulated?
  • How does India fare in the Human Development Report of 2009,?
  • What isHuman Poverty Index?
  • What is GenderRelated Development Index?
  • What areMillennium Development Goals ?
  • What is rainwater harvesting?
  • Why should rainwater be harvested?
  • How can rainwater be harvested?
  • Is rainwaterharvesting a newconcept in India?
  • Howis rainwater harvesting being done in rural areas?
  • What are themain Budget Documents placed before the Parliament?
  • What is theAnnual Financial Statement?
  • What are Demand for Grants?
  • What areAppropriation Bills?
  • What is Finance Bills?
  • What is the Macro Economic Framework Statement?
  • What is the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement?
  • What isMediumTermFiscalPolicy Statement?
  • What is the FRBMAct?
  • When was the idea of a Republic first conceived?
  • What is Expenditure Budget?
  • What is Receipt Budget?
  • When was the Constituent Assembly framed and howwas the Constitution Drafted?
  • Who were some of the prominent figures in the ConstituentAssembly?
  • What were the main Objectives of the Constitution?
  • In drafting the Constitution, what were the ideas that influenced the drafters?
  • What is the significance of the Preamble to the Constitution?
  • What is the Nuclear Liability Bill 2010?
  • Why is it important?
  • What are the main features of the Bill?
  • What compensation does the Bill stipulate?
  • How will the system operate?
  • What is the history of the Commonwealth Games?
  • What was the debate regarding the Bill ?
  • What are the major highlights of the XIX Commonwealth Games held at Delhi from 3rd to 14th October, 2010?
  • Which are the sports that will be played in the Delhi Common wealth Games?
  • What is the significance of Queen’s Baton Relay?
  • Why do we need a new direct Tax code?
  • What do theDelhi Gamesmascot and emblem signify?
  • If enacted, when would the DTC 2010 come into force?
  • What are the salient features of the code?
  • How is income classified under theDTC2010?
  • What are broad provisions relating to salary income under the code?
  • What are the proposed tax rates under the Code?
  • Total Income Tax Rates
  • Wealth tax
  • Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT)
  • Special rates for non-residents
  • What is the objective of the Unique dentification Project?
  • Will it be compulsory to get a UID number?
  • Capital Gains
  • How will the UID database be created?
  • How will a UID number be issued?
  • Howwill authentication be done?
  • How will inclusion of the underprivileged be ensured under the project?
  • How secure would the database be?
  • What is the institutional set up underwhich this project is being implemented?

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: List of Important Bills

List of Important Bills

  • Central Information Commission
  • Election Commission celebrates diamond jubilee
  • National Health Bill- 2009
  • National Arrears Grid
  • Gram Nyayalayas
  • Law Commission
  • Judges (Inquiry) Bill , 2006
  • Biotechnology Regulating Authority of
  • The prohibitions of unfair practices in technical, medical educations institutions and universities bills
  • Communal violence bill
  • Reservation based on religion
  • Gender equality in armed forces
  • National environment protection authority (NEPA)
  • The prohibition of unfair practices in technical, medical education institutions and universities bill 2010
  • Employee state insurance act (ESI)
  • Copyright bill
  • 86th constitutional amendment act
  • RTE act 2009
  • MPLAD
  • National Litigation Policy (NLP)
  • The higher educational and research bill 2010
  • Replacement of Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act
  • Representation of the people (amendment bill) 2006
  • MNREGA to have new dispute resolution system
  • Mines And Minerals (development and regulation) Bill
  • Educational Tribunal Bill, 2010
  • Trade makes(Amendment) Bill 2009
  • Public Interest Disclosure and Protection to person making the disclosure bill 2010
  • Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Bill 2010
  • Salary Hike for M.P.
  • Nehru National Solar Mission
  • National innovation council
  • Nalanda University Bill 2010
  • National Urban Health Programme
  • Heath System in Urban Area
  • Protection of Women Against Sexual Harassment At Work Places Bill 2010
  • New Mining Legislation

(Sample Essay) In India Democracy is way of Life by Vivek Kumar Singh

In India Democracy is way of Life

By: Vivek Kumar Singh
Course Coordinator
Essay Programme
WWW.UPSCPORTAL.COM  

For us in India, democracy is not just a way of life, it is the way of life. For our nation the defining principle has been and will always be “Unity in Diversity”. This is the idea of India. Our unity has been forged through the institutions and values of democracy. Indeed the fundamental premise behind our governance system is that every Indian is a free person. We seek salvation for ourselves through the framework of an open society and an open economy. Today, it is with pride as an Indian that recognize the extent to which our democratic experience is regarded abroad with admiration. India is a multi-religious and multicultural society. Democracy and the respect for fundamental human freedoms and for the rule of law do provide a congenial environment for development.

Democracy is a method of government by persuasion and discussion. The core of democracy is choice. Democracy is incompatible to any form of idea e.g. socialism, collectivism,or capitalism. Democratic society is always open to ideas and views.It entertains plurality of ideas and arrives at an agreed line of action by comparing them, ironing out the difference and forming a composition.The word Socialism was purposely avoided though many of the tenets of socialism were included as the DPSP. The constitution must allow future parliaments to function freely without being tied to a particular political agenda. All parliaments must be allowed the freedom to choose and adopt the best in the prevailing circumstances. The Preamble to our constitution says, “We the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Democratic Republic ” It has been further said in the preamble itself that Indian democracy will secure to all its citizens social, economic and political justice, liberty of thought, expression, belief and faith and equality of status and opportunity. In the past it guaranteed only political rights, but now it is also striving to secure economic rights as well.

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Government's Plan, Programme & Polices

Government's Plan, Programme & Polices

(1) Prerna:- The ‘janasankhya sthirata kosh (national population stabilization fund) has to promote & under take activities aimed at achieving population stabilization at a level consistent with the needs of sustainable economic growth. Social development and environment protectiony 2070

Prerna is a responsible for parenthood strategy. It is monetary incentive strategy aimed at pushing up the age of marriage of girls and delay the birth of the first child.

(2) National Rural Health Mission:- Launched in April 2005 the mission seeks to provide universal access to equitable, affordable and quality health care which is accountable and at the same time responsible to the needs of the people.

  • It also aims to achieve the goals set out under the national policy and the millennium development goals during the mission period.

(3) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna:- Launched by ministry of labour & employment, govt of India to provide health insurance coverage for BPL families.

  • Beneficiaries are entitled to hospitalization coverage up to Rs 30,000 for most of the disease that require hospitalization.

(4) National Food Security Mission:-Sponsored scheme launched in august 2007.

  • Objective is to increased production and productivity of wheat, rice and pulses.

(5) 15 Point Programme:-In Oct 2009 govt decided to include 3 more schemes in the Prime minister’s new 15 point programme for the welfare of minorities.

Those are: -

  • National rural drinking water programme.
  • Urban infrastructure developed scheme for small and medium town.
  • Urban infrastructure and governance scheme.

(6) Bharat Nirman Yojna:- It is a time bound business plan for action in rural in infrastructure .Under Bharat nirman , action was proposed in the areas of:-

  • Irrigation.
  • Rural housing.
  • Rural water supply.
  • Rural electrification.
  • Rural telecommunication connectivity.

(7) National Mission On Education:- It is a mission in which education is provide through information and communication technology. “SAKSHAT” one stop education portal was launched on Oct 30 2006 by the president of India.

  • Head of National knowledge commission:- sham pitroda.

(80 Right To Education Act 2009:- Article 21-(A), as inserted by the constitution (86th Amendment Act) 2002, provides for free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years as  a fundamental rights. Consequently the parliament has enacted this in April 2009.

Salient features:-

  • Free and compulsory education 6 to 14 age group.
  • Will apply to all India except J&K.
  • Provide for 25% reservation for economically disadvantaged communities in admission in private school.
  • A child who completes elementary education (up to class 8) shall be awarded a certificate.

(9) Female Literacy:-It is a scheme to provide education & related facilities to ST Students launched by ministry of trial affairs in dec 11, 2009.

(10) Anil Kalkaska Committee on reforms in IITS:-it will suggest reforms to make these elite institutions a global brand.

(11) Yashpal Committee Report:- It was set up in 2008 for higher education and research.

  • It has suggested the scrapping of all higher education regulatory /monitoring bodies and creation of a super regulation.
  • It also recommended that the deemed university status be abandoned and that all deserving universities be either converted into full fledged universities or scrapped.

(12) National Rural Livelihood Mission:-Ministry of rural development and panchyati raj proposed to restructure the existing swarnjayanti gram swarojgar yojana into rural livelihood mission to have a focused approach to rural poverty eradication in a time bound manner.

  • Objective is to reduce poverty among rural BPL by promoting diversified and gainful self employment and wage employment opportunities which would lead to an appreciable increase in sustainable basis.

(13) NREGA Renamed After Mahatma Gandhi:- On Oct 2, 2009 Government has changed the name of National Rural Employment guarantee Act to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment guarantee Act.

(14) Chandra Sheker Panel:- on the recomandation of a committee headed by cabinet secretary K.M Chander shaker. Centre had increased the pension for retired service man.

(15) Rajiv Awas Yojna:-Ministry of housing and urban poverty alleviation had launched the housing project called the Rajiv awas yojna for slum dwellers and the urban poor.

  • Aimed at making India slum free in the next five years.

(16) Government Gave 50% Women’s Quota: - For women in urban local bodies from 33 % to 50 % by the 108th const. amendment act.

(17) B.K Chaturvedi panel to resolve the inter ministrial issues to speed up the ambitious national highways  development project taken up by the road transport and highway ministry.

(18) Librahan Commission:- It was set up in dec 16 ,1992 by the Narashima Rao govt. to probe the demolition of Babri Mosque.The commission was initially asked to give a report in three months, however it could do so only after over 16 years that saw 39 sitting and 48 extensions, finally on June 30 2009 it gave the report.

(19) S.D. Tendulkar Committee:-It is to estimate poverty in the country. It’s said that about 38% of the country’s population are living below poverty line. This figure is 10% higher than the present poverty estimate of 28.5 % by the planning commission.

(20) Moily Panel:- For administrative reform commission it is the 2nd administrative reform commission.

(21) Unique Identification Authority:- Chairman of UID is Nandan Nilekani. He revealed that the first set of 16 digit unique identification number for citizen of the country will roll out by the end of 2010.

  • The UIAI is a part of the planning mission of India.
  • AADHAR:-UIAI now new name AADHAR and also a logo.
  • AADHAR or foundation through through which the citizen can claim his/her rights and establishment when assumed of equal opportunities as symbolized by the logo which has the halo of the sun in the imprint of a thumbs.

(22) M.S Swami Nathan Panel:- It’s recommendation is on coasted management zone.

(23) G.T Nanavati-Akshay Mehta judical commission:- Probing the Godhra train carnage and post Godhra riots.

(24) Justice B.N Srikrishna is the head of the committee on Telangana issue. The committee is requested to submit its report by dec 31, 2010.

(25) Census 2011:-15th national census of India. President being first person to share her details. First census was conducted in 1872.

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Sports Solved Paper

Current Affairs Part- I
Sports Solved Paper

1. Consider the following statements :
1. The yonex- sunrise Indian open badminton Grand prix Goldwas held in Chennai.
2. 19 countries are participating in the tournament, carrying a prizemoneyof $150000.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements :
1. Vishwanathan Anand retained the FIDE World Chess championship, defeating Bulgarian Veselin Topalov.
2. Anand become the undisputed World Chess champion after winning an eight player tournament in 2007.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements :
1. Sushil Kumar won his first ever Gold Medal in the Asian Wrestling held in New Delhi.
2. Sushil won the bronze medal in the Olympic game of 2008.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following statements :
1. India and Pakistan were declared joint Champions of the Sultan Azlan Shah hockey tourament after the final was abandoned due to rain.
2. The sultan Azlan Shah hockey tournament was first started in 1983 in Indonesia.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements :
1. Rafal Nadal beat Roger Federer to win the Madrid Masters.
2. Nadal collected his 18th Career Masters 1000 title, onemore than Adre Agassi and two ahead of Federer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Rafal Nadal won the French Open by defeating Robin Sodeling.
(b) Nadal has won the title fifth time, this has put him second on the all time list of French open winners, one behind Bjorn Borg.
(c) It was also first time he had won the French open title without dropping a set.
(d) In men’s doubles Daniel Mestor and Nenad Zimonjic beat Leander paes and LukasDlouhy.

7. With regard to African World Cup history. Which was the first of Africa’s team to appear in the FIFA World Cup?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Tunisia
(c) Egypt
(d) Morocco

8. Which player is not only the best ever scorerwith 15 goals but also the player who has scored in the most number of matches, 11.
(a) Ronaldo
(b) Ronaldinio
(c) Jurgan Klinsmann
(d) Kocksis

9. Consider the following statements :
1. Brazil havewon theworld cups highest number of times that is 19.After that ItalyandGermany in 17 andArgentina in 15.
2. In the 2010 FIFAWorld Cup Slovakia was the only debutant country which participated in the tournament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Who won the $ 120000 Yonex sunrise India open Grand prixgold badminton championships?
(a) SainaNehwal
(b) JwalaGutta
(c) Ashwini Pannapa
(d) ChooWong mew

11. Consider the following statements :
1. SainaNehwal completed a spectacular hat-trick of titles byClinching the Indonesia open super series.
2. Before clinching the Indonesia open super series, she won the Indian open grand prix and then the Singapore open super series.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Sports

Current Affairs Part- I
Sports

  • Sebastian Vettel wins Malaysian GP
  • Paes & Dlouhy beat Bhupathi & Mirnyi for title
  • Roddick reigns supreme at Key Biscayne
  • Indian Open badminton at Chennai
  • Emma Bonney downs Chitra for World title
  • Three medals for Santoshi
  • Negi shares second spot
  • Advani reigns supreme
  • AITAto launch IPL-style Indian Tennis League
  • Videocon to renewbid to own IPL team
  • Nadal’s reign continues
  • Wimbledon winners to net £1million
  • Viswanathan Anand faces multiple challenges
  • Sahara Pune Warriors is new IPL team
  • Chennai Super Kings rules
  • Woods crashes out
  • Henin wins title
  • Bhupathi opens tennis academy
  • Anand retains world title
  • Sushil Kumar wins gold
  • Memorable title triumph for England
  • India, Korea declared joint winners
  • Webber wins Monaco Grand Prix
  • Nadal prevails in Madrid Masters
  • 2012 Olympics mascots unveiled

(Paper) CDS: Elementary Mathematics Solved Exam Paper (II): 2007

Combined Defence Services

CDS Elementary Mathematics Solved Exam Paper (II) : 2007

1.What is the number of sperhical balls of 2.5 mm diameter that can be obtained by  melting a semicircular disc of 8 cm diameterand 2 thickness?
(a) 6144
(b) 3072
(c) 1536

(Venue Details) UPSC: Central Police Forces (AC) Examination: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
Central Police Forces (Asstt Commandants) Exam Venue

Central Police Forces (Asstt Commandants) Exam Venue:

(Notification) UPSC: Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination: 2011

Union Public Service Commission
Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2011

The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting the Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination 2011 at 41 Centres throughout the country on 09.10.2011 (Sunday). Admission Certificates to the candidates have been dispatched. Letters of rejection stating the reason(s) for rejection have also been issued. If any candidate has not received either the Admission Certificate or rejection letter, he/she may contact UPSC Facilitation Counter near Gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or on Telephone Nos. 011-23385271, 011-23381125 or 011-23098543 on all working days between 1000 hrs to 1700 hrs. The candidates may also send fax messages on Fax No. 011-23387310.

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Person in News Solved Paper

   

Current Affairs Part- I
Person in News Solved Paper

1. Match the following
List I (well known Person)                         List II (Releated field)
A. Sant Sing Chatwal                                1. Businessman
B. Ilaiyaraaja                                             2. Music Composer
C.Vinid Banga                                           3. Hotelier
D. Zohra Segal                                           4. Artiste.
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 4 3 1

2. Match the following
List I (well known person)                         List II (Related Fiedl)
A.Anil Bordia                                            1. Environmentalist.
B. B.M. Hegde.                                         2. Nuclear Scientist.
C. Bikash Sinha                                         3. Educationist
D. Ranjit Bhargava                                     4. Cardiologist.
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1

3. Match the following
List I (well Known Person)                     List II (Related Field)
A. Bipin Chandra                                    1. Historian
B. N. Vaghul                                           2 Music Composer
C. N.M. Shroff                                        3. Bamker
D. Shrivias Khale.                                    4. Eye Speualist
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 4 3 2

4. Match the following
List I (well Known Person)                         List II (Related Field)
A. Ustand Sultan Khan                               1. yurveda practioner
B.Kumudini Lakhia                                     2. Panchavadya Exponent
C.K.N.Marar                                             3. Sarangi player
D. E.T. Narayanan                                     4. Kathak exponent
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

5. Who won the commonwealth writer’s prize for 2010 for his epic tale solo set in communist and post communist Bulgaria.
(a) Rana Dasgupta
(b) Shisir Bose
(c) RanjanMukherjee
(d) Bilal Sangupta

6. Consider the following statements:
1. Social activist Ela Bhatt wins the Niwano peace prize for 2010 for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in india.
2. In 1972, She establish the self-enployed women’s association (SEWA)
Which of the above statement is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Download) Current Affairs Part- I: Person in News

Current Affairs Part- I
Person in News

  1. Gen. Vijay Kumar Singh takes charge as Chief of Army Staff
  2. Anish Kapoor’s sculpture for 2012 Olympics
  3. Lifetime achievement award forR. P. Goenka
  4. Manglik new Nasscom chief
  5. Shekhar Kapur on Cannes jury
  6. Godmother of civil rights movement is dead
  7. PC maker, inspiration for Microsoft, dead
  8. Juan Antonio Samaranch passes away
  9. State nominates A.R. Lakshmanan on MullaperiyarCommittee
  10. SRK’s wax statue heads forHongKong
  11. President clears Justice Gyan Sudha Misra’s appointment
  12. Karan Singh honoured
  13. Chirayu Amin is interim IPL chief
  14. Rajasthan Governor passes away
  15. Indian diplomat held for ‘spying’
  16. First woman to conquer 14 peaks
  17. Supreme Court quashes criminal proceedings against Kushboo
  18. Kapadia, next Chief Justice of India
  19. Major General Nair appointed Judge Advocate General
  20. Indian appointed to United Nations post
  21. Zulfikar’s daughter, nephew dispute claim in Fatima’s book
  22. M.M. Joshi to be chairman of Public Accounts Committee
  23. Jonathan is Nigerian President
  24. First women Muslim MPs
  25. Shantha Sinha gets second term as NCPCR chairperson

(Paper) CDS: Elementary Mathematics Solved Exam Paper (I): 2007

Combined Defence Services

CDS Elementary Mathematics Solved Exam Paper (I) : 2007

1. If the mean of the variable X is M, what is the mean of variable Y = (X – 4)/ 5?
(a) (M – 4)/ 5
(b) M
(c) M – 5
(d) 5M – 4

Does anyone knows some goods books for Essay in Hindi & English for Civil Services?

QUESTION: Dear Friends,
Does anyone knows some goods books (Online or Offline) for Essay in Hindi as well as in English for Civil Services.I shall be very thankful for your suggestions.
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