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(Download) UPSC IAS (PRE) 2019 General Studies Paper-1 (Set-B) with Answer Keys

UPSC Exam Papers


UPSC IAS Prelims 2019
General Studies Question Paper (Set - B)

SET: B
Time: 2 Hours
Marks: 200

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.

2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.

3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b) Tropical rain forests

(c) Underground cave systems

(d) Water reservoirs

3. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main adyantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

(c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

5. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only  

(b) 2 only  

(c) Both 1 and 2  

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

7. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c) Indira Gandhi

(d) Morarji Desai

8. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

10. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Ninth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

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(Administrative Report Mains Exam 2013) V. T. Krishnamachari Committee (1962) "Part-2"

TOPIC OF IAS MAINS EXAMINATION 2013

V. T. KRISHNAMACHARI COMMITTEE ON INDIAN AND STATE ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES AND PROBLEMS OF DISTRICT ADMINISTRATION(1962) "PART – II"

PROBLEMS OF ADMINISTRATION AND DEVELOPMENT AT THE VILLAGE, BLOCK AND DISTRICT LEVELS

Plans of development at different levels within the district comprise activities which influence intimately the well being of nearly '360 millions of people living in the rural areas. In recommending the establishment of a nation-wide extension service on a permanent basis the Grow More Food Enquiry Committee (1952) and the Planning Commission stressed the importance of establishing a well organised democratic structure of administration within the district -for meeting the demands of a welfare State.

At the present stage of development it is specially necessary that village panchayats, panchayat samitis and zila parishads should be built up as institutions carrying out the policies embodied in the Plan and laid down by State Governments with the approval of State legislatures and implementing the community development and other programmes in the respective areas with the maximum co-operation of the people.

While affirming the objective of introducing a democratic-structure of administration within the district above the village level, the National Development Council approved the proposals of the Planning Commission that the democratic structure in the district should be built on the foundation of the village panchayat and the village cooperative; democratic institutions at the district, block and village level should form a connected structure of administration; that while the overall responsibilities for administration, finance and planning will continue to vest in the Static Government the responsibility for local planning and implementation should devolve on the democratic bodies within the district. The State Five Year Plans as well as the Annual Plan should be broken up into district and block plans and in relation to these each• village should have its own ,development plan.

The principal duties which have .to be undertaken within the district and which, in turn, raise a variety of administrative and other problems are:

(1) preparation and implementation of village agricultural production plans and plans for basic minimum amenities for the village based on full utilisation of manpower and other resources and also on the obligations
of beneficiaries in respect of irrigation and soil conservation, etc;
(2) preparation and implementation of block development plans;
(3) preparation and implementation of district development plans;
(4) assisting in the implementation of land reform programmes, assisting the economically weaker sections of the village community, developing cooperatives and rural industries, and developing facilities for education, adult literacy, rural-sanitation, etc.

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(Administrative Report) V. T. Krishnamachari Committee (1962) "Part-1"


(Administrative Report) V. T. Krishnamachari Committee (1962) "Part-1"


SYSTEMS OF TRAINING OF OFFICERS OF INDIAN ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES:-

1. Training in the National Academy

The system of training of IAS officers recruited directly in the National Academy is described. The following suggestions are made in regard to the National Academy and its courses of training:

(1) An advisory council may be set up to give guidance to the Director of the Academy.
(2) Rural development may be included as a subject of study in the foundational course.
(3) Visits to one or two rural development centres and study in the Planning Commission for two or three days may be included in the programme of Bharat Darshan.

2. Probationary training in the States

The systems of practical training in th2 different States are summarised. The following five recommendations are made with regard to the course of training of IAS probationers in the States:

(1) The period of training should be fixed at 18 months.
(2) Probationers should be appointed to hold the concerned offices for enabling them to learn important categories of work like revenue work, survey and settlement, treasury work and community development.
Probationers should work as additional B.D.O.s for a minimum period of 3 months. Branches of work which are relatively not so important can be learnt by the probationers by being attached to the officers in charge.
(3) I.A.S. probationers should do case work. They should be instructed by experienced district magistrates in methods of dealing with law and order situations.
(4) The scheme of departmental examinations should be revised.
(5) Probationers should be posted for training under carefully selected collectors who should be required to send periodical confidential reports on the work done by them and their capacity in general.

(Getting Started) What is the Right Time for Starting Preparation for UPSC Exams?



What is the Right Time for Starting Preparation for IAS EXAM



Many IAS aspirants have a common doubt that what is the right age to start preparing for Civil Services Examination (IAS).

In this article we will try to focus light on this doubt and will try to give a clear picture so that you can start your preparation at right time and in right way.

There is no perfect age to start preparing for the IAS. But mostly the IAS aspirants start their preparation right after their graduation at the age of 21 or 22 years. But, there are many of aspirant who get inspire later on in their life to join the civil service and wish to start preparing after 26 or 28 years. I have also seen aspirant who have cleared the exam at age of 31 in their 1st attempt.

For school going student

  • You have ample amount of time before you are eligible to apply for this exam. At this age you should not worry too much about strategy and books which need to be read to clear the exam or what optional will suits you to go for Mains.
  • I am not saying you should not read for IAS but what I am trying to say is that do not make it your primary goal for now.
  • Your primary goal should be completing your school education with full focus and dedication and IAS should be your secondary goal for now.

For college going student

  • You should focus primarily on your graduation and you can start preparing for IAS exam seriously from starting of your last year of graduation or little before that without compromising your graduation study because you won’t get another chance to improve your graduation but you will get enough chance to clear IAS exam.
  • Now before going into detail of what you should read at your age for IAS exam. let’s see the structure and broad syllabus of IAS Exam.
     


 

  • In the GS paper there are subjects like Art Culture, History, Geography, Polity, Science and Economy together with Current Affairs and general awareness.
  • In mains for GS paper Ethics is added extra in the prelims syllabus with some additional section in each parts such as world history, world geography etc.

 

What should you prepare in school?

  • Now having seen the various subjects and topics in the GS paper we can now get down to the actual preparation plan.
  • In this age you can prepare current affairs and build up your general knowledge base both of which will greatly help later on when you’re preparing full-time for the IAS exam.

So how should you prepare current affairs?

  • For current affairs the daily newspaper is the best source. Newspaper reading should become your daily habit. There is no need to make any notes from newspapers right now. You should just enjoy reading the newspaper initially. At this stage even you need not be too specific in reading article, you can read whole newspaper without bothering much what is relevant for exam and what is not.

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 84

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 84

Passage

There is something people like about rappelling or abseilling. A form of controlled descent used in mountaineering. It follows the more gruelling task of climbing up. Of late, rappelling has found popularity as a staged activity. Participants walk up a cliff rock face, while securely anchored to at least one safety rope that is released in a controlled fashion from above. Some clubs keep a third line free for instructors to come down and assist should anyone get stuck mid-route. Most important, participants are allowed adequate pauses enroute for that photograph of manhood’s dawning, , mama’s precious boy looking great on vertical rock. As many adventure clubs would tell you, very few of these muscle toting, fatigues-clad youngsters return to climbing. The photograph endures; the mountain fades. Those who stick on do so because of a deeper fascination, fully acknowledging their fragility and hardly resembling the branded image of the adventurous. Further, as with the maturity curve in Indian sports, deep purses do not always mean great talent; it is the progressive tapping
of the pyramid’s bottom end that reveals a wider canvas of talent. The story is little different with automobiles, where self-image precedes utility in vehicle purchase. Utility vehicles (Uvs), sports utility vehicles (SUVs) and a few crossovers make up the ‘adventure vehicles’ on Indian roads. In 2004–05. total domestic UV sales had increased by 20.46 per cent to 176.339 units from 146.388 units. As at end August 2005, the trend for 2005–06 was a sales rise of 13.67 percent to 72.686 units for the category. Crossovers sell in very small volumes. So the country’s adventure vehicle story is manly that of UVs. Of these, the obviously brute types, that is, the big, expensive SUVs- lord the relatively tame terrain of cities. Where else can the contrast be sharper? The key thing is to be seen seem adventureous and look capable of crushing all else on the rods. A well known fact is that beyond the odd automobile journalist who test-drives a ‘brute’ in testy terrain, most owners of off-road studs dare not stray from the tramac, as the vehicles are expensive. In a cost-conscious market like India with long periods of careful ownership, you could bunch a wide range of vehicles from the cheapest Scorpio, costing around ` 7.3 lakhs (in Mumbai), to the costliest Porsche Cayenne, selling at ` 92 lakhs, into this segment. Naturally therein, the base of ownership and the tendency to punish the vehicle tapers with higher price points. So if the brutes are largely doing tame duty or, worse, showing off, where are the real adventure vehicles? To pick out that segment, one needs to first outline the contours of Indian adventure. Like everything else, it tends to be and needs to be low cost. Indian civilan mountaineering expeditions, for example and there are several every year travel without radio contact, global positioning system of satellite phone, and cut down on porters and use borroed or hired equipment in short, rough it out wherever possible. The limited budget is entirely skewed towards the final goal with highest priority in expense for critical input segment equipment, clothing, shelter and food), all else enjoying lower priority it is a bottom of the pyramid consumer experience, one in which the final stages of transport are met by ruged, low end UVs. In the hill and moditains it is the Bolero, Sumo, Trax and their earlier brethren which remain trusted and are worked hare on rough tracks every day. Mahindra and Mahindra (M and M). Tata Motors and Force Motors (earlier Tata Tempo) make these vehicles. The companies are based in Maharashtra, which has the highest number of adventure clubs in the country and a strong presence of the autombile industry. While on a trek or rock climb in the sahyadris, it is common to run into somebody from Tata Motors of Tata Power, equally

strong being the likelihood of having a batch-mate from one of the Tata companies if you are training at a mountaineering institute in the Himalayas. Sadly, however, the economies of mass manufacturing shy away from responding to niche segments and in India, adventure is a niche activity. The marker’s darling therefore, remains the great Indian family or that faceless bunch of strangers, jammed into a “people’s carrier”. No marks for guessing which is the adventure’s longstanding favorite for personal transport. Although the price of petrol has risen, the one vehicle that consistency captured the fancy of adventure enthusiasts was the Maruti Gypsy, now reduced to largely institutional sales. It has the perfect  size to manoeuvre on mountain roads, is the best off- road vehicle around, commands respect in remote areas, allows space for others on roads and, in the true spirit of the adventurer, has a light weight presence. No fanfare. It is the vehicle people will still give an arm and a leg to load up and head for the crags. Interestingly, this size of the UV has been left unattended by all domestic manufacturers, including Maruti, which has often described the Gypsy’s small size and petrol engine as potential sales dampeners. M and M has an engaging product in the larger Invader while Tata Motors and Force Motors have kept out. But Maruti’s own view was partly based on the Gypsy’s limited ability as a people mover. But the typical adventurer, the sort hailing from the bottom of the pyramid, would have been happy with a manoeuvrable, off-road model that was backed by the country’s largest vehicle support network. Neither Maruti nor other manufactures found it attractive. For the present, therefore, India’s adventure vehicles are gas guzzlers, sold with little appreciation for he budget and requirement of Indian adventures.

1. According to the author which type of items take priority due to the budget constraints for adventure trips?

(a) Porters
(b) Global Positioning System
(c) Specialized Equipment
(d) Satellite Phone

2. “It is the vehicle people will still give an arm and a leg to load up and head for the crags.” Which one of the following is not a feature of the vehicle referred to in the above sentence

(a) This vehicle can be maneuvered smoothly on hillyroads
(b) The sales of this vehicle are mostly institutional
(c) It is well accepted in remote areas
(d) It is the best vehicle for all terrains

3. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per the passage

(a) Abseilling has lately become popular as a staged activity
(b) India’s adventure vehicles are manufactured and sold constricting requirement of Indian adventures
(c) Indian market is cost conscious with longer periods of careful ownership’s
(d) Force Motors is the successor of Bajaj Tempo

Passage

Unemployment is an important index of economics lack and lost output, but it is much more than that. For the unemployed person it is often a damaging affront to human dignity and sometimes a catastrophic blow to family life. Nor is this cost distributed in proportion to ability to bear it. It falls most heavily on the young, the semiskilled and unskilled, the black person, the older worker, and the underemployed person in a low-income rural area who is denied the option of securing more rewarding urban employment. The concentrated increase of unemployment among specific groups in the population means far greater costs to society than can be measured simply in hours of involuntary idleness or dollars of income lost. The extra costs include disruption of the careers of young people, increased juvenile delinquency, and perpetuation of conditions which breed racial discrimination in employment and otherwise deny equality of opportunity. There is another and more subtle cost. The social and economic strains of prolonged under utilization create strong pressures for cost increasing solutions. On the side of labour, prolonged high unemployment leads to “share-the-work” pressures for shorter hours, intensifies resistance to technological change and to rationalization of work rules, and in genera, increases incentives for restrictive and inefficient measures to protect existing jobs. On the side of business, the weakness of markets leads to attempts to raise prices to cover high average overhead costs and to pressure for protection against foreign and domestic competition. On the side of agriculture, higher prices are necessary to active income objectives, when urban and industrial demand for food and fibres is depressed and lack of opportunities for jobs and higher incomes in industry keep people on the farm. In all these cases, the problems are real and the claims understandable. But the solutions suggested raise costs and promote  inefficiency. By no means the least of the advantages of full utilization will be a diminution of these pressures. They will be weaker, and they can be more  irmly resisted in good conscience, when markets are generally strong and job opportunities are plentiful. The demand for labour is derived from the demand for the goods and services which labour participates in producing. Thus, unemployment will be reduced to 4 per cent of the labour is derived from the demand for the myriad of goods and services automobiles, clothing, food, electric generators, highways, and so on is sufficiently great in total to required the productive efforts of 96 per cent of the civilian labour force. Although many goods are initially produced as materials or components to meet demands related to the further production of other goods, all goods (and services) are ultimately destined to satisfy demands that can, for convenience, be classified into four categories: consumer demand, business demand for new plants and machinery and for additions to inventories, net export demand of foreign buyers, and demand of government units, federal, state, and local. Thus Gross National Product (GNP), our total output, is the sum of four major components of expenditure: personal consumption expenditure, gross private domestic investment, net exports, and government purchases of goods and services. The primary line of attack on the problem of unemployment must be through measures which will expand one or more of these components of demand. Once a satisfactory level of employment has been achieved in growing economy, economic stability requires the maintenance of continuing balance between growing productive capacity and growing demand. Action to expand demand is called for not only when demand actually, declines and recession appears but even when the rate of growth of demand falls short of the rate of growth of capacity.

4. In this passage, the word involuntary means

(a) Not free
(b) Without exercise of the will
(c) Done gratuitously
(d) Not desirable

5. According to the passage, a typical business reaction to a recession is to press for

(a) Protection against imports
(b) Higher unemployment insurance
(c) Restrictive business practices
(d) Restraint on union activity

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 82

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 82

Direction: In each question given below is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrating decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action is regard to the problem policy etc. on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursuing.

Give answer.

(a) If only I follows
(b) If only II follows
(c) If neither I nor II follows
(d) If both I and II follows

1. Statements: Many school children died in few accidents caused due to poor maintenance of school buses during the last few months. Courses of Action:

(I) The government should set up an empart group to inspect the condition of school buses to avoid such accidents.
(II) The government should suspend the license of all the school buses till these buses are properly checked.

2. Statements: Many pilgrims died in a stampede while boarding a day of the ten day long festival. Courses of Action:

(I) The government should immediately cancel the licenses of all the private ferry operators with immediate effect.
(II) The government should deploy an adequate number of its personals to guide pilgrims on their journey to the holy place.

3. Statements: The railway have decided to repair the main tracks within the city on the following Sunday and has decided to suspend operations for the whole day. Courses of Action:

(I) the railway authority should issue public notification will in advance to ease inconvenience to the passengers.
(II) All the long distance trains entering the city during the repair hours should be terminated outside the city limit.

4. Statements: Many customers complained to the manager of local branch of the bank against the high handedness of the bank employees while dealing with the customers. Courses of Action:

(I) The bank manager should immediately suspend all the employees of the branch and deploy a different set of employees.
(II) The bank management should ask for a report from the manager of the branch for taking necessary steps.

5. Going on bicycle, you are hit by a speeding car, you.

(a) Start fighting and abusing the car – owner.
(b) Balance your movements, note the car number and Report to the police.
(c) Balance your movements and go away.
(d) Rush to the car – owner and start him beating.

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 81

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 81

Passage

There is a Portuguese word ‘Saudade’, a word that makes into lists of those hardest to translate into English. It describes a deep, heart-crushing nostalgic longing for something someone loves, something someone lost. That is the word to describe the emotion that must have driven Housefull: The Golden Age of Hindi Cinema, edited by Ziya Us Salam. This record of notable films from the 1950s and 1960s is written by journalists Ziya Us Salam, Suresh Kohli, Anuj Kumar, and Vijay Lokapally.

How do you write about films you obviously love? It is a tricky feat to accomplish. You could part the curtains and delve into the inside story, which could slip into gossip magazine territory. Or you could start analysing these movies as compositions of images and signs. It could range from insightful to boring, at worst pretentious. Or you use the movies as a starting point and funnel out the discussion into the social, economic, and political context, and then land in academic territory.

1. You are meeting a co- worker for the first time outside work. He is late half an hour. How will you react?

(a) Tell him that you don’t appreciate waiting for so long and in future he should take care of this
(b) Ask him the reason of being late
(c) Wait for sometime and then you go to your home
(d) Ask indirectly that if something happened to make him late. 

2. You have started a business by taking loan from a bank. But, your business failed miserably what will you do in future?

(a) You will pay the loan anyhow and then run.
(b) You will study your failure and establish your business again
(c) You will again try to establish another business
(d) You will leave everything.

3. You are the director of a big company. To motivate your subordinates, you have decided to pay them perks and incentives. Paying incentives can be done except when.

(a) Output is hard to achieve
(b) Delays are consistent.
(c) Employees have no over control quality
(d) Employees have no over the productivity.

4. A team is performing extremely good and is a paramount example of team work. When of the following may be the primary force in the success of the team?

(a) Cohesiveness among members.
(b) Collective responsibility
(c) The team leader
(d) Both (a) and (b).

5. An officer has decided to survey his district identify the problems in the area and important a few policies to benefit the people. But the policies did not succeed the Reason for this failure could be

(a) He was unexperienced and hence could not identify the problems correctly
(b) He had no knowledge about the district.
(c) He had sufficient resources for the implementation of his policies.
(d) His implementation way was good.

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 80

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 80

Passage 1

Among the fundamental qualities a citizen of democracy must have is a deep concern for the good life of his fellows. He must have a sense of social responsibility and the will to sink his own immediate interests and the interests of his class in the common good; to do his full share in working for the community.

But, these qualities alone might lead one to be a well-meaning dictator or an unthinking follower. The citizen of democracy must also be a man of independent judgement, he must respect the individualities of others and therefore be tolerant of opinion in conflict with his own; he must prefer methods of discussion and persuasion to methods of force. The citizen of democracy also needs certain intellectual qualities. It is not enough to love truth, one must learn how to find it. It is easy to teachstudent to reason correctly in the physical sciences. It is more difficult to reason correctly in the social  science where their own prejudices and passions are involved. They must be taught habit of clear thinking in order that they may acquire the power of recognizing their own prejudices and of-discussing political and economic questions with the same calm, with the same desire to understand other person’s position, with the same precision and absence of over statesman that they would bring to the discussion of a problem in mathematics.

1. Which quality has been highly talked of by the author?

(a) independent judgement
(b) reasoning ability
(c) predilection
(d) assimilative ability

2. Which of the following is unstated in the light of the above passage?

(a) identifying one’s own prejudices
(b) tolerance of opinions
(c) a feeling of compassion
(d) absence of overstatement

Passage 2

Widows, deserted, separated, abandoned, walked and, thrown out, older and younger unmarried single women remain unrecognised by both the society and government. The most ‘forgotten’ women of the country, there is very little information available on their numbers and even less information on how they survive. According to the 2002 census, there are 39.8 million single women in the country. The National Forum for single women’s rights is a collective of more than 50,000 women across different states that organises, struggles and lobbies with governments for their rights. These are widows, separated, divorced, unmarried mothers, women whose husbands rare missing and those single women living with HIS’/
AIDS. In short, “A woman who is not living with a man in a marital-like relationship.” The women came together as a collective to reiterate not only their demand to constitutional rights, but also to fight against the feudal and patriarchal society that denies them a dignified existence. The organisation includes woman like Sharifa from Ahmedabad, who fights with maulanas for abolishment of iddat (customary home confinement) for divorced Muslim women and government officials in Gandhinagar who refuse to release grains sanctioned for widows. The organization also includes woman like Saraswati from Jharkhand, who has first hand witnessed the Adivasi’s ‘daayan’ pratha, where widows are branded as witches and ostracised by the community. And this is to curb her from claiming her property rights after her husbands’s death.

3. Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage?

(a) The most unforgotten women of the country are the ones who remain unrecognised by both the society and government.
(b) Pathetic condition of single women in the country.
(c) Insensitivity of society and government towards single women.
(d) A significant portion of the female population that finds no mention in government agendas are single women.

4. According to the passage, “a woman who is not living with a man in a marital like relationship” can be­

(a) Unmarried woman whose husbands are missing.
(b) Sex-workers living with HIV/AIDS
(c) Single mothers
(d) Adivasi unmarried woman

5. With reference to the passage which of the following statements is/are true-

1. Feudal and patriarchal societies have denied a dignified existence to women.
2. The National Forum for single women’s rights struggles and lobbies with the government fortheir constitutional rights and protection against the feudal and patriarchal society that denies them a dignified existence.

Select the correct answer from the following code-

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 79

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 79

Passage 1

Some modern anthropologists hold that biological evolution has shaped not only morphology but also human behaviour. The role those anthropologists ascribe to evolution is not of dictating the details of human behaviour but one of imposing constraint ways of feeling, thinking and acting that “come naturally in archetypal situations in any culture”. Our ‘frailties’, emotion and motives such as rage, fear, greed, gluttony, joy. lust, love may be a very mixed assortment, but they share at least one immediate quality: we are as we feel, “in the grip” of them and this way they give us our sense of constraints. Unhappily, some of these frailties shape our need for ever increasing security among them which are presently maladaptive. Yet beneath the overlay of cultural details, they, too, are said to be biological in direction, and therefore as natural to us as our appendices are. We would need to comprehend thoroughly their adaptive origins in order to understand how badly they snide us now. And we might then begin to resist their pressures.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to present1. a position on the foundation of human behaviour and on what those foundations imply,
2. a theory outlining the parallel development of human morphology and of human behaviour o
3. a practical method for resisting the pressure of biologically determined drives.

Codes

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2

2. The author implies that control over the “frailties’ that constrain our behaviour is thought to presupposeI.

I. that those frailties are recognized as currently beneficial and adaptive
II. a full understanding of why those frailties evolved and of how they function now.

Codes

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these

3. It can be inferred that in his discussion of maladaptive frailties the author assumes that--

I. evolution does not favour the emergence of adaptive characteristics over the emergence of maladaptive ones.
II. changes in the total human environment can outpace evolutionary change.

Codes

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these

Passage 2

Social justice evades definition, Still in simple and commonly perceived form social justice may be described as principle which consists in the claims of all men to advantages and an equal share in all advantages which are commonly regarded as desirable and which are in fact conducive to human well being. That is reason why social justice encompasses all the principles of justice e.g. justice of transactions or rectificatory justice by way’ of restitution and compensation; justice of conformity to rules or like shall be treated alike; justice according to deserting one or distributive justice; justice according to need; justice according to choice. Social justice modified and fixes priority among the various principles of justice. A jurist very succinctly summaries the practical shape of contents of social Justice.(1) the principle of social . Justice requires that all men and women should have a to an equal share in all those advantages which commonly desired and conducive to human well being; (2) this principle is not identical with the demand for qual treatment for all men and women,  it rather requires preferential treatment of the privileged under who lack advantages possessed by others; (3) the principle allocation according to need is a subordinate aspect of social justice; (4) the principle of conformity to rules is also subordinate aspect of social justice.  This principle is designed to secure all men and women two advantages; (i) that their reasonable expectations will be fulfilled and (ii) their dignity is respected; (5) discrimination is justified only. (i) to give effect to the principle stated in the two above; (ii) to benefit the exploited (iii) on the basis of conduct and choice and so far as justice of transactions and special relations require it, (6) it is arguable that, the equal claim principle is the principle likely in the long run to lead to social stability.

Now we will discuss about how we are making a transition from equalitarian justice to equalisationaI justice. Article 46 provides that the state. shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular of the scheduled castes and the scheduled tries, and shall protect them from social injustices and all forms of exploitation. It embodies the concept of ‘distributive justice’ which connotes, inter alia, the removal of economic inequalities and rectifying the injustice resulting from dealing or transactions between unequals in society. With a view to ensure social justice to its citizens the Constitution enshrines many provisions like Articles 15 (4), 16 (4), 19(l) (d)- e), 275, 330 and 335. Protective discrimination policy gives concrete shape to the idea of social justice and with a view to ensure its meaningful purpose the Supreme Court has kept the creamy layer out of socially and educationally backward classes.

4. Consider the following statementsl.

1. Principle of social justice supposes that all men and women should be equal stakeholders in all the benefits that accrue to the society.
2. Protective discrimination translates the idea of social justice into reality.

Choose the correct option using codes

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1, nor 2

5. Which of the following statements is/ are correct in the light of the passage

(a) Distributive justice presupposes removal of economic inequalities.
(b) Equal claim is the only claim which in the long sun leads to social stability.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a), nor (b)

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 78

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 78

At the Fourth World Water Forum held in Mexico City in March 2006, the 120-nation assembly could not reach a consensus on declaring the right to safe and clean drinking water a human right. Millions of people the world over do not have access to potable water supply. But it is good times for the bottledwater industry, which is cashing in on the need for clean drinking water and the ability of urban elite to pay an exorbitant price for this very basic human need. The fortunes of this more-than- $100-billion global industry are directly related to the human apathy towards the environment - the more we pollute our water bodies, the more the sales of bottled-water. It is estimated that the global consumption of bottledwater is nearing 200 billion litres - sufficient to satisfy the daily drinking water need of one-fourth of the Indian population or about 4.5 per cent of the global population.

   In India, the per capita bottled-water consumption is still quite low-less than five litres a year as compared to the global average of 24 litres. However, the total annual bottled-waterconsumption has risen rapidly in recent times – it has tripled between 1999 and 2004 —from about 1.5 billion litres to five billion litres. These are boom times for the Indian bottled-water industry - more so because the economics are sound, the bottom line is fat and the Indian government hardly cares for what happens to the nation’s water resources. India is the tenth largest bottled-water consumer in the world. In 2002, the industry had an estimated turnover of ‘ 10 billion (‘ 1,000 crore). Today it is one of the India’s fastest growing industrial sectors. Between 1999 and 2004, the Indian bottled-water market grew at a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 25 percent — the highest in the world. With over a thousand bottled-water producers, the Indian bottledwater industry is big by even international standards. There are more than 200 brands, nearly 80 per cent of which are local. Most of the small-scale producers sell non-branded products and serve small markets. In fact, making bottled-water is today a cottage industry in the county. Leave alone the metros, where a bottled-water manufacturer can be found even in a one-room shop, in every medium and small city and even some prosperous rural areas there are bottledwater manufacturers.

Despite the large number of small producers, this industry is dominated by the big players —Parle, Bisleri, Coca-Cola, PepsiCo, Parle Agro, Mohan Meakins, SKN Breweries and so on. Parle was the first major Indian company to enter the bottled-water market in the county when it introduced Bisleri in India 25 years ago. The rise of the Indian bottled water industry began with the economic liberalisation process in 1991. The market was virtually stagnant until 1991, when the demand for bottled-water was less than two million cases a year. However, since 1991-1992 it has not looked back, and the demand in 2004–05 was a staggering 82 million cases. Bottledwater is sold in a variety of packages: pouches and glasses, 330 ml bottles, 500 ml bottles, one litre bottles and even 20 to 50 litre bulk water packs. The formal bottled-water business in India can be divided broadly into three segments in terms of cost: premium natural mineral water, natural mineral water and packaged drinking water. Attracted by the huge potential that India’s vast middle class offers, multinational players such as Coca-Cola and PepsiCo have been trying for the past decade to capture the Indian bottled-water market. Today, they have captured a significant portion of it. However, Parle Bisleri continues to hold 40 per cent of the market share. Kinley and Aquafina are fast catching up, with Kinley holding 20–25 per cent of the market and Aquafina approximately 10 per cent. The rest, including the smaller players, have 20–25 per cent of the market share.

The majority of the bottling plants - whether they produce bottled-water or soft drinks - are dependent on ground-water. They create huge water stress in the areas where they operate because groundwater is also the main source in most places the only source - of drinking water in India. This has created huge conflict between the community and the bottling plants. Private companies in India can siphon out, exhaust and export groundwater free because the groundwater law in the country is archaic and not in tune with the realities of modem capitalist societies. The existing law says that “the person who owns the land owns the groundwater beneath”. This means that, theoretically, a person can buy one square metre of land and take all the groundwater of the surrounding areas and the law of land cannot object to it. This law is the core of the conflict between the community and the companies and the major reason for making the business of bottled-water in the country highly lucrative.

1. What is/are the reason(s) for the global growth of bottled-water industry?

(a) Pollution of water bodies
(b) Basic human need for clean drinking water
(c) Paying capacity of the elite
(d) All of the above

2. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?

A. In India, the increase in total annual bottled-water consumption is followed by increase in per capita bottled-water consumption.
B. Indian bottled-water market grew at the highest CAGR.
C. The formal bottled-water business in India is divided into broadly two segments in terms of cost.

(a) A only
(b) A and C both
(c) B only
(d) A, B and C

Passage

The National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) in Goa has developed a real-time reporting and Internetaccessible coastal sea-level monitoring system and it has been operational at Verem jetty in the Mandovi estuary in Goa since September 24, 2005. The gauge uses a cellular modem to put on the Internet realtime sea-level data, which can be accessed by authorised personnel. By using a cellular phone network, coastal sea-level changes are continuously updated on to a web-server. The sea-level gauge website can be made available to television channels to broadcast real-time visualisation of the coastal sea level, particularly during oceanogenic hazards such as storm surges or a tsunami. A network of such gauges along the coast and the islands that lie on either side of the mainland would provide data to disaster management agencies to disseminate warnings to coastal communities and beach tourism centres.

The gauge incorporates a bottom pressure transducer as the sensing element. The sea unit of the gauge, which houses the pressure transducer, is mounted within a cylindrical protective housing, which in turn is rigidly held within a mechanical structure. This structure is secured to a jetty. The gauge is powered by a battery, which is charged by solar panels. Battery, electronics, solar panels, and cellular modems are mounted on the top portion of this structure. The pressure sensor and the logger are continuously powered on, and their electrical current consumption is 30 mA and 15 mA respectively. The cellular modem consumes 15 mA and 250 mA during standby and data transmission modes respectively. The pressure sensor located below the low-tide level measures the hydrostatic pressure of the overlying water layer. An indigenously designed and developed microprocessor based data logger interrogates the pressure transducer and acquires the pressure data at the rate of two samples a second. The acquired pressure data is averaged over an interval of five minutes to remove high-frequency wind-waves that are superimposed on the lower frequency tidal cycle. This averaged data is recorded in a multimedia card. The measured water pressure is converted to water level using sea water density and acceleration owing to the earth’s gravity. The water level so estimated is then referenced to chart datum (CD), which is the internationally accepted reference level below which the sea-level will not fall. The data received at the Internet server is presented in graphical format together with the predicted sealevel and the residual. The residual sea level (that is, he measured minus the predicted sea level) provides  a clear indication of sea-level oscillation and a quantitative estimate of the anomalous behaviour, the driving force for which could be atmospheric force (storm) or physical (tsunami). A network of sea-level gauges along the Indian coastline and islands would also provide useful information to mariners for safe navigation in shallow coastal waters and contribute to various engineering projects associated with coastal zone management, besides dredging operations, port operations and manwater treaties with greater transparency. Among the various communication technologies used for realtime transmission of sea-level data are - the wired telephone connections, VHF/UHF transceivers, satellite transmit terminals and cellular connectivity. Wired telephone connections are severely susceptible to loss of connectivity during natural disasters such as storm surges, primarily because of telephone line breakage. Communication via VHF/UHF transceivers is limited by line-of-sight distance between transceivers and normally offer only point-to-point data transfer. Satellite communication via platform transmit terminals (PTTs) has wide coverage and, therefore, allows data reception from offshore platforms. However, data transfer speeds are limited. Further many satellites (for example, GOES, INSAT) permit data transfer only in predefined time-slots, thereby inhibiting continuous data access.

Technologies of data reporting via satellites have undergone a sea change recently in terms of frequency of reportage, data size, recurring costs and so forth. Broadband technology has been identified as one that can be used optimally for real-time reporting of data because of its inherent advantages such as a continuous two-way connection that allows highspeed data transfer and near real-time data reporting. While satellite communication is expensive, wireless communication infrastructure and the ubiquity of cellular phones have made cellular communication affordable. Low initial and recurring costs are an important advantage of cellular communication. A simple and cost-effective methodology for real-time reporting of data is the cellular-based GPRS technology, which has been recently implemented at the NIO for real-time reporting of coastal sea level data.

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 77

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 77

Direction: In each of the following questions two statements are given and there statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (i) & (ii). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(a) if only (i) conclusion follows
(b) if only (ii) conclusion follows
(c) if neither (i) nor (ii) follows
(d) if both (i) and (ii) follow

1. Statement: Should the by only two political parties in India?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, is many developed countries there are only two political parties.
(II) No, India decorate is not mature to select between only two political parties.

2. Statement: Should there be a uniform rate of income tax, irrespective of the level of Income?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this will substantially reduce the work of the income tax department.
(II) No, this will reduce the government tax collectionto a large extent.

3. Statement: should only nuclear be used to generate electricity?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this will help reduce air pollution to a great extent.
(II) No, radioactive material used in nuclear plants is unsafe for large- scale use.

4. Just Before the starting of the quiz , you found your partner missing, you......

(a) Took the substitute partner.
(b) Did not take part in quiz
(c) Took part in the quiz alone
(d) Got tensed and lustrated.

5. A jar contains two green and three black marbles. If three marbles are drawn at random from the basket, what is the probability that two are green and one is black?

(a)1/15
(b) 1/10
(c) 3/10
(d) 3/15

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 76

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 76

Direction: In each of the following questions two statements are given and there statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (i) & (ii). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(a) if only (i) conclusion follows
(b) if only (ii) conclusion follows
(c) if neither (i) nor (ii) follows
(d) if both (i) and (ii) follow

1. Statements:

All dogs are asses.
All asses are bulls.

Conclusions:

(i) Some dogs are not bulls.
(ii) Some bulls are dogs.
(iii) All bulls are dogs.
(iv) All dogs are bulls.

(a) only (ii) and (iv)
(b) only (i) and (iii)
(c) only (iii) and (iv)
(d) only (iii)

2. Statements:

NO door is dog.
All the dogs are cats.

Conclusions:

(i) No door is cat.
(ii) No cat is door.
(iii) Some cats are dogs.
(iv) All the cats are dogs.

(a) only (ii) and (iv)
(b) only (i) and (iii)
(c) only (iii) and (iv)
(d) only (iii)

3. Statements:

Some cars are scooters.
No scooter is cycle.

Conclusions:

(i) No car is cycles.
(ii) No scooter is car.
(iii) Some cars are cycles.
(iv) Some scooters are cars.

(a) None of the four
(b) All the four
(c) only (i) and (iv)
(d) only (iv)

4. Statements:

All the goats are tigers.
All the tigers are lions.

Conclusions:

(i) All the goats are lions.
(ii) All the lions are goats.
(iii) Some lions are goats.
(iv) Some tigers are goats.

(a) All the four
(b) only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) only (ii), (iii) and (iv)

5. Statement: should smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol by the actors be completely banned in the movies in India?

Arguments:

(I) yes, this will significantly reduce the trend of smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol among the youth in India.
(II) No, there should be no such ban on the creative pursuits of the film- Maker.

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 75

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 75

Direction: In each of the following questions two statements are given and there statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (i) & (ii). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
the two given statements disregarding commonly known  facts.Give answer

(a) if only (i) conclusion follows
(b) if only (ii) conclusion follows
(c) if neither (i) nor (ii) follows
(d) if both (i) and (ii) follow

1. Statements:

Some dogs are bats.
Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:

(i) Some dogs are cats.
(ii) Some cats are dogs.

2. Statements:

All the poets are goats.
Some goats are trees.

Conclusions:

(i) Some poets are trees.
(ii) Some trees are goats.

3. Statements:

All the trucks are flies.
Some scooters are flies.

Conclusions:

(i) All the trucks are scooters.
(ii) Some scooters are trucks.

4.

Statements:

All buildings are chalks.
No chalk is toffee.

Conclusions:

(i) No Building is toffee.
(ii) All chalks are buildings.

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उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य GK प्रश्न (सेट -45) for UPPSC Exam

उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य GK प्रश्न (सेट -45) for UPPSC Exam

1. उत्तर प्रदेश में कंप्यूटर अड़ेड डिजाइनिंग परियोजना का केंद्र स्थित है ?

a. आगरा में
b. लखनऊ में
c. कानपुर
d. इलाहाबाद में

2. उत्तर प्रदेश के किजिले में युरेनियम के सीमित भंडार की खोज की गई है ?

a. बाँदा
b. हमीरपुर
c. सोनभद्र
d. ललितपुर

3. आवले का सर्वाधिक उत्पादन करने वाला जिला कौन-सा है ?

a. जौनपुर
b. सतानपुर
c. रायबरेली
d. प्रताप    गढ़   

4. मर्षिक वाल्मीकि आश्रम कहाँ पर स्थापित है ?

a. शावास्ती में
b. काल्पी में
c. बिठुर में
d. इनमसे कोई नहीं

5. उत्तर प्रदेश के किस जिले में युरेनियम के सीमित भंडार की खोज की गई है ?

a. बाँदा
b. हमीरपुर
c. सोनभद्र
d. ललतपुर

उत्तर प्रदेश PSC (Preliminary) Exam (GS Paper-1) स्टडी किट

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 74

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 74

Passage: Instruction for question- read the followingpassage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to the questions should be based on the passage only.

A calamity can strike any county, even one of the most developed ones. Its true that an advanced level of preparedness mitigates the consequences of the calamity .

But then you never know how deadly the calamity will be neither do use know why a particular place becomes the venue of disaster and it is no use questiong God’s way, as has long been established since the days of job. But these are things which man can be cautious against. For a number of tragedies are visited upon us for our doing. In our quest for development we forgot that things can go out of hand. In fact the powers of development blinds us to our limitations priding ourselves on vanquishing nature, we build casteless it is only the fury of nature that remains us from time to time that these are but castles of sand. Nuclear power is one such meme. No matter how much are we taught it as a peaceful means is repeatedly compress upon us that it had its genesis in bringing upon the world one of its Servest catastrophes the ghost of Hiroshima refuses to be burried and however Fukushima. If it can happen in developed county like Japan. One should think twice or thrice may be four times before embracing this technology. The safeguards are critical and should be developed. Before the project start in full swing. Whether it was three mile island , Chernobyl or Fukushima, there is a lot that developing countries need to learn before signing nuclear deal left right and centre.

Alternatively, it is not bad an idea to question what development means. Is it so complete thing as growth of per capita power consumption? Or is there another dimension that we fails to employ because of our tunnel vision. Its time we concentrated our energy on spiritual guest too. Its good to learn physic but here is nothing bad about learning metaphysics. 16

1. An officer has been given an important target for completion the should

(a) Achieve target by team work and cohesiveness.
(b) Important the plan work gradually
(c) Use his position to achieve the target.
(d) Put pressure on his subordinates.

2. You are the team leader you made a mistake while explaining a project to your team workers.a team member rudely points out the error. How will you react?

(a) You will become angry on him and scold him.
(b) You will feel sorry and improve your mistake.
(c) You will make a mockery of the employee
(d) You will take it lightly and leave the topic.

3. In, life, you often have a share a workspace with any person. What is an important point to Remember when sharing a workspace?

(a) Share your workspace with someone who has a similar way of working.
(b) Do not change the layout of the workspace without asking.
(c) Often crack jokes to make your colleague happy.
(d) Indulge in informal relation with your colleague.

4. There are some people who constantly by complain about one thing or the other. Which of the following  characteristics of individuals influence their satisfaction level?

(a) Educational level
(b) Experience
(c) Age
(d) Personality

5. A person went to a psychiatrist this problem was that words were not coming to him quickly during speaking the probable reason for this could be

(a) He has gone brain- dead
(b) He is losing his memory.
(c) He does 30 percent to 40 percent of his work by leaving voice- mail, ménage ore- mails.
(d) He is not talkative

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 73

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 73

Passage: Instruction for question- read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to the questions should be based on the passage only.

Reserve Bank of India deputy governor K.C. Chakrabarty maintained the while high interest rate was not solely responsible for the economic slowdown. High inflation was definitely one of the reasons for the sluggish growth, interacting with journalistic on the growth, inflation issues at an assoc ham event, Dr. Chakrabarty said, “ slowdown in the growth is for a variety of reasons what we are trying to say is the interest rate is not the only reason for the slowdown in growth. But inflation is definitely a reason  for slowing down the growth”

Dr. chakrabarty also went on to admit that in a way, monetary policy was also responsible for the tepid growth in that it was unable to contain inflation .yes to the extent monetary policy is not responsible. We cannot say something wrong happening in the economy, we are not responsible, collectively we are all responsible. In his address at the event, exhorted banks to provide credit to the productive sectors of the economy and not shy away from given loans to them in view of their own rising NPAs (non performing assets).

Because of NPA fear banks need not stop lending but banks must improve their credit management capability for which there is enough scope when NPAs are high, your risk management system has to be improved. Dr. Chakrabarty said while pointing out that banks need to pay more attention to the credit need of agriculture and SMEs. Dwelling further on  the NPA issue, Dr Chakrabarty sought to blame the corporate for most of the rising bad loans and for which the honest borrows have to pay more NPA is creation of the corporate sector, a major part of NPA. You borrow from banks. You don’t.’ pay them in time they because NPA in the books of the books, so why you are not able to pay back. Because your cost is more and income is less.

1. Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage?

(a) High inflations is definitely one of the reasons for sluggish growth
(b) Monetary policy is also a reason for the tepid growth
(c) Corporates are mainly to blame for NPA issue
(d) Monetary policy is not effective enough to check inflation

2. Consider the following statements with reference to the passage.

1. Honest borrowers will have to pay less in the corporates were able to bring down the risk perception of the banks
2. There is a complete policy paralysis on growth of inflation issue for which collectively we are all responsible

Which of the statements above is/ are correct?

(a) Only1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both incorrect

3. According to the passage, the economic growth can be effected by focusing on

(a) check on high interest rate
(b) effective monetary policy
(c) lowering of inflation rate
(d) improvement in risk management

4. According to the passage what could be the obstacles to the high economic growth?

1. The NPA fear of the Banks created by the corporate
2. High interest rates
3. High inflation
4. Ineffective monetary policy

Select the correct code give below

(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All

5. According to the passage banks need to pay more attention on

(a) their credit management capability
(b) their credit appraisal system
(c) their risk management system
(d) credit needs of agriculture SMECs ( small and medium enterprises) and retail

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उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य GK प्रश्न (सेट -44) for UPPSC Exam

उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य GK प्रश्न (सेट -44) for UPPSC Exam

1. उत्तर प्रदेश में लोक आयुक्त की नियुक्ति कब से की गई है?

a. 15 अक्टूबर 1977
b. 14 सितम्बर 1977
c. 5 फरवरी 1977
d. 10 जनवरी 1977

2. उत्तर प्रदेश में प्रथम विश्व विद्यालय कहाँ पर और कब स्थापित किया गया ?

a. मेरठ
b. आगरा
c. लखनऊ
d. इलाहाबाद

3. निम्नलिखित में से किधार्मिक समुदय का उत्तर प्रदेश में तीसरा बड़ा स्थान है ?

a. ईसाई
b. सि
c. बोद्ध
d. जैन

4. उत्तर प्रदेश में भारत कला भवन स्थित है ?

a. इलाहाबाद में
b. वाराणसी में
c. मथुरा में
d. आगरा में

5. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा उत्तर प्रदेश का परम्परागत उध्योग है ?

a. पटसन
b. लोहा एवं इस्पात
c. चीनी
d. चमड़ा

उत्तर प्रदेश PSC (Preliminary) Exam (GS Paper-1) स्टडी किट

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उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य GK प्रश्न (सेट -43) for UPPSC Exam

उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य GK प्रश्न (सेट -43) for UPPSC Exam

1. उत्तर प्रदेश में सम्पूर्णनन्द कारागार प्रशिक्षण संसथान किस्थान पर है ?

a. कानपुर
b. वाराणसी
c. लखनऊ
d. बरेली

2. भारत का पहला केन्द्रीय कारागार उत्तर प्रदेश में कब और कहाँ स्थापत किया गया था ?

a. मेरठ, 1850 में
b. लखनऊ, 1907 में
c. आगरा, 1846 में
d. बरेली, 1846 में

3. उत्तर प्रदेश में पशुपालन  विभाग की स्थापना कब की गई ?

a. 1942 में
b. 1954 में
c. 1944 में
d. 1956 में

4. उत्तर प्रदेश में मत्स्य पालन का शुभारम्भ कब की गई ?

a. 1942 में
b. 1944 में
c. 1955 में
d. 1947 में

5. विश्व का सबसे बड़ा कुम्भ मेला उत्तर प्रदेश के किस शहर में लगता है ?

a. इलाहाबाद
b. लखनऊ
c. बहराइच
d. वाराणसी

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 72

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 72

Passage: Instruction for question- read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to the questions should be based on the passage only.
The goal of keeping planet warming in check has moved further out of reach, the U.N. said in the latest of a flurry of reports pointing to looming disaster ahead of talks in Qatar. Country pledges for cutting climatealtering greenhouse gas emissions could see global average temperatures rise by three to five degrees Celsius this century, said a U.N. Environment Programme (UNEP) report.

The targeted limit is an increase of two degrees Celsius on pre-industrial levels. The World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) reported a record increase of earth-warming gases in the atmosphere, while the World Bank warned of the planet-wide devastation a rise of four degrees Celsius wound cause.

UNEP said swift action could still see the world get back on track, but it would mean increasing pledges and slashing emissions by 14 per cent to about 44 billion tonnes in 2020 from an estimated 50.1 billion tonnes per year now. Scientists say global temperatures have already risen by about 0.8 degrees Celsius on average. More than 190 countries will meet for two weeks in Qatar seeking to draft a work programme leading to a new, global climate deal to be signed by 2015 and enter into force by 2020. They will also seek to put in place a follow-up phase for the Kyoto Protocol which binds rich nations to greenhouse gas emission cuts but runs out on December 31, 2012. UNEP said the concentration of warming gases like carbon dioxide has increase by about 20 per cent since 2000, picking up after a slump during the economic downturn of 2008-9. Barring swift action, emissions were likely to reach 58 gigatonnes in 2020.

1. With reference to the passage consider the following

statements1.

The rise in average temperature this century could be one to three degrees celsius more than the targeted limit at the current rate of climate altering greenhouse gas emissions.

2. Concentration of warming gases like Carbon dioxide needs to be checked if the targeted limit of average temperature rise is to be achieved on preindustrial levels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. A slump in CO2 emissions during the economic downturn of 2008-09 resulted in

1. 20% increase in carbon dioxide concentration as compared to 2000 estimates.
2. an increase in global temperatures by about 0.8 degrees celcius on average.

Pick your answer from the following codes:

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these

Passage: Instruction for question- read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to the questions should be based on the passage only. Although genetic mutations in bacteria and viruses can lead to epidemics, some epidemics are caused by bacteria and viruses that have undergone no significant genetic change. In analyzing the latter, scientists have discovered the importance of social and ecological factors to epidemics. Poliomyelitis, for example, emerged as an epidemic in the United States in the twentieth century; by then, modern sanitation was able to delay exposure to polio until adolescence or adulthood, at which time polio infection produced paralysis. Previously, infection had occurred during infancy, when it typically provided lifelong immunity without paralysis. Thus, the hygiene that helped prevent typhoid epidemics indirectly fostered a paralytic polio pidemic.  Another example is Lyme disease, which is caused by bacteria that are transmitted by deer ticks. It occurred only sporadically during the late nineteenth century but has recently become prevalent in parts of the United States, largely due to an increase in the deer population that occurred simultaneously with the growth of the suburbs and increased outdoor recreational activities in the deer’s habitat. Similarly, an outbreak of dengue hemorrhagic fever became an epidemic in Asia in the 1950’s because of ecological changes that caused Aides-aegypti, the mosquito that transmits the dengue virus, to proliferate. The stage is now set in the United States for a dengue epidemic because of the inadvertent introduction and wide dissemination of another mosquito, Aedes albopictus.

3. The passage suggests that a lack of modern sanitation would make which of the following most likely to occur?

(a) An outbreak of Lyme disease
(b) An outbreak of dengue hemorrhagic fever
(c) An epidemic of typhoid
(d) An epidemic of paralytic polio among infants

4. According to the passage, the outbreak of dengue hemorrhagic fever in the 1950’s occurred for which of the following reasons?

(a) The mosquito Aedes aegypti was newly introduced into Asia.
(b) The mosquito Aedes aegypti became more numerous.
(c) The mosquito Aedes albopictus became infected with the dengue virus.
(d) Individuals who would normally acquire immunity to the dengue virus as infants ever not infected until later in life.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that Lyme disease has become prevalent in parts of the United States because of which of the following?

(a) The inadvertent introduction of Lyme disease bacteria to the United States.
(b) The inability of modern sanitation methods to eradicate Lyme disease bacteria.
(c) A genetic mutation in Lyme disease bacteria that makes them more virulent.
(d) An increase in the number of humans who encounter deer ticks.

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Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 71

Model Questions for UPSC PRE CSAT PAPER SET - 71

Passage

Studies of the factors governing reading development in young children have achieved a remarkable degree of consensus over the past two decades. The consensus concerns thecausal role of ‘phonological skills’ in young children’s reading progress. Children who have good phonological skills, or good ‘phonological awareness’ become good readers andgood spellers. Children with poor phonological skills progress more poorly. In particular, those who have a specific phonological deficit are likely to beclassified as dyslexic by the time they are 9 or 10 years old.

Phonological skills in young children can be measured at a number of different levels. The term phonological awareness is a global one, and refers to a deficit in recognising smaller units of sound within spoken words. Development work has shown that this deficit can be at the level of syllables, of onsets and rimes, or phonemes. For example, a 4-year old child might have difficulty in recognising that a word like valentine has three syllables, suggesting a lack of syllabic awareness. A five-year-old might have difficulty in recognising that the odd word out in the set of words fan, cat, hat, mat is fan. This task requiredan awareness of the sub-syllabic units of the onset and the rime. The onset corresponds to any initial consonants in a syllable and the rime corresponds to the vowel and to any following consonants. Rimes correspond to rhyme in single-syllable words, and so the rime in fan differs from the rime in cat, hat and mat. In longer words, rime and rhyme may differ. The onsets in valentine are /v/ and /t/ and the rimes correspond to the spelling patterns ‘al’, ‘en’ and ‘me’. A six-year-old might have difficulty in recognisingthat plea and pray begin with the same initial sound. This is a phonemic judgement. Although the initial phoneme /p/ is shared between the two words, in plea it is part of the onset ‘pl’ and in pray it is part of the onset ‘pr’. Until children can segment the onset (or the rime), such phonemic judgements are difficult for them to make. In fact, a recent survey of different developmental studies has shown that the different levels of phonological awareness appear to emerge sequentially. The awareness of syllables, onsets, and rimes appears to merge at around the ages of 3 and 4, long before most children go to school. The awareness of phonemes, on the other hand, usuallyemerges at around the age of 5 or 6, when children have been taught to read for about a year. An awareness of onsets and rimes thus appears to be a precursor of reading, whereas an awareness of phonemes at every serial position in a word only appears to develop as reading is taught. The onsetrime and phonemic levels of phonological structure, however, are not distinct. Many onsets in English are single phonemes, and so are some rimes (e.g. sea, go, zoo).

The early availability of onsets and rimes is supported by studies that have compared the development of phonological awareness of onsets, rimes, and phonemes in the same subjects using the same phonological awareness tasks. For example, a study by Treiman and Zudowski used a same/different judgement task based on the beginning or the end sounds of words. In the beginning-sound task, the words either began with the same onset, as in plea and plank, or shared only the initial phoneme, as in plea and pray.

In the end-sound task, the words either shared the entire rime, as in spit and wit, or shared only the final phoneme, as in rat and wit. Treiman and Zudowski showed that four-and five-year-old children found the onset-rime version of the same/different task significantly easier than the version based on phonemes. Only the six-year-olds, who had been learning to read for about a year, were able to perform both versions of the tasks with an equal level of success.

1. According to the passage which of the following statements is true?

(a) A mono-syllabic word can have only one onset
(b) A mono-syllabic word can have only one rhyme but more than one rime
(c) A mono-syllabic word can have only one phoneme
(d) All of the above

2. Which of the following is likely to emerge last in the cognitive development of a child?

(a) Rhyme
(b) Rime
(c) Onset
(d) Phoneme

3. A phonological deficit in which of the following is likely to be classified as dyslexia?

(a) Onset judgement
(b) Rime judgement
(c) Phonemic judgement
(d) Anyone or more of the above

4. The Treiman and Zudowski experiment found evidence to support which of the following conclusions?

(a) At age six reading instruction helps children perform both the same/different judgement tasks
(b) The development of onset-rime awareness precedes the development of an awareness of phonemes .
(c) At age four to five children find onset -rime version of the same/different task significantly easier
(d) The development of onset-rime awareness is a necessary and sufficient condition for the development of an awareness of phonemes

Passage

The lithosphere or outer shell of the earth is made up of about a dozen rigid plates that move with respect to one another. New lithosphere is created at midocean ridges by the upwelling and cooling of magma from the earth’s’ interior. Since new lithosphere is continuously being created and the earth is not expanding to any appreciable extent, the question arises: What happens to the “old” lithosphere? The answer came in the late. 1960s as the last major link in the theory of sea-floor spreading and plate tectonics that has revolutionised our understanding of tectonic processes, or structural deformation in the earth and ha: provided a unifying theme for many diverse observations, the earth sciences. The old lithosphere is subducted, or pushed down, into the earth’s mantle the thick shell of. redhot rock beneath the earth’s thin, cooler crust and abo.ve its metallic(partly melted) core. As the formerly rigid plate descends, it slowly heats up and over period of millions of years, it is absorbed into the general circulation of the earth’s mantle. The subduction of the lithosphere is perhaps the most significant phenomenon in global tectonics.

Subduction no only explains what happens to old lithosphere but also accounts for many of the geologic processes that shape the earth’s surface. Most of the’ world’s volcanoes anti earthquakes are associated with descending lithospheric plates. The prominent island arcs-chains of islands such a the Aleutians, the Kuriles, the Marianas, and the islands (Japan-are surface expressions of the subduction process The deepest trenches of the world’s oceans, including the Java and Tonga trenches and all others associated wit island arcs, mark the seaward boundary of subduction zones. Major mountain belts, such as the Andes and the Himalayas, have resulted from the convergence an subduction of lithospheric plates. To understand the subduction process, it is necessary to look at the thermal regime of the earth. The temperature within the earth at first increase rapidly with depth reaching about 1,200 degrees Celsius at a depth of 100 kilometres. Then they increase more g  phases, or more compact crystal structures, as they are subjected to higher pressure during descent. Finally, heat is generated by friction, shear  tresses and the dissipation of viscous motions atboundaries between the moving lithospheric plate and

1 surrounding mantle. Among all these sources, the first a fourth contribute the most toward the heating of 1 descending lithosphere.

5. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true of the earth’s mantle?

I. It is in a state of flux.
II. Its temperature far exceeds that of the lithosphere.
III. It eventually incorporates the subducted lithosphere.

(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) I, II and III

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