PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2005 (PART -4) 

76. Consider the following statements :

1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.

2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.

3. Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

77. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?

(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon

(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge

 

78. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St- Helens located?

(a) Chile (b) Japan

(c) Philippines (d) United States of America

 

79. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region

(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats

(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura.

(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys.

 

80. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of Which one of the following ?

(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project

(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project

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81. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting from the north and going towards the south?

(a) Nallamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills - Anaimalai Hills

(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Nallamalai Hills

(c) Nallamalai Hills Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Anaimalai Hills

(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills

 

82. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai

(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi

 

Directions : The following 7 (seven) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)' You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but r is true

 

83. Assertion (A) : The same face of the Moon is always presented to the Earth.

 

Reason (R) : The Moon rotates about its own axis in 23½ days which is about the same time that it takes to orbit the Earth.

 

84. Assertion (A) : Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable.

 

Reason (R) : Venus has extremely high level of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.

 

85. Assertion (A) : All the proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only.

 

Reason (R) : The protein-digesting enzymes from pancreas are released into small intestine.

 

86. Assertion (A) : Amoeba reproduces by fission.

 

Reason (R) : All unicellular organisms reproduce by asexual methods.

 

87. Assertion (A): Wind patterns are clockwise in the northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the southern hemisphere.

 

Reason (R) : The directions of wind patterns in the northern and the southern hemisphere are governed by the Coriolis Effect.

 

88. Assertion (A) : The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum Gas is methane.

 

Reason(R) : Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.

 

89. Assertion (A) : The person with diabetes insipidus feels thirsty.

 

Reason (R) : A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin.

 

90. Consider the following statements :

1. Vigyan Rail is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.

2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.

3. EDUSAT, the ISRO’s educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) None

 

91. Consider the following statements :

1. Liquid Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.

2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.

3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Directions (For the next FOUR items) : Based on the information given below, answer the four items which follow it :

Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krishnan have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies in one of the cities given above.Further, it is given that:

(i) Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam.

(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.

(iii) Economic college is in Bhopal.

(iv) Inder’s hometown is cuttack.

(v) Krishnan is studing in Delhi.

(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College4 is in his hometown Ahmedabad.

(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.

Based on the information given above answer the next four items:

 

92. Which is Krishnan’s hometown?

(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack

(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined

 

93. Which College is situated in Inder’s hometown?

(a) Commerce (b) Medical

(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical

 

94. Who studies in Bhopal?

(a) Gopal (b) Harsh

(c) Gopal or Inder (d) Inder or Harsh

 

95. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct combination of Person-Hometown-Place of Study?

(a) Gopal - Ernakulam -Delhi (b) Jai - Ahmedabad - Ernakulam

(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam (d) Harsh - Bhopal - Delhi

 

96. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?

(a) 200/11 % (b) 100/11%

(c) 100/9 % (d) 200/9%

 

97. On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?

(a) 14 (b) 48

(c) 96 (d) 108

 

98. Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and them comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?

(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres

(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres

 

99. A big rectangular plot of area 4320 m2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus.
What are the dimensions of the original plot?

(a) 160 m ´ 27 m (b) 240 m ´ 18 m

(c) 120 m ´ 36 m (d) 135 m ´ 32 m

 

100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list :

List I (Atomic Power Plants) List II ( State )

/ Heavy Water Plants

(A)Thal 1. Andhra Pradesh

(B)Manuguru 2. Gujarata

(C)Kakrapar 3. Maharastra

(D)Kaiga 4. Maha

5. Karnataka

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 5

(b) 3 5 2 1

(c) 2 5 4 1

(d) 3 1 2 5

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -5)

101 The magazine on politics is

(a) Edited by Ila

(b) Edited by Gurbaksh

(c) Published by Dev Publishers

(d) Published by Charan Publishers

 

102 Match List I (Distinguished Ladies) with List II (Area of work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 

List I

(A) Jhumpa Lahiri

(B) Sunita Narain

(C) Naina Lal Kidwai

(D) Ravina Raj Kohli

 

List II

 

1. Science and environment

2. Novel-writing

3. Film industry

4. Banking

5. Television media

A B C D

(a) 4 5 3 1

(b) 2 1 4 5

(c) 4 1 3 5

(d) 2 5 4 1

 

103 Which one of the following does not border Panama?

 

(a) Costa Rica (b) Pacific Ocean

(c) Colombia (d) Venezuela

 

104 A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field 400 m × 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 1 and 2.30 p.m.?

 

(a) Not even once (b) Once

(c) Twice (d) Thrice

 

105 Match List I (Beaches in India) with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 

List I

(A) Gopnath Beach

(B) Lawsons Bay Beach

(C) Devbagh Beach

(D) Sinquerim Beach

 

List II

 

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Gujarat

4. Goa

5. Karnataka

A B C D

(a) 5 4 2 1

(b) 3 1 5 4

(c) 5 1 2 4

(d) 3 4 5 1

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -4)

51 Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

(a) Russia (b) Estonia

(c) Lithuania (d) Poland

 

52 Consider the following statements :

 

1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India

2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of Nationa Development Council.

3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a). 1 and 2 b). 2 and 3

c). 2 only d). 3 only

 

53 Match List I (Minerals) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer

 

List I

(A) Coal

(B) Copper

(C) Manganese

(D) Lignite

 

List II

 

1. Giridih

2. Jayamkondam

3. Alwar

4. Dharwar

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 2 4 3 1

 

54 Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?

 

(a) Agra - Mumbai (b) Chennai - Thane

(c) Kolkata - Hajira (d) Pune - Machilipatnam

 

55 Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National importance (by an Act of Parliament)

 

1. Dakshna Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai

2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali

3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institutes for Medical Services and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram

4. Lakshmibai National Institutes of Physical Education, Gwalior Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

56 Consider the following statements :

 

1. Banking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris

Which of these statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

57 With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

 

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament, before it can be enacted into law

(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation

(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

 

58 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

 

List I (Sea)

(A) Black Sea

(B) Red Sea

(C) Yellow Sea

(D) Caspian Sea

 

List II (Country)

 

1. Bulgaria

2. China

3. Eritrea

4. Kazakhstan

A B C D

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Senior Scientific Assistants (Computer) in DGAQA, Ministry of Defence

1. Consider the following statements:
1. A mouse listener can keep other mouse listeners from receiving a mouse event by invoking the consume ( ) method on Mouse Event Object
2. To enable events for a component, one must first invoke enable Events ( ) with the appropriate flags
 Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. When an exception is thrown but not caught in a particular scope, the method-call stack is ‘unwound’, and an attempt is made to catch the exception in the next outer try block. This process is called
(a) Rethrowing Exception
(b) Stack Unwinding
(c) Stack Unwounding
(d) Stack Tracing 

3. Consider the following tables:

City

a

b

c

City	Language
a	Hindi
b	English
c	Hindi
a	punjabi
b	Hindi

 The result of the division LANGUAGES / CITY in relational algebra is:
 (a) A table containing first three rows of LANGUAGES
 (b) A table with a single column LANGUAGE and a single row “Hindi”
 (c) A table with two columns CITY and LANGUAGE and a single row = “aa”, “Hindi”
 (d) A table having the first, third and fifth rows of LANGUAGES 

4. Consider the following statements:
In DRMBS, the second normal form(s) is/are:
1. A composite attributes is converted to individual attributes
2. Non key attributes are functional dependent on key attributes
3. The non key attributes functionally dependent on not a part of key attributes
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. In a relation (table) if a non key attribute is fully functionally dependent on composite key, then the relation (table) is in:
(a) DKNF (Domain Key Normal Form)
(b) BCNF (Boyce - Codd Normal Form)
(c) Fourth Normal Form
(d) Third Normal Form

6. Consider the following relational Schema for a library database:
Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, Publisher, Year, Price) Collection (Title, Author, Catalog_no)
With the following functional dependencies:
 1. Title, Author → Catalog_no
 2. Catalog_no →Title, Author, Publisher, Year
 3. Publisher, Title, Year→ Price
Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both the schema which one of the following statements is correct?
 (a) Both book and collection are in BCNF only
 (b) Both book and collection are in 3 NF only
 (c) Book is in 2 NF and collection is in 3 NF
 (d) Both book and collection are in 2 NF only

7. The simple object model that is frequently used for database applications and which is easier to understand and use than OLE DB is:
 (a) ADO
(b) ASP
(c) XML
(d) ODBC

8. Which one of the following CPU scheduling algorithms suffers from starvation?
(a) Round Robin
(b) FCFS (First Come First Serve)
(c) SJF (Shortest Job First)
(d) Multilevel Queues

9. An operating system uses swapping. A running process encounters the need to wait for an event. The correct sequence of states for the process to re-enter its running stage is:
(a) Blocked → Blocked - Ready → Blocked - suspended → Ready →Running
(b) Blocked - suspended → Blocked - Ready → Blocked → Ready →Running
(c) Ready → Running → Blocked → Ready→ Running
(d) Blocked→ Blocked-suspended → Blocked-Ready → Ready →Running

10. What is the maximum possible disk space for a cluster size of 2 kbyts for a MS-DOS disk system?
(a) 128 mbyts
(b) 512 mbyts
(c) 512 mbyts
(d) 128 mbyts
 
11. Consider the following consistency semantics:
1. Writes to an open file by a user are visible immediately to other users that have this file open.
2. Once a file is closed, the changes made to it are visible only in sessions starting later. Already open instances of the file do not reflect these changes.
3. A file has a single image that interleaves all accesses regardless of their origin.
Which of the above are used in UNIX file system?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 2 and 3 only

12. If a host broadcasts a frame that includes a source and destination hardware address, and its purpose is to assign ???????? addresses to itself, which protocol at the Network layer does the host use?
(a) RARP
(b) ARPA
(c) ICMP
(d) TCP

13. What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a class B network address?
 (a) 1 – 126
(b) 1 – 127
(c) 128 – 190
(d) 128 – 191

14. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and E-MAIL respectively are
(a) TCP,UDP,UDP and TCP
(b) TCP,UDP,TCP and UDP
(c) UDP,TCP,UDP and TCP
(d) UDP,TCP,TCP and UDP

15. In a LAN network every system is identified by
(a) Name
(b) MAC Address
(c) IP Address
(d) Serial number given by manufacturer

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Senior Scientific Officer Grade-II (Metallurgy) in Ministry of Defence

1. The equilibrium in multi-component systems has not been derived, to avoid:
(a) Elaboration and complexity
(b) Simplicity
(c) Elaboration
(d) Mathematical equation

2. Quasi chemical theory helps to understand:
(a) The qualitative behaviour of solution
(b) The qualitative behaviour of solvent
(c) The qualitative behaviour of solute
(d) The chemical reaction

3. The Gibbs-Duhem equation is very useful to:
(a) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution when that of the other component is known
(b) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution when that of the other component is not known
(c) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution and is very easy
(d) Measure the activity accurately 

4. What is the entropy change for the reaction as below at 298 KK?
fe₂o₃ + 3C = 2 Fe + 3 CO
Given the standard values of entropies at 298 K for the following elements/compounds:

Fe2O3	21.4 cal/mole
C	49.5 cal/mole
Fe	32.63 cal/mole
CO	47.3 cal/mole

(a) 27.16 cal/mole
(b) 47.3 cal/mole
(c) 30.82 cal/mole
(d) 37.26 cal/mole

5. The free energy of the reaction: < CaCO₃ > = < CaO > +{CO₂} is,
 ∆ G⁰ = +40250 − 34.4 T Cal/g mol
What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will occur?
(a) 789°C
(b) 879°C
(c) 897°C
(d) 910°C

6. Fractography is evaluated by:
(a) X-ray Diffraction
(b) X-ray Fluorescence Spectroscopy
(c) Scanning Electron Microscopy
(d) Transmission Electron Microscopy

7. X-ray Diffraction technique is used to determine:
(a) Grain size of cold-worked material
(b) Inclusion content in steel
(c) Microstructure of metal
(d) Curie temperature of magnetic material

8. In solid solution strengthening, which mechanism is relatively insensitive to temperature?
(a) Stacking - fault interaction
(b) Elastic interaction
(c) Electrical interaction
(d) Short-range order interaction

9. Which of the following is a sessile dislocation?
(a) Shockley partial dislocation
(b) Frank partial dislocation
(c) Edge dislocation
(d) Screw dislocation

10. In ductile metals, the Bauschinger effect causes lowering of:
(a) Tensile stress
(b) Fracture stress
(c) Elastic Modulus
(d) Yield stress

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Additional Assistant Director (Safety) (Mechanical)

1. A fan consumes 20 W of electric power and discharges air from a ventilated room at 0.25 kg/s. The maximum air outlet velocity is nearly
(a) 4.7 m/s
(b) 8.7 m/s
(c) 10.2 m/s
(d) 12.7 m/s

2. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) A machine which violates Clausius statement will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(b) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank statement will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(c) A machine which violates the second law of thermodynamics will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(d) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank statement will violate the Clausius statement

3. 150 Kj of heat is transferred from a heat source of 527°C to a heat sink at 127°C . If the ambient temperature is 47°C , the loss of available energy during the process will be
(a) 40 Kj
(b) 50 Kj
(c) 60 Kj
(d) 70 Kj

4. Which one of the following is correct in the context of change of entropy of a system undergoing a reversible adiabatic process?
(a) Positive for expansion process and negative for compression process
(b) Positive for compression process and negative for expansion process
(c) Negative for both the processes
(d) Positive for both the processes

5. Consider the following devices:
1. Internal combustion engine working on Otto cycle
2. Internal combustion engine working on Diesel cycle
3. Gas turbines
4. Steam turbines
In which of the above devices, the equation dQ=dU+Pdv  is not applicable?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
 
6. Consider the following statements with reference to gas turbine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases thermal efficiency
2. Reheating decreases thermal efficiency
3. Cycle efficiency increases when the maximum temperature of the cycle is increased
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

7. For the same pressure ratio during compression, compressing in two-stage compressor with perfect inter-cooling instead of a single-stage compressor is characterized by:
1. Increase in volumetric efficiency
2. Decrease in work input
3. Decrease in discharge temperature
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. What is the compression ratio of a 4-stroke engine whose capacity is 245 cc,clearance volume is 27.2 cc and diameter of bore is 10 % higher than stroke?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12

9. Thorium breeder reactors are more promising for India essentially because
(a) They develop more power
(b) The technology thereof is simple
(c) Thorium deposits are abundantly available in the country
(d) These can be easily designed

10. If Nusselt number is 4000 with corresponding Reynolds and Prandtl numbers as 40 and 20 respectively, the relevant Stanton number will be
(a) 40
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Assistant Public Prosecutors in CBI

1.Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, to the exclusion of any other Court, does NOT include any dispute:
(a) between Government of India and one or more States.
(b) between Government of India and any State or States on the one hand and one or more other States on the other.
(c) in relation to election of President of India.
(d) between Government of India and civil servants as to constitutional validity of service rule.

2.In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of National Awards like Bharat Ratna holding that these awards do not amount to ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India
(b) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
(c) D K Basu v. State of West Bengal
(d) J P Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh

3.Which of the following Fundamental Rights can NOT be suspended when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?
(a) Article 19 and Article 21
(b) Article 32 and Article 226
(c) Article 20 and Article 21
(d) Article 19 and Article 20

4.In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court, while recognizing the Muslim Women’s right to maintenance for the first time, observed, “A uniform civil code will help the cause of national integration by removing disparate loyalties to laws which have conflicting ideologies”?
(a) Shamim Ara v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(b) Danial Latifi v. Union of India
(c) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(d) K Zunaideen v. Ameena Begum

5.Doctrine of Eclipse, pertaining to Fundamental Rights, has originated from which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 13 

6.The power of the Supreme Court of India to punish for contempt of itself is traceable to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 128
(c) Article 129
(d) Article 131

7.Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy under the Constitution of India?
(a) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(b) Equal Justice and free legal aid
(c) To value and preserve the rich heritage of India’s composite culture
(d) To provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years

8.Which constitutional amendment is relevant to the goods and services tax?
(a) Constitution (99th Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (100th Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (101st Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act

9.Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The State of Andhra Pradesh enjoys special status under the Constitution of India in matters relating to education and therefore its power to prescribe residential requirement for candidates appearing in super specialty examination is constitutionally valid
(b) The Supreme Court of India has no power to transfer a case pending in a Court within the State of Jammu and Kashmir to any Court outside that State
(c) The Parliament cannot empower any Court in the State of Jammu and Kashmir to exercise the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court to enforce the fundamental rights by issuing writ, orders or directions
(d) The provisions of article 371D of the Constitution of India have overriding effect over any other provision of the Constitution

10.Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Goods and Services Tax Council Article 279A
(b) Taxes on sale of petroleum crude List I of Seventh Schedule
(c) Duties of excise on petroleum crude produced in India List II of Seventh Schedule
(d) Duties of excise on tobacco produced in India List III of Seventh Schedule

11.Article 246A of the Constitution of India:
1. contains a non-obstante clause thereby overrides Article 254.
2. confers exclusive power on the Parliament with respect to taxes on goods and services in the course of inter-state trade and commerce.
3. the legislature of a State has been given power to make laws for taxes on all goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

12.The Doctrine of Double Jeopardy is enshrined under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 20(2)
(c) Article 20(1)
(d) Article 22(1)

13.In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the Right to Privacy is a part of Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
(a) K S Puttaswamy case
(b) M P Sharma case
(c) Binoy Viswam case
(d) Karak Singh case

14.For making reservation in promotion in public employment under Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which of the following are the essential requirements?
1. Backwardness
2. Inadequate representation
3. Maintenance of efficiency in service
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15.In which one of the following matters the Supreme Court CANNOT issue directions to the Governments?
(a) For protecting children from drug abuse
(b) For collecting necessary quantifiable data of SC/ST candidates in civil services for giving them reservations in promotions
(c) For protecting good samaritans who wish to help victims of road accidents
(d) For banning sale of liquor on national and state highways

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Labour Enforcement Officers (Central)

1.Consider the following Commissions / Committees:
1. First National Commission on Labour
2. Labour Investigation Committee
3. Royal Commission on Labour
4. National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of the above, in ascending order, in termsof their submission of reports?
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 3-4-2-1

2.Family planning became an integral part of labour welfare as per the International Labour Organization Resolution passed in the year:
(a) 1917
(b) 1927
(c) 1937
(d) 1947

3.Which of the following is / are NOT correct approach with respect to welfare services undertaken by organizations in the commercial and public organizations?
1. As welfare is provided by the State to all , hence duplication by other organizations is undesirable
2. Welfare services may be provided for matters concerning employees which may not be immediately connected with their jobs, though connected with their place of work
3. Welfare services will include special services for retired employees
4. Child care facilities may be provided on a collective basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

4.Which one among the following is the earliest labour law in India?
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act
(b) Trade Unions Act
(c) Employee’s Compensation Act
(d) Factories Act

5.Which one of the following theories of labour welfare is also called efficiency theory?
(a) Functional theory
(b) Public relations theory
(c) Religious theory
(d) Philanthropic theory

6.Which of the following statements with respect to housing is / are NOT correct?
1. It is a basic requirement for living life with dignity
2. According to the Revised Integrated Housing Scheme 2016 for workers, central assistance for a new house may be released in twelve equal installments
3. House Listing and Housing Census data of 2011 is provided by the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

7.Which of the following benefits can be combined under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Sickness benefit and maternity benefit
(b) Sickness benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(c) Maternity benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(d) Maternity benefit and medical benefit

8.Which one of the following is the total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee having two or more than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
(a) Twenty six weeks
(b) Fourteen weeks
(c) Twelve weeks
(d) Sixteen weeks

9.What is the share of women representatives in the Advisory Committee to be constituted under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) One half of the total members
(b) One third of the total members
(c) One fourth of the total members
(d) Three fourth of the total members

10.The International Labour Organization’s Convention No 102 on ‘Minimum Standards of Social Security’ was adopted in the year:
(a) 1948
(b) 1953
(c) 1952
(d) 1950

11.In case of permanent total disablement, which one of the following is the minimum compensation to be paid under the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923?
(a) Rs. 1,60,000
(b) Rs. 1,40,000
(c) Rs. 1,20,000
(d) Rs. 1,00,000

12.Which of the following statements with regard to Section 1 of the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948, is / are NOT correct?
1. The Act shall apply to all factories including factories belonging to the Government
2. The Act shall not apply to a factory under the control of the Government whose employees are in receipt of benefits substantially inferior to the benefits under this Act
3. The Act extends to the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir
4. The applicability of the Act in an establishment ceases if the number of persons employed therein falls below the limit specified under the Act Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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