(Free Test Series) Comprehensive Test-3 for CSAT (Paper–2)

 Environmental in India, like in most parts of South Asia, began mainly as an integral part of local level activism for broad social justice. The spontaneous resistance and protests by the affected parties, when the lives or livelihoods of a number of people or communities were threatened by the environmental impacts of activities initiated by others, came to be identified as environmentalism. Over the decades, however, the dominant imaging of environmentalism in India has altered from voluntary, decentralized and people centred resistance to a more centralized and organised activity, one marked by linkages with international donors. Nevertheless, from marked by linkages with international donors. Nevertheless, from the Chipko Andolan to the many Public Interest Litigations (PIL) filed in the Supreme Court of various issues related to the environment, the achievement of environment activism in India remains impressive. Emerging from the stage of community-based voluntarism as exemplified by Chipko, environmentalism in India is now more identified with activities of non-governmental organisation (NGOs). Central to the above is a set of educated and motivated individuals mainly from urban areas, often with easy access to funding institutions and the media, working together for either conserving some significant natural entity or opposing an activity that is environmentally destructive. Members of this new brand of environmentalists rarely emerge from among the population or communities directly affected by the related environmental damages or transformations.

1. With reference to the passage, it follows that the beginning of environmentalism in India
(a) was the local level in contrast to other parts of communities.
(b) was at the local level in contrast to other part of South Asia where environmentalism was centralized.
(c) was at the local level and did not have associations at a global level.
(d) was associated more with community-based voluntarism than environmentalism.

2. With reference to the passage consider the following statements:
(1) Environmentalism in India has achieved much over the decades.
(2) Environmentalism in India is the same as social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. According to the passage, what are the changes that have appeared in environmentalism in India?
(1) It is more people-centered than before.
(2) It has become more structured and organized.
(3) Its environmentalists are now mostly from urban areas and may not be directly threatened by the environmental impact of activities.
(4) Funding for environmental issues is no longer easy to access.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4

The Indian courts have developed little in the way of preconditions for the formation of the executive’s subjective satisfaction. The courts have elaborated only vacuous standards. In Anil Dey vs. State of West Bengal, the Supreme Court held that the veil of subjective satisfaction of the detaining authority cannot be lifted by the courts with a view to evaluating its ‘objective sufficiency’; however, the satisfaction must be ‘honest and real and not fanciful and imaginary.’ The executive is required order. Such standards are wholly inadequate to the task of defining an adequate and effective jurisprudence of preventive detention. The standards rarely employed by courts is that the materials used to inform the satisfaction of the executive must be of ‘rational probative value and must not be extraneous to the purpose of detention.’ Only standards of his sort could accommodate full judicial review of detention orders.
More often the court liberally construes the satisfaction of the executive. ‘The court cannot substitute its own opinion for that of the detaining authority by applying an objective test to decide the necessity of detention for a specified purpose.’ NSA establishes a substantive standard that creates an impossible procedural burden.

4. With reference to the passage it can be inferred that:
(a) the courts have developed standards that do not define an adequate jurisprudence of preventive detention.
(b) the courts cannot explain the formation of subjective satisfaction and have developed and inadequate perspective of this.
(c) the courts attempt to lift veil of subjective satisfaction by evaluating it through objective sufficiency.
(d) the executive must follow rules and procedure to issue a detention order rather than rely on personal discretion.

5. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) The courts rarely use the standard that material used for subjective satisfaction should be based on reason.
(2) The courts rarely use the standard that material used for subjective satisfaction should not be superfluous to the purpose of confinement.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

It was something akin to a global shock when China announced, in July, 2010, that it would cut rare earth element exports by 72 per cent for the second half of 2010. The world sat up and exclaimed that China could actually hold world sat up and exclaimed that China could actually hold the world’s technology industry to ransom, without notice.
While India may have large reserves of the stuff but we have no mastery over their complicated extraction and production. According to the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), which controls rare earths in India, we produced only 35 tonnes in 2008. China, even after its 2010 ban, exports around 14,000 tonnes.
Japan is the world leader in rare earth processing. Toyata Tsusho made its first investment in India, to build a rare earth elements processing plant in Odshia. This is expected to give Japan 4,000 tonnes a year starting 2012. It will also help India access modern technologies of extraction and production of thee technology metals.
This will chart directions for India’s own rare earths programme, depending on which industrial and strategic applications India wants to focus on. The committee should take this activity away from the DAE and move in into the civilian sphere. This will ensure transparency, improve performance and do so quickly. If we want to exploit a strategic asset, we need to do it before the world thinks of different technologies without rare earths.

6. With reference to the passage, it could be inferred that “China could hold the world’s technology industry to ransom” because:
(a) “China is the leader in rare earth processing.
(b) Only China has the technology for extraction and production of rare earth elements.
(c) China is a major exporter of rare earth elements.
(d) China plans to stop its rare earth exports.

7. Which of the following will help India’s rare earths programme according to the passage?
(1) Ensuring transparency.
(2) Recruiting more personnel.
(3) Moving the programme into the civilian sphere.
(4) Producing more rare than China does.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 2 and 4

8. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) India needs to increase its production of rare earths before other countries increase production.
(2) India needs to move quickly on the extraction and production of rare earths elements before they become redundant for world technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

9. Consider the following three statements:
(i) Some vocational training programs are not effective training programs.
(ii) Some vocational training programs are not directed at generating employment.
(iii) All vocational training programs generate employment.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the statements mentioned above?
(a) Programs that cannot generate employment are not effective.
(b) Only vocational training programs are effective programs.
(c) Some training programs that generate employment are not effective training programs.
(d) All vocational training programs are directed at generating employment.

10. Consider the following three statements:
(i) Some rural households are eligible for power subsides.
(ii) All rural household are involved in farming activities.
(iii) Some rural households use subsidized power for farming activities.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the statements mentioned above?
(a) All rural households use subsidized power in farming activities.
(b) Some rural households need power subsidies for their farming activities.
(c) Some rural households involved in farming activities are eligible for power subsides.
(d) Only rural households that are involved in farming activities are eligible for subsidies.

1. A man swimming in a stream which flows at 1 km/hr finds that in a given time he can swim twice as far with the stream as he can swim against it. At what rate does he swim?
(a) 1.5 km/hr
(b) 3 km/hr
(c) 5 km/hr
(d) 7.5 km/hr

12. Let P be a set of natural numbers {1, 11, 111, 111, …………………….., (1 written up to 15 times)} and Q be as subset of P such that the sum of no two elements of Q is divisible by 3. The maximum possible number of elements in Q will be;
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

13. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 10 days, whereas B and C together can complete the same work in 6 days. Who among the three is the most efficient, if B alone takes more time than the time taken by A alone to complete the work?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined

While the way an airline handles it passenger complaints and on-time performance are the visible indicators of an airline’s operational discipline, there are other not-so-perceptible parameters that decide if a particular flight has paid for itself or has made a profit or was operated at a loss. And the weight of an aircrafts in one of them.
Of the four domestic carriers that operate Airbus 320 aircraft in India, IndiGo flies the lightest of them all. They fly a 180-seater, no-nonsense aircraft. It means, IndiGo aircraft burn less fuel than the A320s operated by Kingfisher Airlines, Air India and Go Air. It is serious money – if the extra fuel burnt for all the flights operated by the airline in a month are added up. But then, Kingfisher and IndiGo cannot be compared; they are on opposite ends of the airline spectrum. And the end that IndiGo occupies is apparently where the pot of gold is.
However, IndiGo has pressing problem at hand – pilot unrest and the threat of a possible pilot’s union. An anonymous mail was circulated among IndiGo pilots in September. Among the many grouses were that of IndiGo’s bait of Rs. 30 lakh for pilots from other airlines who join them. The again, it said, in IndiGo only 60 per cent pilots are available to fly and the rest are on a paid holiday.
When the anonymous mail reached the IndiGo president, he shot off an 11 pm “Reflections” mail. He probably knows that in the history of the airline industry, pilot unions have been known to fly and airline industry, pilot unions have been known to fly an airline into turbulence on several occasions. When Kingfishers Airlines’ financial woes and flight cancellations were splashed across the media, Ghosh sent another mail, assuring them that “you jobs at IndiGo are absolutely safe. Your pay will always arrive in your bank accounts, on time or before time.”

14. With reference to the passage, it can be inferred that due to the weight of its aircraft, IndiGo airlines:
(a) just manages to pay for the cost of a particular flights.
(b) has made profits because it flies the lightest and burns less fuel.
(c) could either be earning a profit or operating at the break-even point because of the low weight of its aircraft.
(d) Cannot be determined.

15. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) Ghosh’s mails indicate that the take the pilot unrest seriously as the understands the repercussions this could have on his organisation.
(2) Ghosh’s mails indicate that the pilot unrest is of a monetary nature and Ghosh’s promise will help put the pilot’s fears at rest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

It needs to be clarified that environmental flows consist not only of the quantity of water but also represents the annual hydrograph, establishing the periodicity of the flows. They represent a package of water flows and its periodicity throughout the year. Such a modified flow pattern that maintains the periodicity of flow in rivers, lakes or aquifers but changes the quantity of flows by abstraction is known as ‘mimicking of the natural flows.’ Under the managed hydrological regime, while the flows would exist in a sub-pristine state, a mimicking and services provided by them are not threatened with extinction but are damaged to an agreed and predetermined extent.
In principle, such an arrangement of compromise offers a platform for negotiated settlement of conflicts over short-term economic use and long-term ecological sustainability of water systems. This will be most useful for policy making and management related to large structural interventions on water systems. Such a mechanisms for conflict resolution based on environmental flows is, however, in a nascent stage and needs substantial theoretical and methodological refinement before it can help decision making in government, judiciary, etc. In the absence of such a refinement and clear conceptualization, decisions run the risk of being premature and counter-productive.

16. The passage mentions that “They represent a package of water flows ……”
“They” refers to:
(a) the annual hydrograph
(b) the periodicity of water flows
(c) environmental flows
(d) quantity of water in rivers

17. Consider the following assumptions:
(1) Effectively managing the annual hydrograph will help us sustain the aquatic ecosystems.
(2) Long-term sustainability of ecosystems is not possible.
(3) Establishing the periodicity of the lows is easy.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

18. Who does the author refer to the arrangement as ‘compromise’?
(a) To provide platforms for resolving conflicts related to water systems
(b) It is very useful for policy making and management
(c) It is the best alternative for negotiating the settlement of conflicts
(d) Because the arrangement will damage aquatic ecosystems to an agreed and predetermined extent.

19. ‘Sub-pristine state’ in the passage refers to:
(a) natural aquatic systems.
(b) polluted aquatic systems.
(c) aquatic systems controlled by humans.
(d) only partially clear water systems.

20. According to the author, which of the following should be first step towards setting various conflicts over water resources?
(1) Negotiating related short-term and long-term issues.
(2) Making water systems sustainable.
(3) Avoiding the risk of being premature and counter-productive.
(4) Modifying the flow patterns in rivers and lakes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

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What the poverty line should be is dictated partly by the values pertaining to redistribution and partly by the ‘surplus’ income in society. This is far. What is questionable are the policies derived from this goal, policies that are generally a license for state inefficiency and state corruption. For example, there is an elaborate machinery to procure foodgrains from farmers, store them, move them across states, and sell them in ration shops at ‘subsidized’ prices. This elaborate procedure ensure considerable leakage and corruption, and lead to the absurd reality that at present there are about 20 million tones of grains rotting in government godowns. The ideology behind these policies is one of individuals articulating them knowing ‘better’, which gets translated into the state knowing better. The ideology is one of ‘loco parentis’, e.g. a parent is needed to guide the itinerant peasant. It is this same logic that leads some to proclaim that we should preserve the adivasis lifestyle, even if it means keeping them permanently in poverty. Have the adivasis ever been asked whether they want their children to go through the same lifestyle as themselves – or do they desire ever increasing opportunities and incomes, as the rest of us on this planet?
There is little logic to the plethora of policies – ration shops, food for work, fertilizer subsides – that masquerade as policies meant for the poor. This is where ideology is present in large ‘in the same of poor’ quantities. Given that the goal of poverty reduction and equal opportunity is universally accepted, and politically correct, it should follow that only those polices should be adopted which maximize redistribution to the poor at minimum cost.

21. Which of the following reflects the author’s opinions on the poverty line?
(a) It should not be completely guided by ‘surplus’ income in society.
(b) It is not dependent on what is fair.
(c) It depends only on the ideology of the person who interprets the policies.
(d) Its goals to questions state inefficiency and state corruption.

22. In the context of the passage, which of the following is unfair according to the author?
(1) Policies that encourage state inefficiency and corruption.
(2) Policies that concentrate on redistribution and not on ‘surplus income’
(3) Policies that ensure that the adivasis lifestyle is transformed.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

23. Consider the following statements:
(1) We should aim for equal opportunity for all as it is universally accepted.
(2) There are too many policies meant for the poor.
(3) Ideology of an ‘individual’, affect the interpretation of any policy.
Which of the statements above does the author object to?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

24. The author mentions the rotting 20 million tonnes or grains in godowns to talk about:
(a) the ideology of ‘loco-parents’
(b) the excessive number of policies creating loopholes in the system
(c) the policies that fail to address state corruption.
(d) the situation where adivasis are not asked about their food requirements.

25. Which of the following would be most appropriate summary for the passage?
(a) How policies guide by ideologies work against poverty reduction?
(b) The plight of the adivasis and the poor are worsened by the policies guided by ideologies.
(c) The role of ideologies and policies in any government system is questionable.
(d) Too many policies and elaborate procedure ensure corruption and inefficiency.

Democracy, and a real of political power, is far beyond the reach of the common man. Elected representatives have shown a lack of concern for the electorate. Ethics has been divorced from governance, people from their representatives, development from the well-being of those for whom it is intended, education from responsibility. Corruption has therefore before the hallmark of governments and their hypocritical stances.
Political parties have ceased to look critically at themselves or the processes they are involved in. civil servants have sold their souls to the devil with Faustian sophistry. The electorate has been beguiled by a revival of caste loyalties, and offers of a taste of paradise. Global alternatives have been narrowed to a Hobson’s choice – free markets symbolised by Kentucky Fried Chicken, Pepsicola, Uncle Chips, Star TV and the horrifying prospect of the rape of natural resources for the goods of profit. The intellectuals have sun deep into their armchairs in bewilderment.
The reaction of the gram sewaks was not unexpected, but their fears helped the people realise that they had caught an important nerve-end. The gram sewaks, though at the bottom of the bureaucratic edifice, echo the bureaucratic position. In seminars and workshops, members of the bureaucracy have expressed concern about corruption and the colossal tragedy of development. If only this concern was genuine, there would have been greater support for the campaign on transparency – for the culture of secrecy is so ingrained that is possible to neutralise constitutional and democratic obligations. In Rajasthan, this campaign offered as shackled bureaucracy a chance to garner public support and cleanse the system. But not bureaucrat in the state even initiated a debate on how this could be done. In its silence and non-cooperation the bureaucracy exposed itself. Whose side is the bureaucracy on? Such questions need to be asked of a deeply entrenched non-colonial service which continues to perceive itself as a special entity.
In contrast, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy went beyond hosing meeting and expressed unstinting support for the issue. A member of its staff, now posted as Commissiner, Bilaspur, in Madhya Pradesh, passed an extraordinary order giving citizens the right to photocopy all documents relating to the public distribution system – with a provision for fining any official who delayed the process. Even here the most strident opposition came from the bureaucracy. But what the Academy and some of its officers show is that if the civil servant is willing, it is possible to act.

26. Which of the following is true as per the passage?
(1) Bureaucrats are genuinely concerned about corruption and the colossal tragedy of development.
(2) Elected represented are concerned about their electorate.
(3) Political parties look critically at themselves or the processes they are involved in.
Choose your answer from the choices given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above

27. Which of the following is/are implied by the passage?
(1) The bureaucracy has not been fully supportive of the campaign on transparency.
(2) Global alternatives have not led to an increase in choice.
(3) Intellectuals have shown concern about the exploitation of natural resources.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

28. Why does the author mention the Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy?
(1) To contrast the reactions of the bureaucracy and the academy.
(2) To show the similarity in the reactions of the bureaucracy and the academy.
(3) To analyse the reactions of the bureaucracy and the academy.
Choose your answer from the choice given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

29. Which of the following is the thematic highlight of the passage?
(a) It is possible for a civil to make a difference to the system if she/he is willing to act.
(b) The reaction of the gram sewaks was not unexpected.
(c) The civil servant is rarely limited in his/her actions by the bureaucracy.
(d) Corruption has become too deep-rooted to be addressed from within the bureaucracy.

30. Consider the following three statements:
(1) Some small scale industries get tax concessions.
(2) Tax concessions are vital for the development of small scale industries.
(3) All small industries are protected industries.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the statements mentioned above?
(a) Some protected industries get tax concessions.
(b) All small scale industries get tax concessions.
(c) Tax concessions are given only to protected industries.
(d) Small scale industries develop only when they get tax concessions.

31. Consider the following three statements:
(i) All renewable energy provides are our competitors.
(ii) Some public sector undertakings are not our competitors.
(iii) Some renewable energy provides compete amongst themselves.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the statements mentioned above?
(a) All our competitors are renewable energy providers.
(b) Some public sector undertakings are not renewable energy providers.
(c) We have at least one competitor that is not a renewable energy provider.
(d) Some of our competitors compete amongst themselves.

Passage

The March 1988 issue of Rotarian magazine told about a wild life organization that was offering a five-thousand bounty for every wolf that was captured alive for the purpose of relocation. Sam and Jed took up the challenge and became bounty/fortune hunters. Sam was especially confident that they could make a mint.
They spent every day high scouring the territory looking for wolf packs to target, but didn’t make a single sighting. Enervated after days of searching, they fell asleep late one night around their campfire. Something caused Sam to wake up out of his deep sleep. Leaning up on one elbow, he discovered that he and Jed were surrounded by about fifty growling wolves with flaming eyes and bared teeth. He poked Jed with a stick and whispered, “Jed! Wake up! We’re rich!”

32. They fell asleep because:
(a) they were exhausted.
(b) they had not slept for days.
(c) their jobs monotonous
(d) it was cold and they enjoyed the campfire.

33. What can be a reason for Sam and Jed to feel confident of being wolf hunters?
(1) They had a good knowledge of the wolf’s habitat.
(2) They were good hunters.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Sam’s statements, “Jed! Wake up! We’re rich!” tells us that Sam was:
(1) foolish
(2) foolhardy
(3) greedy
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Passage

Twenty years passed between the birth of my dream to be a public speaker and the fulfillment of that dream. During that time I experienced disappointments, frustrations and, to be honest, considered discouragement. It’s more than just a cliché that those with a dream are the ones who keep going when the going gets tough. Not only did I have a dream, the dream had me!
The calling was the motivating factor in my life and I will be forever grateful that the desire was so strong. I listened to other speakers when I had the opportunity. I read about speaking. I dreamed about speaking. I thought about speaking. And in my imagination, which has always been very active, I was myself standing in front of audiences that were cheering, applauding and giving me standing ovations. In my imagination I made literally hundreds of speeches and every one of them was absolutely magnificent! I never stumbled, stuttered or failed.

35. Since the birth and till the fulfillment of the author’s dream, his experience could be best described as:
(a) unpleasant
(b) motivating
(c) bemusing
(d) fantastic

36. With references to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) A genuine call can change one’s life.
(2) A dream motivates a person to achieve it even if it is hard to do the same.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. To pursue his dream, the author:
(1) reads about speaking.
(2) listened to other speakers.
(3) practices speaking.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

39. You superior has asked you to make a presentation on a topic in a short span of two days. Now, with great effort you manage to finish it. However, when you present it, your superior is disappointed and rebukes you for the bad work. What will be your reaction?
(a) Leave the place at once
(b) Leave the job
(c) React and shout at the superior
(d) Ask for a detailed feedback and assure him that you will rectify the errors

40. You are in office and working very intently on a project report that needs to be completed and submitted the same day. Suddenly, there is a pandemonium in the office and people start running helter skelter. What will you do?
(a) Try to find out the reason and then sit calmly
(b) Become a part of the pandemonium
(c) Try to sort out the outburst
(d) Pay no attention to it

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41. You and Ravi have been the best of friends since childhood. You both share every joy and sorrow in your lives with each other. However, for the last few days you observe that Ravi has started avoiding you and does not take your calls also. He is not even teffing you what his problem is. What will you do?
(a) Try to find the reason and sort it out
(b) Leave the situation as it is
(c) Aggravate the situation by showing anger
(d) Ask your other friends to solve the situation

42. You are the owner a factory. Once a day a lot of noise emanates from the workshop. When you run to see what has happened, you are informed that an iron pole has fallen on two labourers. They are seriously injured and are bleeding profusely. The other labourers start shouting in panic. What should do you?
(a) Call the union leader and talk to him
(b) Warm the labourers to mind their own business
(c) Give immediate medical attention to the injured
(d) Call the police to control the situation

43. You have achieved a big milestone in your career and have been promoted to the level of a senior manager only yesterday. You decide to celebrate and host a party for your friends at you residence. One of the guests breaks a costly showpiece which was very dear to your parents. What will you do?
(a) Scream at him in front of everyone
(b) Ask him to leave the party
(c) Calm down the situation by telling everyone to take it easy as you are the host and this is your responsibility
(d) Charge money for the showpiece

44. You find your colleague using the office Xerox machine for taking ten prints of his wife’s marks sheet. You……
(a) Report the matter to your boss
(b) Talk to him personally and make him understand that it is not correct to use office stationery and equipment for his personal requirement.
(c) Tell everybody about his attitude of using office for his personal work.
(d) Ignore his actions and continue with your own work.

45. You are an IAS Probationer. You are undergoing training in a district. You get a call informing that a truck loaded with LPG cylinder has overturned along the National Highway passing through your district. A small village with a population of approximately 2000 people is situated close to the site of the accident. The people’s lives could be in danger. You
(a) Inform the nearby police station.
(b) Inquire first whether the area comes under your jurisdiction.
(c) Call the fire service station for handing any emergency situation.
(d) Both a and b above.

46. You are an Administrative Officer working in a Public Sector enterprise. Your boss calls you and asks you to pick up his son from his school and drop him at his home. Your immediate response would be
(a) Sorry Sir, I can’t do this.
(b) Can I have the keys of your car Sir?
(c) My pleasure Sir, but can I request the peon/driver to do this service for you?
(d) I don’t know how to drive a car Sir?

47. An elderly person has been making rounds of your office for getting his pension papers cleared. You have been noticing him for over a week but the dealing clerk is not passing his file due to want of certain documents. The elderly man gets infuriated after making so many rounds and starts shouting in your office. You
(a) Immediately call the dealing clerk and ask him to clear his file at once.
(b) Call the elderly man to your office and try to pacify him explaining the necessary of documents in clearing his file.
(c) Ask the concerned departments/sections to look for alternative documents that can clear his file.
(d) Wait for the matter to come to you.

48. A message has the potential to
(a) Stimulate the recipient.
(b) Convey an intention.
(c) Stimulate the sender.
(d) Protect environment from sound pollution.

49. Which of the following functions can be performed by noise?
(a) Enhancement of vocal ability.
(b) Increasing concentration.
(c) Distortion of a message.
(d) Irritation only after a certain limit.

50. Which among the following is an important factor in interpersonal communication?
(a) Clarity of thought
(b) Courage (c) Ruthlessness
(d) None of the above

51. Which among the following is not an example of verbal message?
(a) Nodding
(b) Shaking hand
(c) Raising an eyebrow
(d) All of the above

52. A person skilled in interpersonal communication has the most advantage in the matter of
(a) Winning people’s confidence
(b) Reading another person’s thoughts.
(c) Predicting another person’s actions.
(d) Delivering rousing and motivating speeches.

53. A person having strong interpersonal skills is able to handle conflicts successfully by making strategies.
(a) Imaginative
(b) Elusive
(c) Vague
(d) Persuasive

54. It is your birthday and your friends have asked you to treated them on the occasion. You are treating them at a restaurant. Once the bill arrives, you realise that you have forgotten to bring your wallet. What will you do?
(a) You will excuse yourself and leave the restaurant without telling anyone.
(b) Ask one of your friends to pay and promise him that you will pay him back as soon as you reach home.
(c) You will try to convince the manager so that you can pay the bill next day.
(d) Cry in front of your friends.

55. You are an officer working with twenty subordinates under you. You and your team share collective responsibilities and have common goals as you are working together. What will do to inculcate team spirit in your subordinates?
(a) Give lectures on a regular basis in the morning meetings
(b) Take them out for dinners frequently
(c) Shower gifts on them regularly
(d) Bring the team together by foresting communication and developing common goals and objectives

56. You are Investigating Officer in a sensational murder case that has rocked the nation. The case has all the attention of the common man as well as the media. Every step you take is being carefully watched and reported. The people from the media are constantly questioning you about the proceedings. You will
(a) Threaten the media for questioning you
(b) Reveal everything as this will make your famous
(c) Reveal only what, if made public, will not affect the course of investigations
(d) Explain your inability in disclosing the information as, if made public, it will affect the course of enquiry

57. You are employed in company where you have been observing that the employees are not working to their potential. They waste a lot of time and are also a little bored with monotonous jobs. You have an idea to improve the productivity of the employees in the workplace but your superiors don’t like you. They are likely to reject your idea. What will you do?
(a) Speak out the idea to your superiors immediately
(b) Collect relevant data to strengthen your point then share the idea
(c) Don’t say anything to the superiors
(d) Give the idea indirectly through your subordinates

58. A clock is set to show the correct time at 7 am. Monday. The clock loses 15 min in 24 h. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 6 am on the following Friday?
(a) 6 : 15 am Friday
(b) 6 : 30 am Friday
(c) 7 am Friday
(d) 7 : 15 am Friday

59. The reflection of a clock in the mirror is 3 h 45 min. What is the actual time shown in the clock ?
(a) 8 h 15 min
(b) 9 h 30 min
(c) 8 h 45 min
(d) 9 h 15 min

60. From a normal pack of card, 4 cards are drawn. Find the probability that they are of different suits.
(a) 2197 / 33075
(b) 2197 / 20825
(c) 2197 / 33025
(d) 2197 / 33060

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61. The probability that a man will live 10 more years, is 1/4 and the probability that his wife will line 10 more years, is 1/3. Then the probability that none of them will be alive after 10 years, is
(a)5/12
(b)1/2
(c)7/12
(d)11/12

62 Find the number of ways of preparing a chain with 5 different coloured beads.
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 12
(d) 30

63 Find the number of different ways of forming a committee of consisting of 3 men and 3 women from 6 men and 5 women.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 25

64. Find the number of ways in which 6 players out of 11 players can be selected so as to include 3 particular players.
(a) 45
(b) 65
(c) 56
(d) 54

65. Find the number of ways in which 8 players out of 12 players can be selected such that 2 particular players are always included and 3 particular players are always excluded.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

66. DADAR®41417
      JAMMU®81556

DAMUJ ® ?
(a) 47586
(b) 41568
(c) 45678
(d) 46785

67. LILY®2325
      ROSE®7861

SORRY® ?
(a) 63215
(b) 67851
(c) 63278
(d) 68775

68. EGYPT®75391
      ITLY®2183

PITY® ?
(a) 7859
(b) 9123
(c) 9213
(d) 9537

A family consists of 5 members A, B, C, D and E. The last one E has two sons, an unmarried daughter and a daughter-in-law. A is the brother-in-law of above mentioned daughter-in-law. B’s sister is not happy with B’s wife. But A and his father support B’s wife D.

69. Pointing to a man in the photograph a lady said, “The father of his brother is the only son of my mother.” How is that man related to that lady?
(a) Brother
(b) Son
(c) Cousin
(d) Nephew

70. If ‘A + B’ means that A is the brother of B, ‘A – B’ means that A is the father of B and ‘A × B’ means that A is the sister of B. Which of the following means ‘M’ is the uncle of ‘P’?
(a) M ÷ N × P
(b) N × P ÷ M
(c) M × S ÷ R × P
(d) M + K ÷ T × P

71. ‘P + Q’ means that P is the brother of Q, ‘P – Q means that P is the mother of Q and ‘P × Q’ means that P is the sister of Q. Which of the following means that M is the maternal-uncle of R?
(a) M – R + K
(b) M + K – R
(c) M + K × Q
(d) There is no such symbol

72. If ‘S × T’ means that S is brother of T, ‘S + T’ means that S is the father of T, which of the following shows that ‘O’ is the cousin of R?
(a) R × T + O
(b) R + T × 0
(c) R × O × T
(d) None of these

73. If ‘P + Q’ means that P is the sister of Q, ‘P – Q means that P is the mother of Q, ‘P × Q means that P is the brother of Q, ‘P ÷ Q means that P is the father of Q. Which of the following means that M is the maternal-uncle of R?
(a) M × T – R
(b) M ÷ T × R
(c) M + T ÷ K – R
(d) M ÷ N + J

74. The value of             
is:
(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 4

75. The simplified value of
is:
(a) 1
(b) 100
(c) 10000
(d) 0.1

76. On simplifications of,
we get:
(a) 1.0
(b) 0.2
(c) 4
(d) 0.12

77. What is the sum of the squares of the following numbers?
(a)
(b)
 

(c) 20
 

(d)

78. Find the least number which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 24 leaves the same remainder 2 in each case.
(a) 122
(b) 120
(c) 124
(d) 126

79. The sum of two numbers is pq and their difference is 1 of their sum. Find their HCF.
(a) 12pq/7
(b) pq/7
(c) 6pq/7
(d) 24pq/7

80. The LCM of three numbers is 4752 and HCF is 6. If the two numbers are 48 and 66, then find the third number.
(a) 54
(b) 72
(c) 48
(d) 528

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