(Free Test Series) Comprehensive Test-4 for CSAT (Paper–2)

Comprehensive Test-4 for
CSAT Paper–II

Passage

The thing the Time Traveler in his hand was a glittering metallic framework, scarcely larger than a small clock, and very delicately made. And now I must be explicit, for this that follows—unless his explanation is to be accepted—is an absolutely unaccountable thing. He took one of the small octagonal tables that were scattered about the room and set it in front of the fire, with two legs on the hearthrug. On this table was a small shaped lamp, the bright light of which fell upon the model. There were also perhaps a dozen candles about, two in brass candlesticks upon the mantel and several in sconces, so that the room was brilliantly illuminated. I sat in a low arm-chair nearest the fire, and I drew this forward so as to be almost between the Time Traveler and the fireplace. We were all on the alert. It appears incredible to me that any kind of trick, however subtly conceived and however adroitly done, could have been played upon us under these conditions.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that the Time Traveler did all the preparation because:
(a) he wanted to perform magic.
(b) he wanted to sit near the fireplace.
(c) he wanted to shoe his skill.
(d) he wanted to others that it is not a trick.

2. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements.
(1) The author believed that there might be an adverse effect of the Time Travelers trick on him.
(2) The only object on the table was the Time Traveler’s mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Why do you think author said that he needs to be explicit?
(a) The thing he wanted to explain was esoteric.
(b) He wanted others to believe in him.
(c) He felt that by being explicit he can make others to believe in him.
(d) He wanted tell the incident which was completely unaccountable.

Five men including E are working at different companies P, Q, R, S and T. Each of the five companies has its office based in exactly one of the four cities—Gonda, Agra, Basti and Champanagar—with each city having office of at least one company. Employee of a company lives in the same city as that of his/her office.
Some additional information is also known about the employees and the offices of these companies:
(i) D does not work P or S but he lives in Basit.
(ii) B works for T but he does not live in Gonda.
(iii) Persons who work Q and P do not live in Basti and Gonda respectively.
(iv) Exactly two persons live in Basti and A does not live in Gonda.
(v) C lives in Agra and does not work for S or P.

4. Who works with Q?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) E
(d) Cannot be determined

5. Who works with R?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) E
(d) None of these

6. Which of the following companies has its office in Gonda?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) S

Answer the question the basis of the information given below.
I. An examination consist of 5 rounds.
II. Exactly 50% of the students appealing in any round will qualify for the next round.
III. Total number of students appearing at the start for the first round is 640.
IV. Success rate of the examination is the ratio of the total number of qualified students to 5000.

7. In which of the following ranges of ratio of total number of disqualified students at the end of the examination to total number of students who appeared at the start of the examination will fall?
(a) 0.80-0.85
(b) 0.85-0.90
(c) 0.90-0.95
(d) 0.95-0.99

8. What is the number of students who appeared in the 4th round?
(a) 320
(b) 160
(c) 80
(d) 40

9. If any round not more than 192 students can qualify along with the condition II (minimum of both), then what is the total number of students who qualified the fifth round?
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 48
(d) Cannot be determined.

10. If the number of students appearing in the 1st round of the examination is doubled, then which of the following statements if false?
(a) Number of the candidates qualified will be doubled.
(b) Number of the candidates disqualified will be doubled.
(c) Ratio of qualified to disqualified students will remain same.
(d) Success rate will remain same.

11. Which of the condition given above (among I, II and III), if changed along will not affect the ratio of the disqualified to the qualified students at the end of the last round?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) None of the above

12. A sentence is formed from the set of first ‘N’ natural numbers. All the perfect squares, and the multiplies of 5 are removed from this set. How many natural numbers from 1 to 100 are removed from the set?
(a) 26
(b) 22
(c) 27
(d) 28

The second important thing we must consider is the quality and texture of literacy. India was only five per cent literate at the turn of the 20th century, and in the last 20 years the direction of urban middle class literacy is towards English. Increasingly, families speak English even at home and most middle class Indians do not read in their mother tongue. We are not referring here to the ability to read, which they have picked up at school. They can speak in the mother tongue. If it is peppered with the English words which have become indispensable. We mean regular reading of literature or entertainment in the mother tongue. A very powerful battle was fought and won by Anglophiles like K.M. Munshi and Nehru against cultural icons like Tagore and Gandhi, who wanted mother tongues to be the medium of education. The agreements on both sides were sound, but the pragmatists won on the evidence of modernity.
This has produced a unique community. There is no parallel to India of a nation whose middle class is trained to think and approach life in a foreign language, one they have not mastered. India’s elite occupy a luminal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English. One reason India produces so little literature is that India’s middle class does not own any language property. The knowledge of English has come to them through stock phrase because the quality of teaching is poor. And on the mother-tongue side, as Tagroe and Gandhi feared, the loss of language has resulted in the erosion of India’s high culture, it classical inheritance.

13. According to the passage, K.M. Munshi and Nehru
(a) were opposed to the opinions of Tagore and Gandhi.
(b) knew that Tagore and Gandhi would lose their arguments on practical grounds.
(c) were in favor of using English as a medium of education.
(d) could envision English as the language of contemporary India.

14. What does the author mean when he says that “India’s elite occupy a luminal space; it is emotionally Hindi and intellectually English?
(a) India’s elite do not have an adequate grasp on language
(b) India’s elite are outstanding in their ability to use language to their advantage.
(c) India’s elite are proficient in both Hindi and English.
(d) India’s elite are in a transitional phase where they haven’t internalized English as a language.

15. With reference to the passage consider the following statements.
(1) India’s inability to produce good literature can be attributed to the fact that India’s middle class has not been able to master any language properly.
(2) India’s inability to produce more literature can be attributed to the fact that India’s middle class has not been able to master any language properly.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Naxal dominated districts in India also hold the same distinction—they not only have some of the worst human development as well as economic indicators in India—but equally that the communities living there have been victims of injustice, anyaya, as Amartya Sen would say, something deeper and broader than niti, law. This has been the underlay for the armed conflict.
The views of women, active in both the theoretical and practical processes of peacemaking, suggest the need to move beyond simply incorporating a ‘women’s perspective’ or claiming that their societal roles give them generic values in peace building. The argument of this paper is that it is only though building economically just the politically democratic systems that enduring peace can be put on the ground, and that women’s particular experience of injustice, their special location and experience in grassroots and community oriented work, given them both the intellectual and practical skills for building those peaceful spaces. In that sense Gandhi’s thought: ‘The women of India should have as much share in winning swaraj (freedom) as men. Probably in this peaceful struggle woman can outdistance man by many a mile.’ Is sophisticated and appropriate, in that the first posits equality of presence and then the firmness of women who can outdistance men.

16. According the passage, which of the following could be the reason(s) for armed conflict?
(1) The affected communities have been subjected to injustice.
(2) The affected communities have been brought under a broader law.
(3) The affected communities have suffered injustice despite being under the protection of law.
(4) The affected communities live in the least developed areas of the country.

Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

17. Which reference to the passage consider the following statements:
(1) Women have key strengths that help build lasting peace.
(2) The bedrock of enduring peace is an economically just and politically democratic system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
(a) is arguing for a more active role for women in the peace building process.
(b) is arguing for the recognition of past achievement by women in the peace building process.
(c) is arguing that women have a greater ability than men have in the process of peace building.
(d) is arguing for the active participation of all minority groups in the peace building process

With their large regional and national network, cooperatives are already a significant institutional channel for delivery of financial services to low income groups. Experiments with alternate delivery mechanism such as post offices, retail networks of fertilizer shops/agriculture implements, supermarkets, beverage suppliers, and petrol stations have already begun, and may offer additional prospects for reaching out to large numbers. In this connection, the concept of financial services for the poor will no larger be only dominated by microcredit. The types of financial services needed by the poor extend far beyond working capital loans, encompassing an array of savings, credit, insurance and money transfer services. Convenient, safe and secured deposit services are a particularly crucial need. However, much depends on the extent to which government and other regulatory organizations can create and enabling framework for orderly growth of the micro-finance sector. Depending on their approach, regulators/supervisors can either undermine or encourage the development of micro-finance. The overarching goal of all stakeholders should be to support the development of financial system that work for the poor. This approach requires that we remove the walls-real and imaginary-that separate a micro-finance community from the much broader world of financial systems, markets and development. It requires that we refuse to accept the status quo, in which it is considered normal for a country’s financial system to serve only a tiny minority of its population, while the vast majority remains outside the systems.
However, a way out of the above situation is to strengthen the public and private financial intermediaries, particularly those engaged in lending to the unorganized sector. The governments should not get directly involved in providing financial services to the poor. Subsidized and inefficient lending programmes foster a culture on non-repayment on the part of clients and undermine good micro-finance institutions. It should not be encouraged.

19. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
(a) The microcredit model needs to be replaced by more effective modes of financial systems.
(b) Microcredit needs to be protected from the broader world of financial systems.
(c) Apart from microcredit, there are other financial services that can be offered to low-income groups.
(d) Microcredit is not an effective delivery model for low-income groups.

20. Consider the following statements:
(1) The financial needs of the poor are varied and go beyond working capital loans.
(2) The financial needs of the poor can be covered by a well-designed lending programme.

Which of the statements given above/are correct?
(a) Only1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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21. According to the passage, what does the success of microfinance institutions depend on?
(a) Orderly growth patterns.
(b) Strict regulators.
(c) Refusal to accept the status quo.
(d) Inclusive nature of financial systems.

22. Which of the following statement(s) best describe/describes the thoughts of the author in the last paragraph?
(1) The government’s direct involvement in financial services for the poor may hinder the working of micro-finance institutions.
(2) Public-private partnerships are more efficient than the government in providing financial services to the poor.
(3) Microfinance institutions need to move beyond the existing status quo and should gain inspiration from the world markets.
(4) Convenient and secure deposit services are a crucial need of the poor that the government cannot private.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

At the outset it needs to be emphasized that election finance reform in India involves two related but distinct issues. One is the cost of elections per se. The other is politicians’ imperative to raise election funds and, hence, the temptation to abuse power. In theory, it is possible to reduce the cost of elections without reducing the imperatives of politicians. It is also possible, in theory, to reduce considerably the imperative to abuse power to raise election funds without reducing the cost of elections.
In the first case, even if the cost of elections were reduced they would still cost something not inconsiderable and that money would have to be raised from private contributions. This would still lead to strong pressures to raise money by illegal means while in office even if the amount were frozen or reduced, making it difficult to effect any real deregulation in the government.
In the second case, it is possible to greatly reduce the imperatives for corruption, to the extent that they arise from the need for election funds, even without reduction election cost if state funding of elections is instituted. State funding will provide a financial floor to parties and candidates. Fund raising will no longer be a political life-or-death imperative. This opens up the possibility of greatly reducing corruption. While the two issues are complementary we make the point to underline their distinctiveness. The link between these two issues is that both kinds of reduction increase equality of political opportunity, an important objective for democracy in a poor country.
Deriving policy mixes from actual and possible variants of the three broad international patterns of election finance reform, i.e., minimalist, maximalist and mixed, there are, broadly speaking, six options that are available for India in increasing order magnitude of their distance from the status quo.
The first option would be a minimalist pattern of state regulation on the present U.K. model. It would consist of limits on candidate spending but no state funding other than free media time. Party spending would be allowed without limits if there is no mention of any candidate, but will be clubbed with candidate spending and deemed authorized by the candidate if it identifies candidates.

23. According to the passage, election finance reform involves:
(1) a reform in the way finance are gathered by politicians for elections.
(2) the post of elections itself.
(3) the importance attached to the fact that politicians have to raise funds.
(4) the source though which some politicians gather funds.
Which of the statements given below are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

24. According to the passage, what is the link between the two issues related to election finance reform?
(a) Reducing of costs and imperatives related to the two issues related to election finance in political opportunity.
(b) Dwindling of costs and imperatives related to the two issues will lead to fairness in political opportunity.
(c) With reduction, fund raising will not be a political imperative and efforts can be put elsewhere in the election process.
(d) Reduction in both issues will lead to greater pragmatism in the political process.

25. The first paragraph talks about two issues in the election finance reforms. From the last two lines of the first paragraph it can be inferred that-
(1) The two issues are complimentary.
(2) The two issues are complementary.
(3) It is possible to effect a change in one without effecting a change in the other.
(4) It is possible to reduce one without reducing the other.
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) Only 3

26. The primary purpose of the author is
(a) to discuss the issues related to political finance reform in India and the various options on bringing about this reform.
(b) to discuss the issues related to election finance reform and the various option, based on country models, to bring about this reform.
(c) to discuss the issues related to election finance reform in India and the various options on bringing about this reform.
(d) to discuss the issues related to election finance reform in India and the various options to place limits on candidate spending.

27. According to the passage, which of the following is a possibility if the cost of elections is reduced?
(a) Their cost would be minimal.
(b) Their cost would be difficult to appraise.
(c) Their cost would still be significant.
(d) Their cost would not be borne by corrupt politicians.

At one level, this heightened interest in this new formulation called Brand India is easy to explain. It points to a desire to engage with the outside world, shedding the insularity of an earlier time and signaling openness to being evaluated. The interest in India as a brand allows up to move past one strain of descriptions about the country–the exoticisation of India as a land, which could not be spoken of without indulging in adjectival excess. It also marks a change from the relentless self-righteousness with which the Indian state engaged with the rest of the world and shows that it recognizes a need to understand and acknowledge what other parts of the world think of it.
For the middle class, the idea of Brand India becomes a vehicle of participation and acts as a sign that the country has more active and articulate stakeholders who espouse its cause aggressively. It allows for the translation of a large, abstract concept into an ownable and easy-to-consume confection. Brand India as an idea adds velocity to the vocabulary that surrounds India, enabling it to be characterized by using a set of verbs than the abstract nouns of old.
But in the manner in which it gets framed and used currently, the formulation called Brand India works at many more levels. By separating itself from the amorphousness of all of India and creating boundaries around this new entity, Brand India becomes shorthand for the ‘material parts of India.’ It also locates itself in a perpetual present, as the idea of India being a brand allows its past to become shriveled into a statistic at best and a burden at worst. It promotes the notion that this is an idea that is under active construction and that everything that we do today is intensely relevant to how this idea will eventually pan out.

28. What does the author imply by the phrase “vehicle or participation”?
(a) For Indians, Brand India is means to be more active in supporting the cause of the country.
(b) For Indians, Brand India is a means to own their own country and not let it get diluted by outside influences.
(c) For the middle class Indians, Brand India is a means to be more active in supporting the cause of the country.
(d) For middle class Indians, Brand India is a means to achieve their goals and fulfill their dreams.

29. With reference to the passage consider the following statements
(1) The new formulation of Brand India will help India connect better with the rest of the world.
(2) The new formulation of Brand India will help make India open its borders to economic trade and relations.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. Which of the following statements best describes the options of the author?
(1) The interest in the new formulation of Brand India cannot be fully justified.
(2) The advantages linked to the new formulation of Brand India have more to do with changing perceptions.
(3) The interest in the new formulation of Brand India is justified.
(4) There are numerous advantages linked with the new formulation of Brand India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

31. “Brand India as an idea adds velocity to the vocabulary that surrounds India, enabling it to be characterized by using a set of verbs than the abstract nouns of old”. Which of the following statements is closest in the meaning to the above statement.
(a) Brand India has helped make India a more active and participatory country in the South East Asian region.
(b) Brand India has helped make India seem active and participatory as opposed to being perceived as a country that was not easy to understand.
(c) Brand India has added new dimensions to the perceptions related to India and has made the country easy to understand.
(d) Brand India has helped make India’s internal and external boundaries seem clearer and has changed it from being perceived as country that was not easy to understand.

32. In the passage which of the following has been mentioned as an advantage of the new formulation of Brand India?
(1) Greater openness to being evaluated.
(2) A sign of more active stakeholders in the country.
(3) A sign that India is constantly reinventing itself and in the present.
(4) It works as an approximate summary of India’s economic worthiness.
Select the correct from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

It is not just Indian agencies and officials who regularly warm the Centre of outlandish terror threats. Foreign agencies, too, have a gala time doing it. Especially adept at issuing stupendous terror threats are the American agencies. They regularly pass on information to various Indian agencies about al-Qaida, Let the even Taliban. Sometimes they are landing by the sea along he Gujarat coast and at other times sneaking in thought the Bangladesh border. Till date, other than issuing alerts, Indian agencies have never been able to crosscheck any of these threats. The questions then is how reliable are the American agencies.
Intelligence is not just about cutting-edge information, it is also about highly polished 360-degree analysis of situations. Indian agencies, unfortunately, do not seem to enjoy a very good reputation on this front. In fact, when Nepal was trudging through the rough ride of Maoist violence and anti-king sentiments, Indian agencies were often accused of misreading the situation, especially because of their jaundiced anti-Maiost perceptions.
But don’t blame all the ills on the agencies, especially nurturing art the diary writing, collecting chocolate wrappers and bus tickets from Pakistan. Every time a Pakistan-based terrorist is arrested, investigators recover such items and establish his Pakistani links mostly through these. Officials point out that dated criminal laws and a creaking justice system demand that such evidence be available to establish the credibility of claims about terrorists. Similarly, most terrorist are arrested from crowded places such as bus stops and railway stations. This is not due to a great investigation climaxing in a filmi chase. It is just convenient to have proper – and a large number of – witnesses around.

33. With reference to the passage consider the following statements.
(1) Intelligence is about comprehensive understanding on information systems.
(2) Good intelligence requires information and accurate analysis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Indian agencies are to be blamed for misreading situations.
(b) Indian agencies are not to be blamed for misreading situations.
(c) Indian agencies are blamed for misinterpreting the situation in Nepal.
(d) Indian agencies are prone to blame for misreading the situation in Nepal.

35. Which of the following statements best describes the author’s thoughts in the last paragraph?
(1) Indian agencies should not be solely blamed for all the problems in intelligence.
(2) Out-of-date criminal laws and a weak justice system can also be blamed for problems in intelligence.
(3) Intelligence inputs come from source that can never be verified and cross-referenced.
(4) Intelligence agencies place undue emphasis on maintaining eyewitnesses for any arrest made.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

36. Why does the author question the reliability of American agencies in the first paragraph?
(a) To highlight the unreliable nature of the warnings they issue.
(b) To highlight the need to ensure that valid terror threats exist.
(c) To highlight the need for valid terror threats.
(d) To highlight the need to question the reliability of terror threats issued by agencies.

37. You are working in an organisation where you are required to communicate and interact daily with your subordinates and your peers as well. You are required to report weekly to the management. Therefore, communication is an essential part of your work. According to you, how should you communicate with others at the workplace?
(a) Should not communicate more than required
(b) Listen with one ear and speak distractedly with our subordinates as they do not need attention
(c) Should be focused with everyone, unless it’s a bad day
(d) Should always be very attentive and clear

38. You have recently joined a department as an officer and around 50 employees are working in the same office. You observe that most employees are habitual of coming late to work. How would you communicate the need to come on time?
(a) Call for the attendance register and starts cross making those coming late to send the message to everyone to come on time.
(b) Hold a staff meeting emphasising upon them to be punctual and also convey to them that in the future an action would be taken against them in case they are late.
(c) Write a letter to all employees on this issue.
(d) Prefer to wait and watch and ask the establishment in – charge to convey to those coming late to be on time.

39. You have to go for some important inspection and you find that your colleague has taken your office vehicle for a private visit. You
(a) Immediately call him and admonish him for his deed.
(b) Wait for your colleague to return.
(c) Arrange some alternative vehicle and remind your colleague to the dereliction of duty later.
(d) Call your superior.

40. A colleague has reported ill to work and as a result you have worked additional hours. But you find him dining in a restaurant. You
(a) Inform your boss about the matter
(b) Rebuke your colleague for this direction of duty
(c) Ignore the issue as everybody has a right to enjoy after a day’s hard work.
(d) Explain to your colleague that his is not ethical and that you would be obliged to inform your boss were it to happen next time.

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41. Shilpa is a member of the Society for Animal Lovers.
(a) Networking
(b) Teamwork
(c) Leadership
(d) Communication

42. As a member of the society, she had been involved in planning a seminar for her fellow members.
(a) Networking
(b) Teamwork
(c) Leadership
(d) b and c both

43. You have been promoted as the officer-in-charge of your department. Your role now is supervisory, and you are willing to perfect it. However, you have always been anxious about achieving effective supervision. Which of the following do you think is correct for effective supervision?
(a) Concern or employees, trust and warmth.
(b) Needs of both the supervisor and subordinates to be taken into account.
(c) Personality of both the supervisor and subordinates to be taken into account.
(d) All of the above

44. You are an officer and your superior often tells the staff members not to do any work for any department other than yours. Also, he tells you to avoid interacting with people outside your department. The superior officer is
(a) Using closer supervision
(b) Adheres to organisation structure
(c) Task oriented
(d) Boosting his/her power.

45. You are the department head and are keen to streamline the processes of communication in your department. You have in mind various options that are essential in ensuring effective communication. According to you, one must rely, first and foremost, on which of the following for ensuring effective formal communication?
(a) Rules, policies, procedures
(b) Computerizes systems of all types.
(c) Manual systems
(d) Organisation structure

46. You are an expert Tax Consultant but employed in a small organisation. Suddenly, you get an offer from big public sector undertaking to look after its Tax disputes pending with various appellate authorities. What you would do among the following options?
(a) A very challenging task should accept as challenge.
(b) Easy going to drop the idea.
(c) Will win
(d) Will defeat

47. You are working in an important project under strict monitoring and personal supervision by your boss. Because of a personal work you want to take leave. You?
(a) Pick up the phone/meet the boss and seek concurrence
(b) Send a not through someone close to him
(c) Take large and inform him next day.
(d) Do not take leave and try to forget

48. You are police office and you are investigating into the drug business that is going on at large in the city you have been prepared a list of places where this business goes on and the people engaged in the business. However, you have not been able to catch any of the suspects. Somehow, the media comes to know that you having the list of suspects and pressurises you to release it. What should you do in such circumstances?
(a) Say nothing; simply refuse to answer all questions from the press
(b) Tell the reporters that it is a sensitive topic and you cannot give out the names.
(c) Tell the reporters that the matter is under investigation and disclosing the name will hamper the course of investigation
(d) Tell the reporters that the press need not poke its nose into it

49. You have just stopped a car for violating traffic rules and going through a red light. As you step over to the car you recognise the driver as being the Mayor of your city. When you approach him, he tells you that he misjudged the light and that he sincerely apologise for it. What would be the most appropriate action for you to take?
(a) Tell the Mayor that you know who he is and that you are just doing your duty
(b) Tell the Mayor that you will excuse him for this traffic violation, but that be should be careful in future.
(c) Tell him that it is completely OK after all he is Mayor of the city
(d) None of the above

50. In has come to your notice that a fellow police officer is taking free lunches from a local restaurant owner in exchange of allowing the business of providing the call girls to the customers by the hotel of that restaurant. Which of the following should you first do?
(a) Confront the officer with your suspicions and ask him if they are true
(b) Report “what you know” to your supervisor
(c) Set a trap for the accused officer and try to catch him red handed
(d) Ignore the situation

51. You receive a complaint against a hospital which carries out aborting illegally. The complainant wants to remain anonymous. While on duty you receive a complaint from a person who wishes to remain anonymous. She tells you the name of the hospital and its location. What should be your first step in such situation?
(a) Tell the complainant that you will handle the situation
(b) Tell the complainant she should cooperate with you and file a formal complaint
(c) Record all the details that she provides you; take note of minute details and assure her that you will pursue the case
(d) Ignore the case

52. A woman stops you while you are on patrolling duty and handles a wallet to you that contains Rs. 400 which she informs you that she found it on a cosmetic counter in a nearby store. There is nothing like that in the wallet which will help in its identification. What should be you NEXT step?
(a) Tell her to keep the wallet
(b) Ask her to turn in the wallet at the store’s Lost and Found office
(c) Take the wallet, jot down her name, and handle it to the police department’s Lost and Found division
(d) Do nothing

53. Every year during the winter season, viral fevers occur in the city, but this time it has almost become a major epidemic. How should the health departments respond to the threat?
(a) Wait for the winter season to be over
(b) Advise people not to travel beyond the city
(c) Sale of analgesic should be regulated
(d) None of these

54. The vegetable suppliers in a city believe from their study of the supply market that the price of potatoes will soon increase manifold. How should the mayor address this potential problem?
(a) The mayor should order the city administration to purchase and store sufficient quantity of potatoes in advance to control prices
(b) The mayor should establish network of shops controlled by government for the sale of potatoes at a far price during the crisis
(c) Both a and b
(d) The mayor should fix the price at the certain point within the city irrespective of the real market scenario, even though the suppliers may face ruin because of that

55. A new virus M2Me has appeared that can destroy a computer’s processing system. The virus resembles an official e-mail sent from banks. What should the owner of a computer do?
(a) If the receives e-mail, then he should get a good antivirus software capable of dealing with M2Me virus
(b) He should scan only the official e-mail he gets for viruses, as much as the fire can distinguish between then and nonofficial e-mails
(c) He should not receive e-mails at all
(d) Both a and b

55. A clock is set to show the correct time at 7 am. Monday. The clock loses 15 min in 24 h. What will be the true time when the clock indicates 6 am on the following Friday?
(a) 6 : 15 am Friday
(b) 6 : 30 am Friday
(c) 7 am Friday
(d) 7 : 15 am Friday

56. The reflection of a clock in the mirror is 3 h 45 min. What is the actual time shown in the clock ?
(a) 8 h 15 min
(b) 9 h 30 min
(c) 8 h 45 min
(d) 9 h 15 min

57. If a wall clock shows 9 h 30 min. What time will the clock show in the mirror?
(a) 8 h 45 min
(b) 8 h 50 min
(c) 9 h 50 min
(d) 9 h 30 min

58. January 1, 2001 was a Monday. What clay of the week lies on January 1, 2002 ?
(a) Saturday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Monday
(d) Sunday

59. In a simultaneous throw of a pair of dice, find the probability of getting equal numbers.
(a)3/4
(b)1/4
(c)1/6
(d)5/6

60. In a simultaneous throw of a pair of dice, find the probability of getting a sum, which is a perfect square ?
(a) 13/36
(b)7/36
(c)11/36
(d)5/36

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61. In a simultaneous throw of a pair of dice, find the probability of getting prime numbers on both the faces.
(a) 11/3
(b)11/36
(c)1/4
(d)11/15

62. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting a number other than 4 on any dice ?
(a) 26/36
(b)1/3
(c)17/36
(d)2/3

63. Find the number of ways in which 6 players out of 11 players can be selected so as to include 3 particular players.
(a) 45
(b) 65
(c) 56
(d) 54

64. Find the number of ways in which 8 players out of 12 players can be selected such that 2 particular players are always included and 3 particular players are always excluded.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

65. Find the number of diagonals of a polygon with 8 sides.
(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 35

66. A walks 10 metres in front and 10 metres to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 20 metres respectively. How far is he now from his starting point?
(a) 5 metres
(b) 10 metres
(c) 20 metres
(d) 23 metres

67. Rasik walks 20 m North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres away is he from his original position?
(a) 15 metres West
(b) 30 metres East
(c) 30 metres West
(d) 45 metres East

68. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the East before turning to his right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle's place 30 metres from this point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 metres to the North before meeting his father in a street. How far did ther son meet his father from the starting point?
(a) 80 metres
(b) 100 metres
(c) 140 metres
(d) 260 metres

(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing north and south are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(ii) Q gets a north facing flat and is not next to S.
(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
(iv) R next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets a north facing flat.

69. Whose flat is between Q and S?
(a) T
(b) U
(c) R
(d) Data inadequate

70. The flats of which of the other pair than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) PT
(b) QP
(c) QR
(d) TS

71. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose flat will be next to that of U?
(a) Q
(b) T
(c) P
(d) R

72. Which of the combination get south facing flats?
(a) URP
(b) UPT
(c) QTS
(d) Data inadequate

74. 5 + 3 × 6 – 4 ÷ 2 = 4 × 3 – 10 ÷ 2 + 7
(a) 4, 7
(b) 5, 7
(c) 6, 4
(d) 6, 10

75. 7 × 2 – 3 + 8 ÷ 4 = 5 + 6 × 2 – 24 ÷ 3
(a) 2, 6
(b) 6, 5
(c) 3, 24
(d) 7, 6

76. 15 + 3 × 4 – 8 ÷ 2 = 8 × 5 + 16 ÷ 2 –1
(a) 3, 5
|(b) 15, 5
(c) 15, 16
(d) 3, 1

77. 6 × 3 + 8 ÷ 2 – 1 = 9 – 8 ÷ 4 + 5 × 2
(a) 3, 4
(b) 3, 5
(c) 6, 9
(d) 9, 5

78. 8 ÷ 2 × – 11 + 9 = 6 × 2 – 5 + 4 ÷ 2
(a) 5, 9
(b) 8, 5
(c) 9, 6
(d) 11, 5

79.

(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 18
(d) 20

80.

(a) M, N
(b) N, O
(c) M, O
(d) None of these

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