(Free Test Series) Comprehensive Test-5 for CSAT (Paper–2)

Comprehensive Test-5 for
CSAT Paper–II


Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only.

Locals point out that the Nilgiri forests are now shown of their trademark orchids and the Shola forests exposed to air pollution due to tourist vehicles constantly zigzagging through tiger reserves. Green belts like Sindhudurg in Maharashtra, which was demarcated as one of the earliest eco-tourism zones, lie ravaged due to unregulated mining activity, which has been stalled only recently. In such as scenario, and increased interest in the ghats may spell doom, fear many. A heritage tag makes a place more popular and gives it more attention from central and state governments. This usually means more funds allocated, without clear vision of how they would be used. The focus is unfortunately on infrastructure suited to mass tourism. Their research in the ghats showed that benefits of tourism rarely percolate to indigenous communities.
Expert say there is a need regulate opening up of more natural reserve to tourism. Also recommended is the creation of a metropolitan agency to holistically address tourism in the ghats instead of piecemeal at the level of the local zilla parishads and civic bodies.

Unesco itself has acknowledged the tourism dilemma that comes with its accolades. Among the strategies it suggests is reducing demand by imposing higher visitior fees. The agency, in fact, cities the success of hiked entry fees in Rajasthan’s Keoladeo national park, which is already on the list. The move in the 1990s saw a decrease in footballs but an increase in tourist-driven revenues. Lessons could also be learns from the tiger reserves of Sunderbans, which successfully use camp and cottage-based eco-tourism devoid of energy-guzzling technologies.
The government too has begun to take cognizance. The environment ministry this week stated that a cess would be introduced for private hotels within five kilometers of natural habitats, restrictions placed on the number of tourist and lodges in the middle of sanctuaries moved out.

1. Which of the following statements best describes why an increased interest in the ghats may spell doom?
(a) A heritage tag makes a place more popular and lots of tourist flock to this place.
(b) A heritage tag makes a place more popular, but besides its benefits tourism may bring its own problems.
(c) A heritage tag makes a place more interesting for the tourist and therefore many flock to see this place.
(d) A heritage tag makes a place more popular but the benefits of tourism are few and far between.

2. What does the author imply when he uses the phrase “short of their trademark orchids”?
(1) The environmental impact of tourism
(2) The Nilgiri forests
(3) The air pollution in the forests.
(4) The destruction of green belts.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) 3 and 4

3. Which of the following recommendations by experts to tackle the negative environmental impact on forests are mentioned in the passage?
(1) Charging a higher visitor fee.
(2) Regulating the opening up of natural reserves to tourist.
(3) Making a central agency accountable for tourism in the natural reserves.
(4) Including the local zilla parishads and civic bodies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

Given below are four items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriates for the given situation.
Please attempt all the items. There is no negative marking for the wrong answers for these four items.

4. You have just been posted to a very poor district in Orissa. You are supposed to implement a plan to improve the socio-economic state of the district. This plan was formulated by your predecessor in collaboration with the government. However, you find several major flaws with the plan. You also discover that the plan has not been reviewed and had been hurriedly approved by the local government so that funds could be released quickly to help the poverty stricken area. You:
(a) point out the mistakes your predecessor had made and criticize his/her work.
(b) report your misgivings to your superior and ask for more time to create a new plan.
(c) say nothing white working to improve the existing plan.
(d) recommend that funds be released any try to implement the plan.

5. You have been successfully running your own company for some time now. A new technology is being launched which is good for the company as well as the clients. However, if it is brought into use, certain jobs which were earlier done by workers will be eliminated. You want to provide better services to your client but at the same time be loyal to your employees who have helped the company grow.
You decide to:
(a) install the new technology and fire workers who are made redundant.
(b) No install the new technology.
(c) Try to absorb those workers in some other department.
(d) Upgrade workers’ skills so that they can work with the new technology.

6. You are supposed to open up a new health clinic in a village. Part of your responsibilities is to ensure that all the children in the village get vaccinated for certain diseases. You get to know that the villagers believe vaccinations make the children ill and are reluctant to get them vaccinated.
You decide to:
(a) Offer an incentive to people who get their children vaccinated.
(b) Refute the villagers’ beliefs about vaccination with scientific facts and data at various public forums.
(c) Explain how vaccines work and how they are important at various public forums.
(d) Make the vaccination programme mandatory for every household and non-compliance with it punishable.

Direction: The following nine items (Questions 1 to 9 are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.

Passage

Our granddaughter Alexandra’s dance recital began with little pixie-like three year olds who were having a ball. They were falling right and left, of course, because at that age it’s a major accomplishment just to get them dressed and onto the stage in a semi straight line. Their primary strategy was to look at one another and do what the next person next to them was doing. They didn’t even know they were messing up, because they were trying so hard to please their teacher. At that age, there is no such thing as embarrassment, intimidation or fear of failure.
Those little ballet prodigies were living. It was worth letting them perform “poorly” because that put them on the path to learning to dance well. Very few times in life do we start out at the top of our game. We are like those three year odds in terms of our skill-unsure, unstable, and unpredictable. Unfortunately, we are not like them in our self-analysis. We get so bound up with the prospect of failing that we limit our own potential.

7. According to the passage what can be said about adults?
(1) They don’t have a fear of failure.
(2) They have a fear of failure.
(3) They are reluctant to take the stage.
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

8. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
(1) Kids always try everything to please their teacher.
(2) Kids should always be make to correct their mistakes.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 2 only

9. According to the passage what thing are common to kids an adults?
(1) Surely
(2) Instability
(3) Unpredictability
(4) Self-analysis

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Passage

People make a mistake thinking they have to be happy to be grateful, and that to be happy they have to experience positive “happenings” in their life. Wrong. Happiness doesn’t emanate from good happenings-it springs from something deeper called joy, regardless of what happens. Joy is that deep-rooted sense that the keys to success in life are hung being the curtain that separates heaven from earth. Joy comes from knowing that “God has a plan and I’m a part of it.” Guess where the author, Paul the apostle, was when he wrote it: in prison! Say more? If you can have joy in prison, you can have it when your best friend deserts you, or gets sick.
Grateful people are people, but the happiest people are those who have the joy that comes only as a result of an intimate relationship with God.

10. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) Grateful people are the happiest.
(2) One is happiest when one has an intimate relationship with God.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. What can be inferred from the statement, “Joy is that deep-rooted sense that the keys to success in life are hung behind the curtain that separates heaven from earth”?
(1) By attaining joy we can make earth our heaven.
(2) Joy can only be derived from success in life.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. All the following have been mentioned in the passage as situations where one can attain joy except:
(a) In prison.
(b) When one gets sick.
(c) When one’s friend desert him/her.
(d) When one gets fired.

Passage

One of the most critical environments on earth: “Beast Barracks” at west point, the United States Military Academy. There are several goals for the summer preceding the first academic year at west point, not the least of which is to week out those who are not strong enough mentally to take four years of rigorous discipline. Therefore, everything is criticized: one’s appearance, attitude, physical abilities, skills and emotional toughness. As a result, as many as five percent of every year’s entering class of plebes packs it in and goes home before the schools year begins. The cadets who survive Beast Barracks no doubt do so because they are determined not be broken by the criticism leveled at them by their upper-class handlers. You can survive your own version of Beast Barracks if you will resolve the same thing.

13. What is the primary intent of the author?
(1) To let us know about the Beast Barracks.
(2) One can succeed in life in spite of criticism.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements.
(1) Majority of the cadets at the Beast Barrack Academy leave before the beginning of the session.
(2) Solders coming out of the Academy are mentally strong.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. According to the passage, all the following attributes of a person are criticized except:
(a) The way he looks.
(b) Emotional toughness.
(c) Mental Acumen.
(d) Attitude.

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

All human societies, post and present, have had a vested interest in education; and some wits have claimed that teaching (at its best an education activity) is the second oldest profession. While not all societies channel sufficient resources into support for educational activities and institutions, all at the very least acknowledge their centrality—and for good reasons. For one thing, it is obvious that children are born illiterate and innumerate, and ignorant of the norms and cultural achievements of the community or society into which they have been thrust; but with the help of professional teachers and the dedicated amateurs in their families and immediate environs (and with the aid, too, of educational resources made available through the media and nowadays the internet), within a few years they can read, write calculate, and act (at least often) in culturally-appropriate ways. Some learn these skills with more facility than others, and so education also serves s a social-sorting mechanisms and undoubtedly has enormous impact on the economic rate of the individual. Put more abstractly, at its best education equips individuals with the skills and substantive knowledge that allows them to define and to pursue their own goals, and also allows them to participate in the life of their community as full-fledged, autonomous citizens.

16. According to the passage, which of the following are advantages of education?
(1) Vocational skills are imparted so that children can emerge as responsible citizens.
(2) Skills like reading and writing are imparted to children.
(3) It acts us a social-sorting mechanism that distinguishes the better learners from the slower ones.
(4) It defines goals for individuals and present them the techniques with which they can achieve these.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

17. According to the passage, how does education impact the economic fate of the individual?
(a) By imparting skills and knowledge that the individual uses to follow her goals.
(b) By imparting the species skills and knowledge that each individual needs to follow her goals.
(c) By imparting skills and knowledge that the individual should use to follow her goals.
(d) By imparting skills and knowledge that allows the individuals to be a responsible citizen.

18. With reference to the passage, it can be inferred that education plays the important role of:
(a) filling the gap between knowledge and application.
(b) filling the gap between understanding and application.
(c) filling the gap between ignorance and intellect.
(d) Filling the gap between unawareness and knowledge.

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

Critics, including several in the government, would be more than eager to tell you that infrastructure development through the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) route has come at a huge cost.
For instance, a study say that Mumbai’s Nhava Sheva International Container Terminal (NSICT) has seen “excessive and unlawful gains” at the expense of port users, who paid 80 per cent than what was due.
“The 30-year concession period awarded to NSICT Ltd for a port terminal a JNPT (Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust) has affected the public exchequer and user interest in several ways. The role played by TAMP (Tariff Authority for Major Ports), the independent regulator responsible for fixing tariff, led to NSICT extracting inadmissible returns of Rs 524 core during 2002-05 which translated into returns of over 100 per cent of its equity as against the permissible 20 per cent,” the study said.
While a port may sound distant, like the Delhi-Noida toll bridge, which has seen traffic grow manifold since it was opened nearly decade ago, would look more familiar. Another story details how the concessionaire got a deal where it was assured 20 per cent return and any shortfall resulted in increased project cost. So, the initial cost of the DND Flyway, as it more popularly known, has doubled to Rs 953 crore and since the amount has to be recovered with returns – the operator now gets to run the facility for 70 years, instead of the original 30-year period.

19. According to the passage, which of the following are criticisms linked with Public Private Partnership (PPP)?
(1) Overcharging from users of the facility developed under PPP.
(2) Burden on the public exchequer.
(3) Insider trading practices specifically with reference to return on equity.
(4) Superfluous government bailout schemes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

20. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s view on the Delhi-Noida toll bridge?
(a) Assuring a high rate of return to the private partner in a PPP can turn out to be a burden on the exchequer.
(b) Assuring rate of return to the private partner in a PPP makes any shortfall due to increased project cost a burden on the users who have to pay higher toll rates.
(c) Assuring a high rate of return of return to the private partner a PPP is detrimental to infrastructure development.
(d) Assuring a rate of return to the private partner leads to increased project cost and is a reason why public-private partnerships do not work in India.

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Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Experts also say it is essential for the criminal justice system to be slotted as planned expenditure in budget provisions, to get its due. Raghavan suggests a boost for legal aid services by investment of more funds as an incentive for lawyers to take up these cases. “The government could also provide innovative alternatives such as incorporating legal and services as part of legal internship programmes or make a certain stipulated number of legal aids cases compulsory for practicing lawyers.” Introducing alternative in punishment systems, which could involve shifting the focus solely from fine and punishments to community service or payment of compensation, could also provide some respite.
Judicial pendency in turn creates new problems, like overcrowding of prisons. The number of undertrials in prisons across the country substantially outnumbers convicts. Raghavan attributes this to the poor implementation of the Probation of Offenders Act, which provides for a supervised, community-based rehabilitation process for young offenders and those convicted for less serious offences, instead of sending all categories of offenders to prison (as slew of measures since 2000. It has approved ‘in principle’, a National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms projects for computerization of subordinate courts as well as improvement of higher court services.

21. Which of the following provisions is/are suggested as incentives for lawyers?
(1) Making necessary a fixed number of cases for practicing lawyers.
(2) Shifting the focus of punishment to community service.
(3) Incorporating legal aid services as an essential provision of the legal system.
(4) Introducing a higher budget for the criminal justice system.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

22. From the information given in the passage, it can be inferred that:
(a) the criminal justice system is not part of the planned expenditure in budget provisions.
(b) the criminal justice system falls under budget provisions but not under the section of planned expenditure.
(c) the criminal justice system does not fall under budget provisions at all.
(d) the criminal justice system has suffered due to a lack of funding in all areas.

23. What does the author imply by the term “judicial pendency”?
(a) The tendency of the judiciary to sent all offenders to prison instead of looking for alternative measures.
(b) The need for a rehabilitation process for young offenders instead of a prison based system of justice.
(c) The time taken to decide the outcome of a specific case.
(d) The lack of decision making abilities in the judiciary due to which a large number of cases are pending.

24. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) The ministry has introduced measures and has plans to expedite the proceedings of the justice system.
(2) The ministry plans to improve the services of the higher court and introduce more convenience in the subordinate courts.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

In forming expectations about the future it is important to keep in view the interplay of the two main determinants of international economic relations — market forces and economic policy. Global market forces are pushing in the direction of closer integration. Among the key drivers of this process is the need for countries and enterprises to find new markets for their exports, the efficiency seeking restructuring of global operations being undertaken by multinational enterprises, and the eagerness of global finance capital to enter ‘emerging markets’. Under these influences, trade-GDP ratios are rising in many countries, including India.
In the Asian region, market conditions have been disrupted by the recent financial crisis. The post-crisis recovery patterns in the economies of the region need to be analyzed in order to gauge their impact of future market trends that would impact India’s economic links with this region. Though market processes have become more important during the 1990s, the role of economic policy remains crucial, because it sets the parameters within which market forces may operate. We must therefore evaluate the type of international integration strategy that India is pursuing. Similarly, we need to evaluate the international economic strategies of East Asian countries. The closeness of fit between these strategies would determine the trade complementarily between India and East Asia. Should our integration strategy change, this would have significant implications for the nature of economic linkages.
The fact that there are very different ways in which newly liberalizing economies can choose to integrate with international markets is often not adequately recognized. We shall distinguish between three generic types of integration strategies or ‘modes of globalization’. Each of these modes of globalization differs from the other in the relative emphasis it accords to the following dimensions of international linkage: (a) the stimulus to static comparative advantage, (b) long term technology and productivity enhancement, (c) intra-industry trade, and (d) FDI and portfolio capital inflow.

25. What is the main thought of the author in the first paragraph?
(a) The need for countries and enterprises to find new markets.
(b) Expectations about the future of the global market place.
(c) Markets are being integrated on a global scale.
(d) The interplay of two main determinants—market forces and economic policy—of international economic relations.

26. With references to the passage, consider the following statements”
(1) Economic policy is more important than the market forces as it is only through this that market forces can operate.
(2) Economic policy is vital as it helps create the structure around which market forces can operate.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

27. With reference to the passage, which of these affect(s) the nature of economic linkages in the Asian region?
(1) Evaluation of the type of international integration strategy used by a country.
(2) A modification of the integration strategy of a country.
(3) The fit between the international economic strategies of the trading countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

28. From the last paragraph of the passage, it can be inferred that
(a) Modes of globalization are distinguished on the basis of the stimulus to static comparative advantage.
(b) Modes of globalization are distinguished on the basis of the manner of integration that each has with the international markets.
(c) Modes of globalization are distinguished on the basis of the various elements of international linkage.
(d) Modes of globalization are distinguished from each other based on the relative emphasis they each place on the elements of international linkage.

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.

The death penalty alone is not the highest prescribed punishment for any crime in India. A judge always has a choice between awarding either the ‘death sentence’ or ‘life imprisonment’. Once a person is found guilty, the decision about whether to send him to the gallows or keep him behind bars for the rest of his life is taken by the judge. He bases his decision on his appreciation of evidence, his personal value scale and its subjective satisfaction of the prosecution theory. It does not hinge only on the sweet will of the judge, but it is almost so.
What ‘special circumstances’ warrant death for the convict, and how a particular case is concluded as a ‘rarest of rare’ case to justify capital punishment, are fluid and often arbitrary. As repeatedly held by legendary jurists Justice V R Krishna lyre and Justice P N Bhagwati, there is neither legislative policy nor legal principle or judicial precedents that quide a judicial officer, when awarding either life or death. The absence of any clear-cut legal proposition ensures that the process does not end with the judgment alone.
The question of ‘inordinate delay’ as a valid reason to convert a death sentence into one of imprisonment for life is answered by different judges, benches and political and social sections differently.

29. What does the author imply in the last sentence of the first paragraph?
(a) The death penalty itself is awarded to those who are perpetrators of crimes that are judge the rarest of the rare
(b) The choice of awarding the death penalty mainly rests on the judge’s discretion.
(c) The death penalty and life imprisonment are both judgments that depend on the personal beliefs of the judge.
(d) Since, the death penalty is not the highest prescribed punishment it depends on the judge’s discretion to be awarded.

30. With reference to the passage, which of these has not been mentioned as a basis on which the judge chooses to award the death sentence?
(1) His objective evaluation of the evidence.
(2) His approval of the evidence that has been submitted.
(3) What he consider important or assigns worth to.
(4) His contentment with the arguments put forth by the prosecution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

31. With reference to the passage, it can be inferred that
(a) the lack of clear guidelines is not only with reference to the award of capital punishment but also linked with its aftermath.
(b) the lack of clear guidelines in the award of capital punishment ensures that the negative effects of the judgement carry on even after it is implemented.
(c) the clear pronouncement of the ‘special circumstances’ behind the award of capital punishment are necessary to evaluate its effectiveness.
(d) judicial officers need guidance from fellow jurists who have past experience in awarding either life sentences or death sentences.

32. With references to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) The argument of unnecessary delay can be used in some cases to change a death sentence into one of life imprisonment.
(2) The argument of unnecessary delay is used in all cases where the death sentence has been converted to one of life imprisonment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only.

An unrestrained urbanization is transmuting our cities. Horizons are punctuated with scaffoldings and a new grammar of glass and steel is taking shape, as old buildings and neighborhoods are replaced with small pieces of Singapore. Enclaves of unique architectural styles are slowly being gentrified and brought into a homogenous mainstream. Transformations that are happening are pushing out the traditional inhabitants and new people are moving in who do not have the same social patterns.
Though India has a variety of architectural idioms and techniques, cookie-cutter replications are gaining popularly. “Traditional architecture came around with strong response to social, cultural and climatic consideration,” says dilawari. “This is what is being eroded very fast. The interaction of designers with users is being replaced by the builder and quality of space is being replaced with arithmetic of space.”
With the removal of architecture from its context, there is a slow extinction of features such as open spaces, balconies, high ceilings, pedestrian-friendly thoroughfares, exposed brickwork and indigenous material such as kola stone. This is largely because the means of production have become so highly standardized – the capacity of human beings to create meaningful cultural objects that impact people is being lost.
The chawls of Mumbai offer a window into the unique culture, society and history of an island metropolis in the minds of moulding itself in the image of a ‘world class city’. In the late 19th century, the textile industry prompted a vast influx of immigrants from the hinterland. Constructed by mill owners and private builders to house the growing community of migrants, the over-crowded chawl became the icon of the working-class dwelling.

33. What does the author imply when he uses the words “old buildings and neighbourhoods are replaced with small pieces of Singapore?
(a) Old buildings and neighbourhoods are likened to the old architecture in Singapore.
(b) Old buildings and neighbourhoods are renovated using architectural style from Singapore.
(c) Old buildings and neighbourhoods are substituted with analogous architectural styles.
(d) Old buildings and neighbourhoods now have new architectural style inspired by the neo-architecture of Singapore.

34. With reference to the passage, which of the following is not mentioned as an element of the new architectural style gaining ground in India?
(1) Inhabitants with dissimilar sense of community.
(2) Erosion of the traditional architectural elements.
(3) The builder’s importance has replaced the need for designers.
(4) The quantity of the building/neighborhood is given importance.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

35. With reference to the passage, it can be inferred that architecture:
(a) can be used to create a cultural impact.
(b) is at the centre of a cultural debate.
(c) has core elements like open spaces, balconies and high ceilings.
(d) is a creative field that is open to interpretation.

36. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
(1) The chawls continue to serve a valuable purpose in the cramped housing circumstances of Mumbai.
(2) The chawls of Mumbai are symbolic of the city’s distinct societal structure and way of life.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

37. A shopkeeper has been demanded protection money from by an armed hooligan. Which of the following should he take?
(a) Confront the hooligan and try to stop him physically and aggressively
(b) Pay up meekly without protest
(c) Promise to pay up at a later date and inform the police of the same
(d) Shout to surrounding shopkeepers for help and beat up the hooligan together

38. Mrudul has been caught cheating in a school examination. What should the principal do with him?
(a) He should be expelled
(b) His parents should be informed and warned that the school will not tolerate any repetition of such conduct
(c) Either a and b
(d) He should be allowed to write the examination despite everything

39. The military forces of Nations his come under a cloud with revelations that several senior colonels are suspected to have been involved in the illegal sale of weaponry from the military armory. What should be first action the following?
(a) Government should investigate which colonels are involved in this matter
(b) Government should suspend all the officials who have visited that armory sometime
(c) Government should remove the control of the armory from the military forces altogether
(d) Either b or c

40. A personal has been made to create special zones where foreign and domestic firms can manufacture electric equipments at discounted excise rates. How should the government respond?
(a) Approve, since it will attract foreign firms and foreign currency and also help domestic firms
(b) Disapprove, since foreign firms cannot be given same privilege as domestic firms
(c) Disapprove, since excise rates must never be lowered for specific industry
(d) Approve, because the treasury does not require more money at present in the form of excise duty

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41. The shareholders have critised the management of Company C for its failure to implement several dozen approved objective despite an increase in the employee strength. What should the management do?
(a) Redefme the objective of the Company to fit its available resources including employee strength
(b) Ignore the shareholder’s dissent
(c) Give a report to the shareholders on reasons for the failure in implementation
(d) Both a and c

42. The island nation Q has been reserving continuous hostile military threats from its neighbouring countries. What should the government of Q do to stabilize the situation?
(a) Launch a war against all its enemies
(b) Get the representatives of the neighboring countries into a serious dialogue of peace to reduce the political tension
(c) Convince each neighbour to fight off the others on Q’s behalf
(d) Offer to become a vassal state of the most powerful neighbor

43. Two cars have overturned and blocked the entire street for incoming vehicles. What should the traffic authorities do?
(a) Send men and equipment to the spot to clear the wreckage
(b) Divert the approaching vehicles to other routes temporarily
(c) Fine the owners of the cars for reckless driving
(d) Both a and b

44. The recent municipal elections have seen only 50% voter turnout. What should be the most feasible course of action to remedy the situation?
(a) An awareness campaign ought to be conducted about the need to exercise voting right
(b) The entire election process should be canceled as it did not represent popular representation
(c) Those who did not exercise their voting rights should not be allowed to vote anymore
(d) All of the above

45. Sadly enough, majority of the plans for rural development are only framed in the confinement of papers. How can the situation remedied?
(a) The planners should be ordered to supervise the field work and implementation of those plans on a regular basis
(b) The rural development department’s paper supply should be cut short
(c) New plan should only be made after all the old plans, defunct or not have been carried out beyond reproach
(d) All of the above

46. You area sub-division magistrate. Development work as well as controlling crime rate of the subdivision keeps you very busy during your office hours and even beyond that. The principal of eh government schools call you as a guest and wants you to give students a lecture on good conduct. What should be your response?
(a) Tell the principal that it is none of sub-divisional magistrate’s business and you do not have time for it
(b) Ask the principle that in what way you can help him and what he wants you to do exactly
(c) Tell the principal it will be better if this situation is handled by academician and moralists
(d) Call up some NGO of social welfare organization and ask their representative to go the school

47. You are a civil servant, a neighbour of your who is a parent of a 17-year-old boy approaches you and requests you to spend some time explaining to her son, not to be engaged in unlawful activity and should not load around. She tells you that he keeps a bad company and has a group of friend with petite criminal and has a group of friend with petite criminal records. What should you do?
(a) Tell the woman that she should contact some Youth Welfare Centre or NGO who works for the welfare of the Youth.
(b) Talk to the guy that unlawful activity can attract penalty and is not considered as good conduct.
(c) Tell the boy out right that he will land in jail if he remains engaged in such kind of activity.
(d) Tell the lady that it is more of your business.

48. You are having your duty in a hospital where a high profile political leader had been admitted. In the same hospital, an uncanny case arises and you are sent by your senior to handle it. When you arrive there you see that there is a man, who according to hospital administration is mentally ill. He is heartening to stab anyone who tries to come near him, and apparently he is having a knife with him. What should be your first action in the given circumstance?
(a) Ask the hospital to get someone from the psychiatric unit of the hospital for assistance in handling the situation
(b) Approach the man in question and ask him to surrender and behave properly
(c) Ask the hospital about the rules and protocols they have to handle the situation accordingly
(d) Just ask the hospital authorities to make everything all right immediately as a high profile leader is also in the same hospital and it involves security concern

49. You are investigating into a case, in which later on you discover that you colleague officer is also involved. Which of the following you should not do?
(a) Hide the fact of involvement of your colleague and go on with the investigation
(b) Call the concerned colleague and ask him how to wind up everything without bringing him in spotlight
(c) Contact the concerned additional collector and ask him to bribe you if he wants you to wind up the matter and conceal his involvement
(d) Do not do any of the above

50. You are a police officer on patrol duty. You receive a call from another police officer who is on duty in another area, where a case of dacoity has taken place. He is trying to call the police headquarters but he is not able to contact. He requires immediate assistance. You are doing your duty in the nearby area, which is around 8 km from the area where the incidence has happened. The police wireless control room does not appear to be receiving his call for help. ‘Which of the following should you do first?
(a) Try to contact the police headquarters
(b) Go to the police headquarters and inform about the situation
(c) Ignore his call
(d) Go to the concerned officer to assist him in tackling the situation

51. Officer Ram Prakash appears to be taking free meals from a local restaurant owner in exchange of providing restaurant owner with parking privileges in front of this business. Ram Prakash apparently is permitting the parking of cars in the area market by administration as non-parking area, in front of a restaurant so that customers do not suffer from any inconvenience. A customer complained to you about the conduct of Ram Prakash. Which of the following should you initially do under these circumstances?
(a) Go to your senior officer and complain him about the alleged conduct or Ram Prakash?
(b) Speak with the complainant and try to get the details with regard to alleged conduct
(c) Go to Officer Ram Prakash and tell him about the complaint that has been received against him and the corrupt image he has among the public
(d) Do not do anything immediately instead observe officer Ram Prakash carefully to determine if there is any truth to the complainant’s claim

52. A program is being conducted by an NGO, “Law and People” in a government school in the sub division regarding the significance of law in life and informing studies about the law course and law schools. An eminent professor was supposed to come and deliver a speech but due to some unavoidable reasons she could not turn up. You were asked by the NGO to come and deliver a speech in the school in your capacity as sub-divisional magistrate of that division. Which of the following should you not do?
(a) Ask the NGO to provide you with information regarding law courses and law schools
(b) Ask the NGO to write the speech for you, since the knows best what should be included in your talk
(c) Read some articles and collect data that tells the importance of law in life
(d) Do all of the above

53. While on patrolling duty you caught hold of a car that was driving rashly. You asked the vehicle to stop and you approved it. The car driver apologised for this rash driving and showed his license to you having 100 tucked inside it. What should be your immediate course of action?
(a) Arrest the violator for offering a bribe to a police officer
(b) Tell the violator that there is a Rs. 100 under his license and that he should realise this
(c) Call your senior officer for his assistance in dealing with the situation
(d) Ignore his request as it is none of your business

54. You receive a complaint regarding domestic violence by a person who reported that her Sister has been victim of domestic violence and accuse her Brother in law for such conduct and ask you to come to the scene of violence immediately. When you arrive you notice that both husband and wife are sitting at opposite ends of the room, they are injured and it is very apparent that acts of violence have occurred. What should you do immediately under these circumstances?
(a) Call for backup assistance
(b) Ask the wife if she needs medical assistance
(c) Enquire into the details of the incident by asking questions regarding the incident from both husband and wife
(d) Arrest the husband

55. Recently, one of your colleague officers died, you are really upset and disheartened about the entire incident. One day on duty while investigating a case, you encounter a person who is allegedly engaged in drug business. While questioning him regarding the extent of the business and related information, the accused made a comment that “dead officer was handling the case and he knew the case better.” This remark stirred your emotions. Which of the following should you immediately try to do?
(a) Carry on with investigation without letting your attention go towards the incident of death of your colleague
(b) Start talking with him about the deceased officer
(c) Tell the suspect that he is under arrest
(d) Walk away

56. A man sold two books at ` 24 each, on one he got a profit of 20% and on other, he lost 20% on the whole, he
(a) lost ` 1
(b) gained ` 1
(c) lost ` 2
(d) gained ` 2

57. A sold an article to B at a profit of 10% and B sells it to C at a loss of 10% of C paid 2079. How much money was paid by A?
(a) ` 2100
(b) ` 2400
(c) ` 2160
(d) ` 2480

58. A person sold an article at a loss of 14%. If he sells it at ` 58 more, he would have gained 15%. Find CP of the article.
(a) ` 210
(b) ` 180
(c) ` 200
(d) ` 175

59. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price. But he uses a false weight of 900 g per 1 kg weight. Find his gain per cent.
(a)100/9 %
(b)93/9 %
(c) 11%
(d) 10%

60. A and B can complete a piece of work in 12 days while B and C in 15 days. A did the work for 3 days, B for 8 days and C for 10 days to complete the work. In how many days C alone can complete the work?
(a) 10 days
(b) 11 days
(c) 12 days
(d) 14 days

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61. Two pipes A and B fill a tank in 15 h and 20 h respectively while a third pipe C can empty the full tank in 25 h. All the three pipes are opened in the beginning. After 10 h, C is closed. In how much time will the tank be full?
(a) 10 h
(b) 11 h
(c) 11.5 h
(d) 12 h

62. A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 6 h. An inlet pipe fills water at the rate of 4 L a minute. When the tank is full, the inlet is opened and due to the leak the tank is empty in 8 h. Find capacity of the tank (in litres).
(a) 5000 L
(b) 5670 L
(c) 5700 L
(d) 5760 L

63. Two cyclists start from the same place in opposite directions. One goes towards North at 12 km/h and he other goes towards South at 15 km/h. What time will they take to be 8.1 km apart?
(a) 18 min
(b) 17 min
(c) 16 min
(d) 15 min

64. Two trains starting at the same time from two stations 240 km apart and going in opposite directions cross each other at a distance of 160 km from one of the stations. What is the ratio of their speeds?
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 4

65. Two trains start from A and B respectively and travel towards each other at a speed of 60 km/h and 45 km/h respectively. By the time they meet, the first train has travelled 30 km more than the second. The distance between A and B is
(a) 240 km
(b) 180 km
(c) 210 km
(d) 175 km

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions except at
(A) at (ii) above but has secured at least 50% marks in post-graduation and at least 65% marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
(B) at (iii) above but has at least twelve years post qualification work experience out of which at least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to Chairman. In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses of action information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each questions. All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2010.
Mark answer (a) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (b) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (c) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
Mark answer (d) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.

66. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in HR with 68% marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System last year in his organisation. He has secured 50% marks in the selection process.

67. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her post-graduation in Personnel Management with 70% marks. She has successfully implemented HR-system last year in his organisation. She was born on 2nd December, 1965. She has secured 45% marks in the selection process.

68. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May, 1963. He has secured 65% marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation out of which twelve years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in HR with 55% marks. He has successfully implemented HR system in his organisation during the last two years.

69. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in HR with 68% marks. He was born on 15th September, 1968. He has secured 48% marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-system in his organisation two years back.

70. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June, 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen years out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in Personnel Management with 75% marks. He has secured 44% marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-system in his organisation last year.

Directions: In each of the questions below is given a Statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II, and III. A courses of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of information given in the Statement, you have to assume everything in the Statement to be true. Then decide which of the three given suggested course (e) of action logically follow(s) worth pursuing. Then decide which of the alternatives (a), (b), (c) or (d) is correct.

71. Statement: In one of the most accidents on a railway level crossing, fifty people died when a bus crossing them collided with a running train.
Courses of Action:
I. Train driver should immediately be suspended.
II. The driver of the bus should be tried in court for negligence on his part.
III. The railways authorities should be asked to man all its level crossings.
(a) None follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) I and II follow
(d) All follow

72. Statement: There was a spurt in criminal activities in the city during the recant festival season.
Courses of Action:
I. The police should immediately investigate into the causes of this increase.
II. In future the police should take adequate precautions to avoid recurrence of such a situation during festivals.
III. The known criminals should be arrested before any such reason.
(a) None follows
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) I and II follow
(d) All follow

73. Statement: A mass mortality of Shrimps in ponds on entire Andhra coast has recently been reported due to the presence of a virus.
Courses of Action:
I. The water of the ponds affected should immediately be treated for identifying the nature of the virus.
II. The catching of Shrimps from the ponds should temporality be stopped.
III. The fishermen should be asked to watch for the onset of such phenomenon in nature.
(a) Only I follows
(b) All follow
(c) Only I and II follow
(d) Only II and III follow

Directions: In the following questions few symbols have been used and these symbols convey the meaning as under.
P @ Q ® P > Q P @ Q ® P ³ Q
P = Q ® P = Q
P  Q ® P < Q P  Q ® P < Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the three statements to be true, state which. of the following conclusions I and II given below is definitely true.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true; Give answer
(b) if only conclusion II is true; Give answer
(c) if conclusion I and II both are correct; Give answer
(d) if either I and II are true; Give answer (e) if neither I nor II is correct.

74. Statements M = C, L  F, C @ I.
Conclusions I. = II. M @ L

75. S tatements II. = U @ V, V  S
Conclusions I. V  T
                    II. T = V

76. Statements  B @ C
Conclusions I. C @ A
                    II. A  D

Directions: Choose the correct alternative from the following options as given below for the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given in each of the questions.

77. Assertion (A): Indus Valley people knew that art of navigation.
      Reason (R):
Indus Valley seals indicate prevalence of overseas trade.

78. Assertion (A): A person with blood group-O is supposed to be an universal Donor.
      Reason (R):
Group-O does not contain any anti-gens.

79. Assertion (A): Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial.
      Reason (R):
They are fed by melting snow.
80. Assertion (A):
An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water.
      Reason (R):
The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury.

Answers

1. (B), 2. (D), 3. (B), 4. (D), 5. (C), 6. (A), 7. (C), 8. (D), 9. (D), 10. (D), 11. (D), 12. (D), 13. (B), 14. (B), 15. (C), 16. (B), 17. (A), 18. (D), 19. (D), 20. (A), 21. (A), 22. (B), 23. (C), 24. (C), 25. (C), 26. (B), 27. (C), 28. (D), 29. (B), 30. (C), 31. (A), 32. (A), 33. (C), 34. (C), 35. (A), 36. (B), 37. (c), 38. (c), 39. (a), 40. (a), 41. (d), 42. (b), 43. (d), 44. (a), 45. (a), 46. (b), 47. (b), 48. (c), 49. (d), 50. (a), 51. (b), 52. (b), 53. (b), 54. (b), 55. (a), 56. (C), 57. (A), 58. (C), 59. (A), 60. (C), 61. (D), 62. (D), 63. ((A), 64. (A), 66. (A), 67. (A), 68. (C), 69. (D), 70. (B), 71. (B), 72. (C), 73. (B), 74. (B), 75. (A), 76. (D), 77. (A), 78. (C), 79. (A), 80. (C)

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