(Paper) C.S.E. ZOOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER FOR PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION (5)

Paper : C.S.E. ZOOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER FOR PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION

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Two Hours Maximum Marks: 300

82. Expansion of which one of the following regions of brain during evolution is responsible for the greater intelligence of man?
(a) Allocortex (b) Neocortex
(c) Cerebellum (d) Juxtallocortex

 

83. What Was the principal missing element in Darwin's concept of evolution?
(a) Knowledge of heredity and variation
(b) Concept of missing links (c) Convincing fossil records
(d) Concrete evidence for the operation of Natural Selection

 

84. The ineffectiveness of many antibiotics to bacteria today is most closely associated with
(a) F-plasmid (b) R-plasmid
(c) Catabolite repression (d) Bacterial transformations

 

85. The direct evidence on the evolution of horse is provided by the study of
(a) Recapitulation (b) Geographic distribution
(c) Fossils (d) Homology of the limbs


87. Which one of the following is the vector of Trypanosomiasis? 
(a) Tsetse fly (b) Phlebotamus fly.
(c) White fly (d) Fire fly

 

88. Which part of the worldo is regarded as the most probable place of origin of ancestor of humans?
(a) Java-Sumatra (b) China
(c) South Asia (d) South Africa

 

89. In the case of frog, the structure known as 'grey crescent' is found in
(a) Fertilized egg (b) Unfertilized egg
(c) Brain (d) Eye

 

90. Consider the following pairs:
I. Bombyx mori - Lepidoptera
2. Tachardia lacca - Hemiptera
3. Apis indica - Hymenoptera

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) I only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

91. Consider the following statements:
1. India is one of the twelve mega-biodiversity tountries of the world.
2. The Gulf of Mannar has been recognised on the World Network of Biosphere Researves by UNESCO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2

92. Amensalism is a type of population interaction in which
(a) Both the populations are inhibited.
(b) One population is benefited and the other inhibited
(c) One population is inhibited and the other unaffected
(d) Both the populations are benefited

 

93. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The vipers have movable upper jaws.
(b) The vipers are viviparous.
(c) The krait has a rounded tail with undivided subcaudals.
(d) In India, six species of cobra are found.

 

94. Consider the following Indian fauna:
1. Elephas maxim us
2. Equus hemionus khur
3. Panthera uncia

Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

95. The major component of 'biological clock' in higher vertebrates is
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Cerebral cortex
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Medulla oblongata

 

96. Which one of the following is the correct sequence qf ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

 

97. Histones are rich in
(a) Histidine and alanine
(b) Arginine and lysine
(c) Glutamine and glutamic acid
(d) Alanine and phenylalanine

 

99. The lakes with a reduced profundal zone and a highly productive littoral and sublittoral zones are termed as
(a) Oligotrophic (b) Dystrophic
(c) Eutrophic (d) Mesotrophic

 

100. Consider the following statements:
1. The Grizzled Giant Suirrel (Ratufa macroura) is found in the forest hill ranges of west and north India.
2. At present, there are no flying squirrels in Indian wildlife. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

101. Consider the following statements:
1. The secretions of adrenal cortex include estrogens.
2. Progesterone enhances breast development pregnancy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

102. Consider the following statements:
1. The Sambar is the largest of all Indian deer.
2. The biggest bovid of India is the gaur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

103. Which one among the following is the most important factor in Speciation?
(a) Geographic isolation (b) Reproductive isolation
(c) Ethological isolation (d) Ecological isolation

 

104. ‘Competitive exclusion’ refers to
(a) Struggle between two species
(b) Vanishing of one species from a habitat
(c) Vanishing of all the species from a habitat,
(d) One species managing resources in one way and the other in another way

 

105. Which one of the following insects is to be found in. flour mills?
(a) Trogoderma (b) Tribolium
(c) Plodia (d) Callosobruchus

 

107. Which one of the following is the transparent covering over the eye of snakes?
(a) Nictitating membrane (b) Brille
(c) Eye lid (d) Cornea

 

108. The chief functions of the queen bee substance (oxodecenoic acid) secreted by the mandibular glands of the queen bee are to .
(a) Induce the larvae to develop into queens and to stimulate the drones during the queen's nuptial flight
(b) Promote the transformation of nymphs into drones and to serve as a nutritive material for the workers 
(c) Stimulate ovarian development and ovulation in the queen.
(d) Inhibit ovarian development in workers and to stimulate the drones during the queen's nuptial flight

 

109. The true pearl oyster, producing pearls of high quality belongs to the genus :
(a) Placuna (b) Pinctada
(c) Mytilus (d) Haliotis

 

110. The toxic substance discharged by the blister beetles contains
(a) Oxides of nitrogen (b) Sulphurous compounds
(c) Cantharidine (d) Cyanic acid

111. The machanism of sex determination in male honey bee is
(a) By the presence of one X-chromosome and two sets of autosomes
(b) By the presence of one Z-chromosome and two sets of autosomes
(c) By the ratio of X-chromosomes to haploid set of chromosomes
(d) By the asexual process of embryonic development

 

114. The silk moth, Bombyx sp. overcomes the extremes of ambient temperature by undergoing
(a) Encystment (b) Hibernation
(c) Diapause (d) Aestivation

 

115. In forensic study, DNA fingerprinting process is used to determine whether or not an individual is the parent of a child by
(a) VNTR loci analysis
(b) RFLP analysis
(c) Degenerate oligonucleotides assay
(d) c-DNA analysis

 

116. Chloragogen tissue found in earthworms surrounds the
(a) Intestine (b) Gonad
(c) Clitellum (d) Integument

 

Directions: The following four (4) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the  'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully 'and select the answers to these items using the code given below: 

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

 

117. Assertion (A) : Mitochondrion contains one double stranded circular DNA.
Reason (R) :
DNA carries genes for all the proteins needed for its functioning,

 

118. Assertion (A) : A nucleus taken from a somatic cell and implanted into an enucleated egg cell of a frog often gives rise to an adult individual. 
Reason (R) : Differentiated donor nucleus could be totipotent. 

 

119. Assertion (A) : Spontaneous mutation involves base pair substitutions during DNA replication.  
Reason (R) : It is a temperature sensitive mutation and changes the base pair.

 

120. Assertion (A) : Using recombinant DNA technology, desired genes can be implanted into a bacterium for amplification and expression. 
Reason (R) : Any bacterium can carry expression vector.

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