Paper : Solved Paper of Medical science preliminary optional OF IAS 2006

1) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Actinomyces israeli?

a) Gram positive b) Non acid fast

c) Strict aerobe d) Susceptible to penicillin

Ans: c



2) Match list- 1 with list- II (cancers) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List- I List-II

(Markers)                                   (Cancers)

A. Calcitonin                                 1. Ovarian cancer

B. Alpha fetoprotein                      2. Medullary Ca. thyroid

C. Neuron specific enolase            3.Nonseminimatous germ cell tumour

D. CA125                                     4. Small cell Ca. Lung

Codes : A B C D

a) 2 4 3 1 
b) 2 3 4 1 
c) 1 3 4 2 
d) 1 4 3 2 

Ans: b

3) Consider the following statements

1. Hepatitis- A virus is double standard – DNA virus, whereas Hepatiits –B virus is a single stranded RNA virus

2. Hepatitis- E virus is an enterically transmitted water –borne infection

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: b

4) What is the sequence of appearance of serological markers in acute hepatitis- B virus infection

a) HBV-DNA, HBsAg ,IgM- anti HBc,Anti-HBs

b) HBsAg, IgM- anti HBc, Anti-HBs, HBV-DNA

c) HBsAg, HBV-DNA, Anti-HBs, IgM- anti HBc

d) HBsAg, HBV-DNA, IgM- anti HBc , IgG- anti HBc

Ans: d

5) A 48 year old man presented with chest pain of six hours duration. His ECG revealed ST elevation of more than 5 mm in Leads 1, aVl and V1- V5. The most likely diagnosis is

a)Inferior wall MI

b)Anteroseptal infarction

c) Posterior wall infarction

d)lateroinferior wall infarction

Ans: b

6) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Primary tuberculosis lung : absence of liquefaction

b) Fibrocaseous tuberculosis : absence of cavity lesions

c) Intestinal tuberculosis : drinking of milk

d) Acute military TB of lung : numerous tubercles

Ans: b

7) Consider the following

1. anti-nuclear antibodies

2. antithyroid antibodies

3.double stranded DNA antibodies

Which of the above antibodies aid in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus?

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 3 only

Ans: c

8) What is rhoptry ?

a) the cyst of a protozoan which is resistant to gastric enzymes of host

b) a special organelle in the merozoites of malarial parasite which releases multiple proteases.

c) The bump formed on the surface of an RBC due to change in its morphological appearance caused by malarial parasite

d) A highly activated natural killer cell with abundant cytoplasmic granules

Ans: b 

9) Which of the following does not constitute the drug treatment of status epileticus?

a) Injectable lorazepam

b) Injectable phenytoin

c) Injectable chlorpromazine

d) Injectable anesthetic agents

Ans: c

10) A 26 year male patient having severe mitral regurgitation develops right middle cerebral territory stroke associated with raised intracranial tension. The echocardiography reveals one cm. size vegetation over mitral valve. Which one of the following medications is contraindicated?

a) I.V.Heparin

b) I.V Mannitol

c) I.V furesemide

d) I.V digoxin

Ans: d

11)Following are the features of cirrhosis of liver secondary to haemchromatosis except :

a) Hepatomegaly

b) Congestive heart failure

c) Premature cataract

d) Diabetes mellitus

Ans: c

12) Microangiopathic haemolytic anemia is a characteristic feature of which one of the following conditions

a) Henoch-shoenlein purpura

b) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

c) Microscopic polyangitis

d) Infective endocardiits

Ans: b

13) Consider the following statements:

1) Vibrio cholerae bacteria donot invade the gut mucosa

2) The cysts of Entamoeba histolytica have a chitin wall and four nuclei

3) Humans are the only host of Salmonella typhi

Which of the following statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

14) With reference to liver consider the following statements:

1) In acute cholecystiits, enteric fistula formation is seen.

2) Carbohydrate antigens in schistosome eggs induce macrophage accumulation and granuloma formation

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

15) Regarding the prognosis in a patient with schizophrenia, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) It does not depend on symptom severity, but on the response to antipsychotic medication

b) It depends on the symptom severity and not on the response to antipsychotic medication

c) It depends both on the symptom severity and on the response to antipsychotic medication

d) It is not affected by symptom severity nor the response to antipsychotic medication

Ans:

16) which of the following is best drug inhibiting the sphincter mechanism and relieving symptoms of benign prostate hypertrophy

a) Tamsulosin

b) Finasteride

c) Flutamide

d) Terazosin

Ans: a

17) Regarding carcinoma colon, which one of the following statements is correct

a) Lesions on the left side of colon presents with fatures of anemia

b) Duke A stage should receive adjuvant chemotherapy

c) mucinous carcinoma colon has good prognosis

d) Solitary liver metastasis is not contraindication for surgery

Ans: d

18) Which of the following stages of carcinoma breast corresponds with the features of breast mass 6cm.-3 cm. size with hard mobile ipsilateral axillary lymph node and ipsilateral supraclavicular node?

a) T4N2M0

b) T3N1M1

c) T4N1M1

d) T3N2M0

Ans: b

19) A depression in the skin overlying the lumbosacral region is suggestive of

a) meningocele

b) meningomyelocele

c) spinobifida occulta

d) syringe-myelocele

Ans: b

20) Which one of the following is the procedure of choice for carcinoma of descending colon in a 70 year old ptient who presented with acute intestinal obstruction ?

a) Hartmann procedure

b) Defunctioning colostomy

c) Total colectomy

d) Abdominoperineal resection

Ans: a

21) A 70 year old man comes to casuality with acute retention of urine. The most probable cause will be

a) urethral stricture

b) multiple sclerosis

c) prostatic enlargement

d) urethral calculus

Ans: c

22) Which one of the following is not a clinical feature of cervical spinal cord injury

a) hypotension and bradycardia

b) ability to extend the elbow

c) sacral sparing

d) patulous anal sphincter

Ans: b

23) Which of the following is the earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?

a) tachycardia

b) tachypnea

c) fall in systolic blood pressure

d) fall in diastolic blood pressure

Ans: a

24) A 40 year old man met with an accident and comes to emergency department with engorged neck veins, pallor, rapid pulse and chest pain. The diagnosis is

a) pulmonary laceration

b) cardiac tamponade

c) splenic rupture

d) hemothorax

Ans: b

25) Which one of the following may promote streptococcal spread into the tissue in the event of pyoderma?

a) coagulase

b) hyaluronidase

c) leucodien

d) hemolysin

Ans: b

26) Extravasation of leucocytes in acute inflammation involves which one of the following steps in succession?

a) rolling, margination, adhesion and diapedesis

b) diapedesis, margination, rolling and adhesion

c) margination, rollong, adhesion and diapedesis

d) pavementing, rolling, margination and diapedesis

Ans: a

27) Consider the following organisms

1) clostridium perfringes

2) entamoeba histolytica

3) herpes virus

4) leishmania tropica

Which of the following produce acute necrotizing inflammation

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: d

28) which of the following may provide the first line of defence against tumour cells?

a) CD4 + ve cytotoxic –T lymphocytes

b) natural killer cells

c) macrophages

d) antibodies

Ans: b

29) consider the following malignancies:

1) burkitt lymphoma 2) nasopharyngeal carcinoma

3) Hodgkin lymphoma 4) adult T-cell leukemia

Epstein Bar virus is associated with the pathopgenesis of which of the above malignancies?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1,2 and 3 only

c) 2,3 and 4 only

d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans: b

30) In food poisoning due to salmonella, the bacteria can not be isolated from which one of the following specimens?

a) stool b) vomitus c) infected food d) blood

Ans: d

31) Consider the following organs:

1) thyroid 2) urinary bladder 3) ovary 4) prostate

Carcinoma of which of the above organs spread through paravertebral plexus?

a)1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 2,3 and 4 d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: c

32) Which of the following statements regarding meningococcal vaccines is correct?

a) vaccine against groups A,C,Y and W-135 is used for prophylaxis

b) vaccine is highly effective in children less than two years of age

c) vaccine against group B is given during prophylaxis

d) cell wall outer membrane proteins are the major constituents of the vaccine

Ans: a

33) Consider the following

1) hypercalcemia 2) cushing syndrome 3) polycythemia 4) hyperglycemia

Which of the following are endocrinal manifestations in paraneoplastic syndrome?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 4 c) 1,2 and 3 d) 2,3 and 4

Ans: c

34) The source of an epidemic which attains a sharp peak, within a short time, but tails off gradually over longer period of time will be

a) propagated epidemic b) common source- single exposure

c) common source- multiple exposure

d) common source to begin with and then continued as a propagated epidemic

Ans: d

35) Consider the following statements

Chickenpox can be transmitted by

1) transplacental route 2)contact 3) droplet infection 4) water

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 2 only b) 1,2 and 3 only c) 1,2,3 and 4 d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: b

36)Consider the following

1) steel industry 2) waste incineration 3) cigarette smoke

4) diffused fertilizer in soil

Which of the above is/ are the source/ sources of cadmium pollution?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1,2 and 3 only c) 1,2,3 and 4 d) 4 only

Ans: c

37) At present, the most important factor for the rise in global incidence of tuberculosis is :

a) multiple drug resistance b) non compliance ( defaulters)

c) HIV infection d) failure to follow DOTS

Ans: c

38) Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not responsible for the increasing chances of getting HIV infection?

a) syphilis b)chancroid c) trichomonas vaginalis d) lymphogranuloma venereum

Ans: c

39) Modified leprosy elimination campaign in highly endemic areas focuses on the following except?

a) orientation training to health staff and workers b) increase in public awareness

c) active search of cases d) starting of survey , education and treatment centres

Ans: c

40) Consider the following stages in the development of lymphatic filiariasis

1) asymptomatic microfilaremia 2) asymptomatic amicrofilaremia

3) chronic obstructive lesions 4) stage of acute manifestations

The correct sequence of above stages is

a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,1,4,3 c) 4,2,1,3 d) 2,3,1,4

Ans: b

41) Cross infection in hospitals can be prevented by adopting the following measures in a hospital except:

a) bed spacing b) barrier nursing c) concurrent disinfection d) specific immunization

Ans: d

42) Which one of the following is correct sequence of enzymes required in DNA replication

a) helicase, topoisomerse, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

b) DNA polymerase, DNA ligase, , topoisomerse, helicase

c) helicase, , DNA polymerase, topoisomerse, ligase

d) DNA polymerase, helicase, DNA ligase, topoisomerse

Ans:

43) Relative risk of disease is estimated by

a) addition of incidence among exposed and incidence among nonexposed

b) multiplying of incidence among exposed and incidence among nonexposed

c) dividing incidence among exposed by incidence among nonexposed

d) substracting of incidence among nonexposed from incidence among exposed

Ans: c

44) which of the following can not be achieved by cross-sectional study?

a) study of the magnitude of problem within a short time

b) calculation of the prevalence rate

c) study of the natural history of disease

d) planning quick intervention

Ans: a

45) By randomization, the investigator

a) controls the selection of right sample size

b) attempts to eliminate selection bias

c) matches known important variables

d) attempts to eliminate observer bias

Ans: b

46) Consider the following statements

Genetic code is

a)overlapping b) degenerate c)unambiguous d) universal

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a)2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2,3, and 4 only d)1,2,3,4

Ans: c

47) In case of normoblasts, the condensation reaction of succinyl CoA and glycine to form delta-amino levulinic acid ( by ALA synthetase) occurs in:

a) cytoplasm b) mitochondria c) micorsome d) nucleus

Ans:

48) Hexose monophospahte shunt has great importance in cellular metabolism because it produces:

a) NADH +H+ b) NADPH + H+ c) FMNH2 d) FADH2

Ans: b

49) The palatine tonsil is supplied by

a) facial nerve b) glossopharangeal nerve c) cranial accessory nerve d) vagus nerve

Ans: a

50) The following structure form the stomach bed except:

a) splenic artery b) pancreas c) superior mesenteric vein d) left kidney

Ans: c

51) The following are the branches of splenic artery except?

a) pancreatic b) left gastroepiploic c) short gastric d) right gastroepiploic

Ans: d

52) The chief source of blood supply to sinoatrial node is from

a) the right coronary artery

b) anterior interventricular branch of left coronary artery

c) posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery

d) the circumflex branch of left coronary artery

Ans: a

53) With reference to cardiac base, consider the following statements

1) it faces the back and to the right

2) it is formed by the right atrium and right ventricle

3) it lies opposite the sixth to ninth thoracic vertebra in erect posture

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a)1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:

54) Cervix uteri is drained by following lymph nodes except:

a) external iliac

b) internal iliac

c) sacral

d) superficial inguinal

Ans: d

55) Consider the following statements

The fibre components of inferiorcerebellar peduncle are

1) dorsal spinocerebellar 2) olivocerebellar 3) Ventral spinocerebellar

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Next Page