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UPSC Mains Law Paper Topic : Nature and Definition of International Law

UPSC Mains Law Paper Topic : Nature and Definition of International Law

  1. “Decisions of courts and tribunals are a subsidiary and indirect source of international law.” Discuss this statement and explain how far decision of judicial institutions lead to the formulation of the rules of international law. (93/I/5a/20)
  2. “Custom and treaties are the two principal sources of international law.” Discuss. (94/I/5a/20)
  3. “International law is the name for the body of customary and treaty rules which are considered legally binding by States in their intercourse with each other.” Discuss. (95/I/5a/20)
  4. What is the basis of obligation in International law? Discuss the respective viewpoints of naturalist and positivist schools. (99/I/7b/30)
  5. It is too late to deny the legal character of international law, but in the present state of affairs it is tragically ineffective. Comment. (99/I/5a/20)
  6. Write explanatory note: The theory of consent as the binding force of international law. (00/I/8b/20)
  7. “International Law is a ‘weak-law.” Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons. (00/I/5a/20)
  8. “International law has progressed by leaps and bounds; yet the theoretical controversy about the nature of international law is far from over.” Comment. (01/I/5a/20)
  9. Discuss the extent and scope of the doctrine of “forum prorogatum”. (01/I/5d/20)
  10. Highlight the significance of “judicial decisions” as a source of international law. (01 /I/5c/20)
  11. If we examine the ‘opinions’ on the definition of International Law, we are inclined to ask: ‘What is so international in the so-called International Law?’ Analyse. (02/I/5a/20)
  12. “The controversy whether International law is law or not is meaningless because, in fact, it is law and is generally obeyed.” Highlight the views of-prominent waters about the above statement.(04/ I/5a/20)
  13. Do you agree with the view that “International Law is merely a positive morality”? Discuss the nature of International Law. (06/I/5a/20)
  14. What do you mean by the term ‘Subjects of International Law? What are its attributes? (07/I/5d/20)
  15. “International Law is defined as ‘Vanishing point of Jurisprudence’.” (Holland). Examine this view point with reference to the nature of International Law. (07/I/5a/20)
  16. Discuss the importance of International Customs as a source of International Law. When does a usage crystallize into a custom? (07/I/6a/30)
  17. “It is difficult to maintain the distinction between formal and material sources taking into account that material sources consist simply of quasi constitutional principles of inevitable but unhelpful generality. What matters is the variety of material sources, the all-important evidence of the existence of consensus among States concerning particular rules of practice.” Critically examine the various sources of International Law in the development of Modern International Law, with the help of relevant case law. (08/I/5a/20)
  18. Write short note on Sanctions of International Law. (09/I/8a/20)
  19. “The fundamental principles of International law are passing through a serious, crisis and this necessitates its reconstruction.” Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons. (10/I/5a/20)
  20. “The traditional definitions of International law with its restrictions to the conduct of States inter se, in view of developments during the last six dicades cannot stand as a comprehensive description of all the rules now acknowledged to form part of International law (10/I/6a/30)
  21. One extreme view is that International Law is a system without sanctions. However, it is not quite true that there are no forcible means of compelling a  state to comply with International Law. Comment and state various sanctions for the observance of International Law. (11/I/5a/15)

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UPSC Mains Law Paper Topic : Fundamental Rights

UPSC Mains Law Paper Topic : Fundamental Rights

  1. The state education rules provide for compulsory singing of national anthems in schools every morning. “X”, a student, whose religion does not permit singing in praise of anyone other then God refuses to sing but stands in respect when national anthem is sung. The school authorities expel “X” for violating the rules. Write the grounds on which the expulsion can be challenged. (93/I/4a/30)
  2. Are provisions relating to preventive detention “undemocratic and harsh”? Discuss briefly the safeguards available to a person detained under law of preventive detention. (93/I/ 2b/ 30)
  3. Explain how fundamental right to education was evolved. What limitations are now placed on this right by the Supreme Court? (93/I/1b/20)
  4. The post of the Director of Health Services was reserved by the State government for Scheduled Caste. ‘A’ a member of the Scheduled Caste was appointed to this post. B, the senior most Deputy Director of the Health Services questioned the selection. B’s argument was that treating a single isolated post of the director as reserved is hundred percent reservation not allowed under the Constitution. Write a reasoned judgement. (94/I/4b/30)
  5. Doordarshan invited X, a lady journalist, for an interview to be telecast subsequently. The theme of the interview was “Laws relating to women”. In the course of the interview X referred to a bill on women’s right pending in Parliament and criticized that some of its provisions are unjustified and unconstitutional. This portion of the interview was arbitrarily deleted when the interview was telecast. X wants to challenge with deletion. Discuss the questions involved. (95/I/ 4c/30)
  6. Critically examine the widening dimensions of the concept “the State” in Article 12 of the Constitution of India. (95/I/2a/ 30)
  7. “Right to life includes the right to commit suicide.” Examine. (95/I/1c/20)
  8. “The right to receive compensation in proceedings under Article 32 of the Constitution for violation of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty by public officials cannot be defeated by raising a plea of sovereign immunity.” Discuss with the help of case-law. (96/I/2b/20)
  9. Examine the contention that the Constitution 44th Amendment which has radically altered the character and content of the right to property violates the basic structure of the Constitution. (96/I/1b/20)
  10. Does the right to life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution embrace a right to clean, healthy and livable environment, using the expression “environment” in its broadest meaning as understood in contemporary jurisprudence? Examine the question in the background of cognate constitutional provisions and case-law. (96/I/1a/20)
  11. X has been sentenced to death for having committed several murders. He writes his autobiography in jail and hands over the same to his wife for publication. The autobiography depicts a close nexus between X and some top government officials, some of whom had been partners in these murders. Z, a publisher accepts the autobiography for publication. The Inspector-General Prisons asks Z to stop publication of ‘X’s autobiography as it contains defamatory material against State officials and is false. Z contends that the Inspector-General Prisons has no authority to impose a prior-restraint upon the publication of the autobiography. Decide. (96/I/4b/30)
  12. “The Writ of Habeas Corpus cannot be suspended even in an emergency.” Discuss in the background of connected case law and constitutional provisions. (97/I/1c/20)
  13. “Reservations should be made only in respect of direct recruitment at any level but not in respect of promotions.” Discuss. (97/I/1b/20)
  14. “The concept of instrumentality or agency of the government is not limited to a corporation by a status but it is equally applicable to a created company or society.” Discuss and state whether Article 12 also includes private persons. (97/I/3a/30)
  15. Clause 3 of the Constitution 44th Amendment Act which provides for several vital safeguards in favour of persons under preventive detention has not yet come into force as the Central Government has not issued the necessary notification under Clause 2 of the Amendment. A detenue aggrieved by the Central Governments apathy and in action moves the Supreme Court in proceedings under Art. 32 for a writ of mandamus to compel the Government to appoint and notify the date of commencement of Clause 3 forthwith. Is he entitled to seek suck a direction frorn the court? Discuss in the background of connected case law. (97/I/4c/30)
  16. X was sentenced to death but his death sentence was not executed for ten years. X contends that to take away his life after keeping him in jail for ten years entitles him to demand the quashing of his death sentence under Article 21 of the Constitution. Examine X’s contention. (97/I/4a/30)
  17. ‘Right to equality and protection to personal liberty are no longer mutually exclusive.” Discuss. (98/I/1b/20)
  18. The Government of India by an offence memorandum reserved 27% of posts for appointment under the State in favour of socially and educationally backward classes. A petition is filed in the Supreme Court challenging its validity on the ground that it could only be done by an Act of Parliament and not by an executive order. Decide. (98/I/4c/30)
  19. Right not to be discriminated on the ground of sex and the need for empowerment of women by making special provision for them requires the State to ensure that women have adequate representation in Parliament. Argue for and against the proposed constitutional amendment for the purpose. (98/I/3a/30)
  20. Prohibited is hostile discrimination, and not reasonable classification. Comment. (99/I/1a/20)
  21. What is included within the right to freedom of speech and expression? Are commercial advertisements covered by the protection? Discuss referring to decided cases. (99/I/2a/30)
  22. The term ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 of the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to entitle an accused person to a right to fair trial. Discuss and referring to decided cases spell out the ingredients of a fair trial. (99/I/3a/30)
  23. A minority educational institution, which is completely unaided by the Government, is ‘required by the Education Code framed by the Government to pay to its teachers, salary at the prescribed rate. The institution shows its inability and contends that the enforcement of the code amounts to interference with its constitutionally guaranteed right of administration. Decide giving reasons. (99/I/4c/20)
  24. The Service Rules of a Statutory Corporation allow the Corporation to terminate the services of a confirmed employee by giving three months notice or by paying three month’s salary in lieu of notice. The validity of the rule is challenged for violation of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution. Decide giving reasons. (99/I/4b/20)
  25. A law prohibits religious conversions brought about by use of fraud, force, or allurement and makes it a punishable offence. In a write petition it is alleged that the law is violative of right to propagate religion guaranteed under Article 25 of the Constitution. Decide giving reasons. (99/I/4a/20)
  26. The Civil Surgeon had issued an advertisement for a training course in midwifery at the District Hospital. The advertisement had a clause “Married women candidates must enclose along with their application their husband’s written permission for pursuing the course.” The wife got the letter of consent from her husband and joined the course. The husband, however, had second thoughts and wrote to her and the authority saying she should return immediately as her not being there would disturb the family life and hence she would not be permitted to join. Thereafter the authority asked her to produce another letter of “no objection” from the husband. Examine with reference to the relevant provisions of the Constitution the validity of the order of the authority. (00/I/4b/30)
  27. “The Supreme Court in Maneka Gandhi’s case has revolutionised the law relating to ‘personal-liberty’ under Article 21 of the Constitution.” Explain with illustration. (00/I/2a/30)
  28. Discuss the nature and the scope of the following writs: (01/I/4b (i) (ii)/15×2)
    (i) Certiorari
    (ii) Mandamus
  29. In order to cure the heavy underrepresentation of the Schedules Castes and the Schedules Tribes in ‘the State services even after fifty years of the Constitution, a State wants to make a scheme, which may remove this imbalance within a period of five years. Advise the State about the steps that it may take under the Constitution for this purpose. (01/I/3b/30)
  30. Critically examine the statement that though Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India has made a great advancement towards the understanding and application of the Fundamental Rights in our Constitution it has not been able to make much difference either to the preventive detentions or towards ensuring the due process of law. (01/I/3a/30)
  31. What fundamental right, if any, of a person is violated if the State acts in pursuance of either Article 15(4 ) or 16(4) of the Constitution of India? (01/I/1a/20)
  32. Discuss any one theory developed by the Supreme Court of India under Article 21 of the Constitution of India for compensation to the victims. (02/I/2a/30)
  33. If the words “All minorities “ in Article 30 of the Constitution of India are replaced by the words, “All sections of citizens having distinct language or religion “, what fundamental rights of the minorities would be affected? (02/I/1a/ 20)
  34. “Preventive Detention is the only exception carved out to the generally accepted proposition that no person shall be deprived of his personal liberty except in accordance with the procedure established by law”. Discuss the safeguards evolved by the Judiciary for the protection of personal liberty of a person detained under the law ofPreventive Detention. (03/I/1a/20)
  35. Critically examine the decisions of the Supreme Court from A.K. Gopalan to Maneka Gandhi cases with special reference to “procedure established by law”. (03/I/4a/30)
  36. “Liberty of Press consists in laying no prior restraints upon publications and not in freedom from censure for matters when published.” Explain and indicate how far this liberty of Press is protected under the Indian Constitution. (04/I/1b/20)
  37. “The extensive use of the device of ‘reasonable classification’ by State and its approval by the Supreme Court has rendered the guarantee of ‘fair and equitable treatment’ under Article 14 largely illusory.” Discuss making clear the constitutional and popular concepts of ‘right to equality’ in India. (04/I/1c/20)
  38. “Article 16(4) is by itself a rule of equality rather than an exception to the rule.” What is your view? Discuss with the help of case-law. (05/I/1a/20)
  39. “The fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression has in recent times seen expanding horizons.” Discuss and point out the judicial approach in this regard. (05/I/1b/20)
  40. “In fact, equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies; one belongs to the rule of law in a republic while the other, to the whim and caprice of an absolute monarch.” Elucidate with the help of constitutional provisions & judicial decisions. (06/I/1a/20)
  41. What is the meaning of ‘Freedom of Press’ under the Indian Constitution? Can the freedom of press be restricted by a law requiring the press owners to pay minimum wages to the employees of the press? Decide. (07/I/1d/20)
  42. Examine and elucidate the scope and significance of Article 32 of the Constitution in the context of Public Interest Litigation as expounded by the Supreme Court in MC. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 S.C. 1086. (07/I/2a/30)
  43. Write short note : Meaning of the term ‘Other Authorities’ under Article 12 of the Constitution (07/I/4b/20)
  44. ‘Rule of Law’ does not mean rule according to statutory law, pure and simple, because such a law may itself be harsh, inequitable, discriminatory or unjust. ‘Rule of Law’ connotes some higher kind of law which is reasonable, just and non-discriminatory. Explain. (08/I/1a/20)
  45. ”Equality is the basic feature of the Constitution of India and any treatment of equals unequally or unequals as equals will be violation of basic structure of the Constitution of India.” Explain. (08/I/3b/30)
  46. ‘Write short note: Rights of the Press and the problem of Pre-censorship. (08/I/4b/20)
  47. Define and distinguish between ‘formal equality’ and ‘substantive equality’ as interpreted by the Apex Court of the country. (09/I/1c/20)
  48. “The term ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in Article 19(l)(a) has been held to include the right to acquire information and disseminate the same.” Elucidate the import of this statement in the context of media industry. Is the right to paint or sing or dance covered by Article 19 (1) (a) of the Indian Constitution or not? (09/I/2b/30)
  49. Write short note on Scope of the Right with regard to self - incrimination. (09/I/4a/20)
  50. “The fragrance and colour whch is enshrinced in Article 141 of the constitution of Indis is destined to uphold the Rule of Law in the interest of justice and people of India.” Do you agree? Give reasons. (10/I/1a/20)
  51. Whether right to vote is a fundamental or a statutory right? Justify your statement with the help of relevant caselaw on this subject. (10/I/1b/20)
  52. New frontiers of criminal justice have been spelled out from Article 21 of the Constitution, which provides that no person shall be deprived of his right to life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Discuss and refer to decided cases. (10/I/2a/30)
  53. “It is the religious teaching, not the teaching of religion which is prohibited under the Constitution of India”
  54. The decision of the Supreme Court of India in ADM, Jabalpur v.S. Shukla, according to Dr. Upendra Baxi, “made the darkness of emergency completely dark”. Do you think that the Constitution (44th Amendment) Act 1978 removed this darkness and provided for better protection of the Fundamental Rights? Explain. (11/I/3a/30)
  55. Article 13 makes the judiciary, and especially the Apex Court, as a IAS Mains 2014 Categorised Paper guardian, protector and the interpreter of the fundamental Rights. It confers a power as well as imposes an obligation on the Courts to declare a low void if it is inconsistent with a Fundamental Rights. Discuss. (14/1/1c/10)
  56. Explain and elucidate the meaning of the ‘Right to personal liberty’ as interpreted by the Supreme Court in Papanasam Labour Union v. Madura Coat Ltd. AIR 1995 S.C. 2200. Analyse critically the guidelines prescribed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in this respect.(14/1/2b)
  57. A backward class cannot be identified only and exclusively with-reference to economic criterion. A backward class may, however, be identified on the basic of occupation-cum-income without any reference to caste. There is not constitutional bar in the State categorizing the backward classes as (Main) Law—Topic Wise Paper 12 ‘backward’ and ‘more backward’. Do you agree with the statement? Give reasons.(14/1/3b/15)
  58. What is ‘Public Interest Litigation’? What are the major facets of this form of ligation? Also discuss the limitations of this type of litigation.(14/1/3c/15)
  59. Do you agree with the statement that “all human rights are fundamental rights protected and recognized by the Constitution of India”. Discuss with reference to statutory provisions and case laws. (14/1/2b/15)
  60. What do you think is the form/nature of our Constitution — Federal, Unitary or Quasi-federal? The Members of the Drafting Committee call it federal, but many others would dispute this title. Critically examine the statement. 1c Article 13 makes the judiciary, and especially the Apex Court, as a guardian, protector and the interpreter of the Fundamental Rights. It confers a power as well as imposes an obligation on the Courts to declare law void if it is inconsistent with a Fundamental Right. Discuss.(15/1/1a)
  61. The concept of ‘Reasonable Opportunity’ being a constitutional limitation on the doctrine of ‘Tenure Pleasure’, Parliament or State Legislature can make a law defining the content of ‘Reasonable Opportunity’ and prescribing procedure for affording the said opportunity to the accused government servant. Explain the concept with reference to leading cases. (15/1/2a)
  62. A backward class cannot be identified only and exclusively with reference to economic criterion. A backward class may, however, be identified on the basis of occupation-cum-income without any reference to caste. There is no constitutional bar in the State categorising the backward classes as ‘backward’ and ‘more backward’. Do you agree with the statement? Give reasons. (15/1/3b)

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: General Studies (Paper - 2)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: General Studies (Paper - 2) "Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations"

Exam Name: UPSC Mains

Subject: General Studies Paper-2 (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations)

Year: 2015

Exam Date: 19th December 2015

Duration: 3 hours

Instructions: Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each. Contents of the answers are more important than their length. All questions carry equal marks.

Note: Each question carries 12.5 Marks (12.5×20 = 200 Marks )

Q1. Discuss the possible factors that inhibit India from enacting for its citizen a uniform civil code as provided for in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q2. The concept of cooperative federalism has been increasingly emphasised in recent years. Highlight the drawbacks in the existing structure and extent to which cooperative federalism would answer the shortcomings.

Q3. In the absence of well – educated and organised local level government system, Panchayats and Samitis have remained mainly political institutions and not effective instrument of governance. Critically Discuss.

Q4. Khap panchayats have been in the news for functioning as extra – constitutional authorities, often delivering pronouncements amounting to human right violations. Discuss critically the actions taken by the legislative, executive and judiciary to set the things right in this regard.

Q5. Resorting to ordinances has always raised concern on violation of the spirit of separation of power doctrine. While noting the rationales justifying the power to promulgate, analyse whether the decision of the Supreme Court on the issue have further facilitated to resorting to this power. Should the power to promulgate the ordinances be repealed?

Q6. What are the major changes brought in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1966 through the recent ordinance promulgated by the President? How far will it improve India’s dispute resolution mechanism? Discuss.

Q7. Does the right to clean environment entail legal regulation on burning crackers during Diwali? Discus in the light of Article 21 of Indian Constitution and judgements of the apex in this regard.

Q8. Examine critically the recent changes in the rule governing foreign funding of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 1976.

Q9. The Self Help Group (SHG) Bank Linkage Program (SBLP), which is India’s own innovation , has proved to be one of the most effective poverty alleviation and women empowerment programme. Elucidate.

Q10. How can be the role of NGOs be strengthened in India for development works relating to protection of the Environment? Discuss throwing light on the major constraints.

Q11. The quality of higher education in India requires major improvement to make it internationally competitive. Do you think that the entry of foreign educational institutions would help improve the quality of technical and higher education in the country. Discuss.

Q12. Public health system has limitation in providing universal health coverage. Do you think that private sector can help in bridging the gap? What other viable alternatives do you suggest?

Q13. Though there have been several different estimates of poverty in India, all indicate reduction in poverty over time. Do you agree. Critically examine with reference to urban and rural poverty indicators.

Q14. In the light of Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss the changes brought in the corporate governance to ensure transparency and accountability.

Q15. If amendment bill to the Whistleblowers Protection Act 2011 tabled in the Parliament is passed, there maybe no on left to protect. Critically Evaluate.

Q16. For achieving the desired objectives,it is necessary to ensure that the regulatory institution remain independent and autonomous. Discuss in the light of experiences in recent past.

Q17. Increasing interest of India in Africa has its pro and cons. Critically Examine.

Q18. Discuss the impediments India is facing in its pursuit of a permanent seat in UNSC.

Q19. Project ‘Mausam’ is considered a unique foreign policy initiative of Indian government to improve relationship wit its neighbours. Does the project have a strategic dimension? Discuss

Q20. Terrorist activities and mutual distrust have clouded India – Pakistan relations. To what etent the use of soft power like sports and cultural exchange could help generate goodwill between the two countries. Discuss with suitable examples.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: General Studies (Paper - 3)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: General Studies (Paper - 3) "Technology, Economic Development, Bio diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management"

Exam Name: UPSC Mains

Subject: General Studies Paper-3 (Technology, Economic Development, Bio diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management)

Year: 2015

Exam Date: 21st December 2015

Duration: 3 hours

Instructions: Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each. Contents of the answers are more important than their length. All questions carry equal marks.

Note: Each question carries 12.5 Marks (12.5×20 = 200 Marks )

Q1. The nature of economic growth in India in recent times is often described as a jobless growth. Do you agree with this view? Give arguments in favour of your answer.

Q2. Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non- farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India.

Q3. In the view of the declining average size of land holdings in India which has made agriculture non – viable for a majority of farmers should contract farming and land leasing be promoted in agriculture? critically evaluate the pros and cons.

Q4. How can the Digital India program help farmers to improve farm productivity and income? What step has the government taken in this regard?

Q5. In what way could replacement of price subsidy with direct benefit Transfer (DBT) change the scenario of subsidies in India? Discuss.

Q6. What are the impediments in marketing and supply chain management in developing the food processing industry in India? Can e-commerce help in overcoming this bottleneck?

Q7. Craze for gold in Indian has led to surge in import of gold in recent years and put pressure on balance of payments and external value of rupee. In view of this, examine the merits of Gold Monetization scheme.

Q8. “Success of make in India program depends on the success of Skill India programme and radical labour reforms.” Discuss with logical arguments.

Q9. To what factors can be the recent dramatic fall in equipment cost and tariff of solar energy be attributed? What implications does the trend have for thermal power producers and related industry?

Q10. There is a clear acknowledgement that Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are a tool of industrial development, manufacturing and exports. Recognising this potential, the whole instrumentality of SEZs require augmentation. Discuss the issue plaguing the success of SEZs with respect to taxation, governing laws and administration.

Q11. What do you understand by “Standard Positioning System” and “Precision positioning system” in the GPS era? Discuss the advantage India perceives from its ambitious IRNSS programme employing just seven satellites.

Q12. What are the areas of prohibitive labour that can be sustainably managed by robots? Discuss the initiatives that can propel the research in premier research institutes for substantive and gainful innovation.

Q13. Discuss the advantage and security implication of cloud hosting of servers vis-a-vis in house machine based hosting for government business.

Q14. India’s Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) which has a database containing formatted information on more than 2 million medicinal formulations is proving a powerful weapon in country’s fight against erroneous patents. Discuss the pro and cons of making the database available publicly available under open source licensing.

Q15. Discuss the Namami Gange and National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) programmes and causes of mixed results from the previous schemes. What quantum leaps can help preserve the river Ganga better than incremental inputs?

Q16. The frequency of earthquakes appears to have increased in the Indian subcontinent. However, India’s preparedness for mitigating their impact has significant gaps. Discuss various aspects.

Q17. Human right activists constantly highlight the fact that the Armed forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) is a draconian act leading to cases of human right abuses by security forces. What sections of AFSPA are opposed by the activists. Critically evaluate the requirement with reference to the view held by Apex Court.

Q18. Religious indoctrination via social media has resulted in Indian youth joining the ISIS. What is ISIS and its mission? How can ISIS be dangerous to the internal security of our country.

Q19. The persisting drives of the government for development of large industries in backward areas have resulted in isolating the tribal population and the farmers who face multiple displacements. With Malkangiri and Naxalbari foci, discuss the corrective strategies needed to win the Left Wing Extremism (LWE) doctrine affected citizens back into mainstream of social and economic growth.

Q20. Considering the threats cyberspace poses for the country, India needs a “Digital Armed Forces” to prevent crimes. Critically evaluate the National Cyber Security Policy, 2013 outlining the challenges perceived in its effective implementation.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: General Studies (Paper - 1)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: General Studies (Paper - 1)

Exam Name: UPSC Mains

Subject: General Studies Paper-1 (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society.)

Year: 2015

Exam Date: 19th December 2015

Instructions: Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each. Contents of the answers are more important than their length. All questions carry equal marks.

Note: Each question carries 12.5 Marks (12.5 x 20 = 200 Marks )

Q1. The ancient civilization in Indian sub continent differed from those of Egypt , Mesopotamia and Greece in that its culture and traditions have been preserved without breakdown to the present day. Comment (12.5M)

Q2. Mesolithic rock cut architecture of India not only reflects the cultural life of the times but also a fine aesthetic sense comparable to modern painting. Critically evaluate this comment. (12.5M)

Q3. How difficult would have been the achievement of Indian independence without Mahatma Gandhi? Discuss.

Q4. Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B R Ambedkar, despite having divergent approaches and strategies, had a common goal of amelioration of the downtrodden. Elucidate. (12.5M)

Q5. It would have been difficult for the Constituent Assembly to complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for Independent India in just three years, but its experience gained with the Government of India Act, 1935 .Discuss.(12.5M)

Q6. Why did the industrial revolution first occur in England? Discuss the quality of life of the people there during the industrialization. How does it compare with that in India at present times?

Q7. To what extend can Germany be held responsible for causing the two World Wars? Discuss critically.

Q8. Describe any four cultural elements of diversity in India and rate their relative significance in building a national identity.

Q9. Critically examine whether growing population is the cause of poverty OR poverty is the mains cause of population increase in India.

Q10. How do you explain the statistics that show that the sex ratio in Tribes in India is more favourable to women than the sex ratio among Scheduled Castes?

Q11. Discuss the changes in the trends of labour migration within and outside India in the last four decades.

Q12. Discuss the positive and negative effects of globalization on women in India?

Q13. Debate the issue whether and how contemporary movements for assertion of Dalit identity work towards annihilation of caste.

Q14. Explain the factors responsible for the origin of ocean currents. How do they influence regional climates, fishing and navigation?

Q15. Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata are the three Mega cities of the country but the air pollution is much more serious probelm in Delhi as compared to the other two. Why is this so?

Q16. India is well endowed with fresh water resources. Critically examine why it still suffers from water scarcity.

Q17. The states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand are reaching the limits of econological carrying capacity due to tourism. Critically evaluate.

Q18. How far do you agree that the behaviour of the Indian monsoon has been changing due to humanizing landscape? Discuss.

Q19. Smart cities in India cannot sustain without smart vilages. Discuss this statement in the backdrop of rural urban integration.

Q20. What are the economic significances of discovery of oil in Arctic Sea and its possible environemental consequences?

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: English Compulsory Question Paper

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains 2015: English Compulsory Question Paper

Exam Name: IAS Mains

Subject: English Compulsory

Year: 2015

Exam Date: 18th December 2015

File Type: PDF

Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions:

  • All questions are to be attempted. Maximum Marks are 300
  • The number of marks carried by a question is indicated against it.
  • Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.
  • Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to
  • Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Q1. Write an essay in about 600 words on anyone topic

  1. Impact of politics on society
  2. E-commerce: a win-win situation for all. (Matter was covered in the Mrunal’s Mains revision Powerpoint ML4/P3).
  3. Harassment of women at workplaces
  4. Does the Indian cinema reflect social reality?

Q2. Read carefully the passage given below and write your answers to the questions that follow in clear, correct and concise language – 15×5=75 marks

A desert is a barren area of land where little precipitation occurs and living conditions are threatening for plant and animal life. The lack of vegetation exposes the vulnerable surface of the ground to the processes of denudation. About one-third of the land surface of the world is arid or semi-arid Deserts are usually hot and barren places; yet they are also beautiful. A few plants, rocks and dusty red-brown soil make up the ingredients of most North American deserts where there is sufficient food and water for certain animals to survive. Deserts cover more than one-fifth of the Earth’s land and they are found on every continent. A place that receives less than 10 inches of rain per year is normally considered a desert. They are part of a wider classification of regions called “dry land”. These areas exist under a moisture deficit, which means they repeatedly lose more moisture through evaporation than they receive from annual precipitation.

Deserts are biologically rich habitats with a vast array of animals and plants that have adapted to harsh conditions there. Some Deserts plants that have adapted to harsh conditions there. Some deserts are among the planet s last remaining areas of total wilderness. Yet more than one billion people, one-sixth of the Earth’s population, actually live in the desert regions.

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