State Bank of India Clerk Recruitment Exam 2008 Solved Paper

1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of -
(A) films
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Politics
(E) Status
ANS (A)

2. Which of the following is not a food crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Maize
(D) Gram
(E) Cotton
ANS (E)

3. Union Budget always presented first in -
(A) The Loksabha
(B) The Rajyasabha
(C) Joint session of Parliament
(D) Meeting of the Union cabinet
(E) The State Assemblies
ANS (A)

4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of the following sections of the society ?
(A) Children who are bonded labour
(B) Persons working in hazardous industries
(C) Farmers
(D) People living below poverty line
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of -
(A) France
(B) Argentina
(C) Spain
(D) New zealand
(E) Italy
ANS (C)

6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in -
(A) Jakarta
(B) Bali
(C) New Delhi
(D) Tokyo
(E) Islamabad
ANS (B)

7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for reckless lending ?
(A) G-7
(B) G-8
(C) SAARC
(D) World Bank
(E) IMF
ANS (E)

8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the -
(A) Prime Minister of Iraq
(B) President of Iran
(C) Prime Minister of Iran
(D) President of Iraq
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ?
(A) Islamabad
(B) Karanchi
(C) Dhaka
(D) Kathmandu
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian sub-continent ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Sri Lanka
ANS (A)

11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ? About -
(A) 6 %
(B) 6.5 %

Bank of Maharashtra Clerk Solved Paper (Numerical Ability)

LIC AAO English Paper (Solved) Year 2009

Directions(1-5): Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set pf words that best com¬pletes the sentence meaningfully.

UPSC: Paper IAS Prelim - 2005
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION A
1. Answer any three of the following questions is not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60
(a) "Public and Private Administrations are two species of the same genus, but they also have special values and techniques of their own." Comment.
(b) "Taylor's scientific management ignored social and psychological factors." Comment.
(c) "The distinction between line and staff is relative rather than absolute." Discuss.
(d) "Delegated legislation is a necessary evil." Examine.

2. Analyze McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y. Do you agree with the view that with every passing year, McGregor's message has become more relevant and more important ?Substantiate your answer. 60

3. What is meant by morale? There is a belief that "morale and productivity go hand in hand and higher the morale, higher the productivity." Do you agree? Substantiate. 60

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UPSC: IAS MAIN – 2007 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (Paper- I)

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION A
1. Answer any three of the following questions is not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60
(a) "Public and Private Administrations are two species of the same genus, but they also have special values and techniques of their own." Comment.
(b) "Taylor's scientific management ignored social and psychological factors." Comment.
(c) "The distinction between line and staff is relative rather than absolute." Discuss.
(d) "Delegated legislation is a necessary evil." Examine.

2. Analyze McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y. Do you agree with the view that with every passing year, McGregor's message has become more relevant and more important ?Substantiate your answer. 60

General Studies - 2008 (Main) (Paper - I And Paper - II)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS:-
Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30
(a) What was the character of social religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they contribute to the national awakening in India?
(b) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the constitutional reforms, disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.

2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each) : 15x2 = 30
(a) What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?
(b) Do you think Mahatma Gandhi's support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.
(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the cause of India’s Struggle of independence.

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General Studies - 2007 (Main) (Paper - I And Paper - II)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS:-
Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30
(a) What was the character of social religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they contribute to the national awakening in India?
(b) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the constitutional reforms, disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.

2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each) : 15x2 = 30
(a) What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?
(b) Do you think Mahatma Gandhi's support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.
(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the cause of India’s Struggle of independence.

3. Write about the following (not 20 words each) : = 30
(a) Age of Sangam Literature
(b) Bhakti
(c) Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(d) Charvakas
(e) Ajivikas
(f) Gandhara Art
(g) Mlechchas
(h) Lingayats
(i) Megasthenes
(j) R. C. Dutt
(k) Nagarjunakonda
(1) Pastoralism
(m) Rudramadevi
(n) Sati
(0) Ramanuja

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General Studies - 2005 (Main) (Paper - I And Paper - II)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300

1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words) : 30

(a) What in your opinion were the positive steps taken by the British to modernise India?

(b) Examine the policy of Subordinate Union towards Princely States. Account for the shift from the policy of Subordinate Isolation.

2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each) : 15 x 2 = 30

(a) "In the Montagu-Chelmsford Report communal representation and reservations were not only retained but considerably extended." Comment.

(b) Evaluate Subhas Chandra Bose's contribution to India's freedom.

(c) Why and how did the Congress come to accept the partition of the country?

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General Studies - 2004 (Main) (Paper - I And Paper - II)

General Studies - 2003 (Main) (Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS
Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question. Candidate should attempt All questions strictly in accordance with instructions given under each question.

Q1. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30 Marks
a) “The reforms of 1909 introduced a cardinal problem and ground of controversy at every revision of the Indian electoral system.” Comment.
b) Discuss the problem that impeded the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union. How were these problems tackled?

Q2. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30 Marks
a) ‘The mainstay of Mahatma Gandhi’s movements was the rural India.’ Elucidate.
b) Discuss the character of major tribal uprisings in British India in the nineteenth Century.

GENERAL STUDIES Paper 1- 2002

1. Answer any one of the following (250 words) : 30
(a) What was the Butler Committee Report? Discuss the reactions on the report in India
(b) Why did Jinnah reject C.R. Formula?

2. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) : 2x15=30
(a) Trace the growth of the Indian Home Rule Movement in Britain.
(b) Evaluate the attitudes of different political parties towards Quit India Movement.
(c) Review the ‘Dickie Bird Plan’

3. Write about the following (not exceeding 20 words each) : 15x2=30
(i) Anandmath
(ii) Bismillah Khan
(iii) Chris Evert
(iv) Chamber of Princes
(v) Dharma Sabha
(vi) Divide et impera
(vii) Dandi March
(viii) Garry Kasparov
(ix) Keshab Chandra Sen
(x) Nivedita
(xi) Pele
(xii) Raidasa
(xiii) Satyagraha
(xiv) Steffi Graf
(xv) Theodore Beck

4. Answer any two of the following (about 125 words) : 2x10=20

General Studies - 2000 (Main) (Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS
Each Question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Q.1. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) : - 30
(a) Trace the origin of the Swadeshi Movement. How did it involve the masses
(b) What was Mountbatten Plan ? Discuss the reactions of Gandhi and Azad to the Plan.

Q. 2. Answer any TWO of the following (About 150 words each):- 15 x 2 = 30
(a) Who established the Arya Samaj ? What was its goal ?
(b) How did the terrorist movement gather strength in countries other than India?
(c) Was Jawaharlal Nehru justified in adopting the principle of non-alignment as the corner-stone of India's foreign policy ?

Q. 3. Answer the following (About 20 words each) : - 2 x 15 = 30
(i) Brahmagupta
(ii) Amir Khusro
(iii) William Jones
(iv) C.F. Andrews
(v) Narayan Guru
(vi) Tantia Tope
(vii) Sayyid Ahmad
(viii) Margaret Noble
(ix) Sangam Literature
(x) Gandhara School of art
(xi) Granth Sahib
(xii) Fort William College
(xiii) Epsom
(xiv) Lala Amarnath
(xv) Tiger Woods.

Q. 4. Answer any TWO of the following (About 125 words each):- 2 x 10 = 20
(a) Mention the agro-climatic regions of India stating the basis of classification.
(b) Explain the major racial groups of India.
(c) What is waste land ? Write a note on prospects of waste land development in India.

Q. 5. Write notes on the following (About 20 words each) :- 5 x 2 = 10
(i) Linguistic regions of India
(ii) Nagarjunasagar Project
(iii) Mango Showers
(iv) Multi-level planning in India
(v) India's Laterite soils.

Q. 6. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words):- 30
(a) Examine the need for the review of the Indian Constitution.
(b) Examine the demand for greater State-antonomy and also its impact on the smooth functioning of the Indian polity.

Q. 7. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) :- 30
(a) How does Parliament control the Union Executive ? How effective is its control ?
(b) What constitutes the doctrine of 'basic features' as introduced into the Constitution of India by the Judiciary ?

Q. 8. Answer any TWO of the following (About 150 words each) :- 15 x 2 = 30
(a) Identify, the major electoral reforms which are necessary in the Indian Political System.
(b) Examine the role of Estimates Committee.
(c) Discuss the major extra-constitutional factors influencing the working of federal polity in India.

Q. 9. Answer the following (About 20 words each) :- 5 x 2 = 10
(a) What is vote on account ?
(b) What is a Caretaker Government ?
(c) Do you justify the Prime Minister's entry into Parliament through the Rajya Sabha ?
(d) What is a Privilege Motion ?
(e) What is Contempt of Parliament ?

Q.10. Answer any ONE of the following (About 250 words) :- 30
(a) Discuss the provisions of the Human Rights Protection ACt (1993) relating to the following :-
(i) Definition of human rights.
(ii) Composition of the National Human Rights Commission.
(iii) Functions of the Commission.
(iv) What suggestions have been made for amending the Act for making the role of the NHRC more effective ?

General Studies - 1999 (Main) (Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt all questions from Section I, II and III.

SECTION I

1. How did Communalism manifest in Indian political scene? Explain the background of the passing of the momentous Pakistan Resolution. (About 250 words) 35
OR
What were the proposals of the Cabinet Mission ? Analyse there actions of the Congress and the League to the proposals. (About 250 words) 35

2. Answer any two of the following : (About 150 words on each)

(a) Trace the formation of the Swaraj Party. What were its demands.

(b) 'What began as a flight for religion ended as a war of independence, for there is not the slightest doubt that the rebels wanted to get rid of the alien government and restore the old order of which the king of Delhi was the rightful representative.' Do you support this viewpoint?

(c) How far Curzon's policy towards Tibet was influenced by strategic consideration. 15x2=30

3. Answer any three of the following : (About 75 words on each)

(a) Assess the contributions of Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar to the making of modern India.

General Studies - 1998 (Main) (Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 300

Candidates should attempt questions from all the Section I, II, and III. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION- I

1. Did Jawaharlal Nehru really 'speak' the 'language' of Gandhi? Locate the points of their agreements and departures.

OR

How did economic nationalism mirror the work of the early nationalist leadership in India? (About 250 words) 35

2. Answer any two of the following : 15 x 2 =30 (About 150 words on each)
(a) Why did the moderates lose appeal with the Indians and failed to elicit desired response from the British?
(b) How did the Policy of free trade hurt Indian textile industry and crafts in the latter half of the 19th century?
(c) Trace the origins of the R.N.I. Mutiny and evaluate its impact on the political situation in India.

3. Answer any three of the following : 10 x 3 =30 (About 75 words on each)
(a) Examine the ideas of Rabindranath Tagore on democracy.
(b) How did the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal influence the nationalist politics?
(c) What was the significance of the Prajamandal movements in the Indian States in the decade preceding India's independence?
(d) Assess the role of C. Rajagopalachari during the pre-partition years of Indian public life.

4. (a) What do you know about the following : 2 x 15 =30 (About 20 words on each)
(i) Nil Darpan (ii) Sarda Sadan
(iii) Sabarmati Ashram (iv) Hunter Commission
(v) Bandi Jiwan

(b) Why have the following become famous?
(vi) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(vii) Seth Jamanlal Bajaj (viii) S. Satyamurti
(ix) Udham Singh (x) Sarojini Naidu

(c) Write about the chief fatures of the following :
(xi) Kulu School (xii) Gopuram
(xiii) Wahabi Movement
(xiv) Bharat Dharma Mahamandal
(xv) Communal Award

SECTION II

Paper Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Solved Exam Paper (2008)

Computer General Awareness
Held on 17-08-2008

Paper Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008 (Held on 14-09-2008)

General Awareness

UGC NET JRF: Electronics Sample Questions Papers

General Questions on Electronics:

1.What is D-FF?
2.What is the basic difference between Latches and Flip flops?
3.What is a multiplexer?
4.How can you convert an SR Flip-flop to a JK Flip-flop?
5.How can you convert an JK Flip-flop to a D Flip-flop?
6.What is Race-around problem? How can you rectify it?
7.Which semiconductor device is used as a voltage regulator and why?
8.Explain an ideal voltage source?
9.Explain zener breakdown and avalanche breakdown?
10.What are the different types of filters?
11.What is the need of filtering ideal response of filters and actual response of filters?
12.What is sampling theorem?
13.What is impulse response?
14.Explain the advantages and disadvantages of FIR filters compared to IIR counterparts.
15.What is CMRR?
16.Explain half-duplex and full-duplex communication?
17.Which range of signals is used for terrestrial transmission?

BSNL JTO- Telecom Model Exam Paper 2009

Q.1 A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a 9-Ampere fuse. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel that can be turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44

Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 µA & VP =–5V. The maximum transconductance is
(a) gm = 0.4 milli mho (b) gm = 0.04milli mho
(c) gm = 0.04 mho (d) gm = 0.4 millimilli mho

Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter current is zero. If RB1 = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6

Q.4 A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is connected across an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A

Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO

Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm

Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI /2 (d) mI 3

Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the following is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above

Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is terminated in a pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25

Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an AC source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped

Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of 2.5 KHz and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450 Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 µF (b) 28.66 µH; 0.14 µF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF

Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8 (infinity) must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator

Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance. The reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8

Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O resistance between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps

Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency the current
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these

Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax = 10 Watt/Sr and average radiation intensity Uavg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency of the antenna is given as ?r = 95%, the input power of the antenna is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt

Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3 metres and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the airport is 1/2 Km away from the antenna . The aircraft is in the region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach

Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance 500 Ohms is excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz. If the line is terminated by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input impedance s of the line for ZL = 8 (infinity) and ZL = 0 (zero) in Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8

Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 yˆ cos (109 t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the corresponding magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109 t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m

Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of 200 Ohm. If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20)/4 (b) ( 10)/ 4
(c) ( 20)/ 2 (d) ( 10)/ 2

Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements, while analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units, while analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current measuring units

Q.22 An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10kO/volt. The galvanometer used in constructing the instrument will produce a full scale deflection when the current passed through it is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA (d) 100 µA

Q.23 The input versus output characteristics of a digital-to-analog converter is given in the table below: The converter is exhibiting
(a) offset error (b) statistical error
(c) linearity error (d) hysteresis error

Q.24 An optical fiber cable laid underground has developed a discontinuity at a

News : Women will not have to pay fee while applying for central government jobs

Women candidates appearing for competitive exams conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and Staff Selection Commission
(SSC) will not have to pay fee while applying for central government jobs.

As part of its efforts to increase representation of women in central government jobs, the government has decided "to exempt women candidates from payment of fees" and asked recruiting agencies -- UPSC and SSC -- to make this clear in all advertisements to be released for this purpose.

The decision, notified by the ministry of personnel on July 15, came a week after the government made it mandatory for recruitment panels to keep at least one woman member in the Board so that these agencies could "strive to have a workforce which reflects gender balance" in the central government jobs.

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