(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2021 (General Studies Paper-I)

(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2021

(General Studies Paper-I)

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2021 : General Studies Paper- I

Year : 2021

General Studies Paper - I

Time Allowed : Three Hours
Maximum Marks : 200

1. Which one of the following pairs of elements is found in the free state?

(a) Gold and Platinum

(b) Copper and Silver

(c) Gold and Silver

(d) Copper and Platinum

2. Why silver chloride turns grey in Sunlight?

(a) It forms silver metal and is an example of endothermic reaction

(b) It forms silver metal and is an example of exothermic reaction

(c) It forms silver metal and is an example of substitution reaction

(d) It forms silver ion (Ag+) and is an example of endothermic reaction

3. pH of blood is:

(a) 7.0

(b) 6.8

(c) 7.4

(d) 6.4

4. How many valence electrons are present in Cl¯ ion?

(a) 0

(b) 8

(c) 7

(d) 1

5. Tincture of iodine is:

(a) a solution of iodine in alcohol only.

(b) a solution of iodine in water only.

(c) a solution of iodine in alcohol and water.

(d) iodine.

6. Which one of the following is the correct order of relative reactivities of metals Ca, Al, Hg and Au?

(a) Ca > Al > Hg > Au

(b) Au > Hg > Al > Ca

(c) Al > Ca > Hg > Au

(d) Ca > Al > Au > Hg

7. Bronze is an alloy of:

(a) copper and tin.

(b) copper and zinc.

(c) zinc and tin.

(d) copper and lead.

8. Which one of the following is functional group of Methyl butanoate?

(a) Ester

(b) Ether

(c) Carboxylic acid

(d) Ketone

9. Rutherford’s α- particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of:

(a) Atomic nucleus

(b) Electron

(c) Proton

(d) Neutron

10. Animal fats generally contain:

(a) unsaturated fatty acids.

(b) saturated fatty acids.

(c) unsaturated long chain alcohols.

(d) lipids.

11. Which one of the following is NOT the ordinance making power of Governor?

(a) Governor shall have this power only when the legislature, or both Houses thereof, are not in session

(b) The scope of ordinance making power is coextensive with the legislative powers of the state legislature

(c) The Governor himself / herself shall not be competent to withdraw the ordinance at any time

(d) It is not a discretionary power, but must be exercised with the aid and advice of Ministers

12. Article 243 (D) of the Constitution of India provides reserved seats in Panchayats for:

(a) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women.

(b) Scheduled Tribes only.

(c) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Castes.

(d) Other Backward Castes and Women.

13. Which one of the following is NOT a power of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Makes laws on matters included in the Union and Concurrent Lists

(b) Can introduce and enact money and non-money bills

(c) Can initiate procedure for removal of Vice-President of India

(d) Amends the Constitution of India

14. Which one of the following does NOT describe Civil Society suitably?

(a) It interconnects individuals and families

(b) It comprises of voluntary associations

(c) It does not assert autonomy from the State

(d) It is modern rather than ascriptive and traditional

15. Which one among the following is NOT the subject matter of channels of inter-governmental relations?

(a) Legislation and policy making

(b) Administration

(c) Fiscal adjustment

(d) Judicial co-ordination

16. The Programme of Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) is implemented by:

(a) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

(b) Ministry of Jal Shakti

(c) Ministry of Rural Development

(d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

17. Which of the following is / are the financial power(s) of the Governor?
1. A Money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly only on the recommendation of the Governor
2. No demand for a grant can be made without the recommendation of the Governor
3. The supplementary, additional or excess grants are laid down with the recommendation of the Governor
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

18. Which one of the following statements about the Election Commission of India is NOT correct?

(a) Election Commission accords recognition to political parties and allots symbols

(b) Election Commission has the power to take decisions to ensure a free and fair polls

(c) Election Commission implements the model code of conduct

(d) The concept of multiple-member Election Commission has been in operation since 1980

19. Which one of the following is / are the function(s) of NITI Aayog?
1. Design policy & programme framework
2. Foster cooperative federalism
3. Think tank and knowledge & innovation hub
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

20. Which committee on Panchayati Raj recommended a two-tier system by removing the blocklevel bodies?

(a) Balwantrai Mehta Committee

(b) Ashok Mehta Committee

(c) G.V.K. Rao Committee

(d) L. M. Sanghvi Committee

21. Who among the following appoints the Advocate-General for a state?

(a) Chief Justice of the High Court of the state

(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

(c) Governor of the state

(d) Attorney General

22. Which one among the following functions is NOT assigned to the National Development Council?

(a) To engage in social and economic policies

(b) To review the working of the national plan from time to time

(c) To prescribe guidelines for the formulation of the state plans

(d) To consider the national plans as formulated by the Planning Commission

23. The self-respect movement was started by:

(a) C. H. Annadurai

(b) E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

(c) Lakshmi Narasu

(d) Iyothee Thass

24. “Forward Block” party was formed in 1940 in the state of:

(a) West Bengal

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Punjab

25. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited (CIL), a ‘Maha Ratna’ PSU under the Ministry of Coal, is located at:

(a) Dhanbad

(b) Nagpur

(c) Kolkata

(d) Kothagudem

26. Which one among the following is a peat-producing wetland?

(a) Swamps

(b) Marshes

(c) Bogs

(d) Lakes

27. The decade of 2021 – 2030 is declared by the United Nations as the decade on:

(a) Biodiversity

(b) Family Farming

(c) Ecosystem Restoration

(d) Water for Sustainable Development

28. Which one among the following is NOT a reason for low biodiversity?

(a) Habitat stress

(b) Abundance of ecological niches

(c) Geographical isolation

(d) Dominance by one species

29. Which one among the following has the highest concentration in the atmosphere?

(a) Argon

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Neon

(d) Methane

30. Temperature inversion most frequently occurs in:

(a) Lower Troposphere

(b) Upper Troposphere

(c) Lower Stratosphere

(d) Upper Stratosphere

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31. Which among the following has the maximum albedo?

(a) Vegetation

(b) Concrete

(c) Desert

(d) Clouds

32. Which one among the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The troposphere is lower at high latitudes than low latitudes

(b) The north-south temperature gradients are much steeper in winter

(c) The strongest horizontal temperature gradients are in middle latitudes in both summer and winter

(d) The north-south temperature gradient are much steeper in summer

33. Which one among the following has negligible role in evapotranspiration?

(a) Radiation intensity

(b) Atmospheric dew point

(c) Atmospheric pressure

(d) Length of day

34. Which among the following are true about hyperthermophile microbes?
1. The preferred temperature for growth of such microbes is around 45 ˚C
2. They prefer to grow and reproduce at over 80 ˚C
3. They normally grow in deep sea floors
4. Below 90 ˚C they find it too cold and stop growing
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

35. Plants, which survive by withdrawing water from their cells to prevent ice formation during extreme cold up to -40 ˚C, are known as:

(a) Frost sensitive

(b) Frost tolerant

(c) Frost resistant

(d) Chilling resistant

36. A growing population cannot increase indefinitely at a geometric rate because a given habitat has a carrying capacity. This type of growth is known as:

(a) Exponential growth

(b) Sinusoidal growth

(c) Logistic growth

(d) Chaotic growth

37. Which one of the following is NOT a condition necessary for natural selection to occur?

(a) More organisms are born than can survive

(b) Organisms should not vary in their characteristics within a species

(c) Variation is inherited

(d) Differences in reproduction and survival are due to variation among organisms

38. Which one among the following is NOT an attribute of the ‘Land Races’?

(a) Land Races have a ‘certain genetic integrity’

(b) They can be very well recognised morphologically

(c) They are highly adapted to specific soil types and local environmental variables

(d) They don’t have specific time of seeding and date of maturity

39. Which one among the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Mangrove?

(a) They are intertidal forested wetlands

(b) Mangrove habitat obstructs the growth and establishment of other organisms

(c) They dominate river deltas, lagoons and estuaries

(d) They are highly salt tolerant

40. The natural rain water has a pH value of:

(a) 5.6

(b) 6.5

(c) 7.0

(d) Zero

41. Which one among the following is true about Ozone Hole?

(a) It is the loss of Tropospheric ozone over Antarctica

(b) It is the loss of Stratospheric ozone over Antarctica

(c) It is a hole in the Antarctic ice sheet created due to ozone

(d) It is the loss of equatorial ozone

42. Montreal Protocol ratifies:

(a) restricting the production of CFCs.

(b) sustainable development.

(c) carbon trading.

(d) restricting the global average temperature below 2 ˚C above the pre-industrial level.

43. An ecotone generally refers to the:

(a) frontier between two ecosystems of different evolutionary levels.

(b) frontier between two ecosystems of same evolutionary levels.

(c) integration of two ecosystems of different evolutionary levels.

(d) integration of two ecosystems of graded evolutionary levels.

44. Naturally occurring green house gases keeps the Earth warmer nearly by:

(a) 20 ˚C

(b) 23 ˚C

(c) 30 ˚C

(d) 33 ˚C

45. Thermal pollution is:

(a) discharge of waste heat into the atmosphere or ocean from increasing use of energy.

(b) atmospheric warming due to emission of green house gasses.

(c) heat waves during extreme summer.

(d) heat trapped in the atmosphere due to dust storm.

46. Cultivable land, which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years, is known as:

(a) cultivable waste land.

(b) current fallow land.

(c) fallow land other than current fallow land.

(d) barren and waste land.

47. Which one of the following is a classic example of an Entrepot Port?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Singapore

(c) Maracaibo

(d) San Francisco

48. Roughly conical hills, composed of sorted glacio-fluvial deposits, are called:

(a) Erratics

(b) Drumlins

(c) Kames

(d) Eskers

49. Which one among the following river basins has the highest level of ground water utilisation?

(a) Mahanadi

(b) Godavari

(c) Krishna

(d) Kaveri

50. The Fujita Intensity Scale, developed by late T. Theodore Fujita (University of Chicago) is used for measuring the intensity of:

(a) Earthquakes

(b) Rainfall

(c) Tornadoes

(d) Volcanic eruptions

51. Urban sprawl takes place when:

(a) residential densities increase within an urban area.

(b) an urban area expands into the countryside.

(c) population of towns and cities decline due to out-migration.

(d) a rural area expands into the neighbouring city.

52. The Headquarters of the East Central Railway of India is located at:

(a) Kolkata

(b) Bhubaneswar

(c) Patna

(d) Hajipur

53. Which one of the following countries is NOT a member of SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement)?

(a) India

(b) Bangladesh

(c) Myanmar

(d) Pakistan

54. ‘Zafran’ is cultivated in which type of soil?

(a) Black soil

(b) Red soil

(c) Karewa soil

(d) Laterite soil

55. Singrauli coalfields of India are located in:

(a) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

(c) Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra

(d) Odisha and Chhattisgarh.

56. Very strong air currents in the upper air westerlies are known as:

(a) Jet streams

(b) Tornados

(c) Blizzards

(d) Chinook winds

57. Which Asian Country is characterised by negative population growth?

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Indonesia

(c) Japan

(d) Bangladesh

58. A ‘Spit’ can be defined as a:

(a) beach of sand or shingle linked at one end to the land.

(b) ridge that links the mainland to an island.

(c) ridge formed by consolidated dunes on the beach.

(d) shingle ridge formed along the beach above the high water mark.

59. Pre-monsoon rainfall in India known as ‘mango-showers’, occur in the coastal areas of:

(a) Karnataka

(b) Odisha

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Maharashtra

60. Which one of the following statements about Marajo Island is NOT correct?

(a) It is world’s largest river island

(b) It is a river island on Amazon river

(c) It is rich in wildlife and the home of water buffalo

(d) Capital of Brazil is located on this island

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61. Which one of the following is NOT the correct unit of ‘power’?

(a) Joule / second

(b) (Newton-metre) / second

(c) Watt

(d) Newton / metre

62. A copper rod of length 1 m is initially at room temperature. If the temperature of the rod is increased by 100 ˚C, what will be the change in length of the rod? (Given linear thermal expansion coefficient of Cu is 17 x 10-6 / ˚C)

(a) 0.17 mm

(b) 1.7 mm

(c) 0.17 cm

(d) 1.7 cm

63. Which one of the following statements, with regard to the properties of X-ray, is correct?

(a) X-rays can be deflected by an electric field

(b) X-rays can be deflected by a magnetic field

(c) X-rays are electromagnetic waves

(d) X-rays are longitudinal waves

64. A ray of light strikes a glass slab (from air). Which one of the following is NOT correct?

(a) The speed of light in glass is less than that in air

(b) The frequency of light in glass is same as that in air

(c) The wavelength of light in glass is less than that in air

(d) The frequency of light in glass is less than that in air

65. Which one of the following statements with regard to ultrasonic waves is NOT correct?

(a) Ultrasonic waves have frequency above 20 kHz

(b) Ultrasonic waves are longitudinal waves

(c) Ultrasonic waves can travel through water

(d) Ultrasonic waves can travel through vacuum

66. The process that is responsible for the generation of energy within the core of the sun is:

(a) Nuclear fission

(b) Nuclear fusion

(c) Atomic collision

(d) Atomic excitation

67. Which one of the following waves has the longest wavelength?

(a) Visible light

(b) Ultraviolet radiation

(c) Infra-red radiation

(d) X-rays

68. Consider a copper wire of length 1m and area of cross-section 1mm2. Given the resistivity of the copper is 1.7 × 10-6 Ω cm. What is the resistance of this wire?

(a) 17 milli-ohm

(b) 1.7 milli-ohm

(c) 0.17 milli-ohm

(d) 0.17 ohm

69. A stone of mass 1 kg and initially at rest is dropped from a tower of height 40 m. When it reaches a height of 10 m from the ground level, what will be the values of its potential energy (PE) and kinetic energy (KE)? (Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2)

(a) PE = 300 J, KE = 100 J

(b) PE = 200 J, KE = 200 J

(c) PE = 100 J, KE = 300 J

(d) PE = 100 J, KE = 200 J

70. Which one of the following is NOT a unit of ‘Pressure’?

(a) Bar

(b) Atmosphere

(c) N/m2

(d) N/m

71. James Prinsep is given credit for deciphering the script used in:

(a) Ashokan Brahmi

(b) Kharoshthi

(c) Tamil Brahmi

(d) Harappan Seals

72. Tamilakam, the name of the ancient Tamil country, included besides Tamil Nadu parts of present day:

(a) Andhra Pradesh and Kerala

(b) Karnataka and Kerala

(c) Kerala and Odisha

(d) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

73. The malfuzat literature is:

(a) discourses by Sufi leaders.

(b) treatises written by Sufis on the theory and practices of Sufism.

(c) biographical dictionaries of the Sufi orders.

(d) letters written by the Sufis.

74. Which among the following was made responsible for framing of the Constitution of Free India?

(a) Parliament of India

(b)Constituent Assembly

(c) Supreme Court of India

(d)British Parliament

75. Which one of the following was NOT the fallout of Gandhiji’s Salt Satyagraha?

(a) Refusal to pay the rural chaukidari tax in eastern India

(b) Defiance of forest laws in Maharashtra

(c) Picketing of shops selling foreign liquors by women

(d) Declaration that no Indians should serve in the British-Indian Government

76. The Lahore session of Congress, held in 1929, was famous for:

(a) boycott of Simon Commission.

(b) demanding commutation of Bhagat Singh’s death sentence.

(c) adoption of Poorna Swaraj as objective of Congress.

(d) starting ‘no rent-no tax’ campaign by Congress.

77. Tuhfatul Hind, written by Mirza Muhammad ibn Fakruddin Muhammad, is a text on:

(a) Political theory

(b) Architectural theory

(c) Musical theory

(d) Military techniques

78. Pulakeshin II belonged to which dynasty of rulers?

(a) Eastern Chalukyas

(b) Pallavas

(c) Eastern Gangas

(d) Western Chalukyas

79. Who among the following foreign travellers was appointed Qazi of Delhi by Muhammad Tughlaq?

(a) Al-Masudi

(b) Abu Zaid

(c) Ibn Battuta

(d) Ibn Haukal

80. Which one of the following pairs of author and literary work is correctly matched?

(a) Banabhatta : Ramacharita

(b) Kalhana : Rajatarangini

(c) Chand Bardai : Prithvirajavijaya

(d) Padmagupta : Harshacharita

81. Which one of the following inscriptions records the history of a guild of silk weavers?

(a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription

(b) Junagadh Inscription of Rudradaman

(c) Mandasor Inscription

(d) Dhauli Rock Inscription

82. The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the:

(a) Guptas

(b) Mauryas

(c) Indo-Greeks

(d) Satavahanas

83. Which one of the following pairs of term and meaning is correctly matched?

(a) Gahapati : Slaves

(b) Adimai : Master of a household

(c) Vellalar : Land-less labour

(d) Uzhavar : Ploughmen

84. Which one of the following statements about Government of India Act, 1935 is NOT correct?

(a) The federal part of the Act was quickly implemented

(b) The Congress decided to participate in the elections under the new Act

(c) Only Bengal and Punjab had non-Congress ministries

(d)Congress formed coalition Governments in two provinces

85. The ancient Sanskrit texts use the term kula to designate:

(a) Network of kinfolk

(b) Families

(c) Lineage

(d) Caste

86. Which one of the following statements about immunisation is correct?

(a) In immunisation, infectious agent is killed directly by component of vaccine

(b) In immunisation, infectious agent is killed through immune system

(c) Immunisation has no role in preventing infectious diseases

(d) Immunisation against one infectious disease is sufficient for all infectious diseases

87. Hydrochloric acid is produced in which one of the following organs of human body?

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Small intestine

(c) Stomach

(d) Large intestine

88. In a mammalian cell, protein is synthesized on:

(a) Golgi apparatus

(b) Plasma membrane

(c) Lysosomes

(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

89. Reptilia include animals which are cold-blooded, have scales and breathe through lungs. These include:

(a) Fishes and Snakes

(b) Frogs and Snakes

(c) Crow and Fishes

(d) Snakes and Turtles

90. Tendons connect:

(a) Bone to bone

(b) Bone to cartilage

(c) Muscle to bone

(d) Cartilage to fat

91. Tissue is formed from cells in which:

(a) most cells are similar in structure and function.

(b) all cells perform different functions.

(c) all cells are different in structure.

(d) all cells are different in both structure and function.

92. The cells associated with receiving and conducting impulses are:

(a) Neuron

(b) Plasma cells

(c) Adipocytes

(d) Macrophages

93. Arteries are the blood vessels which:

(a) carry oxygenated blood.

(b) carry deoxygenated blood.

(c) have thin, non-elastic walls.

(d) carry the blood away from the heart.

94. Which organelle of Eukaryotic cells has DNA?

(a) Lysosome

(b) Golgi apparatus

(c) Mitochondria

(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

95. Proteins are made from atoms of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and some also contain sulphur and phosphorus. Molecules made up of these atoms that synthesise protein are known as:

(a) Amino acid

(b) Nucleic acid

(c) Glucose

(d) Cellulose

96. “Sustainable Development is defined as the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.” This well accepted definition of sustainable development was put forth in:

(a) Rotterdam Convention

(b) Stockholm Convention

(c) Brundtland Commission

(d) Kyoto Conference

97. G-20 is a forum of countries that intends to promote global economic stability and sustainable growth. Which among the following group of countries DOES NOT form a part of the forum?

(a) Argentina, South Africa, Turkey

(b) Australia, Brazil, India

(c) Italy, United Kingdom, Indonesia

(d) Ireland, New Zealand, Sweden

98. Ayushman Bharat – the centrally sponsored scheme takes care of which of the following?
1. Includes almost all secondary care and most of tertiary care procedures
2. Includes all pre and post-hospitalisation expenses
3. Increased access to quality health and medication
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 , 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

99. Certain geographical regions in a country may have economic laws different from the country’s typical economic laws. Which one of the following could be the reason for allowing the differences in economic laws for particular geographical regions?

(a) Increasing trade in the country

(b) Discretionary allocation of natural resources

(c) Increasing foreign investment

(d) Leverage connections to extract a larger share of existing wealth

100. Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) contribute significantly in the economic and social development of the country. Which of the following measures is / are taken by the Government with respect to MSMEs?
1. Ensure better credit flow
2. Technology upgradation
3. Ease of doing business and market access
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

101. The second five year plan of India is regarded as a landmark contribution to development planning. What could be the reasons for the same?
1. Laid emphasis on industrialisation
2. Aimed at increasing the rate of investment
3. Aimed at establishment of socialistic pattern of society
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

102. India is a destination for global outsourcing. Which of the following is/are the more appropriate reason(s) for making the multinational corporations choose India for outsourcing their services?
1. Lower wage rate
2. Higher rate of unemployment
3. Availability of skilled human power
4. Cordial relationship with government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

103. Which one of the following statements with regard to poverty is correct?

(a) Poverty line is determined by the monetary value of the minimum calorie intake

(b) The existing mechanism for determining poverty line takes into consideration social factors such as illiteracy, ill health etc.

(c) Income and assets are the only factors associated with poverty

(d) The items included in consumption basket are adequate to estimate the poverty line and the number of poor

104. The group which regularly moves in and out of poverty is called as:

(a) Chronic poor

(b) Churning poor

(c) Transient poor

(d) Persistent poor

105. Which one of the following is NOT correct with regard to Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM)?

(a) It is a pension scheme for organized workers

(b) It has started enrolment since 2019

(c) It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme

(d) It is meant for entry age group of 18-40 years

106. Which one of the following is NOT a member country of the Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and Review Council (FIORC)?

(a) India

(b) Australia

(c) United Kingdom

(d) United States

107. KAYAKALP awards are given annually by the Ministry of:

(a) Education

(b) Home Affairs

(c) Health and Family Welfare

(d) Information and Broadcasting

108. Which one of the following was the theme of the One Planet Summit, 2021?

(a) One Planet One Health

(b) Innovative Solutions for Environmental Challenges and Sustainable Consumption and Production

(c) Towards a Batter Planet

(d) Let’s Act Together for Nature

109. The objective of National Youth Parliament Festival is to hear the voice of youth between:

(a) 10 - 15 years.

(b) 15-18 years.

(c) 18 - 25 years.

(d) 25 - 35 years.

110. Web Ratna Awards were re-named as:

(a) Digital India Awards

(b)Internet Ratna Awards

(c) Information Technology Awards

(d)Prasar Bharati Annual Awards

111. The inaugural edition of the coastal defence exercise ‘Sea Vigil’ was conducted in the year:

(a) 2017

(b) 2018

(d) 2020

112. India’s first pollinator park was opened in:

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Uttarakhand

(c) Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

113. Who among the following is the CMD of the Serum Institute of India Pvt. Ltd.?

(a) Dr. Krishna Ella

(b) Adar C. Poonawalla

(c) Dr. Cyrus S. Poonawalla

(d) Viloo Poonawalla

114. The CollabCAD software is jointly launched by NIC and:

(a) National Institute of Open Schooling

(b)Central Board of Secondary Education

(c) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan

(d)Indira Gandhi National Open University

115. Which one of the following statements on Climate of India is NOT correct?

(a) Year 2020 was the eighth warmest year on record since 1901

(b) 12 out of 15 warmest years were during the recent fifteen years (2006-2020)

(c) During the year 2020, the monsoon season rainfall over the country as a whole was below normal

(d) Past decade (2001-2010/ 2010-2020) was the warmest decade on record

116. Pulikulam is an indigenous breed of:

(a) Buffalo

(b) Horse

(c) Cow

(d) Goat

117. Who among the following Presidents of USA resigned before he could be impeached?

(a) Richard Nixon

(b) Andrew Johnson

(c) Bill Clinton

(d) Jimmy Carter

118. Recently DRDO developed and handed over a bike-based casualty transport emergency vehicle to CRPF. What is the name of the vehicle?

(a) Pratiksha

(b) Rakshita

(c) Nirbhaya

(d) Devdut

119. According to a recent report by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, how much of India’s total geographic area is covered as protected areas?

(a) About 5%

(b) About 7%

(c) About 10%

(d) About 15%

120. Which one of the following statements with regard to the World Immigration Report, 2020 prepared by the United Nations is NOT correct?

(a) India had the largest number of migrants living abroad

(b)United States was the top destination country

(c) United States was the top remittance-sending country

(d)China was the top remittance recipient country