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CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2013- I Paper I: General Knowledge

CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2013- I Paper I: General Knowledge

1. Which one among the following countries intiated the process of Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition ?

A. Libya
B. Afganistan
C. Tunisia
D. Marocco

2. Which one among the following regarding G-20 is not correct ?

A. A group of developed countries
B. An integral part of the United Nations
C. Outside the World Bank and IMF
D. An offshoot of G-7

3. ONGC Videsh (the State-owned oil and gas company of India) recently (September 2012) signed a definitive agreement with

A. Russia
B. Azerbaijan
C. Iran
D. South Sudan

4. Forth BRICS Summit, held in New Delhi in March 2012, deliberated on the challenges faced by India for sustainable growth. Which one among the following is not a part of the formulated challenges ?

A. Improvements required in public sector management
B. Inclusive growth
C. Improvements required in physical infrastructure
D. Development in the agricultural sector

5. Which among the following has been included as a parameter for the first time under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based on Central Pollution Control Board and IIT, Kanpur research, WHO guidelines and European Union limits and Practices ?

A. Sulphur dioxide
B. Oxides of nitrogen
C. Ozone
D. Carbon monoxide

6. The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-daulah, as

A. growth of large-scale British trade
B. an attack upon his sovereigntly
C. insecurity of the British in India
D. British control over Bengal

7. Which one among the following statements with regard to the National Security Council (NSC) of India is not correct ?

A. It is a three- tiered organization
B. The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is its member
C. It is the apex body looking exclusively the security concerns of the country
D. RAW and Intelligence Bureau (Indian) report to NSC

8. The highly polished monolithic Ashokan pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of

A. Chunar near Mirzapur
B. Lauriya in Nandangarh
C. Sarnath near Varanasi
D. Udayagiri near Bhubaneshwar

9. In the Gupta age, Varahamihira wrote the famous book, Brihat Samhita. It was a treatise on

A. Astronomy
B. Statecraft
C. Ayurvedic system of medicine
D. Economics

10. Human Poverty Index (HPI) developed by UNDP is based on which of the following deprivations ?

1. Income deprivation
2. Literacy deprivation
3. Social services deprivation
4. Employment deprivation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only

11. The lower growth coal production in India during 2011-2012 was primarily due to

1. environmental restrictions
2. non- availability of forestry clearance
3. poor law and order situation in coal producing states
4. excessive rainfull in coal mining areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only

12. The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the year 2011 was due to

1. flight to safely by foreign investors
2. meltdown in European markets
3. inflation in emerging market economics
4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

13. Which of the following occupations are included under secondary sector as per the national income accounts ?

1. Manufacturing
2. Construction
3. Gas and water supply
4. Mining and quarrying

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

14. The government can influence private sector expenditure by

1. taxation
2. subsidies
3. macroeconomic policies
4. grants

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

15. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a manufacturing firm in the short run ?

A. Insurance on buildings
B. Overtime payment to workers
C. Cost of energy
D. Cost of raw materials

16. Which of the following are included in the category of direct tax in India ?

1. Corporation Tax
2. Tax on Income
3. Wealth Tax 4. Customs Duty
5. Excise Duty

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2, 4 and 5
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3, 4 and 5

17. Which one among the following programmes has now been restructured as the National Rural Livelihood Mission ?

A. Swarna Jayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana
B. Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
C. Janshree Bima Yojana
D. Rashtriya Swasthaya Bima Yojana

18. The concept which tries to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for expenditure of capital nature is termed as

A. revenue deficit
B. effective revenue deficit
C. fiscal deficit
D. primary deficit

19. Which of the following institutions was/ were asked by the Government of India to provide official estimates of black (unaccounted) money held by Indians, both in India and abroad ?

1. National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
2. National Council of Applied Economics Research
3. National Institute of Financial Management

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

20. Outstanding historian Eric Hobsbawn who expired on 1st October, 2012, haS authored a large number of books. The title of his famous autobiography is

A. Bandits
B. Uncommon People : Resistance, Rebellion and Jazz
C. The New Century : In Conversation with Antonic Polito
D. Interesting Times : A Twentieth – Century Life

21. Some atheists, skeptics and no-believers called to celebrate ‘December 25’ as Newtonmas day instead observing Christmas Day. He reason they propose that

A. both Isaac Newton and Jesus Christ were great
B. Isaac Newton was born on 25th December
C. ‘Skeptic Society’ was founded on 25th December
D. Isaac Newton was a deep believer of Christianity

22. European Union’s Annual Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought for 2012 has been won by

A. Guillermo Farinas from Cuba
B. Nasrin Sotoudeh and JafarPanahi from Iran
C. Ali Farzat from Syria and Mohamed Bouazizi from Tunisia
D. Asmaa Mahfouz and Ahmed al-Senussi from Egypt and Libya respectively

23. The Rohingya are the minorities of

A. South Africa
B. Canada
C. Myanmar
D. Bhutan

24. Consider the following statements :

During the last week of November 2012, Palestinian engineers dug up the tomb of Yasser Arafat. This was done primarily to

1. place the remains of Yasser Arafat in a mosque compound
2. confirm the prevaling suspicion that Israel had poisoned him

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

25. Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title, 2012. He defeated

A. Andy Murray
B. Roger Federer
C. Novak Djokovic
D. David Ferrer

26. Which one among the following was added in the year 2012 in the list of World Heritage Sites of the UNESCO ?

A. Western Ghats
B. Agra Fort
C. Ajanta Caves
D. Meenakshi Temple

27. Which one among the following is not a salient feature of the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012 ?

A. For spending the amount earmarked for corporat e social responsibility, the company shall give preferences to local areas where it operates
B. Punishment for falsely inducing a person to enter into an agreement with bank or financial institution with a view to obtaining credit facilities
C. There is no limit in respect of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor
D. ‘Independent directors’ shall be excluded for the purpose of computing ‘one-third of retiring directors’

28. FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in all product is now permitted in India subject to

1. a ceiling of 51%
2. minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor is US$ 100 million
3. at least 50 % of the procurement of manufactured/processed products should be sourced from ‘small industries’
4. retail sales locations set up only in cities with a population of more than 10 lacs

Select the correct condition/conditions using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

29. Why was Kaushik Basu, the ex-economic advisor to the Prime Minister of India, in news recently ?

He was appointed as

A. the President of the IMF
B. the President of the World Bank
C. the Economic Advisor of the United Nations
D. the Chief Economist of the World Bank

30. Who among the following was selected for the prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2012 ?

A. Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
B. Ela Bhatt
C. Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva
D. Sheikh Hasina

31. Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that

1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of Delhi rules
2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth
3. they provided fresh geographical knowledge
4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-naib orVice-Regent of the Empire

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2013- I Paper II: General English

CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2013- I Paper II: General English

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions (Qs. 1 to 12) : In the following two passages, at certain points you are given a choice of three words in a bracket, one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word from each bracket. Mark the letter, viz., A, B or C, relations to this word on your Answer-sheet.

Examples Y and Z have been solved for you.

Y. The ______ was in the school in Shimla.

A. boy
B. horse
C. dog

Z. _______ was homesick.

A. She
B. It
C. He

Explanation : Out of the list given in item Y, only boy is the correct answer because usually a boy, and not a horse or a dog, attends school. So A is to be marked on the Answer-sheet for item Y. A boy is usually referred to as “he”, so for item Z, the letter C is the correct answer. Notice that to solve this kind of item you have to read the preceding or succeeding sentences of the given passage,

Passage-1

A young man riding a motor-cycle approached a policeman in a market place and sought his assistance in reaching a particular locality. The policeman gave him some __1__and the motor-cyclist left. He __2__back after some time and __3__the policeman that he could not __4__ the place. The policeman got the __5__to help him and agreed to __6__with the motor-cyclist. On reaching the __7__the motor-cyclist left in a hurry leaving the policeman on the road. The policeman was surprised and returned to his spot. A little later, a senior police officer reached the place and took the policeman to task for dereliction of duty.

1. A. instructions
B. directions
C. advise

2. A. reached
B. came
C. went

3. A. asked
B. convinced
C. told

4. A. find
B. hit
C. see

5. A. idea
B. inclination
C. urge

6. A. start
B. go
C. proceed

7. A. station
B. destination
C. spot

Passage-2

Picasso is considered by many as the greatest painter of the modern age. There are stories at legends about him. Once, on a beach in Southern France, a little boy, obviously sent by his parents, approached Picasso __8__a sheet of paper and begged for a small autographed drawing. Picasso __9__for a moment, then tore up the paper, took __10__colour crayons, drew designs on the boy’s chest __11__neck and signed his ‘work’ and sent the youngest __12__to his parents.

8. A. with
B. by
C. on

9. A. painted
B. thought
C. stood

10. A. back
B. some
C. aside

11. A. near
B. and
C. to

12. A. after
B. again
C. back

FILL IN THE BLANK SPACE BY SELECTING A WORD

Directions (Qs. 13 to 18): Each of the items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your choice on the Answer-sheet.

13. An accomplice is a partner in………… .

A. business
B. crime
C. construction
D. gambling

14. A person who pretends to be what he is not is called an ………… .

A. imbiber
B. impresario
C. imitator
D. imposter

15. His ………. nature would not let him leave his office before 5 p.m.

A. honest
B. selfish
C. unscrupulous
D. conscientious

16. The Committee’s appeal to the people for money ………. little response.

A. evoked
B. provided
C. provoked
D. prevented

17. Too many skyscrapers ……….. the view along the beach.

A. reveal
B. obstruct
C. make
D. clear

18. Though he has several interim plants, his …….... aim is to become a billionaire.

A. absolute
B. determined
C. only
D. ultimate

RECONSTRUCTING PASSAGE

Directions (Qs. 19 to 27) : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your answer accordingly on the Answer-sheet.

19. S1 : Ronald Ross was born in Almora, in the Himalayas in 1857.
S6 : Manson directed him to an effective study of the disease and with his help, Ross solved the mystery in three years.

P : He began to feel that he ought to try to do something about it.
Q : He was educated in England and returned to India as an officer in the Indian Medical Service.
R : He started to study malaria and during a vacation to England, met Patrick Manson and studied tropical diseases under him.
S : His medical conscience was stirred by the appalling disease and misery with which he was surrounded in the course of his work.

The proper sequence should be

A. SRPQ
B. QSPR
C. PQRS
D. RPSQ

20. S1 : Science has turned the world into one unit.
S6 : Practically every part of the world has friendly or hostile relationship with every other part.

P : Nowadays such pleasing illusions are impossible to have.
Q : Since that time they have been coming closer to each other.
R : Before the 16th century, America and the Far East were almost unrelated to Europe.
S : Augustus in Rome an Han Emperor in China simultaneously imagined them-selves masters of the word.

The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS
B. RSQP
C. SRPQ
D. RQSP

21. S1 : Plants need carbon for building the tissue of their bodied.
S6 : Thus through a complex process called photosynthesis, plants receive their requirements from soil and Sun.

P : The breaking up of carbon dioxide into its components requires energy, which they derive from the Sun.
Q : Plants’ other needs of nutrients are derived from the soil and water through their roots.
R : They derive this carbon dioxide, absorb the carbon and discharge oxygen into the air for animals to breathe.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSPR
B. RSPQ
C. SQRP
D. PRQS

22. S1 : I searched for my friend all day.
S6 : When I woke up the Sun was already above the horizon.

P : Although I was weary and hungry, I was not discouraged.
Q : I crept in and lay on the ground with my bag for a pillow.
R : When midnight came I felt that I could not walk much further.
S : At last I came to a place where the pavement was raised and had a hollow underneath.

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ
B. PSQR
C. RPSQ
D. SRQP

23. S1 : While on a fishing trip last summer, I watched an elderly man fishing off the edge of a dock.
S6 : Cheerfully, the old man replied, “Small frying pan”.

P : “Why didn’t you keep the other big ones?” I asked.
Q : He caught an enormous trout, but apparently not satisfied with its size, he threw it back into the water.
R : He finally caught a small pike, threw it into his pail, and smiling happily prepared to leave
S : Amazed, I watched him repeat this performance.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR
B. QSPR
C. PQSR
D. QPSR

24. S1 : Mr. Johnson looked at his watch.
S6 : He always says to his friend at the office: ‘It is nice to have breakfast in the morning, but it is nicer to lie in bed.’

P : He was late as usual, so he did not have time for breakfast.
Q : Then he washed and dressed.
R : He ran all the way to the station and he arrived there just in time for the train.
S : It was half past seven and he got out of bed quickly.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR
B. SQPR
C. SRQP
D. RSQP

25. S1 : The essence of democracy is the active participation of the people in government affairs.
S6 : By and large it is actual practice of our way of life.

P : When the people are active watchmen and participants, we have that fertile soil in which democracy flourishes.
Q : Our democracy is founded upon a faith in the overall judgement of the people as a whole.
R : When the people do not participate, the spirit of democracy dies.
S : When the people are honestly and clearly informed, their commonsense can be relied upon to carry the nation safely through any crisis.

The proper sequence be

A. RPSQ
B. PRSQ
C. SPQR
D. PSRQ

26. S1 : Always remember that regular and frequent practice is essential if you are to learn to write well.
S6 : If you keep your eyes and ears open, you will find plenty of things to write about.

P : Even with the most famous writers, inspiration is rare.
Q : Writing is ninety nine per cent hard work and one per cent inspiration, so t he sooner you get in into the habit of writing, the better.
R : It is no good waiting until you have an inspiration before you write.
S : You learn to write by writing.

The proper sequence should be

A. SRPQ
B. RPSQ
C. SPRQ
D. QPSR

27. S1 : Human ways of life have steadily changed.
S6 : During the last few years charge has been even more rapid than usual.

P : From that to this, civilization has always been changing.
Q : About ten thousand years ago, man lived entirely by hunting.
R : Ancient Egypt – Greece- The Roman Empire – the Dark Ages and the Middle Ages – The Renaissance – the age of modern science and of modern nations – one has never stood still.
S : A settles civilized life began only when agriculture was discovered.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP
B. QSPR
C. RSQP
D. SPRQ

SENTENCES IMPROVEMENT

Directions (Qs. 28 to 47) : Look at the underlined part of each sentences. Below each sentence, three possible situations for the underlined part one given. If one of them A, B or C is better that the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer-sheet against the corresponding letter A, B or C. If none of these substitutions improve the sentences, indicate D as your response on the Answer-sheet. Thus a “No Improvement” response will be signified by the letter D.

28. She told the children not to stop the word.

A. not stopping
B. don’t stop
C. not stopping of
D. No improvement

29. I am not telling that you should hunt out people to pursue your policies.

A. asking
B. saying
C. speaking
D. No improvement

30. He succeeded by dint of hard work.

A. by means of
B. by doing
C. by virtue of
D. No improvement

31. You have read that book for ages.

A. Have been reading
B. had read
C. will be reading
D. No improvement

32. The only bit of relief for the victims has been the increase in compensation.

A. were
B. have been
C. was that they were given
D. No improvement

33. He is resembling his father.

A. has been resembling
B. resembles like
C. resembles
D. No improvement

34. I am not sure why she is wanting to see him.

A. she wants
B. does she want
C. is she wanting
D. No improvements

35. Everybody who finished writing can go home.

A. had finished
B. have finished
C. has finished
D. No improvement

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CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2013- II Paper I: General Knowledge

CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2013- II Paper I: General Knowledge

1. The Westerlies have their origin in the :

A. Polar highs
B. Subtropical highs
C. Equatorial lows
D. Sub polar lows

2. Mid-latitude cyclones :

A. Usually move across North-America from east to west
B. Are generally found only over the Ocean
C. Generally bring clear skies and little precipitation   
D. Are formed in regions of strong temperature contrasts

3. Red soil colour is caused by:

A. Aluminium compound
B. Mercury compound
C. Iron compound
D. Clay

4. Which of the following statement about Nathu la Pass are correct?

1. It links Sikkim with Tibet
2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk Route
3. It was reopened in the year 2006

Select the answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

5. Which one among the following may be considered a reason for India having ‘high dependency’ ration?

A. High rate of population growth
B. Large section of population is in the age group of 0-14 years
C. High percentage of population in the age group of 15-59 year
D. Low pace of human resource development

6. A liquid initially contract when cooled down to 4°C but no further cooling down to 0°C, it expands. The liquid is;

A. Alcohol
B. Water
C. Molten iron
D. Mercury

7. The main source of energy is Sun is :

A. Nuclear fusion
B. Nuclear fission
C. Chemical reaction
D. Mechanical energy

8. Dispersion process forms spectrum due to white light falling on a prism. The light wave with shortest wavelength :

A. Refracts the most
B. Does not change the path
C. Refracts the least
D. Is reflected by the side of the prism

9. Magnetic, electrostatic and gravitational forces come under the category of :

A. Non contact forces
B. Contact forces
C. Frictional forces
D. Non frictional forces

10. A ray of white light strikes the surface of an object. If all the colours are reflected the surface would appear :

A. Black
B. White
C. Grey
D. Opaque

11. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is:

A. Periodic but not simple harmonic
B. Non periodic
C. Simple harmonic and time period is independent of the density of the liquid
D. Simple harmonic and time period depends on the density of the liquid

12. Dirty cloths containing grease and oil stains are cleaned by adding detergents to water. Stains are removed because detergent:
 

A. Reduces drastically the surface tension between water and oil
B. Increase the surface tension between water and oil
C. Increase the viscosity of water and oil
D. Decreases the viscosity in detergent mixed water

13. Which element forms the highest number of compounds in the periodic table?

A. Carbon
B. Oxygen
C. Silicon
D. Sculpture

14. NaOH + HCl ® NaCl + H2O

A. Sodium is oxidized and chlorine is reduced
B. Sodium is oxidized and chlorine is reduced
C. Sodium and hydrogen are oxidized
D. None of them are oxidized or reduced

15. Which one among the following is not a correct statement?

A. Cathode rays are negatively charged particles
B. Cathode rays are produced from all the gases
C. Electrons are basic constituents of all the atoms
D. Hydrogen ions do not contain any proton

16. Which one among the following colours has the highest wavelength?

A. Violet
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Red

17. What are the elements which are liquids at room temperature and standard pressure?

1. Helium
2. Mercury
3. Chlorine
4. Bromine

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3

18. A compound that is a white solid which absorbs water vapor from the air is :

A. Sodium nitrate
B. Calcium chloride
C. Sodium carbonate
D. Calcium sulphate

19. What type of mixture is smoke?

A. Solid mixed with a gas
B. Gas mixed with a gas
C. Liquid mixed with a gas
D. Gas mixed with a liquid and a solid

20. By what mechanism does scent spread all over the room if the lid is opened?

A. Pressure in the bottle
B. Compression from the bottle
C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis

21. The Circle of illumination divides Earth into two hemispheres know as:

A. East and West
B. North and South
C. Day and Night
D. Summer and Winter

22. Which one among the following State does not form part of the Narmada basin?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Maharashtra

23. Which one among the following is the correct sequence of the rivers from north to south?

A. Damodar – Brahmani – Mahanadi – Tungabhadra
B. Damoda - Mahandi – Brahmani – Tungabhadra
C. Barahmani – Tungabhadra – Damodar – Mahandi
D. Damodar – Brahmani – Tungabhadra – Mahanidi

24. Which one among the following is a sea without having a coastline?

A. North sea
B. Sargasso sea
C. Baltic sea
D. Bering sea

25. The production function of a firm will change whenever :

A. Input price changes
B. The firm employs more of any input
C. The firm increases its level of output
D. The relevant technology changes

26. If the average total cost is declining then :

A. The marginal cost must be less than the average total cost
B. Total cost must be constant
C. The average fixed cost curve must be above the average variable cost curve
D. The marginal cost must be greater than the average total cost.

27. In a perfectly competitive economy production and consumption will both be Pareto optimal if the economy operates at a point where :

A. There is general equilibrium
B. Output levels are below equilibrium
C. Output levels are above equilibrium
D. Consumption is less than output

28. The average fixed cost curve will always be:

A. A rectangular hyperbola
B. A downward sloping convex to the origin curve
C. A downward sloping straight line
D. A U-shaped curve

29. The income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is :

A. Less than one
B. Less than zero
C. Equal to one
D. Greater than one

30. The main functioning of the banking system is to :

A. Accept deposits and provide credit
B. Accept deposits and subsidies
C. Provide credit and subsidies
D. Accept deposits, provide credit and subsidies

Direction: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, statements I and statement II. You are to examine these two statement carefully and select the answer to these items using the code given below:

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

31. Statement I. Typical laterite soils in India are generally fertile.
Statement II. Lateerite solis generally experience leaching.

32. Statement I. Southern part of France is famous for wine making industry.
Statement II. Southern part of France produces a variety of fruits due to Mediterranean climate.

33. Statement I. Kali age reflects the presence of deep social crisis characterized by varnasankara i.e., intermixture of varnas or social orders.
Statement II. The vaisyas and sudras (peasants, artisans and laborers) either refused to perform producing functions or pay taxes or supply necessary lobour for economics production resulting in weakening of Brahminical social order and social tension.

34. Statement I. The social institutions of caste in India underwent major change in the colonial period.
Statement II. Caste, in contemporary society is more a product of ancient India tradition than of colonialism.

135. Statement I. The Russian Revolution of 1917 inspired the India Working Class Movement.
Statement II. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22) saw the involvement of the Indian Working Class.

36. Statement I. In India tribal movements of nineteenth century resulted out of the process of land displacements and the introduction of forest laws.
Statement II. The Indian national movement resolved the problem faced by the tribals.

37. Statement I. The economy of India in the 19th century came to a state of ruin under English East India Company.
Statement II. English East India Company’s acquisition of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry of India.

38. In soil, water this is readily available to plant roots is :

A. Gravitational water
B. Capillary water
C. Hygroscopic water
D. Bound water

39. Blood does not coagulate inside the body due to the presence of :

A. Haemoglobin
B. Heparin
C. Fibrin
D. Plasma

40. Which one among the following is responsible for formation of ‘Ozone Holes’ in the stratosphere?

A. Benzopyrene
B. Hydrocarbons
C. Chlorofluorocarbons
D. UV radiation

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