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NDA/NA Exam Solved Papers - 2011- I - Paper I: General Ability Test (Part-A)

Paper I : General Ability Test

Part A : English Language

CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2011- I Paper III: Mathematics

1. The diagonal of a cube is 4Ö3 cm. What is its volume ?

(a) 1.6 cm³
(b) 32 cm³
(c) 64 cm³
(d) 192 cm³

2. If 2/x +3/y = 9/xy and 4/x+9/y = 21/xy where x ¹ 0 and y ¹ 0, then what is the value of x + y ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 8

3. Two trains each 200 m long move towards each other on parallel lines with velocities 20 kmph and 30 kmph respectively. What is the time that elapses when they first meet until they have cleared each other ?

(a) 20 s
(b) 24.8 s
(c) 28.8 s
(d) 30 s

4. ‘X’ is twice as old as ‘Y’ 3 years ago, when ‘X’ was as old as ‘Y’ today. If the difference between their ages at present is 3 years, how old is ‘X’ at present ?

(a) 18 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 9 years
(d) 8 years

5. If ` 2,600 is divided among three persons A, B and C in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4 how much does A get ?

(a) Rs. 600
(b) Rs. 800
(c) Rs. 1,000
(d) Rs. 1,200

6. For a positive integer n, define d(n) = the number of positive divisors of n. What is the value of d(d(d(12))) ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) None of the above

7. In a triangle ABC, side AB is extended beyond B, side BC beyond C and side CA beyond A. What is the sum of the three exterior angles ?

(a) 270°
(b) 305°
(c) 360°
(d) 540°

8. PQR is a triangle right-angled at Q. If X and Y are the mid-points of the sides PQ and QR respectively, then which one of the following is not correct ?

(a) RX² + PY² = 5 XY²
(b) RX² + py² = XY² + PR²
(c) 4 (RX² + PY²) = 5 PR²
(d) RX² + PY² = 3 (PQ² + QR²)

9. A bicycle is running straight towards north. What is the locus of the centre of the front wheel of the bicycle whose diameter is d ?

(a) A line parallel to the path of the wheel of the bicycle at a height d cm
(b) A line parallel to the path of the wheel of the bicycle at a height d/2 cm
(c) A circle of radius d/2 cm
(d) A circle of radius d cm

10. To pass an examination, a candidate needs 40% marks. All questions carry equal marks. A candidate just passed by getting 10 answers correct by attempting 15 of the total questions. How many questions are there in the examination ?

(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 45

11. Assume the Earth to be a sphere of radius R. What is the radius of the circle of latitude 40-S ?

(a) R cos 40°
(b) R sin 80°
(c) R sin 40°
(d) R tan 40°

12. The centroid of a triangle ABC is 8 cm from the vertex A. What is the length of the median of the triangle through A ?

(a) 20 cm
(b) 16 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 10 cm

13. The equation whose roots are twice the roots of the equation x² – 2x + 4 = 0 is x2

(a) x² – 2x + 4 = 0
(b) x² – 2x + 16 = 0
(c) x² – 4x + 8 = 0
(d) x² – 4x + 16 = 0

14. The outer and inner diameters of a circular pipe are 6 cm and 4 cm respectively. If its length is 10 cm, then what is the total surface area in square centimeters ?

(a) 55 p
(b) 110 p
(c) 150 p
(d) None of the above

15. A cylindrical rod of iron whose radius is one-fourth of its height is melted and cast into spherical balls of the same radius as that of the cylinder. What is the number of spherical balls ?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

16. These S = {x Î N : x + 3 = 3} is

(a) Null set
(b) Singleton set
(c) Infinite set
(d) None of the above

17. A telegraph post gets broken at a point against a storm and its top touches the ground at a distance 20 in from the base of the post making an angle 30° with the ground. What is the height of the post ?

(a) 40/Ö3 m
(b) 20/Ö3 m
(c) 40/Ö3 m
(d) 30 m

18. The sum of two numbers is 80. If the larger number exceeds four times the smaller by 5, what is the smaller number ?

(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25

19. Consider the following numbers

1. 247
2. 203

Which of the above numbers is/are prime?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

20. If x –1/x = 1/3, then what is 9x² + 9/x² equal to ?

(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 21

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(NEWS) UPSC Topper Anmol Sher Singh Bedi gets Rs 1 Crore from SGPC

SGPC gives Rs 1 lakh award to UPSC topper Bedi

The Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee on Sunday awarded Rs one lakh to Anmol Sher Singh Bedi for bagging the second rank in 2016 UPSC exams.

While honouring Bedi with a portrait of the Golden Temple, SGPC president Kirpal Singh Badungar said, he has set a precedent for others and is a source of inspiration for others.

He said the award money would also boost the confidence of Bedi and other Sikh candidates in the future.

In May, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) declared the final results of the civil services examination 2016, with Bedi securing the second rank in the prestigious all-India competition.

He has graduated in engineering from BITS, Pilani. — PTI

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CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2011- I Paper II: General English

Paper II: General English

COMPREHENSION

Directions: (For the 20 items which follow): In this Section you have four short passages. After each passage, you will find some questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinions of the author only.

PASSAGE I

Literature and history are twin sisters, inseparable. In the days of our own grandfathers, and. for many generations before them, the basis of education was the Greek and Roman classics for the educated, and the Bible for all. In the classical authors and in the Bible, history and literature were closely intervolved, and it is that circumstance which made the old form of education so stimulating to the thought and imagination of our ancestors. To read the classical authors and to read the Bible was to read at once the history and the literature of the three greatest races of the ancient world. No doubt the classics and the Bible were read in a manner we now consider uncritical but they were read according to the best tenets of the time and formed a great humanistic education. Today the study both of the classics and of the Bible has dwindled to small proportions. What has taken their place? To some extent the vacuum has been filled by a more correct knowledge of history and a wider range of literature. But I fear that the greater part of it has been filled up with rubbish.

1. Which of the following statements best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?

(a) Literature and history are mutually exclusive
(b) Literature and history are complementary to each other
(c) The study of literature is meaning less without any knowledge of history.
(d) Literature and history are inseparably linked together in the classics and the Bible

2. The author of the above passage says that in the past the basis of education for all people, irrespective of their intellectual calibre, was

(a) Greek and Roman classics
(b) The Bible
(c) A correct knowledge of history
(d) A wider range of literature

3. The author of the above passage says that the classics and the Bible were read by his ancestors

(a) methodically and with discretion.
(b) in a manner that broadened their view of life
(c) with great emphasis on their literary values
(d) without critical discrimination but in the light of their humanistic culture

4. According to the author of the above passage, the old form of education, based on the study of the classics and of the Bible, has

(a) succeeded in creating interest in history
(b) laid the basis of human civilization
(c) had a gradual decline in our time
(d) been rejuvenated in the context of modern education

5. The author of the above passage fears that the greater part of the vacuum created by lack of interest in the classics and the Bible has been filled up by(a) a richer sense of history

(b) a wider range of literature worthless ideas
(d) a new philosophy of life

PASSAGE II

During his early days as editor of the popular magazine, Saturday Evening Post. George Lorimer did much of the reading of unsolicited stories. This meant endless hours of sitting at the desk, pouring over big stacks of manuscripts, trying to decide which were worthy, of publication and which were not Lorimer became an expert at making these decisions. One day he received a huffy letter from a would be writer who had a complaint. “Last week you rejected my story,” she wrote. “I am positive you did not read it, because, as a test, I pasted together pages 14, 15 and 16. The manuscript came back with the pages still pasted. There is no question in my mind but that you are a sham and a disgrace to your profession.” Lorimer’s reply was succinct : “Madam, at breakfast when I crack open an egg, I don’t have to eat the whole egg to know it is bad.”

6. Lorimer did much reading of the stories

(a) if they were the solicited ones
(b) when they appeared to be bad
(c) when they were from women writers
(d) when they came unsolicited

7. Lorimer was a good editor becaus

(a) his reply to the angry writer was polite
(b) he apologized for rejecting the story without reading it
(c) he could find the worth of a story with a little effort
(d) he was prompt in writing letters

8. The lady wrote a huffy letter because

(a) her story was rejected
(b) her story was rejected unread
(c) her story was rejected although it was good
(d) Lorimer was biased in his decision

9. Lorimer’s reply was

(a) irrelevant (b) rude
(c) witty (d) funny

10. Lorimer read the stories.

(a) because he enjoyed reading them
(b) in order to publish them
(c) only to find fault with them
(d) in order to review them

PASSAGE III

As the tortoise tucks its feet and head inside the shell and will not come out even though you may break the shell into pieces, even so the character of the man who has control over his motives and organs, is unchangeably established. He controls his own inner forces, and nothing can draw them out against his will. By this continuous reflex of good thoughts and good impressions moving over the surface of the mind, the tendency to do good becomes strong, and in consequence, we are able to control the Indriyas or sense organs.

11. The author uses the phrase ‘inner forces’ in this passage. Which of the following would be its most correct meaning in the context ?

(a) Emotional disturbances in man
(b) Strength of the internal organs
(c) Forces produced by sense organs
(d) Reflection of the intellect

12. Which of the following statements would illustrate the metaphor in the passage ?

(a) Man is slow moving and slow witted
(b) A man of character refuses to be influenced by outside compulsions against his will
(c) Man confines himself to a life of isolation
(d) Man cannot have a good character or strong will

13. Which of the following statements may be assumed to reflect the central theme of the passage ?

(a) Good thoughts lead to the control of the sense organs
(b) Control of the sense organs leads to good thoughts
(c) Character though established may be disturbed by outside forces
(d) No man can achieve success in destroying the inner forces

14. Which of the following statements would be most correct in explaining the metaphorical meaning of ‘break the shell into pieces?

(a) Destruction of the human body
(b) Breaking of the physical environment of man
(c) Attempt to destroy man’s character
(d) Inflicting physical and mental agony on man

15. The passage consists of two long sentences and a short one. The purpose of this style could be to suggest that

(a) it is impossible for man to attain perfection of character
(b) the attainment of perfect character is the result of a long process of mental discipline
(c) the whole life process is clumsy
(d) there is a lot of confusion in our understanding of sense organs, character, etc.

PASSAGE IV

One of the most serious problems confronting our country is that of a fast growing population. In fact, it is at the root of many other problems. At the moment, thanks to planning, we are able to produce food and cloth sufficient for our people and even in some excess. But if the population continues to grow at this rate, it will not be long before the surplus turns into a bare minimum and even a deficit. The position in regard to accommodation is even now, far from satisfactory in spite of our efforts.

16. “It is at the root of many other problems” means that

(a) it is found along with many other problems
(b) it is caused by many other problems
(c) it gives rise to many other problems
(d) it is buried under many other problems

17. The present satisfactory position in regard to food and cloth is due to

(a) the fact that the population has been controlled
(b) our good luck
(c) good rainfall
(d) our economic planning

18. If the population of India continues to increase at this rate the situation in regard to food and cloth

(a) is likely to remain the same
(b) is likely to. become less satisfactory
(c) is likely to improve
(d) is likely to vary up and down

19. The situation in respect of accommodation

(a) is less than satisfactory
(b) is quite satisfactory
(c) is improving rapidly
(d) is the result of total neglect

20. At present Indians have

(a) more provision for cloth than accommodation
(b) more provision for accommodation than cloth
(c) abundance of cloth and accommo-dation
(d) scarcity of cloth and accommodation

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CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2011- Paper I: General Knowledge

Paper I: General Knowledge

Directions: The following seven (7) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below
Code

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is ‘not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

1. Statement I: In Vietnam War, Americans used powerful defoliants such as Agent Orange over large areas of dense forest and agricultural fields.
Statement II: Defoliants are very dangerous war weapons which leave. the forests and agricultural fields barren,

2. Statement I: Gandhiji failed to realize that the Khilafat was an extra-territorial issue.
Statement II: The cause of Khilafat was discredited by 1923 as Mustafa Kemal Pasha set up a secular republican government in Turkey.

3. Statement I: In north-western India, the Civil Disobedience Movement took a mass character under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.
Statement II: The Nehru Report (1928) had argued that the next immediate step for India must be Dominion Status.

4. Statement I: Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer of the House.
Statement II: When the Presiding Officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die.

5. Statement I: By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of India in the year 2003, the people of Indian origin residing in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status.
Statement II: This law enables them to participate in economic activities, cast their vote or get elected to various legislative bodies in India.

6. Statement I: The fundamental rights protect the rights and liberties of the people against encroachment by the legislative and executive wings of the government.
Statement II: The fundamental rights guarantee the rights of the citizens.

7. Statement I: The principle of equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India.
Statement II: The President of India enjoys some special privileges under the Constitution of India.

8. A close bottle containing water at room temperature was taken to the Moon and then the lid is opened. The water will

(a) freeze
(b) boil
(c) decompose into oxygen and hydrogen
(d) not change at all

9. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?

(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act

10. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct?

1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the questions of deciding fundamental rights with a duty to act judicially.
2. Writ of certiorari is available during the tendency of proceedings before a subordinate court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Code

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Which one among the following is not correct about Down’s syndrome?

(a) It is a genetic disorder
(b) Effected individual has early ageing
(c) Effected person has mental retardation
(d) Effected person has furrowed tongue with open mouth

12. The rainfall distribution pattern over the Ganga basin decreases from the

(a) west to east and north to south
(b) east to west and north to south
(c) west to east and south to north
(d) east to west and south to north

13. Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities?

(a) Iron
(b) Chloride
(c) Fluoride
(d) Potassium

14. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) The Second : Defeat of  Battle of Tarain Jaichand of Kanauj by Muhammad of Ghur
(b) The First Battle : Defeat of  of Panipat Sikandar Lodi by Babur
(c) The Battle of : Defeat of  Chausa Humayun by Sher Shah
(d) The Battle of : Defeat of Rana  Khanwa Pratap by Akbar

15. The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill, passed in the Lok Sabha on August 2010, does not make provision for

(a) establishment of claims commission and appointment of claims commissioner
(b) a liability cap of ` 1,500 crore on an operator in case of an accident
(c) a liability cap of ` 1,500 crore also on the Government of India in case of an accident
(d) liability of the operator even if an accident is unintentional

16. Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act makes a paradigm shift from the previous wage employment programmes by

(a) focusing on all round development of the rural people
(b) providing wage employment in rural areas a legal binding for the State Governments
(c) providing a statutory guarantee of wage employment
(d) augmenting food security through wage employment in rural areas

17. Contact lenses are made from

(a) polyvinyl chloride
(b) polystyrene
(c) Lucite
(d) Teflon

18. Which one among the following best explains the reason for the eastern and western boundaries of the Pacific Ocean experiencing frequent earthquake?

(a) There are deep ocean trenches along these margins
(b) High mountain stretch along the continental margins adjacent to this ocean
(c) The currents of the vast Pacific Ocean continue to dash against the continental margins
(d) These margins coincide with the plate margins

19. The blackboard seems black because it

(a) reflects every colour
(b) does not reflect any colour
(c) absorbs black colour
(d) reflects black colour

20. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of

(a) its first meeting
(b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat
(c) declaration of the election results
(d) taking oath of office by the elected members

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(NEWS) IAS, IFS, IPS top choices for civil service aspirants : Assocham

IAS top choice for civil service aspirants: Study

New Delhi, Jul 11 (PTI) IAS remains the most preferred choice for civil services aspirants followed by IFS and IPS, says a study by industry body Assocham.

Citing data of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Assocham said as many as 11,35,943 candidates took the civil services preliminary examination in 2016 as compared to 9,45,908 in the previous year.

"IAS remains the top most choice for the aspirants who are enamoured by the clout and powers, much improved salaries, perks and above all, the social status that goes with the civil servants in the drivers seats of administration," it said.

The Indian Foreign Service (IFS) has been the second best choice for the aspirants because of its "cool" and "intellectual" nature of the job, it said, adding the Indian Police Service (IPS) is the third best choice.
Further, the Assochams paper said that there has been an increased intake in the civil services from economically backward states like Bihar and Odisha.

This may be "because more and more boys and girls from the advanced states like Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Maharashtra are opting for high-end private sector jobs either in India or abroad," Assocham Secretary General D S Rawat said. PTI RR MR

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CAPF-AC Solved Papers : 2014

Directions (1-7): The following items consists of two Statements I and II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the code given below.

Codes

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

1. Statements

I. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution and the members enjoy a tenure of six years.
II. According to Article 83 of the Constitution of India, one-third of members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years.

Ans : (a)

2. Statements

I. Impeachment procedure is a quasi-judicial procedure and the President of India can be impeached only on the grounds of violation of the Constitution.
II. The impeachment procedure can be initiated in either House of the Parliament.

Ans : (b)

3. Statements

I. James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of the East India Company, deciphered Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts which were used in the earliest inscriptions and coins.
II. James Prinsep found that most of the scripts mentioned a king referred to as Piyadassi-meaning 'pleasant to behold'.

Ans : (b)

4. Statements

I. The rich sculptural tradition of Mathura is distinguished by its principal medium, the white spotted red sandstone.
J. The white spotted red sandstone is locally available in Mathura region.

Ans : (a)

5. Statements

I. The cities of the second urbanization in Indian history are mainly located in the Ganga valley.
II. Advanced iron technology, ensuring an agrarian surplus is instrumental to this process of urbanization.

Ans : (a)

6. Statements

I. The Doldrums is a low pressure area around the Equator where the prevailing winds are calm.
J. Low pressure is caused by the heat at the Equator which makes the air rise and travel both Northwards and Southwards.

Ans : (a)

7. Statements

I. Roaring Forties are strong Westerly winds found in the Southern Hemisphere, generally between the latitudes of 40° and 50°.
II. The strong East to West air currents are caused by the combination of air being' displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the Earth's rotation and there are few landmasses to serve as wind breaks.

Ans : (d)

8. Which one of the following statements with regard to the revised ceiling' on poll expenditure for elections in India is correct?

(a) Rs. 40 lakh per candidate for all Lok Sabha as well as Assembly Constituencies
(b) Rs. 70 lakh per candidate for all Lok Sabha Constituencies
(c) Rs. 70 lakh per candidate for Lok Sabha Constituencies for all states except Arunachal Pradesh. Goa and Sikkim
(d) Rs. 70 lakh per' candidate for Lok Sabha Constituencies for all states except Union Territories.

Ans : (c)

9. Which of the following does not relate to the Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India?

1. Free and compulsory education to all children of the 'age of 6-14 yr.
2. Prohibition of trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
3. Improvement of Public health and prohibition of intoxicating drinks.
4. Promotion of the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) 3 and 4

Ans : (d)

10. Which one among the following regarding the Ahadis of the Mughal period is not true?

(a) They were individual troopers
(b) They were placed under a separate Diwan and Bakhshi
(c) They were ordinarily not placed under the Mansabdars
(d) Their salary was at par with the Mansabdars

Ans : (d)

11. Consider the following.

In March 2014 mortal remains of a number of Indian soldiers of 1857 mutiny were exhumed from a well at ………. These mortal remains are of ……. who revolted against the British.
Complete the statements with appropriate information.

(a) Jallianwala Bagh, 36 Regiment of Sikh Infantry
(b) Lahore, 75 Regular Native Infantry Regiment
(c) Ajnala, 26 Regiment of Bengal Native Infantry
(d) Satti Chaura Ghat, 19 Regiment of Bengal Native Infantry

Ans : (c)

12. When a, fall in price of a commodity reduces total expenditure and a rise in price increases it, price elasticity of demand will be

(a) l
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) Infinity

Ans : (c)

13. Which one among the following cannot be attributed to Shahjahan's reign?

(a) Moti Masjid
(b) Oila-i-Kuhna Masjid
(c) Jama Masjid
(d) Rimg Mahal

Ans : (b)

14. The historical drama film '12 Years a Slave' which was adjudged best picture at 86th Academy Awards presented in March 2014, is based on 1853 memoir of the same name by

(a) Steve McQueen
(b) Solomon Northup
(c) BradPitt
(d) Matthew McConaughey

Ans : (b)

15. Which of the following are true regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

1. The Objective Resolution was proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru and passed by the Constituent Assembly which ultimately 15ecame the preamble.
2. The idea of the preamble was borrowed from the Constitution of USA.
3. The words Socialist and Secular were adopted by the 42nd, Amendment in 1976.
4. The preamble, incorporates the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India,

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans : (a)

16. Which one among the following is not true of bead-making as a salient feature of mature Harappan crafts?

(a) Harappan beads were made of gold, copper, shell, lapis lazuli, ivory and a variety of semi-precious stones
(b) Archaeologists have identified bead-makers shops on the basis of assernblaqes of - unfinished objects
(c) At Chanhudaro, tools, furnaces and beads in various stages of preparations have been found
(d) The structure of Banawali, yielded many beads in finished, semi-finished arid unfinished states

Ans : (d)

17. Composition of the biography of the Buddha occupies a special place in Buddhist literature. Which one among the following is a full-fledged biography of the Buddha?

(a) Lalitavistara
(b) Milind Panho
(c) Sariputra-prakarana
(d) Avadanasataka

Ans : (d)

18. Which one among the following statements about the GSLV-D5 launched by India on 5th January, 2014 is not true?

(a) It puts India in an elite club with Russia, USA, China, Japan and France
(b) It uses an indigenously built cryogenic engine
(c) It can place communication satellites into orbit without depending on any other country
(d) It placed INSAT-14 precisely into its orbit

Ans : (a)

19. The leader of which one .of the following countries has recently executed his deputy who happened to be his own uncle?

(a) South Sudan
(b) Syria
(c) Myanmar
(d) North Korea

Ans : (a)

20. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) The Panchayat system exists in all states of India except Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram. It also exists in all Union Territories except Delhi
(b) The Panchayat system is introduced in India by the Constitution 74th Amendment Act and envisages a three tier system of Local Governance
(c) Panchayat system is not provided for states having less than 2 million population
(d) Gram Panchayat can continue for 3 years from the date of election .

Ans : (d)

केन्द्रीय सशस्त्र पुलिस बल (सहायक कमांडेंट) के लिये स्टडी किट

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CAPF-AC Solved Papers : 2013

1. The Chipko Movement

1. was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees
2. raised the question of ecological and economic exploitation
3. is a movement against alcoholism as its broadened agenda
4. demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (a)

2. The Parliament of India may form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by unifying any territory to a part of any State. Which of the following procedures is/are true in this regard?

1. By a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process
2. On the recommendation of the President, who usually has to refer the bill to the legislature of the State(s) which is/are going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill
3. On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans : (a)

3. A bill introduced in the Parliament, in order to become an Act, has to have which of the following procedures to be followed?

1. It is to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. The President has to give his/her assent.
3. The Prime Minister has to sign it after the ratification by the Parliament.
4. The Supreme Court has to approve and declare it to be within the jurisdiction of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans : (a)

4. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. Offices connected with a religious or denominated institution may be reserved for members professing the particular religion to which the institution relates.
2. The State may reserve any post or appointment in favour of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under that State.
3. No citizen shall, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or any of them, be ineligible for any office under the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans : (d)

5. Consider the following statements:

1. While the Fundamental Rights constitute limitations on State action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to do certain things and to achieve certain goals by their actions.
2. The Directive Principles, however, require to be implemented by legislations and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive Principle, neither the State nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal rights under the colour of getting a Directive.
3. The Directive Principles are enforceable in the courts and create justiciable rights in favour of the individual.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 only

Ans : (c)

6. Consider the following statements

1. It shall be the, endeavour of every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in mother tongue at the primary state of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
2. The- Constitution enjoins the Union of India to provide and promote the spread of Hindi language and to develop it, so that it, may serve as a medium of expression of, all the elements of the composite culture of India.

Which of the ·statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (c)

7. Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and the expenditure relating to his/her office.
2. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People.
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

Ans : (d)

8. Which of the following are the privileges of the House of the People collectively?

1. The right to' publish debates and proceedings and the right to restrain publication by others.
2. The right to exclude others to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime.
3. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges.
4. What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however can be inquired into in a court of law.

Select the correct answer-using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these

Ans : (a)

9. A bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it contains only provisions dealinq with

1. the imposition, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. the regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
4. the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

Ans : (a)

10. Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker of the House of the People is/are correct?

1. The Speaker's conduct in regulating the procedure of maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdiction of any court.
2. Besides presiding over his/her own House, the Speaker possesses certain powers like presiding over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament".
3. While a resolution for his/her removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall preside but shall have no right to speak and shall have no right to vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

Ans : (b)

11. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he

1. holds' any office of profit under the Government of. India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law.
2. is of unsound mind and stands, so declared by a competent court.
3. Remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

Ans : (d)

12. Consider the following statements reqarding termination of sitting of a House

1. Only the House of the People is subject to dissolution
2. The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
3. The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House, of the People and the Council: of 'States belongs' to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively.
4. The Parliament cannot be dissolved as it is a permanent chamber.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans : (a)

13. Consider the following statements

1. A person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers.
2. Anyone can be appointed as a member of the Council of Ministers for a maximum period of 3 years.
3. A person shall not be less than 25 years of age in order to become a minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

Ans : (c)

14. The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed

1. to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union.
2. members of the defence forces
3. officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court in India.

Select-the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) only 2
(d) 2 and 3

Ans : (a)

15. The following are some of the items of expenditure of the Central Government in India.

1. Interest payments
2. Major subsidies
3. Pensions
4. Loans and advances

Which of the above is/are included in non-plan revenue expenditure?

(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (c)

16. If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at the concept of

(a) primary deficit
(b) net fiscal deficit
(c) budgetary deficit
(d) effective revenue deficit

Ans : (d)

17. Which one among the following items has maximum weight in wholesale price index in India?

(a) Primary article
(b) Fuel and power
(c) Manufactured product
(d) Food item

Ans : (c)

18. Which among the following agencies disbursed maximum credit to tile agricultural sector in India between 2006-0J-and 2011-12?

(a) Cooperative banks
(b) Regional rural banks
(c) Commercial banks
(d) Moneylenders

Ans : (c)

19. Consider the following statements

1. Repo Rate is the interest rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks for short period.
2. Reverse Repo Rate is the interest rate which RBI pays to commercial banks on short-term deposits.
3. Gap between Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate has been declining in India in the recent past.

Which of 'the statements above is/are not correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 2 and 3

Ans : (c)

20. The rate of inflation in India is measured generally in respect of movement of

(a) consumer price index
(b) wholesale price index
(c) cost of living index for agricultural labour
(d) money supply

Ans : (b)

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Current Development

Aadhaar and inclusion of people

Ironically, the UIDAI revealed its draconian face, serving a legal notice to those who exposed flaws in the Aadhaar eco-system, Ajay Pandey (CEO, UIDAI), wrote, “The critics tend to forget that Aadhaar empowers the people, not the state”. However, government data reveals that Pandey is wrong to believe that “Aadhaar empowers the people”.

Peddling long-debunked assertions on savings as facts without any proof is an old UIDAI strategy. Pandey’s strongest claim, “an independent study by the World Bank”, reportedly estimates that “Aadhaar can potentially save Rs 72,000 crore every year by plugging leakages.” Actually, the study only states that “the value of these transfers is estimated to be Rs 70,000 crores ($11.3 billion) per annum”. There is no estimate of potential savings.

Pandey claims that Aadhaar has “cleansed delivery databases of fakes, duplicates and con men/intermediaries”. Job cards and ration cards cancelled in the course of routine updation (or “cleansing”) drives are attributed to Aadhaar. In fact, in many cases, the cancellation pre-dates integration with Aadhaar. For instance, the 20 lakh cards deleted in 2014-15 in West Bengal are credited to Aadhaar-integration though only 15,000 cards were Aadhaar-seeded on March 2015.

The case of LPG subsidies is well-documented. In July 2015, Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) Arvind Subramanian wrote in The New York Times that cash transfers resulted in “estimated savings of about $2 billion”. Yet, Cabinet Secretariat minutes from November 2015 report only Rs 91 crore savings due to Aadhaar. Later, the CEA himself clarified that it was potential (not actual) savings he had in mind, but the government still uses the earlier figures. The government’s claim on deleted ration cards is also interesting. Out of 1.2 crore deleted cards, 62 lakh were from West Bengal. Here’s the catch: All states (except West Bengal) report the number of cards in terms of families; West Bengal reports individuals. The ministry ignores the difference in units, adds them up, thus inflating the numbers.

Why are governments resorting to such desperate measures to defend Aadhaar? Primarily because during UPA 2, they over-sold the benefits of Aadhaar. For instance, Aadhaar cannot reduce quantity fraud. When a PDS dealer undersells, whether I am forced to put my thumbprint in a paper register or a POS machine makes no difference to quantity fraud.

Aadhaar cannot enhance inclusion. Possession of Aadhaar alone cannot guarantee benefits (say, pensions or scholarships), one still has to meet the eligibility criteria of those programmes. Exclusion from welfare was rarely due to the lack of ID documents (in a response to an RTI query, 99.97 per cent of those who enrolled in Aadhaar did it on the basis of existing ID documents). What Aadhaar can fix is identity fraud — for example, if I illegally get two ration cards or duplicates. But then, Aadhaar is one among several ways of de-duplication, and not the most efficient either — smart cards, or even painting the full list of beneficiaries on panchayat walls works well to identify ghosts and duplicates!

The key question with respect to identity fraud (and the Aadhaar project) is what Senior Advocate Arvind Datar asked the government in court (during the PAN-Aadhaar linkage case), “Did you do any study?” The fact is there is no reliable evidence on the scale of identity fraud in welfare programmes. We are told that people are getting their benefits “directly from the government without middlemen usurping them” due to Aadhaar. Three clarifications are in order: One, benefits under some of the schemes he lists have been credited into bank accounts for years, so middlemen were absent from the payment process to start with. For example, payment of MGNREGA wages into bank and post office accounts became mandatory in 2009. Two, where middlemen existed (pensions delivered by a postman who demanded money), one type of middleman has been replaced by another (banking correspondents have taken the place of postmen). Three, the Aadhaar eco-system is breeding an army of middlemen (enrolment, re-enrolment of biometrics, Aadhaar-seeding, correcting demographic details, etc).

Meanwhile, Aadhaar is also disempowering people. For example, names are being struck off pension lists without people’s knowledge (say, for not submitting their Aadhaar number) or MGNREGA wages get “lost” in the electronic payment system. In Rajasthan, more than 10 per cent of PDS beneficiaries are unable to get their ration after Aadhaar-based Biometric Authentication (ABBA) was introduced. Monthly authentication of any one member is pointless: If someone dies, I can continue to claim their ration. At the very least, the government should move to annual authentication of all members, put people out of their monthly misery. Since 2009, we were lulled into believing that privacy is the price we pay for better welfare programmes. In 2009, the present National Security Advisor A.K. Doval rightly said: “Now, it is being projected as more development-oriented, lest it ruffle any feathers. People would be unwilling to give up their right to privacy.” Welfare, efficiency, transparency, empowerment, etc., was the sugar-coating.

The real beneficiary @ Reetika Khera

(Source- The Indian Express)

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CAPF-AC Solved Papers : 2012

1. Consider the following statements

1. The Planning Commission of India in its environ- ment performance report, released on 26th July, 2012 ranked Himachal Pradesh as top State in the country on environmental performance index.
2. The World Bank approved a Rs. 1100 crore loan for Himachal Pradesh to promote green initiatives and sustainable development in the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (c)

2. India signed an agreement to avoid double taxation and prevent fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on income on 27th July, 2012 with

(a) Japan
(b) Indonesia
(c) Sweden
(d) Bangladesh

Ans : (b)

3. India's Kulandei Francis was awarded the year 2012 Ramon Magsaysay Award for his

(a) visionary zeal and profound faith in community energies and his sustained programmes in pursuing the holistic economic empowerment of women and their families
(b) steadfast passion in placing the power and discipline of science in the hands of farmers
(c) passionate comrnitmen as a journalist to restore the rural poor to 'India's consciousness, moving the nation to action
(d) convincing validation of free and fair elections as the foundation and best hope of secular democracy in strifetorn India

Ans : (a)

4. Which among the following statements about the acquisition of wireless division of WPCS International by a Bengaluru-based Indian Firm Kavveri Telecom in July 2012 is/are correct?

1. WPCS International has been into the business of wireless communication making solutions used by the police officers, firemen and other emergency services.
2. Kavveri Telecom makes cell phone tower antennas, Radio Frequency (RF) components, repeaters and other telecom products.
3. WPCS International is a London-based firm.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

Ans : (b)

5. Facing the East R walks straight 4 km, turns left and walks 3 km and again turns left and walks 4 km. How far is R now from the starting point?

(a) 2km
(b) 3 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 11 km

Ans : (b)

6. Which of the following is the odd one?

(a) 31
(b) 41
(c) 51
(d) 61

Ans : (c)

7. The missing number in the box is

3     4       52
5     11     126
?     9       107

(a) 6
(b) 18
(c) 26
(d) 36

Ans : (c)

8. The average of x, y and z is 30, and the average of x and y is 20. What is the value of z?

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50

Ans : (d)

9. Three dice, whose all six faces are marked '1' to '6', are thrown. The number of ways of getting a sum of 16 is

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 12

Ans : (c)

10. The constitutional principle of the 'Basic Structure' was invented by the

(a) Executive
(b) Judiciary
(c) Legislature
(d) Civil Society

Ans : (b)

11. Consider the following statements about Parliamentary Committees

1. They are a subset of Council of Ministers.
2. The scrutiny of Legislative and Constitutional Amendment Bills gets done in these Committees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (b)

12. Consider the following statements about Indian elections

1. The Constitution provides that elections to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States are to be held on the basis of Universal adult suffrage.
2. The Constitution stipulates that there will be separate electoral rolls for Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (a)

13. Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution

1. In addition to the structure of the Government, it has also concerned itself with some aspects of a desirable civil society and economy.
2. Through Amendments in the year 1976, it has also outlined the Fundamental Duties of citizens along with their rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (c)

14. Wi-Fi in a computer implies

(a) wired local area network
(b) wireless local area network
(c) high fidelity
(d) high efficiency

Ans : (b)

15. A television remote uses

(a) infrared waves
(b) cosmic waves
(c) micro waves
(d) ether waves

Ans : (a)

16. A microwave oven uses wave with a

(a) large wavelength in the invisible range
(b) small wavelength in the visible range
(c) large wavelength in the visible range
(d) small wavelength in the invisible range

Ans : (a)

17. A thin pin of iron can be made to float on water (drinking) in a bowl. This phenomenon is due to the

(a) surface tension of water
(b) viscous nature of water
(c) presence of ionic bonds in water molecules
(d) presence of covalent bonds in water molecules

Ans : (a)

18. To start your loaded trolley bag, you exert more force than when it is moving. This is an example of

(a) first law of thermodynamics
(b) second law of thermodynamics
(c) Newton's second law of motion
(d) Newton's first law of motion

Ans : (d)

19. You placed a car in an open parking area in a summer day. After a few hours, you noticed that the heat is trapped inside the car. This phenomenon is known as

(a) ozone depletion
(b) greenhouse effect
(e) solar effect
(d) cosmic ray impingement

Ans : (b)

20. Which one among the following Princely States opted for a direct dealing with the Constituent Assembly in the year 1946, instead of through the Chamber of Princes:

(a) Baroda
(b) Travancore
(e) Junagadh
(d) Mysore

Ans : (a)

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Ethics and Integrity

Outrage is a barometer of society’s moral fibre

Outrage is a powerful emotion. Mobilised collectively, it can lead to the elimination of regressive social practices as well as the adoption of forward-looking practices and laws. On the other hand, it can also be manipulated to demonise whole social groups for the crime of one person. Political and social leaders are often recognised by the kind of outrage they seek to generate in society as well as by the kind of outrageous issues they pick to mobilise public opinion.

Genuine leaders seek to generate outrage against practices like untouchability, slavery and misogyny. And then there are leaders who seek to channelise national outrage, for example like the kind Germany felt after it was shabbily treated at the hands of the victors of the First World War. Leveraging that outrage, these leaders transformed Germany into a nation of “willing executioners.” That, of course, was the provocative title of Daniel Goldhagen’s chilling history of the Nazis.

By this token, a sense of outrage can also serve as an indicator of the moral fibre of a society and an individual.

In this era of information revolution and mass media, it is a lot easier to generate powerful public emotions like outrage. In our own country, evening after evening, we are treated to shouting spectacles of anchors and panelists feeling outraged about cross-border terrorism, corruption as well as the marital lives of the wealthy and powerful. In fact, mass media does not merely express outrage, it actively manufactures it on the issues of its choice.

Presumably, we all have a vested interest in democracy. At the same time, our upwardly mobile classes seem to be fast forgetting that democracy is not a merely a game of numbers; it is actually about the autonomy of individuals and institutions coupled with a democratic temperament in everyday practices and rule of law.

Reducing democracy to a numbers game is a very dangerous situation, given the fact, that contrary to our smug self perception, we are quite a violent society with a lot of conflicts inbuilt in our social structure. That is why, genuine leaders have always been careful not to encourage the idiom of revenge in our social and political life even as they struggle against the social approval of violence.

Mahatma Gandhi never tired of reminding us that ‘anti-social’ elements indulging in riots do not drop from the sky; they are the product of society, and become effective only because of the community’s approval and glorification of their actions.

But in today’s “new India”, such caution is being thrown out of the window. Now, you don’t need a riot-like situation to witness a mob indulging in mindless violence and heartless brutality. Like many other post-independence “firsts”, we have for the first time a mob attacking a household and lynching a man, Akhlaq, on the suspicion that he had eaten beef. That was September 2015.

To a truly democratic temperament, this incident should have served as a warning bell. There should have been not only condemnation, but sustained outrage cutting across political opinion and positions. But, instead of outrage, there was rationalisation and both implicit and explicit approval of the lynching. Small wonder that another man was recently murdered in Rajasthan on a similar charge by a mob of similar political persuasion.

In close succession came the heinous lynching of seven people in Jharkhand, fed by the rumour of child-trafficking. Not only does this incident show a complete lack of faith in the rule of law but also total freedom from the fear of law. The members of the crowd were concerned with the security of their children; they had no faith in the system, and at the same time, felt confident enough to mete out “justice” to the suspects.

These incidents are not mere aberrations. Even if they were, they would be cause for concern for the future of Indian democracy. They are examples of vigilante justice being delivered by self-appointed guardians of morality. Unfortunately, such activities have been reported even from non-BJP ruled states; Uttar Pradesh, under BJP rule however, has taken a qualitative leap in the direction of a new kind of authoritarianism by according such activities official approval.

So let’s take a look at the India of today, seventy years after our forefathers fought a freedom struggle not only against the British but also against the many social evils within: Vigilantism has got official approval, lynching hardly merits either outrage or attention in the media, fear and aggression has become the normal way to live and the state has become more and more intrusive and oppressive.

The question we must ask ourselves these days, every day, is: Are we really very far from lynching the very idea of democracy?

Lynching democracy? Your outrage is a barometer of society’s moral fibre
@Purushottam Agrawal

(Source- The Indian Express)

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CAPF-AC Solved Papers : 2011

1. Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) The following items consist of two statements I and II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

1. Statement I The US Army built the historic Stilwell Road in 1943 running from Ledo in Asom to the China-Burma Road.
Statement II The objective was to form a link with the Bengal-Asom Railway and carry support for the US and the UK warfare against Japan.

Ans : (a)

2. Statement I The recent national election results in India are indicative of a transition towards a new region based multi-party coalition system.
Statement II The intensification of competitive polities has changed the party system in India from being a rivalry between national parties into one between alliances and coalition of national and state parties.

Ans : (b)

3. Statement I In forensic investigations, DNA fingerprinting tests are carried out.
Statement II In DNA fingerprinting technique, DNA is isolated and subjected to Northern Blotting.

Ans : (c)

4. Statement I The Earth is shaped more like a tangerine.
Statement II The Earth spins faster at the Poles.

Ans : (b)

5. Statement I India used the Minimum Credible Deterrent argument to develop its nuclear weapon system arguing that it had such a threat from China. Pakistan in turn used the same argument against India when it developed its own nuclear weapons.
Statement II The Minimum Credible Deterrent refers to a notion according to which nuclear weapons become necessary for a country when it has a clear nuclear threat.

Ans : (a)

6. Which one among the following statements relating to a cyclone is not correct?

(a) It is a wind circulation system with a low pressure at the centre
(b) It brings about sudden change in weather condition in an area
(c) Wind movement towards the low pressure centre of a cyclone is clockwise in the northern hemisphere
(d) It is known as hurricane in West Indies

Ans : (c)

7. Which one among the following forces in most powerful in determining movement of wind including its velocity?

(a) Gravitational force
(b) Centrifugal force
(c) Frictional force
(d) Pressure gradient force

Ans : (c)

8. Which of the following statements relating to the planet Venus is/are correct?

1. It is the nearest planet from the Sun.
2. It is only slightly smaller than the Earth.
3. It has no atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) 1 and 2

Ans : (c)

9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

List I                 List II
(River)             (Tributary)

A. Godavari      1. Son
B. Krishna        2. Chambal
C. Yamuna       3. Bhima
D. Ganga          4. Manjira

    A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 3 2 4

Ans : (a)

10. Which of the following statements regarding United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is/are correct?

1. The theme for the year 2011 is 'Forest: Nature at Your Service'.
2. It underscores link between quality of life and health and forest ecosystem.
3. India is declared as a global host of World Environment Day 2011.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Ans : (a)

11. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

     A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4

Ans : (a)

12. Which one among the following statements regarding SAARC is correct?

(a) Myanmar is a member of SAARC
(b) Headquarters of SAARC is located in Dhaka
(c) The first SAARC award was posthumously conferred upon late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh
(d) The present Secretary General of SAARC is from India.

Ans : (c)

13. Which of the following statements regarding Chipko Movement is/are correct?

1. Chipko Movement took place in the early 1970s against the introduction of commercial forestry.
2. Chipko refers to a single movement and nor a collective of several movements.
3. Chipko did not begin as a movement for conservation but primarily as an economic struggle, the root of which lay in rural and peasant protests.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) 1 and 2

Ans : (d)

14. Which one among the following wars was ended by the Treaty of Madras?

(a) First Carnatic War
(b) Second Carnatic War
(c) First Mysore War
(d) Second Mysore War

Ans : (c)

15. The Harappan civilization covered an extensive area of present South Asia. The geographic space covered by this civilization included

(a) Kashmir, Punjab, Sindh and Northeastern frontier
(b) Punjab, Sindh, Northeastern frontier and Kashmir
(c) Punjab, Sindh and a part of Northwestern frontier
(d) Punjab, Sindh, a part of Northwestern frontier, Kathiawar and a part of Ganga-Yamuna Doab

Ans : (d)

16. Sarhul is a festival celebrated during spring by the

(a) Dimasas
(b) Santhals
(c) Khasis
(d) Jarawas

Ans : (b)

17. Right to Information is

(a) fundamental right
(b) legal right
(c) neither fundamental right nor legal right
(d) both fundamental right as well as legal right

Ans : (b)

18. While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended by not exceeding

(a) three months
(b) nine months
(c) one year at a time
(d) two years at a time

Ans : (c)

19. Which one among the following statements holds good in respect of the Rajya Sabha?

(a) One-third of its members retire after every three years
(b) Two-thirds of its members retire after every three years
(c) Two-thirds of its members retire after every two years
(d) One-third of its members retire after every two years

Ans : (d)

20. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct?

1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption.
3. They are applicable only to citizens of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

Ans : (c)

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Niti Aayog

Niti Aayog’s Draft Action Agenda

The Niti Aayog, in its Draft Three Year Action Agenda, has drawn attention to the need for a sustainable plan for solid waste management in Indian cities. However, the Aayog has taken the stand that incineration or “Waste to Energy” is the best option as a sustainable disposal solution for the solid waste of larger cities. The contention is that biogas and composting for waste management generate by-products or residues in large volumes that larger cities will find difficult to dispose of efficiently.

This reasoning is flawed. The Niti Aayog fails to point out that when incineration plants in cities use unsegregated waste to generate electricity, they emit toxic gases as by-products and irresponsibly dispose of these “dangerous by-products” in the air. When we do not have effective mechanisms for monitoring emissions, the health hazard becomes even more challenging. The National Green Tribunal recently levied a penalty on the incineration plant at Okhla in Delhi for its violations of emission norms, but residents in the neighbourhood of Okhla have approached the Supreme Court with a Public Interest Litigation for the relocation of the plant. The Niti Aayog’s Draft Action Agenda neither incorporates lessons from the experience of incineration plants in Delhi, nor does it take note of the many success stories of biomethanation in a number of Indian cities, including some large cities.

Incineration technologies require a continuous supply of waste with a sufficiently high calorific value and a low moisture content. Aman Luthra, in a recent article in the Economic and Political Weekly (in April) has examined whether these conditions hold in India, using empirical evidence from Delhi. He demonstrates that Indian waste is not suitable for incineration because it has too high a moisture content, leading to low calorific value. The high-tech gasification plant in Pune that I had written about in this column in 2012 (‘Clean it like Pune’, IE, October 31, 2012) closed down precisely for these reasons. A 2016 study by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) finds that the calorific value of Indian waste is 800-1000 kcal per kg; it needs to be at least 2000 kcal per kg to be suitable for incineration.

India’s old tradition of kabadiwalas and the recycling of paper, glass, plastic, etc., becomes a contributing factor to the low calorific value of our municipal waste. A study by the United Nations Environment Program in 2009 found that India’s informal recycling sector “recovers much of the dry, high calorific material leaving a moist residue with high green waste content unsuitable for production of combustible ‘fluff’ without considerable pre-treatment (that is, drying)”. Progressive states like California in the US have established a new recycling goal of 75 per cent by 2020 — should we not be trying to recycle more, rather than move backwards to avoid recycling, and improve the calorific value of the waste we generate, so that the incineration plants can work?

Generating energy from waste is only one aspect of waste management — it is by no means the most efficient or the most economical means of generating energy. The policy focus must not sway from examining the financial and environmental costs and benefits of the different alternatives for waste management. In Waste to Energy, technology is moving fast, regulatory challenges are enormous and the challenges of enforcing emission standards are even greater.

The Niti Aayog has recommended setting up a Waste to Energy Corporation of India under the Ministry of Urban Development, “which may set up world-class waste to energy plants through public-private partnerships (PPP) across the country”. They have invoked the example of the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) which organises PPP efforts in roads. But the parallel is inappropriate.

First, the land on which highways are built is already owned by the Government of India; there are no acquisition issues. Besides, the NHAI is a well-funded agency which receives the proceeds of the cess on petrol and diesel plus toll revenues. No such revenue is available for a new Central corporation on solid waste management. Will the Ministry of Finance fund this? The land on which plants will be built belongs to urban local governments or state governments. Should the Central government set up a corporation to undertake tasks which are urban local bodies’ responsibility? This goes against cooperative federalism.

Surprisingly, the Niti Aayog is silent on the segregation of wet waste from dry waste at the source of generating waste. Incentives for segregation and a penalty for non-segregation must be the first action point of any agenda on municipal solid waste management. Solid Waste Management Rules (2016) are a significant improvement over the Municipal Solid Waste Rules (2000) in emphasising the need for the enforcement of segregation and recommending change in municipal by-laws which allow for cost recovery in the collection of waste segregated at source and imposing a penalty for non-segregation. The Niti Aayog has missed an opportunity to build on this opening. Even though it is often claimed that incineration can take unsegregated waste, segregating biodegradable waste and inert waste also helps improve the calorific value of dry waste.

About half of the solid waste generated in Indian cities is biodegradable. If this is segregated at source, it can be collected and delivered at a local biomethanation plant for anaerobic processing. Unlike composting, in which gases are released into the environment, biomethanation allows the capture of biogas which can be used for cooking or for electricity generation; it also produces liquid fertiliser. For example, NISARGRUNA technology for biomethanation was developed by Sharad Kale, a professor at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre at Mumbai. It is being used in Pune, Matheran, Chennai, Kalameshwar, Mumbai, Coimbatore and several other cities. Small-scale plants in individual localities are operating with a capacity to treat anywhere from 0.5 to 20 tonnes per day of biodegradable waste. There are also a number of other companies providing biomethanation solutions for segregated municipal solid waste, for example, Green Power Systems and Mailhem.

If this practice can be replicated across the board, 50 per cent of the waste in urban India does not need to be hauled over long distances to waste to energy plants and landfills, resulting in significant savings on transport. At present, 20 to 30 per cent of the municipal government’s budget on solid waste is spent on transporting waste.

The decentralised strategy for treating biodegradable waste is as much relevant for large cities as for small. Individual households, housing societies, Resident Welfare Associations and bulk generators, like hotels and sabzi mandis, should be at the centre of the movement to get segregation going — only biodegradable waste generated in the area must be processed in the local plant; the waste must be delivered to the plant in closed containers and processed within a specified short period, while the biogas and liquid fertiliser must be used to derive environmental benefits.

This has been demonstrated to work. I saw the Matheran plant in operation where all the hotel biodegradable waste of this tourist town is processed without any odour and the biogas is used for lighting street lamps. In an ongoing review of the biomethanation plants in Pune, S.P. Kale, the head of the Symbiosis Centre for Waste Resource Management in Pune and the Pune Municipal Corporation are working to strengthen the system of technical monitoring and strict maintenance.

I must compliment the Niti Aayog for including action points on these important but complex issues in their Draft Action Agenda. They must follow up with extensive consultation with subject experts, stakeholders and practitioners in state governments and urban local governments.

Cities at crossroads: Don’t just light the fire @ Isher Judge Ahluwalia

 (Source- The Indian Express)

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Accountability and Control

Question of public trust

                                        - Vidya Krishnan

The right lessons must be learnt from the Zika cover-up

At last, it became apparent that the Health Ministry had, for many months, kept it under wraps that India has so far reported three cases of the Zika virus. The earliest case was that of a 64-year-old man, who had tested positive for Zika as early as November 2016.

From what is now in the public domain, we know that the government has violated established protocols in many ways, each having serious national and international implications.

By not briefing the media or the global public health community, India broke a well-established protocol of sharing information with the affected community and neighbouring nations, who could have taken necessary precautions such as issuing travel advisories. More important, the Health Ministry collected nearly 35,000 samples from people living in the Bapunagar area of Ahmedabad without informing them that they were under surveillance. Fortunately, the outbreak was contained but the government did not know that it would be when it launched a massive surveillance project in the district.

That brings us to an urgent issue this Zika outbreak has shined an unflattering light on: the quality of health reporting in India.

The health sector is a technical beat with a lot of science backing every established protocol. The epidemiology of a disease, the analysis of the patterns of outbreak, causes, and effects of health and the disease conditions in defined populations amount to serious science. Transparency in administration is the cornerstone of public health.

In the first five days, reports went from announcing the incidence of Zika to boilerplate reports on precautions to be taken and symptoms to watch out for. With interest dwindling, and serious questions unasked, the government seems unlikely to hold a press briefing explaining the bizarre chain of decisions it has taken since November. The government owes an answer to the citizens as to why the affected community, in Bapunagar district, was kept in the dark while their samples were being taken.

I cannot imagine any other beat — finance, defence or sports— where Indians will not get outraged on finding out, from an international agency such as the WHO, that their government had suppressed crucial information for all this time, from Parliament, the press and the public, who had the right to take all necessary actions to protect themselves and their families and neighbourhood.

(Source- The  Hindu)

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