NDA/NA Exam Solved Papers - 2011- Paper I: General Ability Test

Paper I : General Ability Test

Part A : English Language

Comprehension

Directions (Qs. 1 to 10) : In this section, you have 03 short passage’s. After each passage. you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Examples : T and ‘J’ have been solved for you.

Passage (Example)

In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.

T. The author’s main point is that

(a) different forms of life are found on the earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life

J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position?

A. All forms of life have a single overriding goal
B. The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for’ peace
C. All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
D. A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death

Explanation :

T. The idea which represents the author’s main point is “peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings”, which is response (C). So (C) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is “The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (B), so (B) is the correct answer.

Passage-I

Gandhi was not born great. He was a blundering boy, a mediocre student, a poor lawyer, an ordinary individual until he remade himself. He was ‘a self-remade man. He had faith in himself. But above all, he had a deep, touching faith in the peasants, miners, labourers, and young unformed men and, women whom he drew into his work. He fed them all an elixir of growth which often transformed nameless, uneducated people into leonine heroes. The elixir was fearlessness.

1. Consider the following assumptions :
1. Gandhi was a great man throughout his life.
2. Men are not born great, but they are made great by self effort.
3. Gandhi liked the ordinary people and neglected the rich.
4. Gandhi transformed the ordinary masses into great heroes.

Which of the above assumptions can be drawn from the above passage?

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) None of these

2. Gandhi transformed the uneducated people by teaching them

(a) work-mindedness
(b) self confidence
(c) fearlessness
(d) heroism

3. Gandhi’s attitude to the labour class was one of

(a) generosity
(b) pity
(c) compassion
(d) fearlessness

4. The word ‘leonine’ in the passage means

(a) lean
(b) courageous
(c) timid
(d) learning

Passage-II

The dog fence in Australia has been erected to keep out hostile invaders, in this case hordes of yellow dogs called dingoes. The empire it preserves is that of wool growers. Yet the fence casts a much broader ecological shadow. For the early explorers, a kangaroo or a wallaby sighting marked a noteworthy event. Now try not to see one. Without a native predator there is no check on the marsupial population. The kangaroos are now cursed more than the dingoes. They have become rivals of sheep, competing for water and grass. The State Governments now cull more than three million kangaroos a year to keep Australia’s natural symbol from over running the pastoral lands.

5. The Fence is meant to keep the :

(a) A kangaroo in and the dingo out.
(b) kangaroo in and the sheep out.
(c) sheep in and the kangaroo out.
(d) sheep in and the dingo out.

6. Australia’s national symbol is :

(a) A Kangaroo
(b) Wallaby
(c) Sheep
(d) Dingo

7. What has led to the unchecked growth of the marsupial population?

(a) The building of fences
(b) The absence of native predator
(c) The culling of kangaroos
(d) The availability of water and grass

8. The marsupial population is up in Australia because :

(a) both wallaby and kangaroo count as marsupials.
(b) the kangaroo consumes the water and grass of the sheep.
(c) the dingo cannot get at the kangaroo.
(d) the kangaroos are fenced out.

Passage-III

Not all nocturnal animals have good eyesight. Many of them concentrate on the other senses for finding their way about and for finding food. The sense of touch is very well developed in many nocturnal animals, whether they have good eyes or not. The large hairs or whiskers on the faces of cats and mice are sense organs and the animals react rapidly if these whiskers are touched. The sense of smell is also very important for nocturnal animals such as hedgehogs and field mice, The moist night air holds scent much better than dry air does.

9. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) All nocturnal animals are blind
(b) Many nocturnal animals do not have good eyesight
(c) Most nocturnal animals cannot see anything in the dark
(d) No nocturnal animal has good eyesight

10. The cat’s whiskers are organs associated with the sense of

(a) taste
(b) touch
(c) hearing
(d) smell

Spotting Errors

Directions (Qs. 11 to 20) :

(i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled A, B, and C. Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in anyone of the underlined parts A, B or C, indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter D will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

11. (A) We are meeting today afternoon/(B) to discuss the matter/(C) and reach a compromise./ (D) No error.
12. (A) Either Ram or/(B) you is responsible/(C) for this action./(D) No error.
13. (A) The student flatly denied/(B) that he had copied/(C)in the examination hall./(D) No error.
14. (A) By the time you arrive tomorrow/(B) I have finished/(C) my work./(D) No error.
15. (A) The speaker stressed repeatedly on/(B) the importance of improving/(C) the condition of the slums./(D) No error.
16. (A) The captain with the members of his team/ (B) are returning/(C) after a fortnight./(D) No error.
17. (A) After returning from/(B) an all-India tour/ (C) I had to describe about it/(D) No error.
18. (A) The teacher asked his students/(B) if they had gone through/(C) either of the three chapters included in the prescribed text./(D) No error.
19. (A) Although they are living in the country/ (B) since they were married/(C) they are now moving to the town./(D) No error.
20. (A) Do you know/(B) how old were ‘you/(C) when you came here?/(D) No error.

Directions (Qs. 21 to 30) : Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per’ the context.

21. All care is FUTILE in a cureless case.

(a) waste
(b) expensive
(c) useful
(d) cheap

22. REVELATION of facts became very easy when I investigated the case.

(a) rejection
(b) elimination
(c) concealment
(d) introduction

23. The story you have just told is INCREDIBLE

(a) credible
(b) fantastic
(c) probable
(d) believable

24. His assignments have taken him to many EXOTIC locations around the world.

(a) wonderful
(b) cosmopolitan
(c) irrelevant
(d) common

25. He has given up his VICIOUS habits.

(a) godly
(b) virtuous
(c) sublime
(d) friendly

26. The doctor found the patient INERT.

(a) active
(b) lazy
(c) strong
(d) resolute

27. The issue was raised TANGENTIALLY in the negotiations.

(a) partly
(b) forcefully
(c) candidly
(d) fitfully

28. ESCALATING prices are causing hardship to the poor.

(a) fixed
(b) fluctuating
(c) falling
(d) reasonable

29. I have, MALICE towards none.

(a) sympathy
(b) goodwill
(c) friendship
(d) attraction

30. The boy comes of an AFFLUENT family.

(a) poor
(b) ordinary
(c) infamous
(d) backward

Rearranging Parts of A Sentence

Directions (Qs. 31 to 40) : In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answers Sheet accordingly.

Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.

Z. Some people’ believe that, the effect/P, is very bad/Q, on children/R, of cinema/S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P - S - R - Q
(b) S - P - Q - R
(c) S - R - P - Q
(d) Q - S - R - P

Explanation

The proper way of writing the sentence is “Some people believe that the effect of cinema on children is very bad”. This is indicated by the sequence P - S - R - Q and so (A) is the correct answer.

Study Material for UPSC NDA/NA Examination

Books for UPSC NDA/NA Examination

31. In the Middle Ages

P : there was little progress
Q : either intellectual or social
R : with the result that
S : teaching became the exclusive prerogative of the church

Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?

(a) P - Q - R - S
(b) S - R - P - Q
(c) P - R - S - Q
(d) Q - P - R - S

32. A scientist has shown that

P : when anyone holds
Q : a burning cigarette
R : near their leaves
S : plants react with fear

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

(a) P - Q - R - S
(b) Q - R - S - P
(c) S - P - Q - R
(d) P - Q - S - R

33. P : because the driver lost control

Q : and hit a lamp post
R : the bus fell into a ditch
S : at a turning

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

(a) R - Q - P - S
(b) R - P - S - Q
(c) P - Q - S - R
(d) S - P - R - Q

34. We want

P : every country
Q : or a foreign policy
R : to have a population policy
S : as it has an economic policy

Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?

(a) P - Q - R - S
(b) Q - R - S - P
(c) P - R - S - Q
(d) R - Q - P - S

35. The teacher

P : and the pupils continued likewise with their repetition
Q : read the sentence again
R : the pupils knew the sentence by heart
S : until the teacher thought

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

(a) P - Q - S - R
(b) P - S - R - Q
(c) Q - P - S - R
(d) Q - S - R - P

36. For dropping kilos

P : it is safe to cut your fat intake
Q : and maintaining weight loss
R : to 20% of your calories
S : even further

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

(a) P - R - Q - S
(b) Q - S - P - R
(c) S - P - R - Q
(d) Q - P - R - S

37. His uncle

P : after he joined
Q : did not send
R : the college
S : money for his expenses

Which one of the following is the correct sequence?

(a) Q - R - S - P
(b) R - P - S - Q
(c) Q - S - P - R
(d) S - P - R - Q

38. Language is

P : to the other person
Q : communicating
R : only a means of
S : one’s thoughts and emotions

Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?

A. P - Q - S - R
B. R - Q - S - P
C. Q - R - S - P
D. S - P - Q - R

39. Whenever I see the model

P : who started it
Q : is the face of the man
R : of our factory
S : what comes to my mind

Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?

(a) S - R - Q - P
(b) R - S - Q - P
(c) Q - P - R - S
(d) P - Q - R - S

40. P : I bought from your shop
Q : a week ago
R : to send the books
S : you have not cared

Which one of the following is the correct sequence ?

(a) Q - P - S - R
(b) Q - P - R - S
(c) S - R - P - Q
(d) P - Q - S - R

Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.

41. The song had a SOPORIFIC effect on the child.

(a) soothing
(b) terrific
(c) supreme
(d) sleep-inducing

42. His ALLEGIANCE to the Party was suspect from the very beginning.

(a) servility
(b) obedience
(c) loyalty
(d) passivity

43. Sympathetic criticism has a SALUTARY effect.

(a) premature
(b) terrible
(c) disastrous
(d) beneficial

44. His bad behaviour EVOKED punishment.

(a) escaped
(b) called for
(c) produced
(d) summoned

45. Please do not give any more FLIMSY pretexts for not-having done the work.

(a) weak
(b) strong
(c) justified
(d) impulsive

46. He was the court appointed lawyer for fifty-six INDIGENT defendants.

(a) Indian men
(b) poor
(c) guilty
(d) untried

47. The boy said that pain had ABATED.

(a) reduced
(b) vanished
(c) increased
(d) stabilized

48. He became known as an IMPLACABLE foe of fundamentalism.

(a) relentless
(b) pleasing
(c) dangerous
(d) courageous

49. The queen was aware of the INSOLENT behaviour of the lords.

(a) violent
(b) polite
(c) insulting
(d) frivolous

50. Modern man is PRAGMATIC in his dealings.

(a) practical
(b) playful
(c) causal
(d) clever

Part B : General Knowledge

51. Which one among the following is not a reason for practicing tank irrigation in the Peninsular India?

(a) The undulating relief and hard rocks
(b) Little percolation of rain water due to impervious rock structure
(c) Most of the rivers of Peninsular India are perennial
(d) There are many streams which become torrential during rainy season

52. Identify from the following states of India through which the Tropic of Cancer passes and arrange them from east to west :

1. Gujarat
2. West Bengal
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Jharkhand
5. Madhya Pradesh
6. Bihar
7. Chhattisgarh

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 - 5 - 7 - 4 - 1
(b) 2 - 4 - 7 - 5 - 1
(c) 3 - 2 - 6 - 7 - 5
(d) 3 - 7 - 4 - 6 - 2

53. Hot deserts like Sahara, Arabia etc. receive very negligible amount of rainfall. This is because they :

(a) do not receive moisture-bearing wind from the oceans.
(b) are the most rocky and barren areas of the Earth.
(c) are located on the tropical high’ pressure belt of the atmosphere.
(d) are not on the path of the monsoons.

54. The latitude is the angular distance of a point on the Earth’s surface, north of south, of the Equator as measured from the :

(a) centre of the Earth.
(b) Equator.
(c) Tropic of Cancer of the Capricorn.
(d) Poles.

55. When an Ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a :

(a) simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting.
(b) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses.
(c) simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses.
(d) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting.

56. The Rowlatt Act was passed to :

(a) bring about agrarian reforms.
(b) curtail the nationalist and revolutionary activities.
(c) have a favourable balance of trade.
(d) put Second World War criminals on trial.

57. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister ?

(a) Federalism
(b) Representative Legislature
(c) Universal Adult Franchise
(d) Parliamentary Democracy

58. In which among the following cases the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned?

1. To amend the Constitution
2. When a bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other
3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a bill
4. When a bill is passed by one House and is rejected by the other

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4

59. The ‘Bombay Plan’ drafted by G.D. Birla and J.R.D. Tata emphasized :

(a) that the economy should be left to the dynamic investments by the private sector in heavy industries etc.
(b) the public sector investment in infrastructure and heavy industries.
(c) annual planning
(d) that the private sector should foot the bill for intensive and low return investments in the industrial sector.

60. Consider the following statements :

1. The Buddhists in Deccan excavated rock- cut Chaityas and the Vaishnavas, Shaivas and Jainas imitated these in later centuries.
2. The Vaishnavas, Shaivas and Jainas excavated temples at sites far distant from rock-cut Chaityas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. Consider the following statements :

1. The Champaran Satyagraha marked Gandhiji’s second appearance in India politics as a leader of the masses.
2. The Champaran Satyagraha was launched to address the problems faced by Indigo plantation workers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following statements :

1. Charles Wood’s Despatch of 1854 laid exclusive emphasis on the development of higher education in India and neglected primary and secondary education
2. The Carlyle Circular issued by R.W. Carlyle sought to check the spread of revolutionary activities in educational institutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Consider the following statements about Gandhiji’s thinking on environment :

1. His environmental thinking is rooted in his larger philosophical and moral thinking
2. He preferred sustainable environmental practices to nourish the soil and the natural world
3. He laid emphasis on the rigorous ethic” of non-injury in our treatment of animals

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

64. Which one among the following is common to the treaty of Yandaboo (1826), the treaty of Salbai (1782) and the treaty of Gandamak (1879) ?

(a) With these treaties various Indian powers formed alliances to defeat the British
(b) These treaties enabled the British to control the South Asian powers
(c) These treaties expedited the spread of Indian culture abroad
(d) These treaties gave an essential boost to enhanced trade in South Asia

65. Which one among the following was the major demand of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) organized under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel?

(a) Land to the Tiller
(b) Increase in the rates of labour wage
(c) Rollback of newly enhanced revenue rate
(d) Supply of agricultural inputs to the farmers at subsidised rate

66. Which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a) Gandhara Schood of Art owed its origin to the Indo-Greek rulers but the real patrons of the school were the Kushans, especially Kanishka
(b) Rich carving, elaborate ornamentations and complex symbolism were not the main features of the Gandhara sculpture
(c) The Graeco-roman architectural impact modified the structure of Buddhist Stupas
(d) The artists of the Amravati School of Arts mainly used white marble

67. Which one among the following statements regarding the Eighth Five Year Plan in India is not correct?

(a) The plan was postponed by two years because of political upheavals at the centre
(b) It aimed at high growth of both agriculture and manufacturing sectors
(c) Its emphasis was on growth in export and import, improvement in trade and current account deficit
(d) It set before itself the two principal objectives of ‘growth with stability’ and ‘growth with justice’

68. Which among the following statements is/are true with regard to WTO membership?

1. All WTO members automatically receive the ‘most favoured nation’ status
2. Over 75% of WTO members are from developing countries. WTO membership allows them access to developed markets at the lower tariff

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. TRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement is administered by :

(a) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
(b) United Nations Organization (UNO)
(c) Word Trade Organization (WTO)
(d) World Bank (WB)

70. Consider the following statements :

1. The G20 was established in 2008 in the wake of the global financial crisis led by the USA
2. It brings together the major advanced and emerging economies to stabilize, the global financial market
3. India’s stand on Mutual Assessment Process (MAP) for measuring imbalances between surplus and deficit economies in the Seoul conference of G20 in the year 2010 was firmly endorsed by all the nations

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

71. Which one among the following statements is not correct ?

(a) In progressive waves, the amplitude may be constant and neighbouring points are out of phase with each other
(b) In air or other gases, a progressive anti node occurs at a displacement node and a progressive node occurs at a displacement antinode
(c) Transverse wave can ‘Be’-polarized while longitudinal wave can not be polarized
(d) Longitudinal wave can be polarized while transverse wave can not be polarized

72. A body initially at rest is acted upon by a constant force. The rate of change of its kinetic energy varies :

(a) linearly with square root of time.
(b) linearly with time.
(c) linearly with square of time.
(d) inversely with time.

73. A jet plane flies through air with a velocity of 2 Mach. While the velocity of sound is 332 m/s the air speed of the plane is :

(a) 166 m/s
(b) 66kkm/s
(c) 332 m/s
(d) 664 m/s

74. Which one among the following statements is correct ?

(a) Convex mirrors are used by doctors to examine oral cavity
(b) Concave mirrors ‘are used as reflectors
(c) Convex mirrors are used as reflectors
(d) Convex mirrors should be used for shaving

75. Light travels in optical fiber irrespective of its shape because it is a device by which signals can be transferred from one location to another. It is based on the phenomenon of

(a) diffraction of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) polarization of light
(d) total internal reflection of light

76. A man is at rest in the middle of a horizontal plane of perfectly smooth surface of ice. He can move himself to the shore by making use of Newton’s :

(a) First law of motion
(b) Second law of motion
(c) Third law of motion
(d) First, second and third laws of motion

77. Which one among the following is the major cause of blurring and unsharp images of objects observed through very large telescope at the extreme limit of magnification?

(a) Air turbulence of earth’s atmosphere
(b) Poor optical polish achievable on large mirrors
(c) Poor tracking capacities of telescopes
(d) Varying density of air in the Earth’s atmosphere’

78. Bats can ascertain distances, directions, nature and size of the obstacles at night. This is possible by reflection of the emitted :

(a) ultrasonic waves from the bat
(b) ultrasonic waves from the distant objects
(c) supersonic waves from the bat
(d) supersonic waves from the distant objects

79. When a moving bus suddenly applies brakes, the passengers sitting in it fall in the forward direction. This can be explained by:

(a) the theory of relativity.
(b) Newton’s first law.
(c) Newton’s second law.
(d) Newton’s third ‘law.

80. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin and lead. This alloy should have :

(a) high specific resistance and low melting point.
(b) low specific resistance and high melting point.
(c) low specific resistance and low melting point.
(d) high specific resistance and high melting point.

81. Suppose you are standing 1 m in front of a plane mirror. What should be the minimum vertical size of the mirror so that you can see your full image in it?

(a) 0.50 m
(b) 2 m
(c) half of your height
(d) twie your height.

82. Light travels slower in glass than in air because :

(a) refractive index of air is less than that of glass.
(b) refractive index of air is greater than that of glass.
(c) density of glass is greater than that of air.
(d) density of glass is less than that of air.

83. The lines of force of a uniform magnetic field

(a) must be convergent
(b) must be divergent
(c) must be parallel to each other
(d) intersect.

84. A Jet engine works on the principle of conservation of :

(a) linear momentum
(b) angular momentum
(c) energy
(d) mass

85. The surface temperature of the Sun is nearly

(a) 2000 K
(b) 4000 K
(c) 6000 K
(d) 8000 K

86. Venkataraman Ramakrishnan was jointly awarded Nobel Prize in Chemistry in the year 2009 for the :

(a) theory of electron transfer.
(b) studies of the structure and function of the ribosome.
(c) palladium catalyzed cross couplings in organic synthesis.
(d) work in the area of olefin metathesis.

87. Which one among the following statements regarding cell is not correct?

(a) Shape and size of cells are related to specific function
(b) Some cells have changing shapes
(c) Each cell has its own capacity to perform
(d) Same type of cells are present in all body tissues

88. Which one among the following Indian scientists proposed a theory for long distance transport of water in plants?

(a) J.C. Bose
(b) Birbal Sahni
(c) P. Maheshwari
(d) N.S. Parihar

89. To a perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic, the Earth’s axis of rotation makes an angle of 23 degrees. Had this angle been 0 degree, which one among the following would result?

(a) There would have been no seasons
(b) The length of day and night would have been the same throughout the year
(c) The length of day and night would have been the same all over the earth
(d) All of the above

90. Jet streams are usually found in the :

(a) Ozonosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Tropopause
(d) Ionosphere

91. There exceptionally high and low tides that occur at the time of the new moon or the full moon when the Sun, ‘the Moon and the Earth are approximately aligned is called:

(a) Spring
(b) Fall
(c) Neap
(d) Diurnal

92. What is the general direction of cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal?

(a) East to west
(b) West to east
(c) West to south
(d) North to south

93. The Narmada river in the Peninsular plateau flows westward with a remarkably straight channel. It is because the :

(a) slope gradient in this part controls the river channel pattern.
(b) river carries a huge amount of water which has created a straight channel course.
(c) river forms the boundary between the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
(d) river flows through the trough of a rift valley inclined westward.

94. No trees are found in Tundra biome near polar region of northern hemisphere. This is due to :

(a) snowfall inhibits plant respiration.
(b) frozen ice beneath the surface soil (permafrost) restricts roots growth.
(c) less wind movement and inadequate sunlight.
(d) low temperature which restricts development of reproductive organs.

95. Why the summer monsoon winds blow from south-western direction in the northern hemisphere?

(a) The general direction of wind from the Indian Ocean is south-western
(b) The presence of the doldrums around the Equator
(c) The low pressure condition in north-west India
(d) Due to the effect of Coriolis force

96. If the Earth’s axis were perpendicular to the plane of its orbit, which one among the following would not have happened?

(a) The North Pole will always lie in dark
(b) Days and nights would be equal throughout the year
(c) No change of seasons will take place
(d) The sun will be perpendicular to the Equator

97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

98. Which one among the following is the best reason for the marked increase in the agricultural production in India in the past decades?

(a) Increase in the area under cultivation
(b) Conversion of barren land into agricultural land
(c) Use of improved agricultural methods and technologies
(d) Priority status given by the successive governments to atricultural sector over the industry sector

99. Which of the following statements regarding the Deccan Traps is/are correct?

1. Intense volcanic activity in the form of fissure eruption took place towards the end of Cretaceous period
2. The volcanic lava spread out in horizontal sheets
3. The regular soil found here is rich in nitrogen

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only

100. Consider the following statements :

1. The Himalayan vegetation varies according to both altitude and climatic conditions.
2. There are mainly two types of tropical forests that are found in the Himalayas the tropical rainforests and the tropical deciduous forests

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

101. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is called :

(a) super conductor
(b) semiconductor
(c) conductor
(d) insulator

102. A spherical air bubble is embedded in a piece of glass. For a ray of light passing through the bubble, it behaves like a :

(a) converging lens
(b) diverging lens
(c) plano-converging lens
(d) plano-diverging lens

103. ‘The stars seem to be higher on the sky than they actually are’. This can be explained by:

(a) atmospheric refraction
(b) dispersion of light
(c) total internal reflection
(d) diffraction of light

104. Which one among the following is not a source of renewable energy?

(a) Hydroelectricity
(b) Solar energy
(c) Fuel cell
(d) Wind energy

105. A liquid rises to a certain length in a capillary tube. The tube is inclined to an angle of 45°. The length of the liquid column will :

(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) first decrease and then increase

106. Mass of B is four times that of A, B moves with a velocity half that of A. Then B has :

(a) kinetic energy equal to that of A
(b) half the kinetic energy of A
(c) twice the kinetic energy of A
(d) kinetic energy one-fourth of A

107. In a pressure cooker cooking is faster because the increase in vapour pressure :

(a) increase the specific heat
(b) decreases the specific heat
(c) decreases the boiling point
(d) increases the boiling point

108. Magnets attract magnetic substances such as iron,. nickel, cobalt etc. They can also repel :

(a) paramagnetic substances
(b) ferromagnetic substances
(c) diamagnetic substances
(d) non-magnetic substances

109. When a ray of light is going from one medium to another, its :

(a) wavelength remains same
(b) frequency remains same
(c) frequency increases
(d) wavelength increases

110. Which one among the following is the main ingredient in cement?

(a) Gypsum
(b) Lime stone
(c) Clay
(d) Ash

111. Glass is actually :

(a) a crystalline solid
(b) an ionic solid
(c) an elastic solid
(d) a vitrified liquid

112. Solutions in test tubes containing H20 and aqueous NaOH can be differentiated with the help of :

(a) red litmus
(b) blue litmus
(c) Na2CO3
(d) HCl (aqueous)

113. A student heated some sulphur in a spatula and collected the gas ‘X’. Which one among the following is correct about ‘X’?

(a) X is SO2 and it turns moist litmus to blue
(b) X is SO3 and it turns moist litmus to red
(c) X is SO2 and it turns moist litmus to red
(d) X is SO3 and it turns dry litmus to blue

114. Human stomach produces acid ‘X’ which helps in digestion of food. Acid ‘X’ is :

(a) acetic acid
(b) methanoic acid
(c) hydrochloric acid
(d) citric acid

115. When concentrated H2S04 spilts on the surface, it should be immediately cleaned :

(a) with a piece of cloth
(b) by adding cold water
(c) by adding solid Na2CO3
(d) by adding solid BaCl2

116. India by becoming a full-fledged member of the Financial Action Task Force :

(a) will be able to access information on suspect’ accounts in nations such as Switzerland and UK
(b) will play an important role in law enforcement matters, investigations at an international level
(c) has also become a member of Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development
(d) all of the above

117. Consider the following declaration and identify the person who made it using the code given below :

‘The time has come when badges of honour make out shame glaring in their incongruous context of humiliation, and, I, for my part, wish to stand shorn of all special distinction, by the side of my countrymen who, for their so-called insignificance are liable to suffer degradation not fit for human beings’.

Code :

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

118. Identify, using the code given below, the nationalist leader who was sentenced in the words’ outlined below :

‘the fat that in the eyes of millions of your countrymen you are a great patriot and great leader’ but ‘as a man subject to the law, who has, by his own admission broken the law’ you are subject to six years imprisonment

Code :

(a) C.R. Das
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Bose
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

119. Consider the following statement :

‘We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life so that they may have full opportunities of growth’ Identify the correct context of this statement from below :

(a) Pledge of independence to be publicly taken all over India On 26 January 1930
(b) Preamble of the Constitution of India adopted in 1950
(c) Congress Working Committee Resolution adopted at the Special Calcutta Congress in 1920
(d) Part of Speech delivered by Subhash Bose at the launch of Azad Hind Fauj

120. Which one among the following led to the Greece economic crisis 2010 ?

(a) Excessive borrowing from IMF
(b) Sudden depreciation of Euro
(c) Unrestricted spending and cheap loans
(d) Outflow of foreign capital due to political unrest

121. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), a mechanism to reduce green-house gas emission as per Kyoto Protocol implies that

(a) industrial countries receive carbon credits by funding carbon saving projects in another relatively affluent nation
(b) industrial countries reduce their carbon emission by using environment friendly technology in production
(c) developed countries invest in carbon reduction in developing countries and receive carbon credit in return
(d) developed nations purchase carbon credit from other nations

122. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I                         List-II
(Joint exercise)         (Type)

(a) Indra                 1. Joint anti-terrorism exercise
(b) Cope India        2. Joint air force exercise
(c) Ind-Indo Sorpat 3. Coordinated mari- time patrolling
(d) Yudhabhyas       4. Joint army exercise

Code :

    A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1

123. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below ‘the Lists :

List-I                             List-II
(Ship)                             (Type)

(a) INS Arihant         1. Aircraft Carrier
(b) INS Vikrant         2. Landing Platform Dock
(c) INS Shiwalik       3. Nuclear Submarine
(d) INS Airavat         4. Stealth Frigate

Code :

    A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3

124. ‘Milan’ is ?

1. an annual gathering of navies. of Indian Ocean countries.
2. conducted at Chennai.
3. a joint antiterrorism exercise.
4. aimed at enhancing inter-operability among navies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

125. Consider the following pairs :

1. Pinaka : 1. Multi Barrel  Rocket Launcher System
2. Nag : 2. Anti Tank Missile System
3. Lakshya : 3. Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

126. Which one among the following is the unit raised to protect the naval assets ?

(a) Sagar Rakshak Bat
(b) Sagar Suraksha Bat
(c) Sagar Prahari Bat
(d) Sagar Nigrani Bat

127. Which one among the following films won the Nargis Dutt award for best feature film on national integration in the 57th National Film Award in the year 2010 ?

(a) Well Done Abba
(b) Lahore
(c) Dilli-6
(d) Paa

128. Consider the following statements with regard to the Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) Mechanism launched in November 2010 by the Government of India :

1. It enables the obligated entities to meet their renewable purchase obligation
2. It is one of the pioneering efforts in any developing country for mainstreaming the renewable energy generation through market mechanism

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

129. Consider the following statements with regard to the Global Hunger Index :

1. India ranks within the top ten among the developing countries in the Global Hunger Index 2010
2. According to the Global Hunger Index 2010 the proportion of undernourished in India is decreasing
3. Normally economic progress of a country measured by its gross national income and the hunger level are inversely correlated

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

Directions: The following Six (06) items consist of two statements, statement / and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Code :

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but statement II is true

130. Statement I. A myopic person is advised to use concave lens
Statement II. The eye lens of a myopic person focuses the parallel rays coming from distant objects in front of the retina

131. Statement I. Oxidation in our body cell releases dangerous free radicals
Statement II. Our body itself produces anti-oxidants to neutralize harmful free radicals

132. Statement I. Decay and disintegration of rocks in situ is called weathering
Statement II. Mechanical weathering is mainly caused by temperature variation

133. Statement I. The semi-arid tracts of India stretching from eastern “ Rajasthan in the north to south central Tamil Nadu are agriculturally less productive
Statement II. The semi-arid tracts are homeland to a large number of central Indian Scheduled Tribe population

134. Statement I. The Mediterranean climate is highly suitable for fruit production
Statement II. Cool and moist winters in Mediterranean regions enable ample’ production of fruits.

135. Statement I. In the northern hemisphere the ocean currents flowing from equator towards the north pole and from pole’ towards the equator are deflected to their right
Statement II. This happens due to rotation of the Earth on the axis from west to east

136. A bee-sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The injected acid is :

(a) acetic acid
(b) sulphuric acid
(c) citric acid
(d) methanoic acid

137. Iron nails are dipped into blue copper sulphate solution. After some time iron nails are :

(a) dissolved and blue colour is discharged
(b) dissolved but blue colour is not discharged
(c) not dissolved but blue colour is not discharged
(d) not disssolved but blue colour is discharged

138. A student by chance mixed acetone with alcohol. This mixture of acetone and alcohol can be separated by :

(a) filtration
(b) separating funnel
(c) fractional crystallization
(d) fractional distillation

139. Silver ware turns black after a period of time due to formation of :

(a) nitrate coating on silver
(b) sulphide coating on silver
(c) chloride coating one silver
(d) oxide coating on silver

140. Which of the statements given below is/are correct

Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble :

1. chloride of calcium
2. bicarbonate of calcium
3. sulphate of magnesium
4. bicarbonate of magnesium

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

141. Which of the following statements about diamond are correct ?

1. It is used as a gem in jewellery because of its ability to reflect light
2. It is a good conductor of electricity
3. It is used for cutting glass, marble stones and other hard materials
4. It is used for drilling of rocks

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4 only

142. ‘Which one among the following methods is not effective in removing arsenic from contaminated ground water?

(a) Boiling
(b) Reverse osmosis
(c) Ion exchange
(d) Coagulation-adsorption

143. Bronze is often used to make statues and medals whereas brass is used in making utensils, scientific apparatus and cartidges. Both brass and bronze are copper containing alloys, yet they differ in their chemical composition for additionally containing :

(a) Zinc in brass and tin in bronze
(b) Chromium in brass and nickel in bronze
(c) Nickel in brass and tin in bronze
(d) Iron in brass and nickel in bronze

144. Which of the statements about glass are correct ?

1. Glass is a super-cooled liquid having infinite viscosity
2. Violet coloured glass is obtained by adding MnO2
3. Glass is a man made silicate
4. Glass is -a crystalline substance

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

145. Sandalwood tree is considered a :

(a) total root parasite
(b) total stem parasite
(c) stem parasite
(d) partial ‘root parasite

146. Which one among the following statements about stomach is not correct ?

(a) Stomach acts as a temporary reservoir
(b) Stomach mixes food with gastric juice
(c) Stomach secretes lipase and amylase in gastric juice
(d) Rate of stomach emptying depends on the type of food

147. Which one of the following organs breaks fat to produce cholesterol ?

(a) Intestine
(b) Liver
(c) Lungs
(d) Kidneys

148. Consider the following statements about comets :

1. Most comets have elongated elliptical orbits that take them close to the Sun for a part of their orbit, and then out into the further reaches of the Solar System for the remainder
2. If a comet is travelling fast enough, it may leave the Solar System

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

149. An individual whose blood type is B may in an emergency donate blood to a person whose blood type is :

(a) B or A
(b) AB or A
(c) A or O
(d) AB or B

150. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. In comparison to the Jupiter, planet Earth displays eclipses more frequently
2. On Mars only partial solar eclipses are possible

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (a)
101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (a)
111. (d) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (c) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (c) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (a)
131. (b) 132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (a) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (d) 139. (d) 140. (b)
141. (a) 142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (d) 146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (d) 150. (c)

Study Material for UPSC NDA/NA Examination

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