GOA PSC : CBRT Question paper held on 17.12.2017

"Assistant Public Prosecutor"

Q1 : The Rowlatt Act was passed in
(a) 1905
(b) 1913
(c) 1919
(d) 1925

Q2 : Vivekanand established Ramakrishna Mission in
(a) 1892
(b) 1897
(c) 1937
(d) 1939

Q3 : Eritrea which became Member of the UN in 1993 is in the continent of
(a) Africa
(b) Europe
(c) Asia
(d) None of these

Q4 : For which of the following disciplines is Nobel Prize awarded?
(a) Literature, Peace and Economics
(b) Physics and Chemistry
(c) Physiology or Medicine
(d) All the above

Q5 : Who authored the Book "India's Legal System: Can it be saved?"
(a) N. A. Palkhiwala
(b) Fali S. Nariman
(c) Khuswant Singh
(d) H. R. Bhardwaj

Q6 : Who was known as the Iron Man of India?
(a) Govind Ballabh Pant
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subash Chandra Bose
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q7 : Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations Organisation?
(a) International Labour Organisation
(b) Security Council
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) General Assembly

Q8 : Who authored the Book "Sorrowing Lies my Land"?
(a) M. K. Gandhi
(b) Mario Miranda
(c) Lambert Mascarenhas
(d) Alfred Tavares

Q9 : Which is the Capital of Mizoram?
(a) Imphal
(b) Agartala
(c) Gangtok
(d) Aizawl

Q10 : Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) was established in
(a) 1972
(b) 1957
(c) 1962
(d) 1965

Q11: If 'LOFTY' is coded as 'LPFUY', then 'DWARF' will be written as
(a) DXASF
(b) DXBSG
(c) DXATF
(d) DWBSG

Q12 : If in a certain code language 'RUN' is written as '182114' and 'PEN' is written as '16514', how will 'RANSOM' be coded in that language?
(a) 1841491315
(b) 18114131915
(c) 18114191315
(d) 18114191513

Q13 : Complete the series with a suitable option
0, 3, 8, 15, ____
(a) 24
(b) 26
(c) 35
(d) None of these

Q14 : Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following Alpha-Numeric series.
C4X, F9U, I16R, ____
(a) L25P
(b) K25P
(c) L27P
(d) L25O

Q15 : In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?
(a) 25th
(b) 26th
(c) 27th
(d) 28th

Q16 : There are four persons A, B, C and D. The total amount of money with A and B together is the total amount of money with C and D together. But the total amount of money with B and D together is more than the amount of money with A and C together. The amount of money with A is more than that of B. Who has the least amount of money?

(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) Cannot be determined

Q17 : Raj remembers that his brother's birthday is after 15th but before 18th of February, while his sister remembers that her brother's birthday is after the 16th but before the 19th of February. On which date in February is Raj's brother's birthday?
(a) 16th
(b) 18th
(c) 19th
(d) 17th

Q18 : There are six children taking part in an essay competition namely A, B, C, D, E and F. A and E are brothers, F and D are sisters of E. C is the only son of A's Uncle. B and D are the daughters of the brother of C's father.
How many Female competitors are there?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

Q19 : Pinky who is Victor's daughter, says to Lucy, "Your mother Rosy is the younger sister of my Father, who is the third child of Joseph. How is Joseph related to Lucy?
(a) Father-in-Law
(b) Father
(c) Maternal Uncle
(d) Grand Father

Q20 : Seema walks 30m North. Then she turns right and walks 30m, then she turns right and walks 55m. Then she turns left and walks 20m. Then, she again turns left and walks 25m. How many meters is she from her original position?
(a) 45m
(b) 50m
(c) 66m
(d) 55m

Q21 : Choose the correct alternative from the choices provided:
The Chairman is ill and we'll have to ____________ the Meeting for a few days.
(a) put on
(b) put of
(c) put away
(d) put off

Q22: Choose the correct alternative from the choices provided:
The cat and the dog have a ___________ enemy in the rat.
(a) same
(b) common
(c) mutual
(d) similar

Q23 : Choose the correct alternative from the choices provided:
I do my work _____________ carefully to make mistakes.
(a) so
(b) very
(c) too
(d) more

Q24:Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word:
PLAUSIBLE
(a) Inplausible
(b) Unplausible
(c) Implausible
(d) Displausible

Q25: Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word:
PREVENT
(a) Protect
(b) Block
(c) Hinder
(d) Induce

Q26:Choose the option that is the most appropriate SYNONYM to the given word:
FOMENT
(a) Vex
(b) Waste
(c) Renounce
(d) Instigate

Q27: Choose the option that is the most appropriate SYNONYM to the given word:
SOLICITOUS
(a) Obscene
(b) Wise
(c) Wholesome
(d) Confident

Q28:Choose the most effective word from the given words to make the sentence meaningfully complete:
It was __________ hot that day and the cable suffered the brunt of the heat.
(a) treacherously
(b) acceptably
(c) unfailingly
(d) unbelievably

Q29: Choose the most effective word from the given words to make the sentence meaningfully complete:
Dowry is no longer permitted by law even in _______________ marriage.
(a) Love
(b) Conventional
(c) Natural
(d) Bigamous

Q30: Choose the most effective word from the given words to make the sentence meaningfully complete:
He applied for and was ____________ legal aid by the Labour Ministry.
(a) offered
(b) granted
(c) allowed
(d) awarded

Q31:Which decision of the Supreme Court of India is popularly referred to as the Mandal Commission Case?
(a) Devadasan V/s Union of India
(b) Ashok Kumar Thakur V/s Union of India
(c) Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India (I)
(d) State of Kerala V/s N. M. Thomas

Q32:Which Directive Principle has been elevated to the status of a Fundamental Right by the insertion of Article 21A in the
Constitution, in 2002?
(a) Article 39
(b) Article 41
(c) Article 45
(d) Article 51

Q33:Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, it is provided that "When any person is sentenced todeath, the sentence shall direct that he be hanged by the neck till he is dead"?
(a) Section 314(2)
(b) Section 321
(c) Section 344(3)
(d) Section 354(5)

Q34:Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proving that the case of an accused comes within the
exceptions, lies on the accused?
(a) Section 103
(b) Section 104
(c) Section 105
(d) Section 107

Q35:The Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence
(a) of death
(b) of life imprisonment
(c) of upto seven years
(d) of not more than three years

Q36:The Assistant Public Prosecutor in charge of a criminal case may appear and plead before the Court
(a) Only with permission of the Court
(b) With any written authority
(c) On being instructed by a Private Person
(d) Without any written authority

Q37:Tender of Pardon under Section 306 CR.P.C., 1973, applies to
(a) All offences triable by the J.M.F.C.
(b) Offences punishable with death or life imprisonment or imprisonment upto 7 years or more
(c) Only to terrorist offences
(d) None of the above

Q38:The period of limitation for a Court to take cognizance of an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years, is
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Three years
(d) Unlimited

Q39:X drives a car rashly inside his property and dashes the compound wall, sustaining fracture injuries. He commits the offence under:
(a) Section 279 IPC
(b) Section 279 & 338 IPC
(c) No offence
(d) Section 304-A IPC

Q40:Four accused persons surround 'y' on the highway at night and threatening to kill 'y', overpower him and run away with his cash and valuables. They have committed the offence of
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Robbery
(d) Dacoity

Q41:A married woman dies by burns within 7 years of her marriage. The complaint is filed by her father that soon before her death, she was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with demand for dowry by the husband. He can be charged under
(a) Section 304-B I.P.C.
(b) Section 498-A I.P.C.
(c) Section 304-B & 498-A I.P.C.
(d) None of the above

Q42 : A dying declaration is relevant
(a) Only if it is in writing
(b) Only if it is recorded by a Magistrate
(c) Even if oral, and it relates to the cause of death
(d) If it is recorded by a Doctor

Q43:An accused in Police custody confesses to a Police Officer, which results in discovery of the knife. The evidence is admissible under
(a) Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(b) Section 27 of Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act
(d) None of the above

Q44: Under the Goa Children's Act, 2003, "Child" means any person
(a) Below 14 years of age
(b) Below 18 years of age
(c) Below 21 years of age
(d) Below 16 years of age

Q45:The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (P.O.C.S.O.) Act, 2012 is to protect
(a) The girl child below 12 years of age
(b) All children below 18 years of age
(c) All persons against sexual assault
(d) Any victim

Q46:Under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the Court can release an offender guilty of offences punishable with
(a) death
(b) life imprisonment
(c) less than death or life imprisonment
(d) less than 7 years imprisonment

Q47:Under the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes Act and Rules, the investigation and filing of the charge sheet of atrocities against SC/ST women have to be completed within
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) None of the above

Q48:Under the NDPS Act, 1985, the J.M.F.C can try offences punishable with imprisonment upto
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Seven years

Q49:The Judgement of the Supreme Court of India in Shreya Singhal Vs. Union of India decided on 24-03-2015, struck down Section 66-A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, on grounds of violating the Constitution of India under
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19(1)(a)
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 25

Q50:If a boy of 14 years commits an offence against a girl of 12 years, in Goa, the charge-sheet is to be filed before
(a) The J.M.F.C
(b) The Juvenile Board
(c) The Children's Court for Goa
(d) The Sessions Court

Q51:Right to Privacy is a Fundamental Right, as held by the Supreme Court on 28-08-2017, by the Bench of
(a) Two Justices
(b) Three Justices
(c) Five Justices
(d) Nine Justices

Q52:The practice of instant Triple Talaq has been held to be unconstitutional, by
(a) An unanimous verdict
(b) The majority of Three Justices of Five
(c) The majority of Five Justices of Nine
(d) None of the above

Q53:In which of the following case did the Supreme Court for the first time lay down that Fundamental Rights have primacy over the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Keshavanda Bharati V. State of Kerala
(b) A. K. Roy V. Union of India
(c) ADM Jabalpur V. Shiv Kant Shukla
(d) Minerva Mills V. Union of India

Q54:Bail in non-bailable offences can be granted by
(a) The Supdt. of Police in the District
(b) The Sessions Court or J.M.F.C.
(c) The Officer in charge of the Police Station
(d) The Police Inspector

Q55:The Assistant Public Prosecutor is appointed under the CR.P.C., 1973, under
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 25
(d) Section 100

Q56: The Real Guardian of the Constitution of India is
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court of India

Q57:The Constitution of India as of today has
(a) 275 Articles, in 10 Parts and 6 Schedules
(b) 448 Articles, in 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
(c) 495 Articles, in 32 Parts and 15 Schedules
(d) 300 Articles, in 4 Parts and 10 Schedules

Q58:The Judgement of the Supreme Court referred to as the "Vishaka" Judgement, deals with
(a) Rights of Homosexuals
(b) Guidelines to deal with sexual harassment at the workplace
(c) Punishment for child abusers
(d) Recognition of transgenders as the 3rd gender

Q59:The number of the recognized categories of the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Ten

Q60:The Law declared by the Supreme Court of India is binding on all Courts under
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 226
(d) Article 368

Courtesy: GOA PSC