NEW!

# (Paper) MPPSC: Online Examination of State Engineering Service (Pre.) Exam - 2014 Second Paper (Civil Engineering )

## (Paper) MPPSC: Online Examination of State Engineering Service (Pre.) Exam - 2014 Second Paper (Civil Engineering )

Q1 : Which of the following is not the displacement method?

A Equilibrium method
B Column analogy method
C Moment distribution method
D Kani’s method

Q2 : When a uniformly distributed load, shorter than the span of the girder, moves from left to right, then the conditions for maximum bending moment at a section is that

B The tail of the load reaches the section.
C The load position should be such that the section divides it equally on both side.
D The load position should be such that the section divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span

Q3 : In column analogy method, the area of an analogous column for a fixed beam of span L and flexural rigidity EI is taken as

A L/EI
B L/2EI
C L/4EI
D L/8EI

Q4 :

What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy of the beam shown in fig.1 above

A 2
B 3
C 5
D 9

Q5 : A fixed beam AB is subjected to a triangular load varying from zero at end A to W per unit length at end B. the ratio of fix end moments at A to B will be

A 1/2
B 2/3
C 4/9
D 1/4

Q6 : A symmetrical two-hinged parabolic arch when subjected to a uniformly distributed load on the entire horizontal span, is ubject to

B Normal thrust alone
C Normal thrust and bending moment
D Normal thrust, radial shear and bending moment

7 : A three hinged symmetric parabolic arch of span 20 meters and rise 5 meters is hinged at the crown and springing. It upports a uniformly distributed load of 2 tonnes per meter run of the span. The horizontal thrust in tonnes at each of the springing is

A 8
B 16
C 20
D Zero

Q8 : A simply supported beam of length L is subject to two point loads, each of P unit, at A and B equidistant from supports. Select the correct statement

A There will be no shear force between A and B and no bending moment between A and B.
B There will be no shear force between A and B, but there will be uniform bending moment between A and B.
C There will be uniform shear force between A and B, but bending moment will gradually increase to maximum up to mid point of A and B.
D There will be uniform shear force between A and B, with maximum bending moment at A and B with gradual decrease to zero at mid point of A and B.

Q9 : In an I-section, shear force is shared

A Mostly by web
B Mostly by flanges
C Uniformly by entire section
D Proportional to the respective areas of web and flanges.

Q10 : A member which is subjected to reversible tensile or compressive stresses may fail at stresses may fail at stresses lower than the ultimate stresses of the material. This property of metal is called

A Plasticity of the metal
B Workability of the metal
C Fatigue of the metal
D Creep of the metal

Q11 : If all the dimensions of a prismatic bar are increases in the proportion n:1, the proportion with which the maximum stress produced in the bar by its own weight will change by

A 1:n2
B 1:n
C :1
D n:1

Q12 : In limit state design, under – reinforced section is one in which

A Tensile strain in steel reaches yield value while maximum compressive strain in concrete is less than its ultimate crushing strain.
B Maximum tensile stress in steel reaches its permissible value while maximum compressive stress in concrete is less than its permissible value.
C Maximum compressive strain in concrete reaches the ultimate crushing value while tensile strain in steel is less than its yield value.
D Maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches its permissible value while tensile stress in steel is less than its permissible value.

Q13 : In reinforced concrete, pedestal is defined as a compression member, whose effective length does not exceed its least lateral dimension by

A 3 times
B 8 times
C 12 times
D 16 times

Q14 : For RCC bridges, the smallest span beyond which the impact factor is same for class A or B or AA and 70R loading (wheeled vehicles) is

A 9 m
B 12m
C 36 m
D 45 m

Q15 : The purpose of lateral ties in short RCC column is to

A Increase the load carrying capacity of the columns
B Facilitate compaction of concrete
C Maintain plumb while construction
D Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars

Q16 : The side face reinforcement, if required, in a T-beam will be

A 0.1% of the web area
B 0.15% of the web area
C 0.2% to 0.3% of the web area depending upon the breadth of the web
D 0.1% of the total longitudinal reinforcement

Q17 : Match list A with list B and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.

A
.
B

C

D

Q18 : The loss of prestress due to shrinkage of concrete is the product of

A Modular ratio and percentage of steel
B Modulus of elasticity of concrete and shrinkage of concrete
C Modulus of elasticity of steel and shrinkage of concrete
D Modular ratio and modulus of elasticity of steel.

Q19 : Prestressed concrete is more desirable in case of

A Cylindrical pipes subjected to internal fluid pressure
B Cylindrical pipes subjected to external fluid pressure
C Cylindrical pipes subjected to equal internal and external fluid pressures
D Cylindrical pipes subjected to end pressures

Q20 : The applicable IS code for RCC liquid retaining structure is

A IS:456
B IS:800
C IS:1893
D IS:3370

Q21 : Drops in flat slabs are provided to resist

A Bending moment
B Thrust
C Shear
D torsion

Q22 : Increase in the fineness of cement results in

A Increase in the rate of heat of hydration without changing the total amount of heat liberated
B Decrease in the rate of heat of hydration without changing the total amount of heat liberated
C Increase in the rate of heat of hydration with an increase in the total amount of heat liberated
D Decrease in the rate of heat of hydration with a reduced amount of heat liberated

Q23 : As per IS:800, the maximum deflection in a beam should not exceed

A L/180
B L/250
C L/325
D L/360

Q24 : By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be avoided

A Tension failure of the plate
B Shear failure of the rivet
C Shear failure of the plate
D Crushing failure of the rivet

Q25 : Gantry girders are designed to resist

C Longitudinal, lateral and vertical loads

Q26 : Match list I with list II and select correct answer using the loads given below the list

(fy=minimum field stress of steel)

A

B

C

D

Q27: For an I beam the shape factor is 1.12 the factor of safety in bending is 1.5. IF the allowable stress is increased by 20% for the wind and earthquake loads, then the load factor is

A 1.10
B 1.25
C 1.35
D 1.40

Q28 : The channels or angles in the compression chords of the steel truss girder bridges are turned outward in order to increase

A Cross-sectional area
B Sectional modulus
C Torsional constant

Q29 : Match list I (deflection) with list II (expression) for deflection in different types of beams of span ‘l’ subjected to total load ’w’ and select the correct answer using the loads given below the lists:

A

B

C

D

Q30 : In a composite construction

A Interface slipping is prevented by using shear connector
B Differential shrinkage is overcome by using the same grade of concrete for both the components.
C Precast member is always designed to carry the weight of in-situ concrete without props.
D The in-situ concrete cannot be prestressed.

Q31 : For a standard 45o fillet weld, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is

A 1:1
B 1:
C :1
D 2:1

Q32 : In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow

A Normal distribution curve
B Poisson’s distribution curve
C – distribution curve
D Binomial distribution curve

Q33 : If the optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time or activity A are 4, 6 and 8 weeks. Respectively and for activity B are 5, 5.5 and 9 weeks respectively, then

A Expected time of activity A is greater than the expected time of activity B
B Expected time of activity B is greater than the expected time of activity A
C Expected time of both activities A and B are same
D Data too inadequate to compute expected times of activities

Q34 : The reduction in project time normally results in

A Decrease in the direct cost and increase in the indirect cost
B Increase in the direct cost and decrease in the indirect cost
C Increase in both direct and indirect costs
D Decrease in both direct and indirect costs

Q35 : Mobilisation advance up to certain percentage of cost of work is given to a contractor

A On commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him
B For the purchase of construction materials
C For the payment of advances to labour and other staff
D For all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the contract documents

Q36 : Cost – benefit studies are essential to

A Assess the total cost of the work
B Ascertain the relevant escalation in price
C Monitor the expenditure
D Evaluate the viability and worthwhileness of taking up the project

Q37 : If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2 days, the anticipated time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is

A 16 days
B 12 days
C 10 days
D 6 days

Q38 : With the usual notations, capital recovery factor is given by

A

B

C

D

Q39 : A burst event is represented by

A

B

C

D

Q40 : Which of the following is not the function of fastner?

A To hold rails in proper positions
B To join rail with sleepers
D To join sleeper with ballast

Q41 : Geometric design of highway includes (i) Horizontal alignment, (ii) vertical alignment, (iii) arbouri-culture, (iv) Cross section.

Choose the right combination.

A (i), (ii) and (iii)
B (i), (ii) and (iv)
C (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q42 : On a circular curve, the rate of super elevation is ‘e’ while negotiating the curve, vehicle comes a stop. It was observed that the stopped vehicle is sliding inwards in radial direction. If the coefficient of friction is ‘f’ which of the following is true?

A e > f
B e < f
C e < 2f
D None of these is correct

Q43 : Three runways are constructed parallel to each other at an angle of 260o with respect to magnetic north. A pilot is landing from east side while heading west. Which of the following best represents runway designations as seen by pilot (from leftmost to rightmost)

A 26L, 26C, 26R
B 26R, 26C, 26L
C 8L, 8C, 8R
D 8R, 8C, 8L

Q44 : Stripping of asphalt pavement is primarily due to

A Excessive asphalt content in mixture
B Moisture damage
C Fatigue damage
D Use of less tougher aggregate

Q45 : Dowel bars in concrete pavement are placed

A Along 45o to direction of traffic
B Perpendicular to direction of traffic
C Along direction of traffic
D Can be placed in any direction

Q46 : The number of potential conflict points at an intersection of two lane national highway with another two-lane national highway (assuming both are two-way) is

A 8
B 16
C 24
D 32

Q47 : The ruling design speed on a national highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendation is

A 80 kmph
B 100 kmph
C 120 kmph
D 150 kmph

Q48 : Rapid curing cutback bitumen is produced by blending bitumen with

A Petrol
B Diesel
C Benzene
D Kerosene

Q49 : Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

A

B

C

D

Q50 : Temperature variations affect the

A Biological activity of bacteria in sewage
B Viscosity of sewage
C Solubility of gases in sewage
D All options are correct

Q51 : A 25 ml sample was diluted to 250 ml with odourless distilled water so that the odour of the sample no longer perceivable. What was the Threshold odour number ?

A 11
B 10
C 25
D 05

Q52 : Why is proportional flow weir provided in a grit chamber ?

A To reduce the suspended solids entering the grit chamber
B to maintain constant flow velocity in the grit chamber over a certain depth range
C To maintain constant flow depth in the grit chamber
D To allow sewage afresh into the grit chamber

Q53 : For a colony of 10,000 persons having sewage flow rate of 200 L/capita/day, BOD of applied sewage of 300 mg/L and organic loading of 300 kg/day/hectare, the area of an oxidation pond required for treating the sewage of the colony is

A 0.2 hectare
B 1 hectare
C 2 hectares
D 6 hectares

Q54 : Chlorine demand of water is equal to

A applied chlorine
B residual chlorine
C sum of applied and residual chlorine
D difference of applied and residual chlorine

Q55 : Which of these sewers are preferred for combined system of sewage?

A Circular Sewer
B Egg shaped Sewer
C Rectangular Sewer
D Trapezoidal Sewer

Q56 : Cleaning is done by

(i) scraping and removal of top layer in slow sand filter;
(ii) back washing in slow sand filters;
(iii) scraping and removal of top layer in rapid sand filter;
(iv) back washing in rapid sand filters.

A (i) and (iv)
B (ii) and (iii)
C (ii) and (iv)
D (i) and (iii)

Q57 : Which one of the following gases plays a decisive role in affecting the climate of the earth ?

A Carbon dioxide
B Nitrogen
C Hydrogen
D Oxygen

Q58 : Refuse Derived fuel refers to

A segregated high calorific fraction of processed MSW
B segregated low calorific fraction of processed MSW
C Unsegregated processed MSW
D Unsegregated unprocessed MSW

Q59 : The bactaria which live and multiply with or without oxygen are called as

A Aerobic Bacteria
B Anaerobic Bacteria
C Facultative Bacteria
D Masophilic Bacteria

Q60 : Disappearance of pink colour of water of a well due to addition of KMnO4 indicates that water contained

A Acidity
B Alkalinity
C Turbidity
D Organic matter

Q61 : The ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume of soil is

A Void ratio
B Degree of saturation
C Air content
D Porosity

Q62 : Plastic charaeteristics of clays are due to

B Free water
C Capillary water
D Excessive water

Q63 : The Pore water pressure in a capillary zone is

A Zero
B Positive
C Negative
D very low

Q64 : The permeability of soil varies

A Inversely as square of grain size
B as square of grain size
C as grain size
D inversely as void ratio

Q65 : The coefficient of curvature (Cc) of soil is

Q66 : A clay deposit suffers a total settlement of 5 cm with one-way drainage. With two-way drainage, the total settlement will be

A 10 cm
B 2.5 cm
C 20 cm
D 5 cm

Q67 : The compressibility of a field deposit is

A the same as that shown by laboratory sample
B somewhat greater than that shown by laboratory sample
C somewhat smaller than that shown by laboratory sample
D not at all related to that of a laboratory sample

Q68 : Vibratory roelers are best suited for compacting

A coarse sand and gravel
B silts
C clays
D organic soils

Q69 : For a standard compaction test, the mass of hammer and the drop of hammer are as follows

A 2.60 kg. and 450 mm
B 2.60 kg. and 310 mm
C 4.89 kg. and 310 mm
D 4.89 kg. and 450 mm

Q70 : For a saturated soil, skempton's B-parameter is

A nearly zero
B nearly 0.5
C nearly 1.0
D very high

Q71 : The inclination of failure plane behind a vertical wall in the passive pressure case is inclined to the horizontal at

Q72 : Identify the incorrect statement The stability of a slope is decreased by

A removal of a part of slope by excavation
B Shock caused by an earthqnake
C Pore water pressure in the soil
D Providing a berm at the toe

Q73 : In situ Vane shear test is used to measure shear strength of

A sandy soil
B stiff and fissured clays
C very soft and sensitive clays
D heterogeneous disintegrated rock

Q74 : The immediate settlement of a rigid footing is about ________ times the maximum settlement of an equal flexible footing

A 0.90
B 0.80
C 0.70
D 0.60

Q75 : The Permissible settlement is the maximum in the case of

A isolated footing on clay
B isolated fotting on sand
C raft on clay
D raft on sand

Q76 : Two footings, one circular and the other square, are founded in a pure clay. The diameter of the circular footing is the same as the side of the square footing. The ratio of their net ultimate bearing capacities

A is unity
B is 1.3
C is 1/1.3
D cannot be determined with the provided data

Q77 : The bearing capacity of soil supporting a footing of size 3m X 3m will not be affected by the presence of water table located at a depth below the base of footing of

A 1.0m
B 1.5m
C 3.0m
D 6.0m

Q78 : The most comprehensive of the pile driving formula is

A Engineering new formula
B Hiley's formula
C Static capacity formula
D Danish formula

Q79 : Lime stabilisation of clayey soil generally leads to

A decrease in shrinkage limit
B decrease in plastic limit
C increase in liquid limit
D flocculation of particles

Q80 : If the actual observed value of standard penetration resistance, N is greater than 15 in a fine sand layer below water table, then the equivalent penetration resistance will be

D cannot be determined with available data

Q81 :For a soil, field capacity and permanent wilting coefficient are 30% and 12% respectively. The available water in this case is

A 12%
B 18%
C 30%
D 42%

Q82 : A crop requires a total water depth of 90 cm for a base period of 120 days. The discharge required to irrigate the crop in 2880 hectares is

A 0.25 m3/s
B 1.0 m3/s
C 2.5 m3/s
D 10.0 m3/s

Q83 : A plot between rainfall intensity vs time is known as

A isohyet
B hyetograph
C hydrograph
D mass curve

Q84 : A raingauge recorded hourly ranifall as 5cm, 2cm, 4cm and 3cm for a four hour storm respectively. If the index was 3cm/hour, the total direct runoff from a catchment for the storm was

A 14 cm
B 12 cm
C 3 cm
D 2 cm

Q85 : Hydrograph is a plot of

A ranifall intensity vs time
B cummulative rainfall vs time
C runoff depth vs time
D discharge vs time

Q86 : A unit hydrograph has one unit of

A peak discharge
B rainfall duration
C direct runoff
D base time

Q87 : If two 2-hour unit hydrograph are staggered by 2 hours and added graphically, the resulting hydrograph will be

A 2- hour unit hydrograph
B 4- hour unit hydrograph
C 2- hour unit hydrograph with 2cm runoff
D 4- hour unit hydrograph with 2cm runoff

Q88 : The hydrologic flood routing uses

A continuity equation only
B momentum equation only
C both continuity and momentum equations
D energy equation only

Q89 : Steady pumping of a well at 314m3/hour produces drawdowns 4.0m and 2.0m at radial distances 2.0m and 20.0m respectively in a confined aquifer. The transmissivity of the aquifer is about

A 25.00m2 /hour
B 57.55m2/hour
C 28.78m2/hour
D 50.00m2/hour

Q90 : The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between

A minimum pool level and maximum pool level
B minimum pool level and normal pool level
C river bed level and normal pool level
D river bed level and maximum pool level

Q91 : trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of

A outflow/inflow ratio
B capacity/inflow ratio
C capacity/outflow ratio
D all of these is correct

Q92 for the upstseam face of an earthen dam the most adverse condition for stability of slope is  :

A during construction
C sudden drawdown
D during flood

Q93 :The base width of an elementary profile of a concrete gravity dam with no tension criteria and neglecting the uplift pressure is approximetely

A 65% of dam hight
B 75% of dam hight
C 85% of dam hight
D 95% of dam hight

Q94 : Which one of the following is not correct in reference to weir founded on alluvial soil

A a downstream pile is necessary to prevent piping
B in the downstream half of the floor the bligh theory under estimates the uplift pressure
C launching apron protects the pile and impervious floor
D the thickness of impervious floor is computed based on the exit gradient

Q95 : Which one of the following is not a function of under sluices in a weir

A to control silt entry into the canal
B to pass the normal discharge without operating the shutter gates of the weir
C to regulate the supply of water entering into the canal
D to scour the silt deposited in the river bed above the approach channel

Q96 : An aqueduct is provided where

A canal bed level is above the HFL in river
B river bed level is above the FSL of canal
C canal bed level is in between the bed level and HFL of river
D river bed level is in between the bed level and FSL of canal

Q97 : To carry a discharge 100 m3 /s in a regime canal, the perimeter from lacey's theory is about

A 47.5 m
B 30.0 m
C 17.6 m
D 10.0 m

Q98 : The discharge of rigid module depends upon

A the water level in the distributary only
B the water level in the water course only
C the water levels both in the distributary and water course
D neither the water level in the distributary nor the water level in the water course

Q99 : Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from a canal into a natural drain

A canal regulator
B canal fall
C canal outlet
D canal escape

Q100 : A pollulant entered into a confined aquifer of 5 m thick and porosity 25%. If the seepage discharge through the aquifer is 0.25 m2 /s, the travel time of pollutant for 100 m in the aquifer will be (in seconds)

A 20
B 400
C 500
D 2000