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# (Paper) MPPSC: Online Examination of State Engineering Service (Pre.) Exam - 2014 Second Paper (Mechanical Engineering)

## (Paper) MPPSC: Online Examination of State Engineering Service (Pre.) Exam - 2014 Second Paper (Mechanical Engineering)

## Mechanical Engineering

**Q1 : A steel rod of 2 m long is heated through a
temperature of 100 ^{0}C . The coefficient of linear expansion is
= 6.5 X 10^{-6}/^{0}C and E= 2 X 10^{6}N/cm^{2}.
The stress induced in the bar is**

A 1000 N/cm^{2}

B 1200 N/cm^{2}

C 1300 N/cm^{2}

D 1400 N/cm^{2}

**Answer Key: C**

**Q2 : The design calculations for members subjected to
fluctuating loads with the same factor of safety yield the most conservative
estimates when using**

A Gerber relation

B Soderberg relation

C Goodman relation

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: B**

**Q3 : A leaf spring 1 m long carries a central point load
of 2000 N. The spring is made up of plates each 5 cm wide and 1 cmthick. The
bending stress in the plate is limited to 100 N/mm ^{2}. The number of
plates required will be**

A 3

B 5

C 6

D 8

**Answer Key: C**

**Q4 : The stress due to suddenly applied load as compared
to the stress due to the same load gradually applied to the same rod is**

A half

B same

C double

D three times

**Answer Key: C**

**Q5 : Choose the wrong statement**

A The shear force at any section of a beam is equal to the
total sum of the forces acting on the beam on any one side of the section,

B The magnitude of the bending moment at any section of a beam is equal to the
vector sum of the moments (about the section) due to the forces acting on the
beam on any one side of the section,

C A diagram which shows the values of shear forces at various sections of
structured member is called a shear force diagram,

D A simply supported beam is one which is supported on more than two supports.

**Answer Key: D**

**Q6 : Two blocks with masses 'M' and 'm' are in contact
with each other and are resting on a horizontal frictionless floor. When
horizantal force (F) is applied to the heavier body mass 'M', the blocks
accelerate to the right i.e. towards the application force. The force between
the two blocks is**

**Answer Key: D**

**Q7 : A thick walled pressure vessel is subjected to an
internal pressure of 60 MPa. If the hoop stress on the outer surface is 150 MPa,
then the hoop stress on the internal surface is**

A 105 MPa

B 180 MPa

C 210 MPa

D 135 MPa

**Answer Key: C**

**Q8 : A Mohr's circle reduces to a point when the body is
subjected to **

A pure shear

B uniaxial stress only

C equal and opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the
planes being free of shear

D equal axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being
free of shear.

**Answer Key: D**

**Q9 : In a close-coiled helical spring subjected to an
axial load and other quantities remaining the same, if the wire diameter is
doubled, then the stiffness of the spring when compared to the original one will
become**

A two times

B four times

C eight times

D sixteen times

**Answer Key: D**

**Q10 : Considering centrifugal tension, the power
transmitted by belt drive is maximum at velocity V equal to**

**Note: - **T is total tension on tight side and m is mass
per unit length of belt.

**Answer Key: B**

**Q11 : In a hollow circular shaft of outer and inner
diameters of 20 cm and 10 cm respectively, the shear stress is not to exceed 40
N/mm ^{2}. The maximum torque which the shaft can safely transmit is**

A 58.9 KN-m

B 57.9 KN-m

C 56.9 KN-m

D 58.7 KN-m

**Answer Key: A**

**Q12 : Rope brake dynamometer uses**

A oil as lubricant

B water as lubricant

C grease as lubricant

D no lubricant

**Answer Key: D**

**Q13 : Whirling speed of a shaft coincide with the natural
frequency of the**

A longitudinal vibration

B transverse vibration

C torsional vibration

D none of these is correct

**Answer Key: A**

**Q14 : In slider crank mechanism, the maximum acceleration
of slider is obtained when the crank is**

A at the inner dead centre position

B at the outer dead centre position

C exactly midway position between the two dead centres

D slightly in advance of the midway position between the two dead centres.

**Answer Key: A**

**Q15 : Tresca theory of failure is applicable for which of
the following type of materials ?**

A Elastomers

B Plastic

C Ductile

D Brittle

**Answer Key: C**

**Q16 : A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at 200 rpm. The
ultimate shear stress for the steel may be taken as 360 MPa and a factor of
safety as 8. The diameter of solid shaft is**

A 45 mm

B 46 mm

C 48 mm

D 50 mm

**Answer Key: C**

**Q17 : A 1.5 m long column has a circular cross-section of
5 cm diameter. One end of the column is fixed and other end is free. Taking
factor of safety as 3 and E= 120 GN/m ^{2} , safe load according to
Euler's theory is**

A 13.00 kN

B 13.27 kN

C 13.47 kN

D 13.87 kN

**Answer Key: C**

**Q18 : An internal gear having 60 teeth is meshing with an
external gear having 20 teeth. Module is 6 mm. The centre distance of two gears
is**

A 120 mm

B 180 mm

C 240 mm

D 300 mm

**Answer Key: C **

**Q19 : In a cam drive, it is essential to off-set the axis
of follower to**

A decrease the side thrust between the follower and cam
surface

B decrease the work between the follower and cam surface

C take care of space limitation

D reduce the cost

**Answer Key: C**

**Q20 : In equilibrium condition, fluids are not able to
sustain **

A shear force

B resistance to viscosity

C surface tension

D geometric similitude

**Answer Key: C**

**Q21 : The fluid forces considered in the Navier-Stoke's
equation are**

A gravity, pressure and viscous

B gravity, pressure and turbulent

C pressure, viscous and turbulent

D gravity, viscous and turbulent

**Answer Key: A**

**Q22 : A Brayton cycle (Air standard) has a pressure ratio
of 4 and inlet conditions of one standard atmospheric pressure and 27**^{0}**C.
Estimated air flow rate for 100 kW power output (when maximum temperature in the
cycle is 1000**^{0}**C, (γ =1.4, and Cp =1.0 kJ/kg.K) will be **

A 0.24 kJ/kg

B 0.32 kJ/kg

C 0.36 kJ/kg

D 0.42 kJ/kg

**Answer Key: C**

**Q23 : A turbine develops 8000 kW when running at 100 rpm.
The head on the turbine is 36 m. If the head is reduced to 9 m, the power
developed by the turbine will be**

A 16000 kW

B 4000 kW

C 1414 kW

D 1000 kW

**Answer Key: D**

**Q24 : Efficiency of steam turbine can be improved by
**

A reheating of steam

B regenerative feed heating

C binary vapour plants

D all options are correct

**Answer Key: D**

**Q25 : Free convection flow depends on all of the following
except**

A density

B coefficient of viscosity

C gravitational force

D velocity

**Answer Key: D**

**Q26 : Which of the following cycle has maximum efficiency**

A Rankine

B Brayton

C Carnot

D Joule

**Answer Key: C**

**Q27 : The air standard Diesel cycle is less efficient than
the Otto cycle for the**

A same compression ratio and heat addition

B same pressure and heat addition

C same rpm and cylinder dimension

D same pressure and compression ratio

**Answer Key: A**

**28 : The knock in Diesel engine occurs due to **

A instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the
charge

B instantaneous auto ignition of last part of charge

C delayed burning of the first part of the charge

D reduction of delay period

**Answer Key: A**

**Q29 : Compensating devices are provided in carburators**

A to charge the quantity of mixture depending upon load

B to provide always an economy mixture

C to modify the mixture strength depending upon requirements under various
operating conditions

D to supply extra fuel during acceleration only

**Answer Key: C**

**Q30 : Which part is not common between the petrol and
Diesel engine ?**

A air cleaner

B exhaust silencer

C battery

D fuel injector

**Answer Key: D**

**Q31 : Which among the NC operations given below are
continuous path operations ? Arc welding (AW), Milling (M), Punching in sheet
metal (P), Drilling (D), Laser cutting of sheet metal (LC), Spot welding (SW)**

A AW, LC and M

B AW, D, LC and M

C D, LC, P and SW

D D, LC, and SW

**Answer Key: B**

**Q32 : The loss of available energy associated with the
transfer of 1000 kJ of heat from a constant temperature system at 600 K to
another at 400 K, when the environmental temperature is 300 K is **

A 166.67 kJ

B 250.00 kJ

C 500.00 kJ

D 750.00 kJ

**Answer Key: A**

**Q33 : If VN and α are the nozzle exit velocity and nozzle
angle in an impulse turbine, the optimum blade velocity is given by**

**Answer Key: D**

**Q34 : The entropy of universe tends to**

A become zero

B remain constant

C be maximum

D attain a certain finite minimum value

**Answer Key: A**

**Q35 : A counter flow shell and tube heat exchanger is used
to heat water with hot exhaust gases. The water (C _{p} = 4180 J/kg ^{
0}C) flows at a rate 2 kg/s while the exhaust gas (C_{p} = 1030
J/kg ^{0}C) flows at the rate of 5.25 kg/s. If the heat exchanger
surface area is 32.5 m^{2} and the over all heat transfer coefficient is
200 W/m^{2}^{0}C, what is the NTU for the heat exchanger ?**

A 1.2

B 2.4

C 4.5

D 8.6

**Answer Key: A**

**Q36 : A counter flow heat exchanger is used to heat water
from 20 ^{0}C to 80^{0}C by using hot gas entering at 140^{0}C
and leaving at 80^{0}C. The log mean temperature difference for the heat
exchanger is**

A 80^{0}C

B 60^{0}C

C 110^{0}C

D not determinable

**Answer Key: B**

**Q37 : The axis of movement of a robot may include**

A elbow rotation

B wrist rotation

C X-Y coordinate motion

D all options are correct

**Answer Key: D**

**Q38 : Automatic loading and unloading of materials can be
accomplished by means of**

A power push or pull device

B power roller, belt and chain

C automatic couple and uncouple

D all options are correct

**Answer Key: D**

**Q39 : Steam turbines are classified according to**

A direction of flow

B principle of action

C number of cylinder

D arrangement of pressure drop

**Answer Key: D**

**Q40 In nuclear power plants there are three main sources
of radioactive contamination of air. Out of three one of the source is : **

A step-up transformer

B liquid metal

C fission of nuclei of nuclear fuels

D penstock

**Answer Key: C**

**Q41 : Which of the following is not considered a method of
input control in a CAD system ?**

A programmable function box

B joystick

C plotter

D touch material

**Answer Key: C**

**Q42 : A transmission shaft subjected to bending loads must
be designed on the basis of**

A maximum normal stress theory

B maximum shear stress theory

C maximum normal stress and maximum shear stress theory

D fatigue strength

**Answer Key: A**

**Q43 : The flow of fluid through a pipe is laminar, when**

A the fluid is ideal

B the fluid is viscous

C the Reynold's number is less than 2000

D the Reynold's number is more than 3000

**Answer Key: C**

**Q44 : The radiation heat transfer rate per unit area in
(W/m ^{2}) between two plane parallel grey surfaces (emissivity = 0.9)
maintained at 400 K and 300 K (given Stefan Boltzmann's constant σ=
5.67X10^{-8} W/m^{2}K) is **

A 992

B 812

C 464

D 567

**Answer Key: B**

**Q45 : For forced convection, Nusselt number is a function
of**

A Prandtl and Grashoff number

B Reynolds and Prandtl number

C Reynolds and Grashoff number

D Reynolds number only

**Answer Key: B**

**Q46 : The essential physical components of FMS is**

A potentially independent NC machine tools

B a conveyance network to more parts and sometimes tools between machines and
fixturing stations

C an overall control network that coordinates the machine tools, the part-moving
elements and the workpieces

D all options are correct

**Answer Key: D**

**Q47 : Refrigerant used in domestic refrigerators is**

A ammonia

B air

C SO_{2}

D freon-12

**Answer Key: D**

**Q48 : The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at**

A 0^{0}C DBT and 0% RH

B 20^{0}C DBT and 60% RH

C 30^{0}C DBT and 80% RH

D 40^{0}C DBT and 90% RH

**Answer Key: B**

**Q49 : The use of refrigerant R-22 for temterature below
-30 ^{0}C is not recommended due to its**

A good miscibility with lubricating oil

B poor miscibility with lubricating oil

C low evaporating pressure

D high compressor discharge temperature

**Answer Key: D**

**Q50 : Basic law of heat conduction is**

A Fourier's law

B Newton's law

C Stefan's law

D First law of thermodynamics

**Answer Key: A**

**Q51 : The size of weld in butt welded joint is equal to**

A 0.5 times throat of weld

B Throat of weld

C
times throat of weld

D Two times throat of weld

**Answer Key: B**

**Q52 : If two pumps identical in all respects and each
capable of delivering a discharge Q against a head H are connected in series,
the resulting discharge is**

A 2Q against a head 2H

B 2Q against a head H

C Q against a head H

**Answer Key: C**

**Q53 : In interferometric measurement method, the path
difference between one bright band and the next is varied by**

A Half wavelength

B Two half wavelength

C One quarter wavelength

D Two wavelength

**Answer Key: B **

**Q54 : Wear allowance is provided on**

A Go gauge

B Not go gauge

C Both go and not go gauge

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: A**

**Q55 : In ammonia vapour compression system, the
temperature of ammonia after compression will be**

A 0^{o} to 40^{o}C

B 40^{o} to 50^{o}C

C 50^{o} to 70^{o}C

D 70^{o} to 110^{o}C

**Answer Key: D**

**Q56 : C.O.P. of a vapour absorption system can be
increased by using**

A Vapour compression

B Heat exchanger

C Both vapour compression and Heat exchanger

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: B**

**Q57 : Availability of a system at any given state is**

A A properly of the system

B The maximum work obtained as the system goes to dead state

C The total energy of the system

D The maximum useful work obtainable as the system goes to dead state.

**Answer Key: D**

**Q58 : In ABC analysis, the C items are those which
represents**

A Small percentage of the total annual consumption value

B High percentage of the total annual consumption value

C Small percentage of closing inventory value

D High percentage of closing inventory value

**Answer Key: A**

**Q59 : The key features of material requirement planning
system are**

A Planned order release

B Time-phasing of requirement

C Provisions for rescheduling

D All options are correct

**Answer Key: D**

**Q60 : The optimality of a transportation problem is
determined by application of**

A North west corner method

B Modi method

C Vegels application method

D Least cost method

**Answer Key: C**

**Q61 : Which of the following is an advantage of using an
expert system?**

A Imposed structure

B Knowledge engineering resistance

C Vapid prototyping

D All options are correct

**Answer Key: D**

**Q62 : In a M/M/1 queue, with utilization factor of 0.5,
the probability of only one person waiting in the queue is**

A 0

B 1.0

C 0.125

D 1.25

**Answer Key: D**

**Q63 : The condition for irreversibility of a cycle is **

**Answer Key: A**

**Q64 : Production planning consists of **

A Preplanning and routing

B Scheduling and dispatching

C Expediting

D All options are correct

**Answer Key: A **

**Q65 : In electro chemical machining the material removal
is due to**

A Corrosion

B Erosion

C Fusion

D Ion displacement

**Answer Key: D**

**Q66 : CAD/CAM is the inter-relationship between **

A Marketing and design

B Manufacturing and marketing

C Engineering and marketing

D Engineering and manufacturing

**Answer Key: D**

**Q67 : In a linear programming model there are four
decision variables and three constraints. During an iteration, by Simplex
method, the coefficient of the base variable would form**

A An identity matrix

B Slack variables

C Basic solution

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: A**

**Q68 : Crater wear occurs mainly due to**

A Abrasion B Diffusion

C Oxidation

D Adhesion

**Answer Key: B**

**Q69 : Control charts for variables are the examples of**

A P, np, C, u charts

R,
σ charts

C A, B, C, charts

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: B**

**Q70 : PERT and CPM are**

A Techniques to determine project status

B Decision making techniques

C Aids to determine the cost implication of project

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: B**

**Q71 : In Carnot cycle, the algebraic sum of the entropy
change for the cycle is**

A Positive

B Negative

C Zero

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: C**

**Q72 : A perfect gas flows through a nozzle where it
expands in a reversible adiabatic manner. The inlet conditions are 22 bar, 500**^{o}**C,
38 m/s. At exit the pressure is 2 bar. Given R=190 J/Kg K and
=1.35.
The exit velocity will be**

A 700 m/s

B 726 m/s

C 801 m/s

D 701 m/s

**Answer Key: B**

**Q73 : The turbulent flow has**

A Streak line motion

B Parabolic velocity distribution

C Random orientation of fluid particles

D Small slope of velocity profile at the wall

**Answer Key: C**

**Q74 : In a drilling operation, the tool life was found to
decrease from 20 min to 5 min due to increase in drill speed from 200 rpm to 400
rpm. What will be the tool life of that drill under same condition if the drill
speed is 300 rpm**

A 7.9 min

B 8.9 min

C 6.4 min

D 9.8 min

**Answer Key: B**

**Q75 : In the tolerance specification 25D6, the letter ‘D’
represents**

A Grade of tolerance

B Upper deviation

C Lower deviation

D Type of fit

**Answer Key: D**

**Q76 : 3-2-1 method of location in a jig or fixture would
collectively restrict the work-piece in ‘n’ degree of freedom, where the value
of ‘n’ is**

A 6

B 8

C 9 D 12

**Answer Key: C**

**Q77 : Forecasting which assumes a static environment in
the future is**

A Passive forecasting

B Active forecasting

C Long term forecasting

D Short term forecasting

**Answer Key: A**

**Q78 : What is computer numerical control (CNC)?**

A CNC is a self contained NC system for a single machine tool
using a computer controlled by a part program to perform basic NC functions.

B CNC is a self contained system for a single operated manual controlled
machine.

C CNC is a self contained NC system for a multi machine tool operated by a
conventional technique.

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: A**

**Q79 : The area – velocity relationship for compressible
fluid flow is**

**Note : **M is the Mach number and C is the sonic speed.

**Answer Key: A**

**Q80 : For a linear distribution of velocity in the
boundary layer on a flat plate, the ratio of displacement thickness to nominal
thickness is**

A 1/2

B 1/3

C 1/4

D 2/3

**Answer Key: A**

**Q81 :In economics of machining, which one of the following
costs remains constant?**

A Machining cost per piece

B Tool changing cost per piece

C Tool handling cost per piece

D Tool cost per piece

**Answer Key: C**

**Q82 : The heat production from a normal healthy man when
asleep is about**

A 20 Watts

B 40 Watts

C 60 Watts

D 80 Watts

**Answer Key: C**

**Q83 : Deep hole drilling of small diameter (say 200 µm) is
done with EDM by selecting the tool material as**

A Copper wire

B Tungsten wire

C Brass wire

D Tungsten carbide wire

**Answer Key: C**

**Q84 : In ultra machining process, the material removal
rate will be higher for material with**

A Higher toughness

B Higher ductility

C Lower toughness

D Higher fracture strain

**Answer Key: C**

**Q85 : Specific speed of an impulse turbine (Pelton wheel)
ranges from**

A 10-40

B 50-100

C 60-250

D 300-800

**Answer Key: A**

**Q86 : Hydrogen can play an important role as an
alternative fuel to conventional fuel as**

A An energy carrier

B An energy device

C An energy system

D None of these is correct

**Answer Key: A**

**Q87 : When the ordering cost is increased to four times,
the EOQ will be increased to**

A Two times

B Three times

C Eight times

D Ten times

**Answer Key: A**

**Q88 In a reaction turbine :**

A Flow can be regulated without loss

B There is only partial conversion of available head to velocity head before
entry to runner

C The outlet must be above the tail race

D Water may be allowed to enter a part or whole of wheel circumference

**Answer Key: B**

**Q89 : The constant volume cycle is also called**

A Carnot cycle

B Joule cycle

C Diesel cycle

D Otto cycle

**Answer Key: D**

**Q90 : The ratio of mass heat flow rate by convection to
the flow rate by conduction under a unit temperature gradient and through a
characteristic length L is known as**

A Prandtl number

B Nusselt number

C Stanton number

D Peclet number

**Answer Key: D**

**Q91 : A fixed gear having 10 teeth meshes with another
gear having 25 teeth, the centre lines of both the gears being joint by an arm
so as to form an epicyclic gear train. The number of rotations made by the
smaller gear for one rotation of the arm is**

A Three

B Four

C Five

D Six

**Answer Key: C**

**Q92 A cam is to be designed for a knife edge follower with
following data; cam lift 40 mm during 90 ^{o} of cam rotation with SHM,
dwell for the next 30^{o} , during the next 60^{o} of can
rotation the follower returns to its original position with SHM, : dwell
during the remaining 180^{o}. The acceleration of the follower during
its accent and descent are**

A 20.6, 11.8 m/s^{2}

B 20.6, 118 m/s^{2}

C 50.6, 11.8 m/s^{2}

D 50.6, 113 m/s^{2}

**Answer Key: D**

**Q93 : For a band brake, the width of the band for a drum
diameter greater than 1m, should not exceed**

A 150 mm

B 200 mm

C 250 mm

D 300 mm

**Answer Key: A**

**Q94 : Effect of hummer blow in a locomotive can be reduced
by**

A Decreasing the speed

B Using two or three pairs of wheels coupled together

C Balancing whole of the reciprocating parts

D Either by decreasing the speed or using two or three pairs of wheels coupled
together

**Answer Key: D**

**Q95 : A solid circular shaft is subjected to a bending
moment of 3000 N-m and a torque of 10000 N-m. The shaft is made of 45 C8 steel
having ultimate tensile stress of 700 MPa and an ultimate shear stress of 500
MPa. Assume a factor of safety as 6. The diameter of the shaft according to the
maximum shear stress theory is**

A 84 mm

B 85 mm

C 86 mm

D 87 mm

**Answer Key: C**

**Q96 A hydraulic press exerts a total load of 3.5 MN. This
load is carried by two steel rods, supporting the upper head of the :
press. The safe stress is 85 MPa and E=210 kN/mm ^{2} . The diameter of
the rod will be**

A 160 mm

B 161 mm

C 162 mm

D 165 mm

**Answer Key: C **

**Q97 : If the ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the
pitch of rivet is 0.25, then the tearing efficiency of the joint is**

A 0.50

B 0.75

C 0.25

D 0.87

**Answer Key: B**

**Q98 : The diameter of the air cylinder of an air press is
200 mm and the cylinder assembly is held together by six bolts which are of the
length of cylinder. The maximum operating air pressure in the cylinder is 0.9
N/mm ^{2} . The fitted gasket must be preloaded with 20kN forces to
prevent air leakage. The external load on the bolt is**

A 275.6 kN

B 285.2 kN

C 28.52 kN

D 28.82 kN

**Answer Key: C**

**Q99 : A 50 mm diameter solid shaft is welded to a flat
plate by 10 mm fillet weld. The maximum torque that the welded joint can sustain
if the maximum shear stress intensity in the weld material is not to exceed 80
MPa is**

A 2 kN-m

B 2.1 kN-m

C 2.22 kN-m

D 2.35 kN-m

**Answer Key: C**

**Q100 : Oldham coupling is used to connect two shafts
**

A Which are perfectly aligned

B Which are at 90^{o}

C Which have lateral misalignment

D Whose axes intersect at a small angle

**Answer Key: C**

## Printed Study Material for MPPSC

Courtesy : MPPSC