(Download) UPSC: General Studies Solved Question Paper 2012
Union Public Civil Service Commission
General Studies Solved Question Paper
1. Consider the following
statements about Android.
(1) Android is a software stack for
mobile devices that includes on a operating system
(2) Android mobile operating system is based on the Linux
Dercit.
(3) The main hardware platform for Android is the ARM
architecture.
(4) Google Inc. purchased the initial developer of the
software, Android in 2005.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2,3 are true
(b) 1,3,4 are true
(c) 1,2,4 are true
(d) 1&2 are true
2. What is Near Field Communication?
(a) Near field communication is a Bluetooth technology that
concepts two Bluetooth devices.
(b) It is a technology that connects two mobile phones without
Bluetooth technology.
(c) It is a variation of other short range wireless
technologies, which can quickly swap information between devices when they are
touched together.
(d) It is a technology that root out the problem of
interference in C band mobile network.
3. Consider the following statements about HYLAS.
(1) It is a advanced communication satellite built by ISRO.
(2) It is a joint effort of ISRO & NASA.
(3) It is being develop in Partnership with EADA-Astrium of
Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 is true
(b) 1 & 2 are true
(c) All are the true
(d) 1 & 3 true.
4. Consider the following statements.
(1) The Government is setting up the National Environmental
Appraisal and monitoring Authority.
(2) This will be professional, science-based autonomous body
environmental appraisals and monitoring of compliance conditions.
(3) Once appraised by NEAMA Projects would be given final
Environment clearance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2 are true
(b) All are true
(c) 1 & 3 are true
(d) None of these are true.
5. Consider the finding of “Climate change and India: A 4 × 4
Assessment” that is a government report on climate change.
(1) It provides an assessment of impact of climate change in 2030 on four
key sectors of the Indian economy in four climate sensitive regions of India.
(2) There are Agriculture, Water, Natural Ecosystems and Biodiversity.
(3) These regions are Himalaya, Western Ghats, Coastal area & the
North-East region.
(4) The Report has been prepared by MOEF led Indian Network for climate
change Assessment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 as true
(b) Only 1 and 2 are true
(c) All are true
(d) 1, 2 & 3 are true
6. Where is National centre for Marine Biodiversity Located?
(a) Ratnagiri
(b) Paradip
(c) Jamnagar
(d) Lakshadweep
7. Nagoya Protocal is related with?
(a) Conservation of Glaciers.
(b) Promote the use of recycled paper.
(c) Access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable
sharing of benefits.
(d) Discouraging the use of Polythine.
8. Consider the following statements.
(1) About 69% of India dry land – arid semi - arid and dry
sub-humid
(2) An estimated 32% of India total area is affected by land
degradation
(3) 81.45% million hectares, or 24.8 percent of the country25
geographic area is undergoing desertification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 is true
(b) Only 2 is true
(c) Only 1 & 3 true
(d) All are true
9. Consider the following statements.
(1) Rare earth elements are a set of seventeen chemical
elements in the periodic table.
(2) Rare earth elements are a set of fifteen chemical elements
in the periodic table.
(3) Despite their name, rare earth elements are relatively
plentiful in the Earth15 crust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 is true
(b) Only 1 & 2 are true
(c) Only 1 & 3 are true
(d) All are true
10. In the recent times, which committee was constituted for drafting a
National Competition Policy?
(a) G.K. Piilai Committee
(b) Smt. Sudha Rekha Committee
(c) Shri Dharmendra Kumar Committee
(d) Shri Subir Gokarn Committee
11. Which is Astroturfing?
(a) It is a form of advocacy often in support of political or
corporate agenda designed to give the appearance of a grassroot movement.
(b) It is a process which is relating to build a synthetic
carpeting designed to look like natural grass.
(c) It is a technology that ascertain geographical
composition of astrological masses.
(d) None of above
12. Consider the following statements.
(1) Government is planning to establish Special Renewal Energy
zones based on green principles.
(2) The zones will focus on manufacturing low coast green
technologies for the growing effort market.
(3) The government has approved that payment security under
the national solar mission in order to create solar payment security Account to
ensure availability of funds to address possible payment related risk in case of
defaults.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 is true
(b) Only 1 & 3 true
(c) Only 1 & 2 are true
(d) All are true
13. In following statements which are is correct?
(a) On 2011, seventh ministerial meeting of the Arctic
council was organised in Nuuk, Greenland.
(b) Arctic Council is a nine member body.
(c) In nine member body there were only five permanent
participants.
(d) None of the above.
14. Under the citizenship Act, 1995, by which of the following can a
person become a citizen of India?
(1) By Birth
(2) By descent
(3) By Registration
(4) By nationalization
(5) By incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer the code given below:
(a) 1,2,3,4 and 5
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1,2,3 and 5 only
(d) 3,4 and 5 only
15. Which of the following committee/commissions prepared the ground work for the communal award granting separate representation to depressed class in India?
(a) South borough committee
(b) Simon Commission
(c) Nehru Committee
(d) Lothian Committee
16. Consider the following issue:
When the Parliament was in session, these was attack by the natalites on a police station in Bastar region killing policeman as well as some civilians.
Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the issue in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Calling attention motion
(b) Discussion under rule 377
(c) Censure motion
(d) Short duration Discussion
17. Which of the following statements on zonal councils are correct?
(1) They owe their efistence to the constitution of India.
(2) There are five zonal councils in India.
(3) They coordinate relations among the Governments of state
and union territories and the Government of India.
(4) They are set up under the State’s Reorganisation Act,
1956.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
18. Consider the following statements with respect to the Rajya Sabha.
(1) The origin of the Rajya Sabha can be traced back to 1939,
when in pursuance to the government of India act, 1919, a second chamber known
as the council of states was created.
(2) The Rajya Sabha as special powers to declare that it is
necessary and efficient in the national that Parliament may make Laws with
respect to a matter in the State list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. Match List-1 (forms of government) with List-II essential features and select the correct answer using the code given below lists:
List–I List–II (A) Cabinet Government 1. Administrate Law (B) Presidential Governmental 2. Concentration of Power (C) Federal Governmental 3. Separation of Power (D) Unitary Government 4. Collective responsibility
(a) A B C D 4 1 3 2 (b) A B C D 1 2 3 4 (c) A B C D 4 3 1 2 (d) A B C D 2 4 3 1
20. Which part of the constitution of India refers to the
responsibility of the State towards international Peace and Security?
(a) Fundamental rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Emergency Provisions
(d) Preamble of the constitution
Union Public Civil Service Commission
General Studies Solved Question Paper
21. According to the constitution of India, which one of the following
rights cannot be taken away during emergency?
(a) Right to Speak
(b) Right to Freedom of Speech
(c) Right of life
(d) Right to organise
22. Which article of Indian Constitution declares Devnagari Hindi as an
official language of India?
(a) Article 343
(b) Article 348
(c) Article 154
(d) Article 156
23. Who among the following played an important role in the signing of
the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) M.R. Jayker
(d) C.Y. Chintamani
24. The Congress Participated in the election of 1937 and won an
absolute majority in
(a) three provinces
(b) four provinces
(c) five provinces
(d) six provinces
25. Consider the following:
(1) The Amrita Bazar Patrika was started in 1868.
(2) Aruna Asaf Ali was founder of the Congress women
volunteers’ corps.
(3) Bina das fired at the Governor while receiving has degree
at the convocation.
(4) Latika Ghose took part in the Chittagong asmoury raid.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
26. Which among the following was not one of the proposals of the
cabinet Mission?
(a) Dominion status for India would be given after the war
was over.
(b) The British Indian Provinces should be formed into three
groups in order to offer the reality of Pakistan to the Muslim League.
(c) A constituent Assembly would be formed to prepare
constitution of India.
(d) An Interim Government should be formed consisting of the
main Political Parties in India.
27. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order:
(1) Zamindari Abolition Act
(2) Hindu Marriage Act
(3) Minimum wages Act
(4) Abolition of untouchability Act
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 – 4 - 2 - 3
(b) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
(c) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
(d) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
28. The Nehru Liaqat Pact between India and Pakistan was signed in 1950
to resolved the issue of
(a) Protection of minorities
(b) The accession of the Princely states
(c) The border dispute
(d) Economic development of the borderland areas
29. Which reference to the government of India Act 1935, consider the
following statements:
(1) It actually aimed providing a unitary structure to Indian
Policy.
(2) There was a reference to a prime minister who would be
first in a council of ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Who of the following brought out a weakly called Din Bandhu and
also started the Bombay Mill and Milhand’s Association?
(a) Dadabhai Naroji
(b) G.S. Agarkar
(c) Narayan Meghajee Lokhanday
(d) Lalji Naranji
31. During the Indian Freedom struggle, the Dutt-Bradley Thesis was
related to
(a) Communist movement
(b) Entry of Indian into civil services
(c) System of agrarian taxation
(d) Trade union movement and industrial disputes
32. Consider the following statements:
B.P. wadia was
(1) Activity involved in the Home Rule movement of Annie Besant
(2) Summoned to represent Indo at the first International labour conference organised by League of Nations.
Which of eh statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider the following statements: Surendranath Banerjee15 Indian Association
(1) was concerned with a plea for the admission of Indians to
the civil services.
(2) carried on a campaign against the arms act and the
vernacular Press Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Under whose President ship was a special session of the congress
held in Calcutta in September 1920 whom the momentous resolution on
non-cooperation was passed.
(a) Annie Besant
(b) C.R. Das
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
35. Which of the following are the components of foreign capital?
(1) Grants and loan
(2) Internal commercial borrowings
(3) Foreign direct investment
(4) Deposits from non-residents
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
36. Which of the following taxes/cess is levied by states in India?
(a) Tax on motor vehicles
(b) Tax on hotels
(c) Educational cess
(d) Tax on wealth
37. Disguised under employment refers to the situation when
(a) people seem occupied on a full time basis even though the
services they render requires less than full time
(b) workers are underpaid despite doing full time job.
(c) there is a co-existence of unemployment and inflation
(d) the economy experiences under employment equilibrium.
38. Who among the following were the pioneers in estimating poverty in
India for rural and urban areas separately?
(a) P.K. Bardhan and B.S. Minhas
(b) V.M. Bandekar and N. Rath
(c) M. Ahulwalia and P.D. Ojha
(d) E.P.W. Dacosta and N. Rath
39. Demographic dividend refers to a rise in population
(a) between the age group of 1 to 14 years
(b) between the age group of 15 to 64 years
(c) between the age group of 65 to 74 years
(d) above 74 years
40. Which one of the following statements regarding Aam Admi Bima
Yojana (AABY) is not correct?
(a) It was launched in the year 2007
(b) The contribution of the central government and state
governments in the premium is in the ratio of 15:25
(c) The scheme is applicable to rural landless households
(d) It provides insurance against natural death as well as
accidental death.
Union Public Civil Service Commission
General Studies Solved Question Paper
41. Which of the following were the strategies of urban development
adopted in India in the Eleventh Five Year Plan?
(1) Strengthening urban local bodies through capacity building and better
financial management.
(2) Increasing the efficient and productivity of cities by deregulation
and development of land.
(3) Reducing incidence of poverty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
42. Which of the following are India15 average growths rates of GDP a
factor coast (at 1999-200 prices in the Ninth Five Year Plan and Tenth Five Year
Plan respectively?
(a) 6.0%, 8.0%
(b) 5.5%, 7.8%
(c) 5.5%, 7.4%
(d) 5.8%, 8.5%
43. Which of the following observations were made by the national
knowledge commission with regard to their national survey on innovation?
(1) Innovation intensity has increased for large firms and small and
medium enterprises (SMF)
(2) SMEs are registering greater increase in innovation than large firms.
Select the answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A rise in per capita income does not automatically imply an
increase in economic welfare because
(1) distribution of income is not known
(2) rate of growth is not known
(3) it suffers from the limitation of averages.
Select the correct answer using the code below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
45. Which of the following are included in broad money (M3) in India?
(1) Currency with the public
(2) Demand deposit with banks
(3) Time deposit with banks
(4) Other deposit with RBI
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
46. Which of the following was/were the targets for elementary
education during the Eleventh Five Year Plan in India?
(1) Universal enrolment of 6-14 years age group children including the
hard to reach segment
(2) All gender, social and regional gaps in enrolments to be limited by
2011-12
(3) Lovelling of institution for equality.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47. Which one of the following is prescribed investment limit for
medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the micro, small and
medium Enterprises Development Act 2006?
(a) More than Rs. 10 lakhs and less than Rs. 2 crores
(b) More than Rs. 2 crores and less than Rs. 5 crores
(c) More than Rs. 5 crores and less than Rs. 10 crores
(d) More than Rs. 10 crores
48. Which of the following was the measures of integrated slum
development programme adopted in India in the 15th Five Year Plan?
(1) creating and updating database on slums.
(2) using land as resource four housing and shelter
development for slum dwellers.
(3) asking slum dwellers to apply for house loans from
government
(4) granting tenure security to slum dwellers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
49. Consider the following statements regarding the features of the
World Bank.
(1) The Board of Governors is the Supreme body.
(2) The voting Power of the Governor of a member country is
related to the financial contribution to the country concerned.
(3) It gives short-term loan to its members to correct their
temporary balance of payments disequilibrium
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
50. Which of the following was the targeted rate of growth of
agriculture in India during the eleventh Five Year Plan?
(a) 2 percent
(b) 3 percent
(c) 4 percent
(d) 5 percent
51. On which date a separate constituent Assembly for Pakistan was
formed?
(a) 3rth June 1947
(b) 5th June 1947
(c) 10th August 1947
(d) 11th August 1947
52. Who was the Chairman of Press committee in 1921?
(a) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Raja Rammohan Rai
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Lord Hunter
53. CAT Central Administrative Tribunal was promulgated on
(a) 26th January 1950
(b) 26th February 1951
(c) 1st November 1985
(d) 10th December 1948
54. Which Country in the world has still a direct democracy?
(a) France
(b) Poland
(c) Brazil
(d) Switzerland
55. Which of the following is not a common feature of federalism in
India and USA?
(a) Distribution of Powers between union and state
(b) The existence of Supreme Court
(c) Two sets of Judicial organizations
(d) Written constitution
56. In India which organisational/organisations are engaged in
promoting “Cluster Innovation Centres”?
(a) National Innovation Council
(b) Council Innovation Council
(c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(d) Both a and b
57. In which year foreign contribution Regulation act was enacted by
Parliament?
(a) 1977
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
58. In which year Hindu Marriage Act was passed?
(a) 1956
(b) 1955
(c) 1954
(d) 1953
59. A set of instruction given to the computer in a particular sequence
for solving a given problem is know as a
(a) programme
(b) software
(c) machine
(d) language
60. IN computers, combination of four bits is
(a) Word
(b) Nibble
(c) Bit
(d) Byte
Union Public Civil Service Commission
General Studies Solved Question Paper
61. The government of India and the World Bank signed an agreement
recently for a ISA credit of US $352 million for Promoting the
(a) National Dairy support Project
(b) National Electricity Transmission System
(c) Assam Agricultural Competitiveness Project
(d) Rastriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
(e) None of these
62. India15 first ever fourth generation (44) mobile services launched
by Bharti Airtel on 10th April in which of the following cities?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
63. As per the latest judgement of Supreme Court, all categories of
Public and private schools except unaided minority schools will have to keep
aside _______ of seats for poor children?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
64. Which of the following is name of world15 first transgenic sheep
produced by China with a simplified technique of handmade cloning?
(a) Sweatu
(b) Neestu
(c) Deng Fond
(d) Peng Peng
65. The much awaited Integrated Check Post (ICP) at Allari-wagah border
has become function on 8th April 2012 to facilitate Force trade movement. This
ICP connects the cities of
(a) Bathinda and Karanchi
(b) Bathinda and Lahore
(c) Amritsar and Karachi
(d) Amritsar and Lahore
66. The world recognised range for an Inter-Continental Ballistic
Missile (ICBM) is over
(a) 5,500 km
(b) 6,500 km
(c) 7,500 km
(d) 8.500 km
67. Which Ministry has launched ‘Sukhi Griha Scheme’?
(a) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Ministry of Housing and urban Poverty Alleviation
(c) Ministry of Railway
(d) Ministry of health and family welfare
68. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below
List I List II (Tribe) (Region) (a) Semang (1) Congo basin (b) Kirghiz (2) Malaysia (c) Bushman (3) Central Asia (d) Pygmies (4) Kalahari desert Codes: A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
69. Arrange the following countries in ascending order of their
population. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) Bangladesh
(2) Indonesia
(3) Brazil
(4) Pakistan
Codes
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 2, 4, 1, 2
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
70. Match the list I with list II
List I List II (a) Institute for forest productivity (1) Bhopal (b) Indian institute of forest management (2) Ranchi (c) Rain forest Research institute (3) Jorhat (d) Arid forest Research institute (4) Jodhpur A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 d) 3 1 4 2
71. Consider the following statements
(1) The centrally sponsored scheme ‘project tiger’ was
launched in 1972
(2) Government of India15 Programme Indian Rhino vision 2020
zozo aims increasing the numbers of rhinos in Assam to 3000 till 2020
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 2
(d) None of the above
72. Kalahari desert is located in
(1) Botswana
(2) Namibia
(3) Zambia
(4) Zimbabwe
Select the correct answer
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 2 & 3
(d) 3 & 4
73. Which of the following volcanoes are active volcanoes?
(1) Aconcagua
(2) Etna
(3) Fujiyama
(4) Vesuvius
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
74. The Spice park has been established by spice board of India at
(a) Haridwar
(b) Valley of flowers
(c) Silent valley
(d) Kashmir valley
75. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Donetz basin — Russia
(b) Lancashire — U.K.
(c) Shansi — China
(d) Saar — Germany
76. Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases from the equator towards the poles.
Reason(R): Insulation rapidly decreases from the equator towards the poles.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true bat (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is fells but (R) is true.
77. Choose the incorrect Pair
Biosphere Reserve — Russia
(a) Nokrek — Meghalaya
(b) Agasthyamelai — Kesala
(c) Gyan Bharti — Madhya Pradesh
(d) Simlipal — Orissa
78. Countries surroundings North Sea are:
(1) Norway
(2) Denmark
(3) Scotland
(4) Macedonia
Choose the correct option
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
79. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(1) India15 1st Bamboo Museum is located Himachal Pradesh.
(2) India has signed the stories map to demarcate the border
with Bangladesh in August 2011.
Codes
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Match List I with List II
List I List II (A) Aconcagua 1. Highlight peak in Canada (B) Ojasdelsalado 2. Highest peak in north America (C) Mount Logan 3. Highlight Estimate volcano (D) Mount McKinley 4. Highest Active volcano A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
Union Public Civil Service Commission
General Studies Solved Question Paper
81. Fog is a Phenomenon indicating
(a) low average temperature
(b) normal lapse temperature
(c) inversion of temperature
(d) high average temperature
82. Read the following statements and select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(I) Ozone is form of oxygen
(II) It consists of 3 atom of oxygen and one atom of nitrogen
(III) It absorbs ultraviolet rays from solar radiation
(IV) Its maximum concentration is found with him the tropics.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) I and III
(d) III and IV
83. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to WTO
membership?
(I) All WTO members automatically receive the most favoured
nation’s states.
(II) Over 15% of WTO members are from developing countries WTO
membership allows them access to developed markets at the lower tariff.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
84. Which one among the following led to the Greece economic crisis
2010?
(a) Excessive borrowing from IMF
(b) Sudden depre citation of Euro
(c) Unrestricted spending and cheap loan
(d) Out flow of foreign capital due to political unrest.
85. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) a mechanism to reduce
green-house gas emission as per Kyoto protocol implies that:
(a) Industrial countries receive carbon credits by funding carbon saving
projects in another selectively affluent nation.
(b) Industrial countries reduce their carbon emission by using
environmental friendly technology in production.
(c) Developed countries invest in carbon reduction in developing
countries and receive carbon credit in return.
(d) Developed nations purchase carbon credit from thus nations.
86. Which one among the following is the unit raised to protect the
navel assets?
(a) Sager Rakshak Bal
(b) Sagar Suraksha Bal
(c) Sagar Prahari Bal
(d) Sagar Nigrani Bal
87. With which south Asian country has signed an umbrella pact to fight
terror?
(a) Maldives
(b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Pakistan
88. In Sect that can transmit diseases to human are referred to as
(a) Vectors
(b) Carriers
(c) Reservoirs
(d) In cubature
89. A bee sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The
injected acid is:
(a) acetic acid
(b) sulphuric acid
(c) citric acid
(d) methanoic acid
90. Sandalwood tree is considered as a:
(a) total root parasite
(b) total stem parasite
(c) stem parasite
(d) partial root parasite
91. Which of the following organs break fat to produce cholesterol?
(a) Intestine
(b) Liver
(c) Lungs
(d) Kidneys
92. Which are among the following statements regarding cell is not
correct?
(a) Shape and size of cells are related to specific function
(b) Some cell have changing shapes
(c) Each cell has its own capacity to perform
(d) Same type of cells are present in all body tissues.
93. India by becoming a full fledged member of the financial Action
Task force:
(a) will be able to a cess information on suspect accounts in
nations such as Switzerland and UK.
(b) will play an important role in law enforcement matters,
investigations or prosecution of terrorist activities at an international level.
(c) has become a member of organisation for Economic
cooperation and development
(d) all of the above
94. Which one among the following statements about stomach is not
correct?
(a) Stomach acts as a temporary reservoir
(b) Stomach mixes food with gastric juice
(c) Stomach secretes lipase and analyses in gastric juice
(d) Rate of stomach emptying depends on the type of food.
95. Half portion of a rectangular piece of ice is wrapped with a while
piece of cloth while the half with a black one. In this context, which one among
the following statements is correct?
(a) Ice melts more easily under black wrap
(b) Ice melts more easily under while wrap
(c) No ice melts at all under the black wrap
(d) No ice malts at all under while wrap
96. A man is a rest in the middle of a horizontal plane of perfectly
smooth surface of ice. He can move himself to the shore by making use of
newtons.
(1) Third law of motion
(2) First law of motion
(3) Second law of motion
(4) First, second and third law of motion
Arrange the following states of India in descending order of
their mangrove covers and select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Orissa
(d) West Bengal
Code
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 4, 2, 1, 3
97. Which of the following are not the examples of shifting
cultivation?
(1) Ladang
(2) Haciends
(3) Pondu
(4) Fazenda
Code
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 2 & 4
(d) 3 & 4
98. IRIPS (Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Right)
agreement is administrated by:
(a) United nations conference on Trade and developments
(UNCTAS)
(b) World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO)
(c) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(d) World Bank (WB)
99. Consider the following statements:
(1) The G20 was established in 2008 in the wake of global
financial crisis led by the USA.
(2) It brings together the major advanced and emerging
economics to stablise the global financial markets.
(3) India25 stand on Mutual Assessment Process (MAP) for
measuring imbalances between surplus and deficit economies in the Seoul
conference of G20 in the year 2010 was firmly endorsed by all the nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
100. With which Arab Country has India signed a pact on transfer of
sentenced prisoners?
(a) United Arab Prisons
(b) Iraq
(c) Qatar
(d) Yemen
101. Which one among the following statements is correct?
(a) Concave mirrors are used as reflectors
(b) Convert mirrors are used by doctors to examine oral cavity
(c) Convert mirrors are used as selectors
(d) Convert mirrors should be used as sharing.