(FREE) UPSC Current Affairs 2024 PDF

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Store Officer (GAT)

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Store Officer

(GAT)

1. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘The story indicates the subtle _______ of the system in crushing the movements of the people ’?
(a) engagement
(b) interest
(c) involvement
(d) check

2. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘It is ______ simpler to do mental calculation when you have small figures’?
(a) more
(b) better
(c) too
(d) much

3. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘Travellers who visit foreign countries have to get their passports _________ by the Embassy’?
(a) endorsed
(b) signed
(c) authorized
(d) legalized

4. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘People do not have easy ________ to protected areas’?
(a) approach
(b) reach
(c) access
(d) excess

5. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘He was so surprised that he looked at the man with _________’?
(a) confusion
(b) shock
(c) confidence
(d) perplexity

6. Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘The establishment found him a capable person in many ways’?
(a) Weak
(b) Inefficient
(c) Lazy
(d) Uninspiring

7. Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘It was after long trial that he was convicted of murder’?
(a) Dismissed
(b) Relieved
(c) Released
(d) Acquitted

8. Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘It is not easy to preserve one’s equanimity under trying circumstances’?
(a) Perspicuity
(b) Nervousness
(c) Animosity
(d) Hostility

9.Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘Independence has come after a long and arduous struggle’?
(a) Eager
(b) Intense
(c) Easy
(d) Apathetic

10. Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘The speed of the growth of a plant is influenced by a number of factors, most of which we have no control over’?
(a) Deterred
(b) Persuaded
(c) Restrained
(d) Instigated

11. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘We buy vegetables from the market’?
(a) Procure
(b) Obtain
(c) Purchase
(d) Get

12. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘He saw no alternative but to harass every official he knew, and to campaign in the press’?
(a) Choice
(b) Opportunity
(c) Alternate
(d) Change

13. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘Workers who repeat the same operation day after day can take no pleasure in their work’?
(a) Do regularly
(b) Hear regularly
(c) Say regularly
(d) See regularly

14. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘Raju’s appearance on the scene inspired the people’?
(a) Startled
(b) Dampened
(c) Elevated
(d) Stimulated

15. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘I was very apprehensive about the outcome of the meeting’?
(a) Excited
(b) Hopeful
(c) Depressed
(d) Concerned

16. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘Where, after all, have they hidden the stolen property’ has an error?
(a) Where, after all,
(b) have they hidden
(c) the stolen property
(d) No error

17. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘What his father is, is of no interest to me, nor to my colleagues who, like me, have a poor opinion of him’ has an error?
(a) What his father is
(b) is of no interest to me
(c) nor to my colleagues who, like me, have a poor opinion of him
(d) No error

18. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘He got up quickly and stalked out of the room, slamming the door behind him’ has an error?
(a) He got up quickly
(b) and stalked out of the room
(c) slamming the door behind him
(d) No error

19. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘It takes a lot of stamina to climb on a mountain’ has an error?
(a) It takes
(b) a lot of stamina
(c) to climb on a mountain
(d) No error

20. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘In the relatively short history of industrial developing on the United States, New York has played a vital role’ has an error?
(a) In the relatively short history
(b) of industrial developing on the United States
(c) New York has played a vital role
(d) No error

Click Here to Download Full Paper PDF

Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

21. The federal system of Government in India was first prescribed by:
(a) The Government of India Act, 1909.
(b) The Government of India Act, 1919.
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935.
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947.

22. Which one of the following is the date of commencement of the Constitution of India?
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 26th November, 1949
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) 9th December, 1946

23. Which one of the following was NOT associated with the Non Aligned Movement?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Josip Broz Tito
(c) General Abdel Nasser
(d) Desmond Tutu

24. Which one of the following statements regarding the SAARC is NOT true?
(a) The SAARC has seven member countries
(b) The SAARC Secretariat is located in Kathmandu
(c) The Secretary General of the SAARC is appointed by the Council of Ministers from member States in an alphabetical order
(d) The current Secretary General of SAARC is Mr. Amjad Hussain B. Sial

25. Republicans and Democrats are the names of Political Parties in:
(a) United Kingdom
(b) United States of America
(c) Australia
(d) Germany

26. Which one of the following CPSEs does NOT have the Maharatna Status?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(b) Coal India Limited
(c) National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
(d) Bharat Electronics Limited

27. The Universal Declarati on of Human Rights (UDHR) was made in the year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1948

28. Which one of the following Acts / Treaties led to the creation of the European Union?
(a) The Single European Act
(b) The Maastricht Treaty
(c) The Treaty of Amsterdam
(d) The Treaty of Nice

29.Which one of the following Commissions was NOT set up by an Act of Parliament?
(a) The National Commission for Women
(b) The National Commission for Minorities
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The National Human Rights Commission

30. Which of the following is NOT a central tenet of liberalism?
(a) Individual liberty or freedom is a fundamental value
(b) Individual freedoms may clash with similar freedoms of others
(c) To alleviate conflict limitations on freedoms may justifiably be made
(d) Freedom and equality are irreconcilable

31. Which one of the following statements about appointment of judges is NOT correct?
(a) Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President as per the provisions under Article 124 of the Constitution of India
(b) In the case of the appointment of a judge other than the Chief Justice of India, the Chief Justice of India is consulted
(c) Only a person who has been a judge of the High Court for at least 5 years or an advocate of a High Court for a period of at least 10 years may be appointed a judge in the Supreme Court

32. Which of the following is/are the implication(s) of the judgment in the Lily Thomas v. Union of India and others case?
1. A convicted MP or MLA is disqualified from contesting elections from the date of his or her conviction
2. A convicted MP or MLA cannot contest election for a further period of six years after release from prison after serving his or her sentence
3. An MP or MLA is protected from any judicial proceedings till the time he or she remains a Member of the Parliament or State Legislature
4. He or she is protected against immediate disqualification under the Representation of the People Act 1950
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Which one of the following statements about the Gandhian principle of ahimsa is NOT correct?
(a) There is an inviolable connection between truth and ahimsa
(b) It is adopted from the Buddhist tenet ‘ahimsa parama dharma’
(c) It can be achieved by the discipline of ‘mind and body’ or tapas
(d) Satyagraha may be practiced privately and does not necessarily require a public statementof intent

34. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India assures the right to equality?
1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 17
4. Article 19
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4

35. Which one of the following is NOT a salient feature of the political system in India?
(a) Rigid Constitution
(b) Democratic Republic
(c) Secular State
(d) Asymmetrical Federalism

36. Which of the following is / are characteristic(s) of pressure groups?
1. They are organized associations which aim to influence the policies or actions of the Governments
2. They have a narrow focus and serve the cause and interests of particular groups
3. They seek political power by exercising influence from the outside
4. They are like social movements since both have formal structures of organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 only

37. Which one of the following was the official mascot of FIFA U-17 World Cup Football 2017?
(a) Kheleo
(b) Rongman
(c) Shera
(d) Olly

38. Which one of the following statements about the Global Competitiveness Index 2017-2018 Rankings is correct?
(a) United States is at the top of the index
(b) India has slipped one place from the ranking of previous year
(c) Among the BRICS economies, Russia is at the top
(d) Sri Lanka is at the top place among South-East Asian countries

39. Recently, India has entered into an agreement with which one of the following countries to undertake a joint tiger census in their national parks, forests and protected areas adjoining the two countries?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal

40. Which one among the following countries has recently decided to pull out of the United Nation’s cultural organization UNESCO accusing it of being anti-Israel?
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) USA
(d) China

41.Exercise INDRA-2017, is the first ever Tri Services Joint Exercise between Indian Armed Forces and Armed Forces of:
(a) Japan
(b) Israel
(c) USA
(d) Russia

42. Which one of the following statements about Asia Cup Hockey Tournament-2017 (Men) is NOT correct?
(a) India defeated Malaysia in the final
(b) India clinched their third consecutive Asia Cup hockey title
(c) Pakistan won the bronze medal after defeating Korea
(d) The tournament was held in Dhaka

43. Which of the following statements about Girija Devi, who died in October, 2017 is / are correct?
1. She was considered as the queen of Thumri
2. She was a legendary singer of the Delhi Gharana
3. She was awarded the Padam Shri, the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

44. Why was Etikoppaka village of Andhra Pradesh in news recently?
(a) Obtained GI tag for its traditional toys made by the artisans in the village
(b) Declared India’s first open defecation free village
(c) India’s first village to have 100 per cent literacy rate
(d) India’s first village to have access to solar energy in all its households

45. What is ‘SAAW’, which was recently tested successfully by DRDO?
(a) Anti aircraft missile
(b) Guided bomb
(c) Battle tank
(d) Submarine

46. Who among the following was chosen for the 53rd Jnanpith Award?
(a) Suranjan Das
(b) Shamim Hanif
(c) Krishna Sobti
(d) Shankha Ghosh

47. ‘Vigilant Ace’, an air exercise, was conducted in December 2017 between:
(a) USA and South Korea
(b) North Korea and Russia
(c) India and Japan
(d) South Korea and Japan

48. Mirabai Chanu is famous for which one of the following sports?
(a) Table Tennis
(b) Archery
(c) Weightlifting
(d) Boxing

49. Who among the following is appointed as the Chairman of the Fifteenth Finance Commission?
(a) Dr. Anoop Singh
(b) Shri Shakti kanta Das
(c) Shri N K Singh
(d) Dr. Ramesh Chand

50. Which one of the following is NOT a salient feature of the National Nutrition Mission proposed to be set up in India?
(a) ICT based Real Time Monitoring System
(b) Incentivizing States / UTs for meeting the targets
(c) Social Audit
(d) Introduction of registers for Anganwadi Workers

51. Which one of the following is the exponent of 10 which divides the number 511 × 1010 × 353 × 483 × 564 × 757 ?
(a) 10
(b) 24
(c) 34
(d) 38

52. Inan examination, 53% passed in History, 61% passed in Geography, 60% passed in Sociology,21% passed in both History and Geography, 35% passed in both History and Sociology, 30% passed in both Geography and Sociology and 5% in none of the subjects. The ratio of percentage of candidates passed in History and Geography but not in Sociology relative to the percentage of candidates passed in History and Sociology but not in Geography is:
(a) 7 : 5
(b) 5 : 7
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 2

53. Which of the following holds true if a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive odd numbers inascending order?
1. Their average is (a + 4)
2. Their average is (b – 2)
3. Their average is (e – 4)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following figure:

UPSC

Three girls, A, B and C are standing at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown in thefigure above. Which one of the following statements will hold true if A, B and C move along thesides in clockwise direction and stop after covering 1 2 1 sides of the triangle by each of them?
(a) B will be N 300 E of C
(b) A will be S 600 E of C
(c) A will be S 300 E of C
(d) None of these

55. Consider the following figures:

UPSC
Which one of the following is the missing number?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

56. Find the odd one out in the following terms related to Indian railways:
(a) WL
(b) CNF
(c) RAC
(d) PNR

57. Find the odd one out in the following terms related to places in India:
(a) Delhi
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan

58. On expanding the product (x1 + y1) (x2 + y2) … (x10 + y10) which have 10 factors, the number of terms which will have two x’s and eight y’s is:
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) 45

59. Given that 1st December 2019 is Sunday. Then 1st December 2023 is a:
(a) Wednesday
(b) Thursday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday

60. To indicate travelling 1km towards North, South, East and West, we write N, S, E and W respectively. Then WSENSESSSESEN results travelling:
(a) 7 km to a point lying between South and East direction.
(b) 7 km to a point lying between North and East direction.
(c) 5 km to a point lying between North and East direction.
(d) 5 km to a point lying between South and East direction.

61. Three distinct single digit positive integers x, y, z are picked. If x < y < z and their product xyz is 48, then number of possible such triplets is:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

62. What will be the maximum value of Q in the equation 5P9+3R7+2Q8=1114 ?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 8

63. Consider the following Table showing distribution of scores of boys and girls in a small class:

UPSC

Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Class average is less than the average among the girls
(b) Class average is less than the average among the boys
(c) A boy secured the highest score
(d) A girl secured the least score

64. Consider the following:
P+Q indicates that P and Q are married to each other
P–Q indicates that P and Q are children of the same parents
P×Q indicates that Q is a child of P
If M+S, S×T, L×M and T–N, then which one of the following holds?
(a) L is a parent of S
(b) L is a parent of N
(c) L is a grandparent of N
(d) T is a grandchild of S

65. A word is coded by replacing the j-th letter of the word by the letter obtained by advancing j places in the alphabet. Assume that Z is followed by A. Then the codes for ZORRO and BAAZY are respectively given by:
(a) AQUVT and CCCDD
(b) APUVT and CCCDC
(c) APQVT and CDDDC
(d) AQUVT and CCDDD

66. Seven years back the age of X was five times her daughter and the next year, the age of X will be three times her daughter. What is present age of the daughter?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 40

67. A job can be completed by 50 persons in 100 days. For 80 days, 60 persons worked. In how many days can 20 persons compete the remaining part of the job?
(a) 1 day
(b) 10 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 50 days

68. If 1 Dollar is 55 Rupees, 1 Euro is 500 Yens and 1 Euro is 1.5 Dollar, then approximately how many of Yens is one Rupee?
(a) 5.1
(b) 5.5
(c) 5.05
(d) 6.06

69. An amount is distributed in three parts in the proportion of 4 : 9 : 7. If the largest part turns out to be Rs. 25,200, which one of the following will be the smallest part?
(a) Rs. 19,500
(b) Rs. 11,200
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) Rs. 7,000

70. If the two dice each with six faces marked 1 to 6 are thro wn, what is the probability that the sum of the two outcomes is 6?
(a) 1/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 5/36
(d) 7/36

71. The Annual Accounts of the Government of India showing under the respective Heads the annual receipts and disbursements and statement of balances for the purpose of the Union, called Finance Accounts, shall be prepared and signed by:
(a) the Controller General of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance.
(b) the Chief Controller of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance.
(c) the Chief Controller of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs), Ministry of Finance.
(d) the Controller of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance.

72. For capital outlay, other than capital outlay met out of specific loans raised by the Government, who among the following determines the rate of interest to be levied?
(a) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(d) Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

73. Mr. X, a Government Servant was asked to issue a sanction to a necessary expenditure before funds for that activity for the Financial Year 2017-18 were communicated. What should he do?
(a) He should refuse to issue the sanction stating that sanctions can be issued only after fundscan be communicated
(b) He should issue a sanction specifying that expenditure is subject to funds being communicated in the budget of the year
(c) He should wait till the funds for the Financial Year 2017-18 are communicated
(d) He should prepare the sanction, get it approved by the competent authority and issue it only after the funds are communicated in the budget of the year

74. The financial powers of the Government which have NOT been delegated to a subordinate authority vests with:
(a) Administrative Ministry.
(b) Ministry of Finance.
(c) Cabinet Secretariat.
(d) Parliament.

75. As per General Financial Rul es, 2017 which of the following statements regarding a Service Book is / are correct?
1. The service book should be maintained in duplicate
2. If a Government Servant wants a copy of the service book, Rs. 500 should be paid initially by him
3. A copy of the Service Book should be given to a new appointee within six months of the date of appointment
4. All Service Books should be digitized
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

76. Which of the following has NOT been mentioned under the Standards of Financial Propriety in General Financial Rules, 2017?
(a) Every officer is expected to exercise the same vigilance in respect of expenditure incurred from public moneys as a person of ordinary prudence would exercise in respect of expenditure of his own money
(b) The expenditure should not be prima facie more than the occasion demands
(c) No authority should exercise its powers of sanctioned expenditure to pass an order which will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage
(d) While discharging the duties of financial concurrence of any public expenditure, such authorities subsequent to such decision, shall not be involved in any future financial/audit/payment responsibilities which may create conflict of interest

77. Which one of the following is the format in which the utilization certificate in respect of nonrecurring Grants to an Institution or Organization is to be submitted?
(a) Form GFR 12-A
(b) Form GFR 12-C
(c) Form GFR 13
(d) Form GFR 14

78. Release of Grants-in-aid in excess of what percentage of the total amount sanctioned for the subsequent financial year shall be done only after the utilization certificate and the annual audited statement relating to Grants-in-aid released in the preceding year are submitted to the satisfaction of the Ministry/Department concerned?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%

79. In which one of the following instances, Utilization Certificates need NOT be furnished in so far as Grants-in-aid are concerned?
(a) Non-recurring grants to an Institution or Organization
(b) Central Grants given to State Governments for implementation of Central Scheme
(c) Central Grants given to State Governments for expenditure to be incurred by them through local bodies or private institutions
(d) Grants-in-aid being made as reimbursement of expenditure already incurred on the basis of duly audited accounts

80. Who among the following submits a copy of Annual Assessment Report on status of all outstanding loans of a Ministry, including timely and accurate payment of principal and interest due, to the Ministry of Finance and by what date?
(a) Financial Advisor of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of June
(b) Financial Advisor of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of September
(c) Controller of Accounts of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of June
(d) Controller of Accounts of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of September

81. Which one of the following is the nodal agency for executing the legal agreement for loans or grants from external funding agency(ies)?
(a) Controller of Aid, Accounts and Audit
(b) Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(c) Controller General of Accounts
(d) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance

82. As per General Financial Ru les, 2017 which one of the following is the rate of Guarantee Fee per annum for external borrowings?
(a) 0.25%
(b) 1.00%
(c) 1.20%
(d) 2.50%

83.What is the limit beyond which loss of immovable property, such as buildings, communications, or other works caused by fire, flood, cyclone, earthquake or any other natural cause, is to be reported by the subordinate authority concerned to Government through the usual channel instead of bringing to the notice of the next higher authority?
(a) Above Rs. 50,000
(b) Above Rs. 75,000
(c) Above Rs. 60,000
(d) Above Rs. 25,000

84. Which of the following is / are correct in respect of the Government Guarantees?
1. The Guarantee fee should be levied before the guarantee is given and thereafter on first September every year
2. Government Guarantees will be extended to only central public sector companies / agencies
3. Government Guarantees shall be provided to the private sector on need basis.
4. Government Guarantees should normally not be extended for external commercial borrowings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

85. The Guarantee Redemption Fund for redemption of guarantees given by the Central Government, whenever such guarantees are invoked, is established in:
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Contingency Fund of India
(c) Public Account of India
(d) Current Account

86. What is the time limit beyond which a Travelling Allowance claim of a Government Servant shall stand forfeited?
(a) 60 days of its becoming due
(b) Three months of its becoming due
(c) Six months of its becoming due
(d) One year of its becoming due

87. The time limit for submission of the Leave Travel Concession claims by a Government Servant, where an advance has been drawn, from the date it falls due is:
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days

88. Which one of the following devic es is intended to facilitate the Designated Officer thereof to credit receipts into and effect withdrawals directly from the account, subject to an overall check being exercised by the bank in which the account is authorized, to be opened?
(a) Current Account
(b) Personal Deposit Account
(c) Public Account
(d) Revenue Account

89. Which one of the following can be treated as losses NOT due to depreciation?
(a) Normal fluctuation of market prices
(b) Normal wear and tear
(c) Losses due to theft or fraud
(d) Lack of foresight in regulating purchases

90. As per General Financial Rules, 2017 all Drawing and Disbursing Officers have to maintain separate registers physically or electronically for allocation under each minor or sub-head of account with which they are concerned. In which form is this register to be maintained?
(a) Form GFR 3
(b) Form GFR 4
(c) Form GFR 5
(d) Form GFR 6

91.As per General Financial Rules, 2017 all Grantee Institutions or Organizations which receive more than a certain value of their recurring expenditure in the form of Grants-in-aid, should ordinarily formulate terms and conditions of service of their employees which are, by and large, not higher than those applicable to similar categories of employees in Central Government.What is that value of recurring expenditure?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%

92. What does PFMS stand for?
(a) Public Finance Monitoring System
(b) Public Financial Management System
(c) Plan Fund Management System
(d) Public Fund Management System

93. What do you call a significant expenditure incurred with the object of acquiring tangible assets f a permanent nature or enhancing the utility of existing assets?
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Voted Expenditure
(d) Charged Expenditure

94.Which head is called the final unit of appropriation?
(a) Major Head
(b) Minor Head
(c) Object Head
(d) Detailed Head

95. Who among the following is the Chief Accounting Authority of the Ministry / Department?
(a) Financial Advisor
(b) Secretary
(c) Controller of Accounts
(d) Chief Controller of Accounts

96. Which one of the following statements with regard to the advance payment to be made to the supplier is NOT correct?
(a) Ordinarily, payments for services rendered or supplies made should be released only fter the services have been rendered or supplies made
(b) Normally, thirty per cent of the contract value can be paid as advance for fabrication contracts, turn-key contracts etc. to private firms
(c) Normally, fifty per cent of the contract value can be paid as advance for fabrication contracts, turn-key contracts etc. to a State or Central Government agency or a Public Sector Undertaking
(d) In case of maintenance contract, the amount should not exceed the amount payable for six months under the contract

97.As per General Financial Rules, 2017 who is NOT exempted from the payment of Bid security?
(a) Micro and Small Enterprises (MSE) as defined in MSE procurement policy issued by Department of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
(b) Firms registered with Central Purchase Organization
(c) Startups as recognized by Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)
(d) Kendriya Bhandar and Super Bazar

98.Which of the following values of the contract should be taken as performance security from thesuccessful bidder who has been awarded the contract?
(a) 2 to 5%
(b) 3 to 6%
(c) 4 to 7%
(d) 5 to 10%

99. Which one of the following is the estimated value of the procurement of goods below which the method of Limited Tender Enquiry may be adopted by a Ministry / Department?
(a) Rs. 10 Lakh
(b) Rs. 15 Lakh
(c) Rs. 25 Lakh
(d) Rs. 50 Lakh

100. What is the limit below which goods can be purchased without quotation?
(a) Rs. 15,000
(b) Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 25,000
(d) Rs. 30,000

101. As per the Government e-Market place (GeM), which one of the following regarding procurement of Goods and Services is NOT correct?
(a) Procurement up to Rs.50,000 can be made through any of the available suppliers on the GeM
(b) Procurement can be made above Rs.50,000 and up to Rs.30,00,000 through the GeM seller having lowest price amongst the available sellers, of at least three different manufacturers, on GeM
(c) Procurement can be made above Rs.30,00,000 through the supplier having lowest price meeting the requisite quality, specification and delivery period after mandatorily obtaining bids, using online bidding or reverse auction tool provided on GeM
(d) Above Rs.50,00,000 procurement can be made through the supplier having lowest price meeting the requisite quality, specification and delivery period after mandatorily obtaining bids, using online bidding or reverse auction tool provided on GeM

102. Department of Personnel and Training floated an open tender, which resulted in only one effective offer. What should the Department do now as per the provisions contained in the General Financial Rules, 2017?
1. It should go for re-tendering
2. It should check whether the procurement was satisfactorily advertised and sufficient time was given for submission of bids
3. It should ensure that qualification criteria were not unduly restrictive and pricesare reasonable in comparison to market values
4. It should proceed ahead treating the effective offer as a single tender contract
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

103. Under the provisions of the General Financial Rules, 2017, goods costing what value may be purchased on each occasion on the recommendation of a duly constituted Local Purchase Committee?
(a) Rs. 15,000 to 1.5 Lakh
(b) Rs. 20,000 to 2.0 Lakh
(c) Rs. 25,000 to 2.5 Lakh
(d) Rs. 30,000 to 3.0 Lakh

104. Which one of the following does NOT come under the definition of ‘Goods’ as per General Financial Rules, 2017?
(a) Live stock
(b) Software
(c) Technology transfer
(d) Books for library

105.In case of furnishing of security by Government Servants handling cash, what should be the form in which Fidelity Bond deposited as security is to be executed?
(a) Form 17
(b) Form 14
(c) Form 15
(d) Form 16

106. What do we call a contract in which the price payable for supplies or services under the contract is determined on the basis of actual cost of production of the supplies or services concerned and profit either at a fixed rate per unit or at a fixed percentage on the actual cost of production?
(a) Percentage contract
(b) Lump-sum contract
(c) Retainership cum success fee based contract
(d) Cost plus contract

107. Price variation clause can be provided only in a long term contract, where delivery period extends beyond:
(a) 6 months.
(b) 12 months.
(c) 18 months.
(d) 24 months.

108. In how many days should a contract document be executed after the issue of letter of acceptance?
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 28 days

109. As per the provisions contained in General Financial Rules, 2017, the Ministries/Departments have to work out their procurement requirements of Goods and Services as per their requirement/suitability at the time of preparation of Budget Estimates and have to project their Annual Procurement Plan of Goods and services on Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal. In how many days after the Budget approval should this be done?
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days

110. Which one of the following organizations is NOT covered under the reserved items and otherpurchase / price preference policy of the Government?
(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
(b) Association of Corporations and Apex Societies of Handlooms (ACASH)
(c) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
(d) Kendriya Bhandar, Super Bazar and National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation Limited

111. Under the General Financial Rules, 2017, what should be the minimum number of supplier firms in a Limited Tender Enquiry?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

112. Norma lly, the Limited Tender Enquiry is used when estimated value of the goods to be procured is upto the limit specified in the General Financial Rules. Out of the circumstances given below, which circumstance is NOT a situation in which goods can be procured through Limited Tender Enquiry?
(a) The competent authority in the Ministry or Department certifies that the demand is urgent and any additional expenditure involved by not procuring through advertisedtender enquiry is justified in view of urgency
(b) There are sufficient reasons, to be recorded in writing by the competent authority,indicating that it will not be in public interest to procure the goods through advertised tender enquiry
(c) The sources of supply are definitely known and possibility of fresh source(s) beyond those being tapped is remote
(d) It is in the knowledge of the user department that only a particular firm is the manufacturer of the required goods

113. Which one of the following is NOT a reason for adopting the method of procurement of goods from a single source?
(a) It is in the knowledge of the user department that only a particular firm is the manufacturer of the required goods
(b) In a case of emergency, the required goods are necessarily to be purchased from a particular source and the reason for such decision is to be recorded and approval of competent authority obtained
(c) For standardization of machinery or spare parts to be compatible to the existing sets of equipment (on the advice of a competent technical expert and approved by the competent authority), the required item is to be purchased only from a selected firm
(d) It will not be in public interest to procure the goods through advertised tender enquiry

114. As per General Financial Rules, 2017 bid security is to be obtained from the bidders unless they are exempted from paying the bid security. What percentage of the estimated value of the goods to be procured should be the bid security?
(a) 1 to 4%
(b) 2 to 5%
(c) 4 to 7%
(d) 5 to 10%

115. What is the value of the procurement of non-consulting service above which it is mandatory for the Ministry/Department to issue advertisement on Central Procurement Portal and on Government e-Marketplace (GeM)?
(a) Rs. 5 Lakh
(b) Rs. 10 Lakh
(c) Rs. 15 Lakh
(d) Rs. 25 Lakh

116. As per General Financial Rules, 2017 which one of the following is NOT a method used forselection/evaluation of Consultancy proposals?
(a) Quality alone Based Selection
(b) Quality and Cost Based Selection
(c) Least Cost System
(d) Single Source Selection

117. Which one of the following is NOT a Consulting Service as per General Financial Rules, 2017?
(a) Management Consultants
(b) Finance, Accounting and Taxation services
(c) Annual Maintenance Contract
(d) Communications Consultants

118. What is the value above which an enquiry for seeking “Expression of Interest” from consultants for identifying likely source of consulting service should be mandatorily published on Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP) and Government e-Marketplace (GeM) by the Ministry/Department?(a) Rs. 10 Lakh
(b) Rs. 15 Lakh
(c) Rs. 20 Lakh
(d) Rs. 25 Lakh

119. Find the odd one amongst the following modes of purchase mentioned in General Financial Rules, 2017.
(a) Purchase through Local Purchase Committee
(b) Limited Tender Enquiry
(c) Single Tender Enquiry
(d) Purchase through Government e-Marketplace

120. According to the General Financial Rules, 2017, what is the process of obtaining bids in two stages, with receipt of financial bids after receipt and evaluation of technical bid, called?
(a) Two bid system
(b) Two-stage Bidding
(c) Electronic Reverse Auction
(d) Electronic Bidding