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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2020 (Geology Paper-II)


(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2020

(Geology Paper-II)


Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2020 : Geology Paper- II

Year : 2020

Geology Paper - II

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum

 

1. The ‘Correlation’ determines the age relationship between rock units or geological events in separate area, but the ‘Physical Continuity’ is:
(a) To trace physically the source of rock unit between the two different places
(b) The correlation of two rock units according to geological time scale
(c) The lateral correlation of the rocks which are exposed in a wide gap physically
(d) The correlation of two rock units on the basis of their same physical and chemical character

2. Consider the following regarding a rock sample:
T is half life of the radioactive substance Np is number of atoms of parent radioactive substance present today d is number of atoms of the daughter product The age of a rock sample is determined by which one of the following equations? 

3. In “humid temperate climate” the rocks are weathered predominantly by a combination of both disintegration and decomposition, resulting in the formation of:
(a) Black cotton soil
(b) Lateritic soil
(c) Podzol soil
(d) Sandy soil

4. The molten spheroidal mass that the earth originally was started cooling with the result that a solid crust was formed over a molten core. The process of gradual release of previously dissolved gasses, in molten magma, is called:
(a) Degassing
(b) Diagenesis
(c) Decomposition
(d) Disintegration

5. The volcanism of island arcs and continental-margin orogens are associated with plate convergence. More extensive vast sheets of basaltic lavas which have formed on the continents at various times in the past are referred to as:
(a) Continental flood basalts
(b) Mid-oceanic lava flow
(c) Andesitic lava flow
(d) Rhyolitic lava flow
 
6. Isostatic adjustment is:
(a) The horizontal movement of crustal rock tending to rise or sink gradually until they are balanced by the weight of displaced mantle rocks.
(b) The vertical movement of crustal rock tending to rise and sink gradually until they are balanced by the weight of displaced mantle rocks.
(c) Shrinking of crust rock during the process of convergent plate boundary movement which is equal to applied stress 
(d) Rearrangement of morphological features at the surface of earth after removal of applied pressure

7. The ‘truncated spurs’  are the Erosional landscapes associated with valley glacier, these are:
(a) Sharp peaks that remain after cirques have cut back into a mountain on several sides
(b) Frost wedging on the rocks exposed above the glacier, steepening and cutting back the side wall of the valley
(c) Lower parts of ridges that have been carved into triangular facets by glacial erosion
(d) Steep sided, rounded hollow carved into a mountain at the head of a glacial valley

8. The quantity of water which enters stream channels in a drainage basin over a specified period of time can be determined by a:
(a) Channel steepness equation
(b) Stream length gradient equation
(c) Water-balance equation
(d) Darcy equation 

9. Crevasses form along the:
(a) Margins of glaciers in places where the path is curved
(b) Bed rock, by the marking of boulders that are dragged at the base of ice sheet
(c) Grinding of rocks into a powder of fine fragment of silt and clay size
(d) Marking on rock in the form of scratches by the sharp corner of rock fragments

10. The threshold flow velocity at which a particle settles to a channel bed is known as:
(a) Fall velocity
(b) Increasing velocity
(c) Decreasing velocity
(d) Runoff velocity

11. Pedalfer is a type of soil in the wet climate, it is formed by:
(a) An effective downward leaching due to the high rainfall and acids produced by the decay of abundant humus
(b) An upward movement of soil water beneath the land surface characterized by little leaching, scant humus
(c) The cementation of clay particles, silica and iron compound that have accumulated at ܤ horizon
(d) An intense and deep weathering in tropical regions where silica disintegrates into clay and mica 

12. Abrasion is a process that can mechanically weather rock, and:
(a) Solvent action of water which attack in the mineral structure for disintegration
(b) Disintegration of rock masses by the process of frost wedging
(c) Exposing fresh country rock to the surface due to the removal of their overlying weathering material
(d) Grinding away of rocks by friction and impact during transportation

13. If the beds are vertical, the synclinal axis is in the:
(a) Opposite direction from that in which the bedding dips
(b) Opposite direction from that in which the cleavage dips
(c) Same direction from that in which the bedding dips
(d) Same direction from that in which the cleavage dips

14. In a plunging fold, if the strike of cleavage is diagonal to the strike of the bedding, the plunge of fold can be determined by:
(a) Obtuse angle between strike of bedding on vertical plane and strike of cleavage on horizontal plane
(b) Acute angle between line drawn on the ground perpendicular to the strike of bedding and strike of cleavage
(c) Obtuse angle between strike of bedding and cleavage strike
(d) Acute angle between the line drawn parallel to the strike and dip direction of cleavage
 
15. With regard to strain-slip cleavage, in metamorphic terranes the schistosity may be crinkled into:
(a) Small wavelength folds, and the mica flakes are rotated into non discrete zones
(b) Big wavelength folds, and the mica flakes are rotated into non discrete zones
(c) Big wavelength folds, and the mica flakes are rotated into discrete zones
(d) Small folds with a wavelength of a fraction of an inch and the mica flakes are rotated into discrete zones

16. The slip refers to the displacement along the fault line, while shift is used to refer to:
(a) An angle between the fault plane and vertical plane that strikes parallel to the fault
(b) The differential movement takes place by systematic small displacement along a large number of closely spaced fractures
(c) The total displacement measured on fault surface between two adjacent points situated on opposite walls of fault
(d) The displacement on opposite site of fault and outside the dislocated zone 

19. The space lattice of a mineral is:
(a) An assemblage of atoms that is constantly repeated to form a mineral.
(b) A glide plane parallel to which there are number of additional planes along which gliding takes place
(c) A position of mineral in terms of their resistance towards failure
(d) A position of mineral before plastic deformation and recrystallization

20. A tectonite is:
(a) A recrystallized rock without any change in shape and orientation of grain
(b) A rock showing an imperfection in crystal structure resulting reorientation of rock in terms of volume not in structure
(c) A rock that result from the accumulation of many separate components and each of which moved into place independently of its neighbors
(d) A deformed rock, the fabric of which is due to the systematic movement of the individual units under a common external force

21. The topography has no control on the outcrop pattern of vertical beds whereas the top and bottom of a vertical bed will appear on the map as:
(a) Vertical lines perpendicular to the bed
(b) Vertical lines parallel to the dip direction
(c) Straight lines parallel to the strike of the bed
(d) Straight line perpendicular to the bed
 
22. In the Rule of V's,the outcrop pattern of beds that dip:
(a) Downstream at an angle greater than the stream gradient forms a V, ܸthe apex of which points downstream
(b) Downstream at an angle greater than the stream gradient forms a V, ܸthe apex of which points upstream
(c) Downstream at an angle smaller than the stream gradient forms a V, ܸthe apex of which points downstream
(d) Downstream at an angle smaller than the stream gradient forms a V, the apex of which points upstream

23. In  Pi, diagrams,  the projections of the poles which are perpendicular to a horizontal plane will coincide:
(a) With the poles of diametrically opposite
(b) At the N-E quadrant of the net
(c) With the center of the projection
(d) At the S-W quadrant of the net

24. The Chromite deposits in the north limb of the Sukinda syncline in Orissa are blanketed by:
(a) Breccia and Sandstone
(b) Sandstone and Shale
(c) Alluvium and Shale
(d) Laterite and Colluvium 

25. Emery deposits are:
(a) Greyish-black variety of corundum, containing much admixed magnetite and hematite
(b) Red gemstone of corundum found in metamorphosed bauxite deposit
(c) Placer variety of corundum having rounded pebbles in alluvium
(d) Thermally altered alumina rich shales in zenothic of basic igneous rock

26. A tetragonal unit is a right square prism with ܽ and ܾ edge lengths equal and ܿ different with two space lattices:
(a) Primitive and body centered
(b) Primitive and face centered
(c) Primitive only
(d) Body centered and face centered

27. In feldspar group of minerals, while cooling, unmixing of potash feldspars and soda feldspars takes place. The larger component occurs as ground mass and the minor one oriented parallel lamellae within the groundmass. 
This process of unmixing of two minerals is:
(a) Exsolution
(b) Isomorphism
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Magmatic segregation 

28. Polymorphism is the phenomenon when a mineral exhibits:
(a) Distinctly different physical or optical properties in spite of possessing the same chemical composition
(b) Identical physical or optical properties in spite of possessing the same chemical composition
(c) Identical physical or chemical properties in spite of possessing the different crystal lattice
(d) Distinctly different physical or chemical properties in spite of possessing the same crystal lattice

29. The  characteristic feature of a inosilicates group is:
(a) 3.5 oxygens are shared between adjacent tetrahedra
(b) 2 oxygen atoms link together to form a ring of composition
(c) 2 tetrahedra sharing common oxygen
(d) 2.5 oxygens are shared by adjacent tetrahedra

30. The characteristic feature of an opal is ;
(a) It is contaminated form of silica with varying amount of Fe ݁and Mg in its structures
(b) It contains a variable quantity of water molecules in its structures
(c) It contains large numbers of micro-cavity in its structure
(d) It contains traces of colloidal carbon and iron in its structure 

31. The fibrous variety of anthophyllite is called:
(a) Glaucophane
(b) Jadeite
(c) Enstatite
(d) Amosite

32. Piezoelectricity is the simultaneous development of:
(a) Positive and negative charges of electricity when its temperature is suitably changed
(b) Positive and negative charges of electricity on different parts of same crystal when its pressure is suitably changed
(c) Magnetic charge when its pressure and temperature is suitably changed
(d) Electrical charges on different parts of same crystal when its pressure is suitably changed

33. Idiochromatic minerals are those which have:
(a) An uniform white streak though the colour is variable
(b) A different colour based on chemical composition
(c) A characteristic and constant colour
(d) The same physical appearance in spite of having different chemical composition 

34. Perthites consisting mainly of an:
(a) Alkali feldspar host with an exsolved Na-rich plagioclase feldspar phase which segregated from the host during cooling
(b) Na-rich feldspar as host with an exsolved alkali feldspar segregated from host
(c) Equal amount of alkali feldspar and a more Ca-rich plagioclase
(d) Intrusion of Na-rich plagioclase into alkali feldspar with a phase of segregation

35. Duhem’s Theorem states that, a system is said to be closed if:
(a) No masses are added to or subtracted from it in the course of the transformation under consideration
(b) Masses are added to it in the course of the transformation under consideration
(c) Masses are subtracted from it in the course of the transformation under consideration
(d) Masses are partially added to or subtracted from it in the course of the transformation under consideration

36. If crystallization is strictly along Bowen’s reaction series, such crystallization is called:
(a) Cotectic crystallization
(b) Eutectic crystallization
(c) Peritectic crystallization
(d) Fractional crystallization 

37. The IUGS classification of plutonic rocks is applicable to visually crystalline (Phaneritic) rocks which are presumed to have formed at considerable depth. 
This classification is strictly:
(a) Based on silica percentage
(b) A quantitative mineralogical
(c) A depth wise
(d) Based on texture

38. Feldspathoids are :
(a) Calciferous mineral rich in silica than feldspar
(b) Aluminosilicates which occur as constituents of igneous rocks and which are poorer in silica than corresponding alkali feldspars
(c) Monomineralic rocks which only composed of sodic feldspar
(d) Aluminosilicates saturated with silica and poorer in alkali feldspars

39. Rapakivi structure is a special type of orbicular structure where ovoid phenocrysts of K-feldspar are mantled by shells of granular oligoclase. This structure is typically developed in: 
(
a) Merozone granites
(b) Catazone granites
(c) Epizonal granites
(d) S-type granites 

40. Spinif ex texture is a type of quench texture and resembles a bunch of ‘grass’. It is usually associated with:
(a) Low magnesian lava
(b) Granitic lava
(c) High magnesian lava
(d) Andesitic lava

41. Incongruent melting occurs when:
(a) A melt break down into two or more than two chemically distinct phase by assimilation
(b) A solid split at very high temperature into two solids having same bulk chemical composition
(c) A solid splits at definite temperature into another solid and liquid
(d) A rock is subjected to high confining pressure without any increase in temperature

42. Influence of dissolved water is one of the process of magmatic differentiation, it involves:
(a) Alkalis and certain metals co-ordinate with the water and concentrate in the regions of lowest pressure and temperature
(b) Alkalis and metals are hydrophobic so they move from water saturated area to water deficient area
(c) Different chemical potential of water throughout the magma chamber
(d) Water provides a way to gravitational rising of heavy crystal 

43. During the complex process of reaction between magma and invaded rock, magma becomes modified by incorporation of material originally present in wall rock. This process is termed as magmatic:
(a) Differentiation
(b) Mixing
(c) Assimilation
(d) Crystallization

44. Kimberlites are alkalic rocks characteristically ultramaphic in composition. 
They differ from lamprophyres and lamproites in:
(a) Kimberlites have high silica
(b) Contents of alkalis i.e. Na2O  + K2O in Kimberlites are in a lower level
(c) Contents of MgO are low in Kimberlites
(d) Contents of alkalis are high in Kimberlites

45. Crystallization may be localized at a cooling margin, where the temperature is lower than the central parts of magma, thus:
(a) A solid phase is formed
(b) A liquid phase is formed
(c) A solid and a liquid phases are formed
(d) A Liquid and gaseous phases is formed 

46. A certain mineralogical change in rock that is also of local extent but is of different character from either contact or cataclastic metamorphism is called:
(a) Cataclastic metamorphism
(b) Hydrothermal metamorphism
(c) Dynamo-thermal metamorphism
(d) Regional Burial metamorphism

47. Nucleation in metamorphic rocks is:
(a) Faster when entropy change is smallest
(b) Faster when entropy change is highest
(c) Initiated by entropy but not depends on entropy in advance stage
(d) Controlling factor for second order transitions

48. Consider the following regarding phase rule:
F is the number of independent degrees of freedom for the system
C is the number of chemical components
P is the number of phases
The phase rule is expressed by which one of the following equations?
(a) F = C + P - 2
(b) F = C - P + 2
(c) F = C+ P + 2
(d) F = C - P - 2

49. A foliation marked by the parallel orientation of tabular minerals in a metamorphic rock with a sufficiently coarse grain size is called a:
(a) Cleavage
(b) Schistosity
(c) Gneissosity
(d) Solution cleavage

50. Pseudotachylytes are:
(a) Thin seams of glassy igneous intrusion by extreme from the magma with mafic composition
(b) Thin seams of glassy rock produced of the results of melting due to frictional heating and are restricted to dry rocks
(c) A rock mass with random fabric of interlocking with a tough texture and strength
(d) Fine grained rock produced in the zone of intense ductile deformation whereas pre existing grains have been recrystallized as finer grains

51. When an igneous rock is metamorphosed and the original texture continues to occur in metamorphosed ones, the resulting texture is said to be:
(a) Granoblastic texture
(b) Blasto-porphyritic texture
(c) Porphyroblastic texture
(d) Xenoblastic texture 

52. Metamorphic facies can be defined as:
(a) A range of chemical reaction under the process of metamorphism where bulk chemical composition of altered rock remain same as parent rock
(b) A range of pressure-temperature conditions over which a particular common mineral assemblage or range of mineral assemblages are stable
(c) A physically separable constituents of the system in the form of solid, liquid or gas
(d) A changing condition of pressure and temperature which lead to reaction and production of new assemblage

53. A specific change in mineral assemblage reflecting a metamorphic reaction and satisfying the condition of reaction equilibrium is called:
(a) Isograd
(b) Isopatch
(c) Isocontour
(d) Line of phase change

54. Skarns are: 
(
a) Metasedimentary rock that are rich in Ca-or Ca-Mg silicate
(b) Recrystallized rock where all the igneous minerals recrystallized into high grade metamorphic minerals
(c) Metamorphic rocks formed by hydrothermal alteration of limestone into marble
(d) A variety of calc-silicate rock formed by metasomatic interaction between marble and silicate rock 

55. In a baric type paired metamorphic belt:
(a) The high and low pressure belt of the same age occurred next to one another, separated by major faults
(b) Two high pressure belts of the different age occurred next to one another
(c) The high and low pressure belt of different age occurred next to one another separated by faults
(d) Two low pressure belts of the different age occurred next to one another

56. The steps involved in a metamorphic reaction will be the slowest in a natural geological setting and will therefore control the rate of the overall reaction is known as:
(a) Rate limiting step
(b) Surface step
(c) Heat energy step
(d) Natural reaction step

57. The difference between carbonate and siliciclastic sediment is: 
(a) The carbonate sequence occur in shallow tropical environments while siliciclastic occurs worldwide and at all depths
(b) The carbonate sequence occur at deep marine environments while siliciclastic occurs at all depths
(c) Both carbonate and siliciclastic occur at same depositional environment with only difference of grain size and texture
(d) The carbonate deposits results from shallow water bodies from interaction of current and waves while siliciclastic sediments are result of only deep, calm water deposit 

58. Grain size interpretation in siliciclastic rock is much simpler than carbonate and evaporites because:
(a) Diagenesis in carbonates and evaporites obscures original grain relationship
(b) Siliclastic rocks are cemented on sea floor and easy for stratigraphic co-relation
(c) For carbonate and evaporites climate is no constraints, sediment occur worldwide and at all depth
(d) In carbonate sediment periodic exposure of sediment during deposition leaves deposits relatively unaffected
59. Hardgrounds are :
(a) Microscopic erosional surface on the underside of bedding planeformed by natural casts of erosional feature
(b) Vortex erosion typically at the base of turbidity current
(c) Organically bored surfaces which encrusted with fossils in growth position
(d) Resistant surface altered by erosional impact of large objects entrained in the flow

60. In sedimentary rocks, the beds that contain internal layers that are essentially parallel to the bounding bedding surfaces are said to be:
(a) Cross stratified
(b) Planar stratified
(c) Composite bedsets
(d) Laminated bedding 

61. Ichnofacies dominated by deep vertical burrows in a tidal zone named the:
(a) Scolithos (Skolithos)
(b) Cruziana
(c) Zoophycus
(d) Nereites

63. Textural maturity of sandstone is determined by:
(a) The relative abundance of stable and unstable framework grains
(b) The ratio of matrix and well defined grain under hydrostatic condition
(c) The relative abundance of matrix and the degree of rounding andsorting of framework grains
(d) The proportion of coarse grain sediment to fine grain sediment when matrix is absent 

64. Vertical profile model of a cyclic sequence in evaporite bearing sediments,reflecting a sensitive response of evaporite environments to:
(a) Climate change, brine level or water chemistry
(b) Change in lateral dispersal of sediment as sea level changes
(c) Vertical profile in evaporites cyclic sequence does not reflect
(d) Change in sediment supply as a response of faunal and floralintervention

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65. The non-clastic sediment composed of microcrystalline quartz, found in bothbed and nodules of limestones and sandstones is known as:
(a) Cherts
(b) Silly sandstone
(c) Breccia
(d) Evaporites

66. Which one of the  following zone of carbonate diagenetic depth occurs belowthe calcite compensation depth (CCD) ?
(a) Zone of precipitation
(b) Zone of partial dissolution
(c) Zone of no carbonate
(d) Zone of active dissolution
 
67. Which one of the following may be caused by carbonic acid-rich watersproduced by the devolatilization of coal beds?
(a) Kaolinization
(b) Montmorillonite
(c) Rudaceous rock formation
(d) Salt rock formation

68. Reef and carbonate slope build- ups have steeply dipping sediment-water interfaces, much steeper than the angle of repose of loose talus, is due to:
(a) Deposits at equatorial regions only and grows towards overhead sun
(b) Characteristic feature that grows vertical or overhanging
(c) Organic binding and early cementation
(d) Vertical growth from sea beds

69. The most favourable conditions for fossilization are present in:
(a) Terrestrial
(b) Fluvial
(c) Sea
(d) Lacustrine

70. Fossils range from ancient time upto the present day without any change in their primitive characters are known as:
(a) Living fossils
(b) Derived fossils
(c) Facies fossils
(d) Remanie ́fossils 

71. A specimen of a species from the same locality as its holotypes or syntypes is a:
(a) Plesiotype
(b) Metatype
(c) Paratype
(d) Topotype

72. Two populations differing in one or more morphologic characteristics to a statistically significant degree are called:
(a) Morphonomical species
(b) Morphospecies
(c) Founder species
(d) Allopatric species

73. Which one of the following is the median part of the cephalon that inflatedin trilobites?
(a) Glabella
(b) Cheeks
(c) Axial furrows
(d) Pleuron 

74. Which one of the following is the oldest known ammonoides during upper Silurian–Devonian period?
(a) Trilobites
(b) Gymmites
(c) Agoniatites
(d) Prolecanites

75. In Gastropods, the cavity opens at the base of the shell is called:
(a) Umbilicus
(b) Columella
(c) Whorl
(d) Apex

76. A straight conical shell of an ammonoid cephalopod is known as:
(a) Camerae
(b) Cyrotocone
(c) Bactriticone
(d) Roastrum

77. The earliest fossil remains of horse in  equine evolution is:
(a) Epihippus
(b) Mesohippus
(c) Eohippus
(d) Miohippus 

78. The modern horses belong to which one  of the following genus?
(a) Epihippus
(b) Equus
(c) Miohippus
(d) Orohippus

79. The first formed chamber in multilocular form of foraminifera is known as:
(a) Protegulam
(b) Proloculum
(c) Protoconch
(d) Prodissononch

80. In which one of the following rhizome ( root) on which Glossopteris and Gangamopteris grew?
(a) Ptilophyllum
(b) Vertebraria
(c) Calamites
(d) Lepidodendron

81. In conformable contacts, if the change from  one lithology to another is less marked than abrupt contacts, reflecting gradual change in depositional conditions with time is said to be:
(a) Gradational
(b) Lateral Adjustment
(c) Lithostratigraphy
(d) Angular Unconformity 

82. When geological formations are equivalent in age but situated wide apart in different districts, countries or continents, they are said to be:
(a) Homotaxis
(b) Homotaxial
(c) Synchronous beds
(d) Contemporaneous

83. The Sargur Schist Complex rocks have undergone a high degree of metamorphism ranging from amphibolites to lower granulite facies, and these rocks have often been extensively migmatised and mobilized during the subsequent phase of emplacement of:
(a) Peninsular Gneissic Complex
(b) Closepet Granite
(c) Bundelkhand Granite
(d) Newer Green Stone Belt

84. The characteristic feature of the 'Charnockite Series' of Eastern Ghats Province is:
(a) Hypersthene bearing granite composed of blue quartz, felspar and hypersthene
(b) Garnetiferous quartzite
(c) Potash felspar with graphite and manganese
(d) Dry metamorphic rocks comprising minerals devoid of water 

85. The gneisses known as 'Kodurites' belonging to 'Kondalite Series' are rich in :
(a) Iron ore
(b) Manganese ore
(c) Copper
(d) Lead-Zinc 

86. The Cuddapah system is  made up of alternate layers of:
(a) Shales and sandstones
(b) Quartzites and shales
(c) Shales and breccia
(d) Quartzite and breccia

87. The Vindhyan system lies unconformably on the:
(a) Kurnool rocks
(b) Kuling rocks
(c) Cuddapah rocks
(d) Kanwar rocks

88. The Cretaceous rocks of fresh water origin which occur in Madhya Pradesh are called the:
(a) Lameta group
(b) Bagh bed
(c) Nimar sandstone
(d) Umia sandstone 

89. A series of mainly acidic volcanic rocks belonging to the 'Upper Purana Succession' are known as :
(a) Rialo series
(b) Malani Volcanics
(c) Charnockite series
(d) Khondalite series

90. Trigonia beds with the characteristic fossils of Trigonia of Mesozoic succession of Kutch Region belongs to:
(a) Chari Formation
(b) Patcham Formation
(c) Umia Formation
(d) Katrol Formation

91. Which one of the following basins of the Damodar Valley region shows the maximum development of coaliferous beds that contain several superior quality coal measures?
(a) Barker basin
(b) Talchir basin
(c) Raniganj basin
(d) Panchet basin 

92. The origin and structure of Indo-Gangetic Plain are closely related with the rise of the Himalaya. This plane is:
(a) A basin caused by the central rifting of continental crust during Himalayan orogeny
(b) A dome of Precambrian rock with representation of the sediment in the same basin
(c) A plateau with the Archean Basement unconformably overlain by the sediment of Tertiary sediment
(d) A deep crustal trough filled with Quaternary sediments

93. The ‘Flyschoidal' rocks were deposited in:
(a) A geosynclinal basin bordering the shelf sea of the Zanskar-Spiti region
(b) A shallow freshwater stream flowing in a wide sedimentary basin
(c) A deep sea with phases of sea transgression and regression
(d) A deep lake deposit with the intervening sea fringes

94. A process of mineral deposits associated with volcanism, thermal springs and fumaroles wherefrom volatilized matter is redeposited at lower temperature and pressure is:
(a) Evapotranspiration
(b) Oxidation
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Sublimation 

95. Tenor is:
(a) The concentration of gang mineral associated with the ore mineral
(b) The metal content of an ore, expressed in percent (%), and is expressed in ounces per tonne in case of precious metals or gems
(c) The total quantity of matter that is used to extract a particular kind of ore
(d) The ratio of total quantity of host rock to total quantity of ore extracted

96. Most of the primary gold deposits occur in the vicinity of:
(a) Basic igneous intrusions
(b) Acidic igneous intrusions
(c) Intermediate igneous intrusions
(d) Pegmatite igneous intrusions

97. The rock that holds the oil and gas in place so that they do not escape until released by drilling is known as:
(a) Reservoir rock
(b) Cap rock
(c) Basement rock
(d) Stratigraphic trap 

98. Auriferous veins occur in the Hutti-Gold-field within the schistose rocks of:
(a) Permian age
(b) Cambrian age
(c) Dharwarian age
(d) Archean age

99. 'Saladipura Pyrite - Pyrrhotite ' mineralogical changes in wall rock brought about by the depletion of some element from the wall rock. These deposits are:
(a) Epigenetic
(b) Syngenetic
(c) Postgenetic
(d) Residual 

100. The ' Fumaroles' Represent :
(a) A gaseous phase where substances are carried and demonstrate the ability of gaseous emanations to collect, transport and deposit the metal 
(b) A water phase contain many mineral substance with higher temperature water dissolve, transport and deposit mineral 
(c) A magmatic source of mineral deposits which transport and deposit many non metallic mineral as hydrothermal injections 
(d) A mineral deposits of copper and lead formed by supergene enrichment after a volcanic eruption  

101. The cap- rock of an ore deposit in the form of cellular mass of limonite and gangue formed due to oxidation of an ore and points to the nature of underlying hidden deposits is called:
(a) Carnotite
(b) Gossan
(c) Host rock
(d) Parent rock

102. The process of metasomatic replacement is by:
(a) Alteration
(b) Hydrolysis
(c) Hydrostatic alteration
(d) Diffusion

103. Oil formed from marine organisms buried in sediments is explained by:
(a) Animal-origin theory
(b) Vegetable-origin theory
(c) Mendelef’s carbide theory
(d) Cosmic theory 

104. Gold province of Karnataka-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu is occupied by Dharwars, the rock type in the area are represented by:
(a) Granite that intruded schist
(b) Metamorphosed mafic volcanic rocks altered to schistose, granular and fibrous amphibolites
(c) Precambrian tremalite, actinolite schist and granite gneiss
(d) Metamorphosed flysch with exogenic quartzite and limestone

105. In an area of 100 ha the water table dropped by 4.5m the porosity is 30% and specific retention is 10%. The change in groundwater storage will be:
(a) 3 X 10m3
(b) 6 X 10m3
(c) 9 X 10m3
(d) 12 X 10m3

106. Which one of the following types of rocks are relatively high porous because there is a great variation in degree of packing on the one hand and in size, shape and arrangement of the grains on the other hand?
(a) Igneous
(b) Metamorphic
(c) Sedimentary
(d) Crystalline rocks 

107. In designing a critical underpass drain to accept a 10% risk that flooding will occur in the next 5 Years .The return period for a highway engineer  se will be nearly:
(a) 58 Years
(b) 52 Years
(c) 48 Years
(d) 42 Years

110. Which of the following isotopes will be used for an age determination of groundwater?
(a) Hydrogen - 3 (Tritium)
(b) Uranium
(c) Hydrogen - 3 (Tritium) and Uranium
(d) Hydrogen - 3 (Tritium) and Carbon – 14

111. Lateral reduction in hydraulic conductivity of aquifer below the recharge area causes a higher hydraulic gradient underneath the recharge basin, adequate to cause:
(a) An entire volume of recharged ground water to flow towards the domain boundary
(b) The hydraulic conductivity of the function to reduce at the centre of aquifer
(c) The value of groundwater head to remain constant for a section in plain surface
(d) The ground water head value to a lower level at margin


Directions: -- Each of the  next Six (06) items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:

(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b)Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c)Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d)Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

115. Statement ( I): Material is pulled out of the sun by an external force such as gravitational pull resulting from the dynamic encounter or near collision of the sun with another star.
Statement (II): The planets become isolated masses of matter as the material of the solar-system condensed into the sun.

116. Statement (I): A strike-slip fault is one in which the net slip is parallel to the strike of the fault.
Statement (II): Faults may be classified on the basis of their genesis is called strike slip fault. 

117. Statement (I): The ܲ݅ diagram is analyzed on the assumptions that the folds are cylindrical.
Statement (II): The ܤ݁ݐ ܽdiagram involve the projection of the planes rather than perpendicular to the planes.

118. Statement (I): Feldspars are the most abundant minerals in the earth crust.
Statement (II): Feldspars are essential minerals in only metamorphic rock and stable over a limited range of pressure-temperature conditions.

119. Statement (I): Igneous rocks are formed during the cooling and hardening of magma within the earth surface.
Statement (II): Igneous rocks constitute 65% of the total mass of the rocks composing the crust.

120. Statement (I): The texture and mineral composition of sedimentary rocks are of great value in determining the nature of the environment at the time when the sediment was deposited.
Statement (II): A conglomerate, arkose and shale indicates high energy, inorganic material, such as swamp and lagoons are examples of sedimentary rocks. 

 

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2020 (General Studies Paper-I)


(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2020

(General Studies Paper-I)


Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2020 : General Studies Paper- I

Year : 2020

General Studies Paper - I

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum Marks : 200

 1. Gause`s competitive exclusion principle states that two species:
 (a) can coexist if they occupy the same niche.
 (b) cannot coexist if they occupy the same niche.
 (c) cannot coexist if they occupy the adjacent niches.
 (d) can coexist if they occupy similar niches.

2. Chemosynthetic bacteria found near sub-marine volcanic vents feed on:
(a) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S).
(b) Organic matter.
(c) Deep sea tube worms.
(d) Inorganic carbon.

3. Chemoautotrophs are  those organisms which obtain energy:
(a) from the oxidation of organic electron donors in the presence of light.
(b) solely from the oxidation of inorganic electron donors in the presence of light.
(c) from the oxidation of organic electron donors in the absence of light.
(d) solely from the oxidation of inorganic electron donors in the absence of light.

4. The amount of sun  energy trapped by plants is:
(a) 1 % - 3 %
(b) 12 % - 15 % 
(c) 17 % - 20 %
(d) 23 % - 26 %

5. The term wetland implies:
(a) land covered by rain water only.
(b) slow moving water covered wet ground.
(c) water logged wet ground.
(d) fast moving water covered wet ground.

6. The edge effect at the contact of continental fresh water and sea water results in:
(a) non-deposition of sediments due to turbulence.
(b) deposition of sand due to fall in system energy.
(c) deposition of organic matter due to density difference.
(d) flocculation of clays resulting in formation of mud deposits. 

7. Heliophile plants  require mean maximum illumination of:
(a) 30,000 lux.
(b) 20,000 lux.
(c) 10,000 lux.
(d) 40,000 lux.

8. Which one of the following about anemophilous plants is correct?
(a) Bright coloured flowers
(b) Sweet smelling flowers
(c) No nectar
(d) Dwarf stigmata

9. The salt in sea  water comes from:
(a) rain.
(b) chemical exchange between sea water and its substratum as well as hydrothermal emissions.
(c) evaporation of water and concentration of dissolved salts.
(d) mixing of different density waters during natural warm and cold current movements.

10. Biodiversity in terms of species richness is maximum in:
(a) natural grasslands.
(b) semi-natural grasslands.
(c) artificial grasslands.
(d) well maintained and watered grasslands.

11. Which one of the following greenhouse gases is the largest single contributor to anthropogenic radiative forcing?
(a) Methane
(b) Ozone
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Carbon dioxide

12. Which one of the following is the main natural source of Methane?
(a) Wetlands
(b) Belching by cattle
(c) Leakage from pipelines
(d) Burning of wood 

13. Ozone layer depletion is concentrated in:
(a) mid-latitude regions.
(b) high latitude regions.
(c) equatorial regions.
(d) tropical regions.

14. Which of the following particulate matters (size based) are notified pollutants in National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
(a) PM 10 and PM 3.5
(b) PM 9 and PM 2.5
(c) PM 10 and PM 2.5
(d) PM 5 and PM 3.5

15. The broad estimates of sea level rise due to global warming by 2100 is approximately:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 40 cm

16. Thermal pollution which involves release of excessive amounts of heated water in aquatic systems is harmful. It is because hot water:
(a) kills aquatic plants.
(b) causes oxygen starvation.
(c) kills aquatic microbes.
(d) causes CO2 depletion.

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17. The biological oxygen  demand (BOD) of unpolluted river water is:
(a) 10 - 20 mg O2/dm3 /5 day.
(b) 5-10 mg O2/dm3 /5 day.
(c) less than 5 mg O2/dm3 /5 day.
(d) more than 20 mg O2/dm3 /5 day.

18. Pneumatophores are specialized structures for:
(a) maintaining turgor pressure in cells.
(b) providing physical support to plants in marshy lands.
(c) oxygen inhalation by plants.
(d) carbon dioxide release during photosynthesis. 

19. Bog ecosystem wetland receives water only from:
(a) Rain
(b) Streams
(c) Rivers
(d) Groundwater

20. Farmers surround the fields with hedgerows during high insolation period to:
(a) prevent the reduction in photosynthetic activity.
(b) reduce evapotranspiration.
(c) create conditions for plants to close their stomata.
(d) prevent wilting of plants.

21. Greenhouse gases are known so as:
(a) they trap heat in the high altitudes.
(b) they act like a greenhouse on the surface of the planet.
(c) the colour of some of the gases emanating from industrial plants are green.
(d) these gases are produced by agricultural crops.

22. Pursuant to the ratification of Convention on Biological Diversity, India legislated Biodiversity Act in the year:
(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 2002
(d) 2014

23. India has committed to reduce emission intensity of its GDP from 2005 levels by 33-35 per cent by the year:
(a) 2022
(b) 2030
(c) 2032
(d) 2035

24. Which one of the following is NOT vested in the Union by the Constitution (Fortieth Amendment) Act?
(a) All mines and minerals lying in the ocean within its territorial waters
(b) All resources of the exclusive economic zone
(c) Fisheries
(d) All things of value in the ocean within its continental shelf 

25. Which one of the following is NOT a renewable source of energy?
(a) Wind
(b) Sunlight
(c) Nuclear minerals
(d) Biofuels

26. India’s climate is most affected by which of the following two winds?
(a) North-East monsoon and South-West monsoon
(b) North-West monsoon and South-East monsoon
(c) North-East monsoon and South-East monsoon
(d) North-West monsoon and South-West monsoon

27. Centrally sponsored scheme Ayushman Bharat is a national health insurance system for:
(a) women.
(b) every citizen.
(c) old age people.
(d) poor and vulnerable.

28. Which one of the following statements about Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana is NOT correct?
(a) It is a livelihood mission aiming at alleviation of rural poverty
(b) It seeks to mobilize about 9 crore households into community institutions like self-help groups
(c) It is wage employment scheme for the landless agricultural labour
(d) It proposes to build skills of the poor and to enable them to access formal sources of finance

29. East India Company, to begin with,  exported Indian goods to Western countries. Which one of the following is NOT one of the goods in the trade?
(a) Muslin
(b) Calico
(c) Silk
(d) Wool

30. Which one of the following is the common term to describe the main source of water for human withdrawals?
(a) Green water
(b) Hard water
(c) Blue water
(d) Storm water 

31. Which one of the following statements regarding the Solicitor General of India is NOT correct?
(a) It is a constitutional position under Article 76 of the Constitution of India
(b) He is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
(c) He assists the Attorney General of India
(d) It is a statutory position

32. Which one of the following is NOT  a parliamentary standing committee on financial matters?
(a) Estimates committee
(b) Public Accounts committee
(c) Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area Development Schemes
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings

33. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board?
(a) Cabinet Secretary
(b) Chairman, UPSC
(c) Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training
(d) Prime Minister of India

34. The National Statistical Commission was established on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following commissions/committees?
(a) Rangarajan Commission
(b) Lodha Commission
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) M.G.K. Menon Committee

35. Which one of the following countries in Asia established the first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) in 1965?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) South Korea
(d) Japan

36. According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2020, published by environmental think tank Germanwatch, in the year 2018 India’s rank in the list of top most climate affected nations is:
(a) 1st
(b) 3rd
(c) 5th
(d) 7th
 
37. Mission Indradhanush is a scheme pertaining to:
(a) immunization of children.
(b) traditional healing system.
(c) conservation and protection of environment.
(d) welfare of urban street vendors.

38. Which one of the following statements about the Finance Commissions, periodically established by the Government of India, is NOT true?
(a) It recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and the states
(b) It recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of revenues of states
(c) It recommends measures to augment the consolidated fund of a state
(d) It recommends measures regarding the salary of government employees

39. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:
(a) languages.
(b) Union, State and Concurrent Lists.
(c) land reforms.
(d) anti-defection.

40. The Swavalamban Scheme of the Government of India is directed to provide a social safety net to:
(a) senior citizens.
(b) unorganized workers.
(c) women.
(d) new born girl child.

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Para Military Force in India?
(a) Central Reserve Police Force
(b) Assam Rifles
(c) Indo Tibetan Border Police
(d) Border Security Force

42. The Justice J S Verma Committee was constituted in 2012 to propose legal reforms regarding the safety of which of the following sections of Indian society?
(a) Dalits and Backward castes
(b) Women
(c) Religious minorities
(d) Children 

43. Who among the following determines as to whether a particular matter (not enumerated in any of the 3 lists) falls under the residuary power of the Parliament?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President of India

44. Why was sub-lieutenant Shivangi in news recently?
(a) First woman officer to receive Sena Medal
(b) First woman officer to be deployed at Nathu La Pass as Signals in-charge
(c) First woman pilot of Indian Navy
(d) First woman officer from the Indian Air Force to summit the Mount Everest

45. Which of the following Five  Year Plans emphasized the need for establishing a “Socialist Pattern of Society” in India?
(a) 2nd Five Year Plan
(b) 3rd Five Year Plan
(c) 4th Five Year Plan
(d) 5th Five Year Plan

46. Which one of the following  Articles of the Constitution of India deals with Uniform Civil Code?
(a) Article 44
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 39A
(d) Article 41

47. Who among the following envisioned the framework of sustainable development called PURA (Providing Urban Amenities to Rural Areas)?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) K.R. Narayanan

48. Which one of the following about the Gandhian approach to development is NOT true?
(a) Voluntary limitation of wants
(b) Development of self-sufficient village community
(c) Achieve balance between man and nature
(d) Industrialization and participation of private players 

49. The ‘head count ratio’ relates to which one of the following?
(a) The poverty line
(b) Millennium development goals
(c) Food insecurity
(d) Population growth

50. The ministry of  Rural Development consists of which of the following departments?
(a) Department of Rural Development and Department of Land Resources
(b)Department of Community Development, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation and Department of Social Assistance
(c) Department of Rural Development, Department of Community Resources and Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
(d)Department of Land Resources, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation and Department of Social Assistance

51. Which among the following states in India is known as ‘Fruit Bowl’ of the country?
(a) Kerala
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka

52. The state of Telangana is  drained by two major rivers. What are they?
(a) Mahanadi and Godavari
(b) Mahanadi and Krishna
(c) Godavari and Krishna
(d) Krishna and Kaveri

53. Which one of the following states in India produces largest marketable surplus of wheat?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab

54. Which one among the following states does NOT share boundary with Chhattisgarh?
(a) Bihar
(b) Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh 

55. Which of the following two states have the highest per capita income in India?
(a) Punjab and Kerala
(b) Kerala and Goa
(c) Goa and Haryana
(d) Haryana and Punjab

56. Insolation percentage received on Pole as compared to Equator is approximately:
(a) 42 percent.
(b) 68 percent.
(c) 33 percent.
(d) 47 percent.

57.According to Census of India, ‘Main Worker’ is a person who works for at least:
(a) 100 days in a year.
(b) 153 days in a year.
(c) 183 days in a year.
(d) 200 days in a year.

58. Which one of the following states has a different female marriage migration practice in India?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Nagaland
(c) Goa
(d) Meghalaya

59. Which one of the following countries is the top producer of cereals in the world?
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) China

60. The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into how many categories?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six 

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61. Which one among the following Union Territories is largest in terms of area?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Puducherry

62. Global climates are classified on the basis of:
(a) annual averages in temperature and precipitation only.
(b) annual averages in temperature only.
(c) seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation only.
(d) annual averages and seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation.

63. Which one among the following countries has the highest consumption of food in terms of kcal per day per person?
(a) USA
(b) Australia
(c) Netherland
(d) Saudi Arabia

64. Which one of the following ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity?
(a) Rainforest
(b) Extreme desert
(c) Lakes and streams
(d) Mid-latitude grassland

65. Which one of the following Indian states does NOT have mangrove forest?
(a) Odisha
(b) Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

66. Which one of the following pairs of founder and newspaper is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Bande Mataram – Bankim Chandra
(b) Kesari – Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bombay Samachar – Fardonjee Marzban
(d) Al Hilal – Abul Kalam Azad 

67. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of Criminal Tribes Act, 1871?
(a) Communities of craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as criminal tribes
(b) The tribes were declared criminal on the basis of their profession
(c) The notified criminal tribes were expected to live only in the notified village settlements
(d) The criminal tribes were not allowed to move out without a permit

68. In 1797, under a clause of which one of the following settlements, Raja of Burdwan’s estate was auctioned when he failed to pay the revenue to the East India Company?
(a) Taluqdari
(b) Ryotwari
(c) Permanent
(d) Mahalwari

69. Which one of the following groups of movements/revolts/rebellions/riots is in chronological order (starting from the earliest)?
(a) Santhal uprising, Tebhaga movement, Deccan riots
(b) Kol rebellion, Santhal uprising, Deccan riots
(c) Santhal uprising, Tebhaga movement, Kol rebellion
(d) Kuka revolt, Deccan riots, Santhal uprising

70. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about Khilafat movement?
(a) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
(b) It demanded that Turkish Sultan must retain control over the Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire
(c) Khalifa must be left with sufficient territory to enable him to defend the Islamic faith
(d) The Congress did not support the movement

71. Which one among the following groups was known as ‘no-changers’ opposing Congress Party’s entry into Legislative Council following the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Dr. M.A. Ansari
(b) C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and S.C. Mitra
(c) Anil Baran Roy, Subhash Bose and S. Satyamurti
(d) Srinivas Iyengar and B.S. Munje

72. In which one of the following years did Indian National Congress include in its goal the independence of the Princely States?
(a) 1927
(b) 1929
(c) 1938
(d) 1939 

73. The life-size terracotta images of Ganga and Yamuna dating to the period 300-600 AD have been found at:
(a) Ahichchhatra, Uttar Pradesh
(b) Akhnur, Kashmir
(c) Devnimori, Gujarat
(d) Bhitargaon, Uttar Pradesh

74. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Mohammedan Literary Society – Abdul Latif
(b) National Mohammedan Association – Sayyid Ameer Ali
(c) Mohammedan Educational Conference – Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(d) Anglo-Mohammedan Defence Association – Nawab Muhsin-ul-Mulk

75. Which one of the following gave reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in the provincial and central legislative councils that were to be voted in by the general electorate?
(a) First round table conference
(b) Second round table conference
(c) Poona pact
(d)Government of India Act, 1935

76. Jahangir got impressed by the Turkish fluency  of which one of the following European travellers and made him a Mansabdar of 400 sawar?
(a) William Hawkins
(b) Ralph Fitch 
(c) William Finch
(d) Thomas Coryat

77. Which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Shantidas was a leading Jain jeweler and banker in Ahmedabad
2. Shajahan granted land to build poshalas to Shantidas
3. In 1656 Murad Bakhsh granted village Palitana to Shantidas for the use of Jain pilgrims. 
The grant was later confirmed by Aurangzeb in 1660
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

78. Which one of the following Sufi saints of Qadiriyya order was condemned by Aurangzeb for his discussion on Wahdat-al-wujud with his father Shahjahan and elder brother Dara Shikoh?
(a) Shaikh Abdul Qadir
(b) Shaikh Hamid
(c) Miyan Mir
(d) Mulla Shah

79. The musical treatise Sangitasiromani was dedicated to which one of the following rulers? 
(a) Sultan Sikandar Lodi
(b) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi of Jaunpur
(c) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat
(d) Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior

80. Chronologically arrange the following Sanskrit texts (starting from the earliest):
1. Brihat Samhita of Varahmihir
2. Sushrut Samhita
3. Ashtadhyayi of Panini
4. Natyashastra of Bharat
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4

81.  At a given temperature and pressure, the force of attraction among the molecules will be highest in case of:
(a) helium
(b) sugar
(c) water
(d) carbon tetrachloride

82. Which one of the following has the similar physical state with water at room temperature?
(a) Iodine
(b) Bromine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine 

83. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of substances having densities in decreasing order?
(a) Iron, Water, Honey, Air
(b) Iron, Honey, Water, Air
(c) Iron, Honey, Air, Water
(d) Water, Iron, Air, Honey

84. Which one of the following statements is correct about camphor and ammonium chloride?
(a) Both of them are inorganic compounds
(b) Both of them are organic compounds
(c) Both of them undergo sublimation
(d) Camphor is an element but ammonium chloride is a compound

85. Number of states of matter known so far is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

86. The scattering of a beam of light by colloidal particles is termed as:
(a) Thomson effect
(b) Raman effect
(c) Tyndall effect
(d) Compton effect

87. Which one of the following is NOT an example of colloids?
(a) Milk
(b) Jelly
(c) Tincture of iodine
(d) Fog

88. The dye in black ink can be separated by the method of:
(a) evaporation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) dialysis
(d) chromatography 

89. Name the scientist who was NOT associated with the work of periodic classification of elements?
(a) Dmitri Mendeleev
(b) Robert Bunsen
(c) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
(d) John Newlands

90. When 10 g of calcium carbonate is decomposed completely, then 5.6 g of calcium oxide is formed along with the generation of carbon dioxide. Mass of the carbon dioxide formed is:
(a) 4.4 g
(b) 5.6 g
(c) 4.6 g
(d) 4.8 g

91. Which one of the following correctly represents RER?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum having no ribosomes attached to its surface
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum having ribosomes attached to its surface
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum with rounded vesicles
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum with Golgi appears on its surface

92. Plastids, in which materials such as starch, oils and protein granules are stored, are called:
(a) Leucoplasts
(b) Chromoplasts
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Chromatophores

93. Which of the following features are found in cells of meristematic tissues in plants?
(a) Cells active with thick cellulose walls
(b) Cells active with little cytoplasm and thin cellulose walls
(c) Cells active with dense cytoplasm, thick cellulose walls, and no nuclei
(d) Cell active with dense cytoplasm, thin cellulose walls and prominent nuclei

94. Squamous epithelial cells are NOT found in:
(a) lining of the mouth.
(b) oesophagus.
(c) skin.
(d) kidney tubules. 

95. Cells of which one of the following tissues in animals undergo contraction and relaxation?
(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Epithelial tissue
(d) Nervous tissue

96. Which of the following organisms are included in Kingdom Protista as given by R Whittakar?
(a) Nostoc, mycoplasma and protozoans
(b) Bacteria, amoeba and protozoan
(c) Anabaena, bacteria and paramecium
(d) Unicellular algae, diatoms, slime moulds and protozoans

97. Which one of the following represents the correct hierarchical sequence of taxonomic categories in ascending order?
(a) Species Genus Order Class Family
(b) Genus Species Order Family Class
(c) Species Genus Family Order Class
(d) Species Genus Order Family Class

98. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(a) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and anus
(b) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine and anus
(c) Buccal cavity, stomach, oesophagus, small intestine, large intestine and anus
(d) Buccal cavity, stomach, oesophagus, large intestine, small intestine and anus

99. Which one of the following provides buoyancy to aquatic plants to help them float?
(a) Aerenchyma
(b) Tracheid
(c) Guard cell
(d) Sclerenchyma

100. Which one of the following is correct with regards to animals with bilateral symmetry, triploblastic body and true body cavity?
(a) Roundworm, earthworm and leech
(b) Earthworm, leech and nereis
(c) Ascaris, round worm and earthworm
(d) Earthworm, sea cucumber and sea urchin 

101. Which one of the following is NOT a unit of magnetic field strength?
(a) Tesla
(b) Gauss
(c) Ampere - metre
(d) Ampere/metre

102. A straight conducting wire carries a DC current through it. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the magnetic field around the wire?
(a) The magnetic field does not depend upon the amount of current flowing through the  wire
(b) The magnetic field does not depend upon the distance from the wire
(c) The magnetic field depends upon the material of the wire
(d) The magnetic field decreases with an increase from the wire

103. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the magnetic field inside a current carrying solenoid?
(a) The magnetic field inside the solenoid is zero
(b) The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform at all the points
(c) The magnetic field inside the solenoid increases as we move towards the ends
(d) The magnetic field inside the solenoid decreases as we move towards the ends

104. A current carrying circular loop having n number of turns per unit length has a current I through it. If the current through it and the number of turns per unit length are doubled, then the magnetic field at the centre of the loop will:
(a) remain same.
(b) increase by four times.
(c) increase by two times.
(d) decrease by two times.

105. A metallic wire having length l and area of cross-section A has a resistance R. It is now connected in series with a wire of same metal but with length 2l and area of cross-section 2A. The total resistance of the combination will be:
(a) 2R
(b) 4R
(c) R
(d) R/2 

106. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the time period (T) of oscillation of a simple pendulum?
(a) T increases with increase in length of the pendulum
(b) T depends on the mass of the pendulum bob
(c) T decreases with increase in length of the pendulum
(d) T is independent of the length of the pendulum

107. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the infrared radiation?
(a) It is electromagnetic in nature
(b) Its wavelength is larger than that of the visible light
(c) It can travel through vacuum
(d) It is a longitudinal wave

108. In a thermos flask, the walls are made of shiny glass. Which one of the following heat loss process is minimised by using shiny walls?
(a) Convection
(b) Conduction
(c) Radiation
(d) Both radiation and convection

109. At atmospheric pressure, the density of water is maximum at a temperature of:
(a) 0 °C
(b) 4 °C
(c) –4 °C
(d) 1 °C

110. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the sound waves?
(a) Sound waves are longitudinal in nature
(b) Sound waves can propagate through water
(c) Speed of sound waves in steel is more than its speed in air
(d) Sound waves can propagate through vacuum

111. Which one of the following countries was ranked 1st in the IMD World Competitiveness ranking 2019?
(a) Singapore
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Switzerland 

112. According to a UN Report, which one of the following countries has the highest number of living indigenous languages in the world?
(a) India
(b) Papua New Guinea
(c) South Sudan
(d) Fiji

113. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize is given as recognition of outstanding Indian work in the field of:
(a) Arts and crafts
(b) Journalism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Medicine

114. Who among the following became the first woman officer of the Indian Air Force to be appointed as the Flight Commander of a flying unit?
(a) Shaliza Dhami
(b) Bhawana Kanth
(c) Anuradha Shukla
(d) Nivedita Choudhary

115. How many member states are there in CARICOM, a grouping of Caribbean nations?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18

116. The International Astronomical Union has named an asteroid after an Indian singer. Name the singer:
(a) Lata Mangeshkar
(b) Pandit Jasraj
(c) Bhimsen Joshi
(d) Kumar Gandharva

117. Saraswati Samman is instituted by:
(a) Smile foundation.
(b) Gandhi Peace Foundation.
(c) K K Birla Foundation.
(d) Kamal Kumari Foundation. 

118. Football team of which one of the following countries was defeated by Indian football team to won the South Asian Football Federation (SAFF) under-18 Football Championships 2019?
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh

119. International Day for Total Elimination of Nuclear Weapons is celebrated on:
(a) July 26
(b) August 26
(c) September 26
(d) October 26

120.  ‘Surya kiran’ is a joint military exercise between the militaries of India and:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan 

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2019

(POLITICAL SCIENCE) राजनीति विज्ञान (Paper-2)


  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Political Science (राजनीति विज्ञान) (Paper-2)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed: 3 Hours

खण्ड A

1. निम्नलिखित में से प्रत्येक का लगभग 150 शब्दों में उत्तर दीजिए

(a). भारत और पाकिस्तान के मध्य ताजा गतिरोध के सन्दर्भ में परमाणु प्रतिवरण सिद्धांत की उपयोगिता की विवेचना कीजिए | 

(b). वेनेजुएला में 17वे नाम (एन. ए. एम.) शिखर सम्मलेन का एक संक्षिप्त टिपण्णी लिखिए | 

(c). स. रा. निधीयन में स. रा.अ.का प्रभुत्व किस प्रकार उसके निर्णय लेने को प्रभवित करता है ?

(d). बहु- क्षेत्रीय तकनिकी और आर्थिक सहयोग में बिम्सटेक (BIMSTEC) की भूमिका का मूल्यांकन कीजिएये | 

(e). क्या आप सोचते है की संधारणीय विकास लक्ष्य 2030 तक वस्तुतः प्राप्य है ?

प्रश्न 2.

2(a). राजनैतिक विश्लेषण में तुलनात्मक विधि की महत्ता का परिक्षण कीजिये |  इसकी सीमाओं की विवेचना कीजिए | 

2(b). लोकतांत्रिक देशो में निम्नमतदाता सहभागिता के कारणों की उपयुक्त उदाहरणों सहित व्याख्या कीजिए | 

2(c). अंतर्राज्यीय विवादों  में अंतरास्ट्रीय न्यायलय की भूमिका का मूल्यांकन कीजिए |

प्रश्न 3.

3(a). भूमंडलीकरण के संदर्भ में मार्क्सवाद उपागम की प्रासंगिकता की व्याख्या कीजिए |

3(b). एक बहुध्रुवीय विश्व के लाभों की पहचान कीजिए | 

3(c). मानवधिकारों के संदर्भ में व्यक्तिगत आकड़ा सांरक्षण के महत्ता की विवेचना कीजिए | 

प्रश्न 4.

4(a). अ. मु. को. (आई. एम. एफ.) और विश्व बैंक में स. रा.अ. एवं पश्चिमी प्रभुत्व को उभारती शक्तिया कैसे चुनौती दे रही है ?

4(b). विकासशील देशो में 'नव सामाजिक आंदोलनों' पर एक निबंध लिखिए | 

4(c). क्या विकासशील देशो में लोकतंत्र प्रोत्साहन एक साध्य विचार है ?

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(Download) संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा राजनीति विज्ञान Paper-1- 2019

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संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा

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(POLITICAL SCIENCE) राजनीति विज्ञान (Paper-1)


  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Political Science (राजनीति विज्ञान) (Paper-1)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed: 3 Hours

खण्ड A

1. निम्नलिखित में से प्रत्येक का लगभग 150 शब्दों में उत्तर दीजिए

1(a).राजनितिक थियोरी का पुनरुत्थान 

1(b).राज्य की बहुवादी थियोरी 

1(c).विचारधारा का अंत्य वादविवाद 

1(d).विमर्शी लोकतंत्र 

1(e).एम के गाँधी की स्वराज्य की संकल्पना 

प्रश्न 2.

2(a).प्लेटो के आदर्शवाद पर अरस्तु की मीमांसा को स्पष्ट कीजिये 

2(b).न्याय पर समुदायवादी परिप्रेक्ष्यों का परिक्षण कीजिये 

2(c).स्वतंत्रा की नकारात्मक और सकारात्मक संकल्पनाओं की तुलना कीजिये 

प्रश्न 3.

3(a).ग्राम्सी के अनुसार ,"प्राधान्य मुख्यतः सहमति के आयोजन पर आधारित है | "टिप्पणी कीजिये | 

3(b).राज्य के तत्वों पर कौटिल्य के विचारो की विवेचना कीजिये | 

3(c).उदारतावादी नारी-अधिकारवाद और उग्रवादी नारी - अधिकारवाद के बीच विभेदन कीजिये | 

प्रश्न 4.

4(a).हन्ना आरेंन की श्रम ,कार्य और कर्म (क्रिया) की संकल्पनात्मक तिकड़ी का समालोचनात्मक परिक्षण कीजिये | 

4(b).'सर्वोत्तम युक्ति के रूप अधिकार' के सिद्धांत की विवेचना कीजिये 

4(c).मार्क्सवाद की समकालीन प्रासंगिकता क्या है | 

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UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन सिविल सेवा मुख्य परीक्षा अध्ययन सामग्री

UPSC GS PRE Cum MAINS (HINDI Combo) Study Kit

Written Result : (With Name) Indian Forest Service Examination (Main), 2019



Written Result : (With Name) Indian Forest Service Examination (Main), 2019



On the basis of the results of the Indian Forest Services (Main) Examination, 2019 held by the Union Public  Service  Commission  from  1st  December  to  8th  December,  2019,  the  candidates  with  the  under mentioned  Roll  Numbers  have  qualified  for  Personality  Test  for  selection  to  the  Indian  Forest  Service Examination‐2019 (Group ‘A’).  

2.  Candidature of these candidates is provisional subject to their being found eligible in all respects.  The candidates will be required to produce the original certificates in support of their claims pertaining to  age,  educational  qualifications,  community,  EWS,  Person  with  Benchmark  Disability  (PwBD)  and  other  documents such as TA Form, etc. at the time of their Personality Test. The formats of SC/ST/OBC and PwBD  certificates and TA Form, etc. can be downloaded from the website of the Commission. They are, therefore,  advised  to keep  the  said  documents  ready with  them.  Candidates seeking  reservation/relaxation benefits  available for SC/ST/OBC/PwBD/Ex‐servicemen must also produce original certificates dated earlier than the  closing  date  of  the  application  for  Indian  Forest  Service  Examination‐2019  through  Civil  Services  (Preliminary)  Examination,  2019  i.e.  19.03.2019.  Candidates  seeking  reservation/relaxation  benefits available  for  EWS  must  produce  original  Income  &  Asset  certificate  of  issuing  date  earlier  than 01.08.2019. 

3.  Personality Tests (Interviews) of these candidates are likely to commence in the month February, 2020.   Personality Tests will be held in the Office of the Union Public Service Commission at Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi‐110069. The e‐Summon Letter of Personality Test of candidates being called for Interview  may  be  downloaded  from  the  Commission’s  Website  http://www.upsc.gov.in  & http://www.upsconline.in from   24  Jan,  2020. The candidates who are not able  to download e‐Summon Letter  for Personality Test, should immediately contact  the office of  the Commission  through letter or on Phone Nos.  011‐23385271,  011‐23381125,  011‐23098543 or Fax No. 011‐23387310,  011‐23384472 or by email on (skindo‐[email protected]). No paper Summon Letters will be issued for the Personality Test/Interview by the Commission.  

4.  No request for change in the date and time of the Personality Test intimated to the candidates will ordinarily be entertained. 

5.  All the candidates, who qualified for Personality Test/Interview are required to opt in/opt out for publically making available  their scores under  the Public Disclosure Scheme. Candidates are advised  to go through DoP&T letter No. 39020/1/2016‐Estt(B) dated 21.06.2016, 19.07.2017 and Commission’s Note on PUBLIC  DISCLOSURE,  THROUGH  PORTAL,  OF  SCORES  OF  CANDIDATES  NOT  RECOMMENDED  BY  THE COMMISSION  AGAINST  THE  RESULT  OF  AN  EXAMINATION.  Candidates  should  note  that  only  after submitting their option for opt in/opt out, they will be able to download their e‐Summon letter. 

6.  With regard  to  the Detailed Application Form‐II  (DAF‐II),  following provisions have been made in the Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination‐2019 Rules: 

I. A candidate who qualifies for Personality Test /Interview on the basis of Result of Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination, 2019, will be required to submit their Order of Preferences for Zone(s) /State(s) Cadre through DAF-II. DAF-II will be made available on the Commission’s website from 21 /01/2020 to 28 /01/2020 (06:00 P.M.)
II. The preferences once opted and submitted cannot be modified or changed at a later stage. Therefore, the candidates are advised to exercise due diligence while filling up the preferences for Zones as well as Cadres there under. No change in preferences for Zones once indicated by a candidate would be permitted. If a candidate fails to submit the DAF-II by last date/time, it will be considered that the candidate has no preference to make for Zones & Cadres and no request shall be entertained in this regard.
III. No request for any type of change/modification of information already supplied in DAF-II would be entertained by the Commission. However, wherever necessary the candidates are advised to notify changes in their address/contact details only, if any, to the Commission immediately through letter, email ([email protected]) or Fax at numbers indicated above within 7 days of publishing this Press Note.

7.  Name and Roll Nos. of qualified candidates is also available in upsc website i.e. www.upsc.gov.in .Qualified Candidates have to bring their photo ID whatever they mentioned in the DAF‐II. 

8.  The marks sheets of candidates who have not qualified, will be put on the Commission’s Website within 15 days  from  the date of publication of  the  final  result  (after conducting Personality Test) and will remain available on the Website for a period of 30 days. 

                         Roll No.                                       Name

0103776                                             PARAYANA SHREE

0110512                                             RAJ KUMAR SHARMA

0211865                                             RISHABH JAIN

0301315                                             KANKANALA ANIL KUMAR

0305291                                             HEMA NAYAK

0305662                                             YOGEESHA C K

0305808                                             AMITHA K B

0308320                                             SWAGATH M M

0310344                                             NIDHIN K BIJU

0311130                                             PRITHA HOSUR

0311530                                             APURV

0314153                                             YADAV SURYABHAN ACHCHHELAL

0322470                                             SMILNA SUDHAKAR

0326343                                             SACHIN HANAMAPPA NADAGADDI

0328478                                             MITHIL T M

0331997                                             POOJA NAGLE

0337888                                             VADITHYA SHASIKANTH NAIK

0338741                                             DIGANTH NAYAK

0341419                                             KALE PRATIKSHA NANASAHEB

0405090                                             ANMOL JAIN

0425542                                             SHREYAS SRIVASTAVA

0504630                                             AMAN VERMA

0515047                                             SHINDE PRASAD SITARAM

0519692                                             MANDAR UMESH JEWARE

0520956                                             HARVIR SINGH

0701914                                             MOHAMMED FATAHUN AZEEZ KHAN

0709586                                             ANURAG MISHRA

0801516                                             AMIT KALER

0805418                                             DEVESH PANDEY

0806474                                             YOGENDRA SINGH

0807540                                             JIYAUR RAHMAN

0812481                                             SUNNY KHOKHAR

0813890                                             MOHD ARSHAD HAIDER NAQVI

0817437                                             BEERENDRA KUMAR PATEL

0819142                                             INDRA BHUSHAN

0819391                                             VARUN B R

0821863                                             AKASH GARG

0823637                                             SATYENDRA MAURYA

0826444                                             DIVYA SHAKTI

0828389                                             ANAND KUMAR

0830127                                             DHEERAJ YADAV

0831995                                             GARUD SUSHIL TULSHIDAS

0832401                                             RAJAT GUPTA

0832725                                             ANKUR KUMAR JAIN

0833281                                             LAVISH ORDIA

0834368                                             ROHIT YADAV

0836217                                             SHRUTI

0836397                                             DIVYANSHU SINGAL

0836410                                             RAHUL KUMAR AGRAWAL

0838486                                             KULDEEP SHARMA

0838508                                             PRASHANT SINGH

0838579                                             SHIKHAR PRADHAN

0838843                                             PRAVEEN KUMAR

0839368                                             MOHIT RAWAT

 

0841593                                             RAHUL KUMAR

0842204                                             KHATRI VISHAL DINANATH

0843016                                             PRATEEK JAIN

0849358                                             JATIN KUMAR

0849679                                             MANDEEP KUMAR

0853575                                             PRANAV JAIN

0855702                                             PRAKHAR JAIN

0857023                                             ASHISH KUMAR VERMA

0857467                                             MD MANZAR HUSSAIN ANJUM

0858415                                             SHUBHAM BARANWAL

0859221                                             ANURAG PRIYEDARSHI

0859382                                             MEENA AVDHESHKUMAR SHIVKUMAR

0861923                                             AMAN KUMAR JAIN

0862487                                             MONIKA

0863129                                             NAMAN JAIN

0864169                                             AMIT KUMAR

0866491                                             REVTI RAMAN

0866852                                             ARPIT GARG

0867503                                             MUKUL JAIN

0868669                                             ANURADHA MISHRA

0869360                                             RAHUL KUMAR MEENA

0869490                                             RAMGUDE YOGESH RAMCHANDRA

0871324                                             SAI MANISH B

0872626                                             SHUBHAM SINGH

0872777                                             SHASHANK KATARIA

0873098                                             NAMRATA BIJORIA

0873848                                             SUMIT DHAYAL

Click Here for Result

Study Kit for Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Exam (GS Prelims)

(Written Result) Indian Forest Service Examination (Main), 2019



(Written Result) Indian Forest Service Examination (Main), 2019



On the basis of the results of the Indian Forest Services (Main) Examination, 2019 held by the Union Public  Service  Commission  from  1st  December  to  8th  December,  2019,  the  candidates  with  the  under mentioned  Roll  Numbers  have  qualified  for  Personality  Test  for  selection  to  the  Indian  Forest  Service Examination‐2019 (Group ‘A’).  

2.  Candidature of these candidates is provisional subject to their being found eligible in all respects.  The candidates will be required to produce the original certificates in support of their claims pertaining to  age,  educational  qualifications,  community,  EWS,  Person  with  Benchmark  Disability  (PwBD)  and  other  documents such as TA Form, etc. at the time of their Personality Test. The formats of SC/ST/OBC and PwBD  certificates and TA Form, etc. can be downloaded from the website of the Commission. They are, therefore,  advised  to keep  the  said  documents  ready with  them.  Candidates seeking  reservation/relaxation benefits  available for SC/ST/OBC/PwBD/Ex‐servicemen must also produce original certificates dated earlier than the  closing  date  of  the  application  for  Indian  Forest  Service  Examination‐2019  through  Civil  Services  (Preliminary)  Examination,  2019  i.e.  19.03.2019.  Candidates  seeking  reservation/relaxation  benefits available  for  EWS  must  produce  original  Income  &  Asset  certificate  of  issuing  date  earlier  than 01.08.2019. 

3.  Personality Tests (Interviews) of these candidates are likely to commence in the month February, 2020.   Personality Tests will be held in the Office of the Union Public Service Commission at Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi‐110069. The e‐Summon Letter of Personality Test of candidates being called for Interview  may  be  downloaded  from  the  Commission’s  Website  http://www.upsc.gov.in  & http://www.upsconline.in from   24  Jan,  2020. The candidates who are not able  to download e‐Summon Letter  for Personality Test, should immediately contact  the office of  the Commission  through letter or on Phone Nos.  011‐23385271,  011‐23381125,  011‐23098543 or Fax No. 011‐23387310,  011‐23384472 or by email on (skindo‐[email protected]). No paper Summon Letters will be issued for the Personality Test/Interview by the Commission.  

4.  No request for change in the date and time of the Personality Test intimated to the candidates will ordinarily be entertained. 

5.  All the candidates, who qualified for Personality Test/Interview are required to opt in/opt out for publically making available  their scores under  the Public Disclosure Scheme. Candidates are advised  to go through DoP&T letter No. 39020/1/2016‐Estt(B) dated 21.06.2016, 19.07.2017 and Commission’s Note on PUBLIC  DISCLOSURE,  THROUGH  PORTAL,  OF  SCORES  OF  CANDIDATES  NOT  RECOMMENDED  BY  THE COMMISSION  AGAINST  THE  RESULT  OF  AN  EXAMINATION.  Candidates  should  note  that  only  after submitting their option for opt in/opt out, they will be able to download their e‐Summon letter. 

6.  With regard  to  the Detailed Application Form‐II  (DAF‐II),  following provisions have been made in the Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination‐2019 Rules: 
I. A candidate who qualifies for Personality Test /Interview on the basis of Result of Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination, 2019, will be required to submit their Order of Preferences for Zone(s) /State(s) Cadre through DAF-II. DAF-II will be made available on the Commission’s website from 21 /01/2020 to 28 /01/2020 (06:00 P.M.)
II. The preferences once opted and submitted cannot be modified or changed at a later stage. Therefore, the candidates are advised to exercise due diligence while filling up the preferences for Zones as well as Cadres there under. No change in preferences for Zones once indicated by a candidate would be permitted. If a candidate fails to submit the DAF-II by last date/time, it will be considered that the candidate has no preference to make for Zones & Cadres and no request shall be entertained in this regard.
III. No request for any type of change/modification of information already supplied in DAF-II would be entertained by the Commission. However, wherever necessary the candidates are advised to notify changes in their address/contact details only, if any, to the Commission immediately through letter, email ([email protected]) or Fax at numbers indicated above within 7 days of publishing this Press Note.

7.  Name and Roll Nos. of qualified candidates is also available in upsc website i.e. www.upsc.gov.in .Qualified Candidates have to bring their photo ID whatever they mentioned in the DAF‐II. 

8.  The marks sheets of candidates who have not qualified, will be put on the Commission’s Website within 15 days  from  the date of publication of  the  final  result  (after conducting Personality Test) and will remain available on the Website for a period of 30 days. 

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Study Kit for Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Exam (GS Prelims)

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 17 January 2020 (An economic revival plan for the States (The Hindu))



An economic revival plan for the States (The Hindu)



  • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
  • Prelims level: Business Reforms Action Plan
  • Mains level:  Economic growth and development 

Context:

  • There are the numbers that keep flitting around to show the ongoing down-slide in India’s growth — GDP growth is at a 15-year low, unemployment rate is at a 45-year high, household consumption at a four-decade low, retail inflation at a new high, and banks are straddled with bad loans.

Quick fixes needed

  • The fact is long-term solutions are best administered when the economy is out of the ICU and gained enough strength to continue its journey on the growth path. 
  • For now, what the country needs are some quick fixes to ensure meaningful outcomes which are visible so that the scars don’t turn into chronic wounds.
  • Slight policy tweaks and relaxations across industry sectors may work best in the current scenario, especially when any further tax sops or interest rate cuts seem improbable.
  • To understand how such reforms can be achieved in a short time, there is no harm in borrowing sensible and practical ideas. 
  • The recently launched report on ‘ease of doing business’ in States and Union Territories offers some interesting ideas.

Case study:

  • The report, ‘An Integrated Value Chain Approach to Ease of Doing Business: A Case Study of Sugar, Alcohol Beverages, and Tourism Sectors’, put together by another policy think-tank, Pahle India Foundation, is interesting on many counts. 
  • Firstly, it makes some unique observations and suggestions for the three industry sectors — sugar, alcoholic-beverages and tourism. These are high value and high employment generating sectors. 
  • All these sectors already use existing low-cost resources, and have the potential to generate regular revenue and support employment in the States. These sectors have inter-linkages to support each other.

Business Reforms Action Plan:

  • The report suggests that if the policy reforms being implemented under the Business Reforms Action Plan (BRAP) framework (under the Department of Industry and Internal Trade, or DPIIT) had been linked to these three inter-linked sectors, the GDP of States and UTs would have received a boost.
  • Currently, the DPIIT’s BRAP framework comprises a list of general reforms, and we have used this generalised approach in benchmarking States based on the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business study. 
  • The Pahle India Foundation study recommends that, in place of this generic method followed by DPIIT, policy reforms should take a sectoral approach after conducting sector-specific studies to understand the inter-linkages and impact on the value chain. 
  • This makes sense as it will address ground-level challenges more effectively.

Right policy:

  • The Pahle India Foundation report establishes how such small reforms in any one of the three sectors included in the report — sugar, alco-beverages and tourism — could create a cumulative economic impact across the entire value chain.
  • In tourism:
  • We have historical sites all over, and if we focus on allied activities to ensure better tourist experience a proper policy for restaurants and bars, safe and well-planned local transport, hygienically managed budget hotels, and tourist-friendly police and drivers.
  • The country can generate much more revenue and employment. 
  • Citing the example of the Pub, Bar, Café, Lounge (PBCL) segment, which is part of the tourism industry, the report says that by simply reducing the time taken to give approvals to restaurants from nine months to three months.

Way ahead:

  • The States can get an additional revenue of ₹38.5 crore per annum, and sugar mills and distilleries an additional ₹51 lakh. 
  • A major part of this will go in taxes and in generating localised employment. Interestingly, such reforms do not result in revenue outgo.
  • This amount may seem insignificant on the face of it, but this is the outcome of just one small change in one sector. 
  • If these minor reforms are replicated across all States and industries, the domino effect on their respective GDPs and employment generation opportunities will be huge.
  • Even a small policy change can impact the entire value chain of the interlinked industry sectors, translating into better earnings for businesses and, therefore, higher revenues for the State exchequer.

Conclusion:

  • A sector-specific approach can, thus, be the quick fix that our country needs now. 
  • The outcome of the reforms can also be measured and quantified. 
  • Will States re-look at their policy-making approaches? Only time will tell.

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General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

    THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 17 January 2020 (A more rational tax classification of vehicles can drive up auto sales (The Hindu))



    A more rational tax classification of vehicles can drive up auto sales (The Hindu)



    • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
    • Prelims level: Not much 
    • Mains level:  Tax classification in automobile sector 

    Context:

    • The Finance Minister could urge the GST Council to review the basic rate and compensation cess framework for vehicles (without compromising on revenues), especially at a time when the government is keen on promoting cleaner vehicles through the imposition of BS VI fuel emission norms from April 1, 2020, as well as giving a push to electric vehicles. 

    Tax classification of vehicles:

    • Vehicles are taxed based on length, ground clearance, engine type and displacement.
    • This does not help promote reduction in emissions or encourage technological advancement. 
    • The draft National Automotive Policy put out in February 2018 sought to replace the current system of classification of vehicles for taxation purposes with a system based on vehicle length and carbon dioxide emissions. 
    • Therefore, all small cars need not be taxed less just because of their size and all large cars need not necessarily attract the maximum GST rate and cess. 
    • Such criteria will also help companies and buyers navigate the price increase due to BS VI changeover, as large cars and SUVs, especially the ones that run on diesel engines, are expected to bear the brunt of the price hike.

    Highlights the reason behind slowing down in automobile sector:

    • The slowdown in truck sales which began in November 2018 remains unrelenting. 
    • Average freight rates in key routes across the country are down 14 per cent since then and monthly fleet utilisation has plummeted 30-35 per cent, according to data from IFTRT (Indian Foundation for Transport Research and Training). 
    • The key point here is that this segment has been affected by both structural and cyclical factors. 
    • A decrease in turnaround time of trucks after GST eased inter-State movement, while the higher freight loading capacity of vehicles following the revised axle load norms have dampened new truck sales. 
    • According to CRISIL estimates, the latter has resulted in an increase in the freight capacity of the entire population of trucks operational in India by 20-25 per cent, equivalent to three years of incremental freight demand. 
    • The time is ripe for the introduction of the scrappage policy for commercial vehicles, which will serve the twin purposes of reviving demand and reducing pollution. 
    • Revenue loss from providing scrappage incentives can be made good by higher sales volumes as well as improved realisations from the costlier BS VI trucks.

    Way ahead:

    • However, the sector needs to look beyond Budget sops to ensure long-term growth. 
    • It needs to right-size and right-price its offerings and get ahead of the technology curve, in the policy and consumer-driven shift towards cleaner technologies.

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    General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

      THE-GIST-of-Editorial-for-UPSC-Exams : 17 January 2020 (Bilateral agreements are more desirable than multilateral deals (Mint))



      Bilateral agreements are more desirable than multilateral deals (Mint)



      • Mains Paper 2: International Relations 
      • Prelims level: RCEP
      • Mains level:  Bilateral trade, grouping and free trade agreements

      Context:

      • Since 1991, the narrative has been created that the policy of free movement of goods and capital across nations and amending IPR laws to suit investors is the panacea of all ills for developing countries.
      • In India, too, it was thought that with such a policy, Indian industry would become competitive, flow of investment would improve, thus making the IPR regime stronger in favour of the owners that will help innovations.

      Background:

      • To freeing trade in goods from tariff and non-tariff barriers, instead of making Indian industry generally more competitive.
      • This had led to deindustrialization in many sectors and a manifold increase in import dependence in general, leading to a constantly multiplying trade deficit, especially after the entry of China in the World Trade Organization (WTO). 
      • It is notable that India’s trade deficit increased from $6 billion in 2000-01 to $176 billion in 2018-19.

      Opting out from RCEP:

      • The decision to walk out of RCEP raises doubts about the future of free trade agreements (FTAs), including the FTA with the EU. 
      • In the past, opposition to India-EU FTA was similar to those of RCEP, such as on non-agriculture market access, agriculture, IPR, and investment.
      • The same arguments that were being given in support of RCEP are back in the narrative in favour of an India-EU FTA.
      • These include that the country cannot live in isolation, that this FTA would improve competitiveness of Indian industry and that the export potential of agriculture would also improve, and that IPR related clauses, which are actually proposed by EU, would encourage innovation.
      • The bizarre argument in favour of MTAs and RTAs is that they save nations from negotiating with other individual nations. 
      • However, 72.6% of India’s imports are from merely 15 countries and 60.5% of exports go to just 15 countries.

      Prioritising in local trade:

      • Therefore, making trade deals with major trading partners is not a big exercise. 
      • Rather, it gives us an opportunity to increase our trade relations with countries where our penetration is less, by making agreements with them and also helps us make diplomatic inroads there.
      • It is always a good idea to negotiate with our trade partners and have a trade deal, based on mutual needs, competitiveness and local requirements. 
      • The Swadeshi Jagran Manch has always been in favour of bilateral trade agreements rather than MTAs or RTAs. 
      • This approach has given us an opportunity to negotiate on the basis of mutual needs and cost benefit analysis on sound basis, rather than projections.

      Way forward:

      • FTAs would lead to India becoming a part of the global value chain, which again is generally fallacious. 
      • We must not forget that the essential condition for India becoming a part of the global value chain is not FTAs but ease of doing business. 
      • We need to make special efforts by carefully making agreements with our trade partners wherever possible and entering into bilateral agreement and make special efforts to improve our competitiveness. 
      • We need to work out a deal that is a win-win for all sectors, including manufacturing, agriculture, and dairy, and all people including workers, farmers, and small business

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      General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

        THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 17 January 2020 (Extreme weather, ahoy! (Mint)))

        Extreme weather, ahoy! (Mint)

        • Mains Paper 3: Environment 
        • Prelims level: World Meteorological Organization
        • Mains level:  Report arises on climate change 

        Context:

        • Report published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has findings that a close analysis of climate dangers.
        • It warns of the impact of “retreating ice, record sea levels, increasing ocean heat and acidification, and extreme weather", all of which are in evidence. 
        • It also corroborates the latest studies of the European Union’s climate monitor, which revealed that 2019 was the second hottest year on record after 2016. 
        • The WMO forecasts extreme weather conditions for 2020 and beyond, and cites the prolonged bushfires that are ravaging Australia as a case in point.

        Conclusion:

        • Rising global temperatures are no blip, but a clear and present threat to the planet. 
        • We must speed up collective action towards limiting temperature increases to 1.5 degree Celsius, as agreed upon in the landmark Paris accord, or be prepared to watch the world burn.

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        General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

          THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 17 January 2020 (Power replay (Indian Express))

          Power replay (Indian Express)

          • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
          • Prelims level: Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana
          • Mains level:  Energy sector reforms 

          Context:

          • Almost five years after the launch of the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY), there are indications that the power sector is once again in trouble. 
          • The losses of state-owned distribution companies (discoms) risen, but their dues for power purchases have also surged. 
          • At the end of November 2019, dues owed by discoms to power producers, both independent and state-run entities, stood at Rs 80,930 crore.
          • Rs 71,673 crore extends beyond the allowed grace period of 60 days. 
          • Rajasthan leads the states with the most dues, followed by Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.

          Reasons behind the failure: 

          • The UDAY scheme has failed to engineer a sustainable turnaround in the fortunes of the beleaguered distribution segment.
          • The weakest link in the power chain. 
          • The Centre is contemplating yet another scheme to address the issues that continue to plague the sector. 
          • But, as distribution falls under the purview of states, rather than adopting an approach similar to that of the past schemes, the new scheme should focus on altering the incentive structure at the state level so as to ensure the achievement of targets. 
          • The UDAY scheme, which involved state governments taking over the debt of discoms, had three critical components:
          • A reduction in the aggregate technical and commercial (AT&C) losses, 
          • The timely revision of tariffs, and 
          • To elimination of the gap between average per unit of cost and revenue realised.

          Way forward:

          • The new plan, reportedly, aims to address these issues by reducing electricity losses, eliminating the tariff gap, smart metering, privatising discoms, and having distribution franchisees. 
          • These would be welcome measures. 
          • But, along with these, the Centre should also look at altering the incentive structures of states in order to ensure compliance. 
          • Stiff penalties need to be imposed for not meeting the targets laid out in the new scheme.

           

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            The Gist of Hindu, Yojana, Kurukshetra, PIB : 2019 Yearly PDF Set "Jan to Dec 2019"



            The Gist of The Hindu, Yojana, Kurukshetra, PIB etc : 2019 Yearly PDF Set "Jan to Dec 2019"



            Cover Month: January 2019 to December 2019

            THE GIST DETAILS:

            Medium: English

            Price: Rs.840 Rs.199/- (Limited Time Offer)

            No. of Issues: 12 Pdf (1 Year)

            File Type: 12 PDF Files (VIA EMAIL)

            TOPICS OF THE GIST Magazine

            • Gist of The Hindu Newspaper
            • Gist of Yojana Magazine (Govt. of India)
            • Gist of Kurukshetra (Govt. of India)
            • Gist of Press Information Bureau (Govt. of India)
            • Gist of Science Reporter Magazine

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            (Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (I) 2020



            (Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (I) 2020



            Post Detail :

            F.No.7/2/2019.E.1(B): An Examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 19th April, 2020 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 145th Course, and for the 107th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd January, 2021.
            The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission. The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this examination will be as under :— 

            • National Defence Academy :        370 to include 208 for Army, 42 for Navy and 120 for Air Force (including 28 for ground Duties)
            • Naval Academy(10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme) : 48 

                Total                : 418 

            Education Qualification: 

            (i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
            (ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of SchoolEducation or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University. 

            Age :

            Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 2001 and not later than 1st July, 2004 are eligible. 

            Physical Standards:

            Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2020 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.  

            Fees  :

            Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India or by using Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card.

            SCHEME OF EXAMINATION:

            1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:— 

            Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks
            Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
            General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600
            Total 900
            SSB Test/Interview : 900

            2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.

            3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set. 

            4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them. 

            5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.

            6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

            Pay Scale:

            Low - up to Rs. 9000/-pm
            Middle - Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm
            High - Above 18000/-pm 

            How to Apply :   

            • Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the Appendix-II (A) Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website. 
            • The Commission has introduced the facility of withdrawal of Application for those candidates who do not want to appear for the Examination. In this regard, Instructions are mentioned in Appendix-II (B) of this Examination Notice.
            • Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School Photo ID/Any other  photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for examination/SSB. 

            Important Date :

            Starting Date- 08-Jan-2020

            Last Date – 28-Jan-2020

            Click Here To Download Official Notification

            Click Here To Apply Online

            Study Material for UPSC National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam

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