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(Answer Key) UPSC Engineering Services Pre Examination - 2019

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(Answer Key) UPSC Engineering Services Pre Examination - 2019

Exam Name: UPSC Engineering Services Pre Examination

Year: 2019

Subject:

  • General Studies & Engineering Aptitude
  • Civil Engineering Paper
  • Mechanical Engineering Paper
  • Electrical Engineering Paper
  • Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering 

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Assistant Director (Cost), Ministry of Finance

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Assistant Director (Cost), Ministry of Finance



1. The verification of the correctness of cost accounts and of the adherence to the cost accounting plan is termed as:
(a) management audit.
(b) internal audit.
(c) cost audit.
(d) cost control.

2. If Project ‘X’ has a net present value (NPV) of ₹ 8,00,000 and Project ‘Y’ has a NPV of ₹ 12,00,000, what is the opportunity cost if Project ‘Y’ is selected?
(a) ₹ 8,00,000
(b) ₹ 12,00,000
(c) ₹ 20,00,000
(d) ₹ 10,00,000

3. In how many years cost of small assets purchased shall be written off as per the accounting policy?
(a) 5 years
(b) In the period in which they were purchased
(c) 7 years
(d) Full life of the asset

4. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of Responsibility Accounting?
(a) Breaking down of organizational goals into small goals
(b) Performance evaluation
(c) Prompt corrective action
(d) Transfer price management

5. Who among the following CANNOT be appointed as a Cost Auditor?
(a) A cost accountant as defined under Section 2(28) of the Companies Act, 2013
(b) A cost accountant who holds a valid certificate of practice under sub-Section (1) of Section (6) of Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959
(c) A firm of cost accountants
(d) Any graduate certified by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs

6. As per the Institute of Cost Accountants of India, which one of the following is a quality of a good internal auditor?
(a) Loyalty towards the Management
(b) Risk averter
(c) Right attitude
(d) Loyalty towards the shareholders 

7. Which one of the following is NOT a type of  cost audit?
(a) Cost audit to assist management
(b) Cost audit on behalf of trade association
(c) Cost audit on behalf of a customer
(d) Cost audit to assist an employee

8.Which one of the following is NOT a function of  a cost auditor?
(a) Examining inventory
(b) Examining stores issue procedure
(c) Physically verifying work-in-progress
(d) Preparing capital expenditure budget

9.A person is NOT eligible for appointment as a cost auditor if he has business relationship with:
1. the company.
2. a subsidiary of the company.
3. a holding company of the company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

10. Which of the following class / classes of company / companies shall be required to appoint an internal auditor or a firm of internal auditors?
1. Every listed company with net worth exceeding ₹ 50 crore
2. Every listed company
3. Every unlisted company with paid up share capital of ₹ 10 crore
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

11. Which of the following shall be absorbed in  material cost?
(a) Finance costs incurred in connection with the acquisition of materials
(b) Costs of spares which are specific to an item of equipment
(c) Losses due to evaporation before the material is received
(d) Penalty levied by transport 

12. “Manufacturing Activity” includes any act, process or method employed in relation to Cost Accounting (Records) Rules; except:
(a) harboring.
(b) docking.
(c) stripping.
(d) recording.

13. The term “Product” under Cost Accounting (Records) Rules includes:
1. tangible goods.
2. intangible goods.
3. idea.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. The cost records shall be maintained in accordance with the:
(a) Cost Accounting Principles and Cost Accounting Standards.
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
(c) Indian Accounting Standards.
(d) International Financial Reporting Standards.

15.Which one of the following is NOT included in the meaning of “Turnover” in relation to the Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules, 2014?
(a) Realization made from sales
(b) Realization made on account of service rendered
(c) Duties and taxes
(d) Turnover from job work

16. The Form CRA–1 requires cost records to be maintained under specified headings that do NOT include:
(a) utilities.
(b) overheads.
(c) quality control expenses.
(d) managerial remuneration.

17. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement of Cost Accounting (Records) Rules applicable to various industries in India?
(a) Records for by-products
(b) Computation of variances
(c) Statistical data
(d) Records for promotion 

18. The Cost Auditor should verify which one of the following areas of work-in-progress?
(a) Quantity shown in job-cards of uncompleted work
(b) Bin-card
(c) Stock level
(d) EOQ

19. Quality assurance includes:
(a) establishing the quality standards.
(b) establishing the production standards.
(c) avoiding defects.
(d) avoiding duplication.

20. Capital rationing  refers to:
(a) borrowings at a concessional rate.
(b) designing an optimal capital structure.
(c) a situation where the firm is constrained not to take up all the investment opportunities.
(d) a rational distribution of divisible profits.

21. Consider the following information:
Sales : ₹ 25,000
Fixed cost : ₹ 20,000
Variable cost : ₹ 15,000
How much the sales must be increased for the company to break even?
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 60,000

22. ‘Z’ Ltd. makes a single product which it sells for  ₹ 16 per unit. Fixed costs are ₹ 48,000 per month and the product has a contribution to sales ratio of 30%. In a month when actual sales were ₹ 2,24,000, ‘Z’ Ltd’s margin of safety, in units was:
(a) 2000
(b) 4000
(c) 10000
(d) 14000

23. If at breakeven point, fixed cost per unit amounts to ₹8, then what will be the amount of profits when actual sales are 1000 units in excess of break even sales and variable cost per unit amounts to  ₹ 7?
(a) ₹ 8,000
(b) ₹ 7,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) Cannot be determined 

24. What is the amount of profit when margin of safety is 40%, breakeven sales ₹ 1,20,000 and fixed cost ₹ 48,000?
(a) ₹ 48,000
(b) ₹ 19,200
(c) ₹ 32,000
(d) Cannot be determined

25. How can the profit- volume ratio be improved?
1. Increasing the sales volume
2. Decreasing the variable cost per unit
3. Decreasing the total fixed cost
4. Increasing selling price per unit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

26. The profit volume ratio of ‘X’ Ltd. is 50% and the margin of safety is 40%. Which one of the following is the net profit if sales volume is ₹ 2,50,000?
(a) ₹ 1,25,000
(b) ₹ 1,00,000
(c) ₹ 75,000
(d) ₹ 50,000

27. Profit volume ratio will fall if:
1. selling price per unit falls
2. variable cost per unit falls
3. fixed cost rises
4. variable cost per unit rises
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 

28. Consider the following statements:
1. Variable cost per unit is fixed
2. Fixed cost per unit is variable
3. Total fixed cost varies with the length of the period of production
4. Fixed cost remains unchanged for change in the volume of production
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

29. Material cost and factory cost are ₹ 2,42,000 and ₹ 4,10,000 respectively. If factory overheads are absorbed at 40% on direct wages, then the amount of factory overheads absorbed are:
(a) ₹ 80,000
(b) ₹ 98,000
(c) ₹ 72,000
(d) ₹ 48,000

30. If BEP is ₹ 35,00,000 at 70% level of sales and the profit is ₹ 5,25,000 at 100% level of sales, what is the P/V ratio?
(a) 40%
(b) 45%
(c) 35%
(d) 30%

31. Margin of safety is affected if:
1. P/V ratio changes
2. Fixed cost changes
3. Volume of sales changes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

32. 2200 units of a product are required to be sold to earn a profit of ₹ 1,36,000 in a monopoly market. The contribution is 2/3 of its variable cost and the fixed cost for the period is ₹ 84,000. Find the selling price from the options given below:
(a) ₹ 300
(b) ₹ 250
(c) ₹ 200
(d) ₹ 150 

33.Per unit material costs, labour costs and variable overheads are ₹ 75, ₹ 50, ₹ 25 respectively. The fixed overheads for 40000 units are budgeted at ₹ 12,00,000. If required rate of return is 25% on transfer price, then which one of the following is the value of transfer price per unit?
(a) ₹ 200
(b) ₹ 225
(c) ₹ 240
(d) ₹ 180

34. A company has 500 units of obsolete items which are carried in material inventory at the original purchase price of ₹ 16,000. Their scrap value is only ₹ 4,000. If these items are reworked at a cost of ₹ 5,000 and can be sold for ₹ 12,000, which one of the following is the value of the relevant cost of selling these items?
(a) ₹ 16,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 5,000
(d) ₹ 9,000

35. A manufacturing firm has produced 10000 units of a standard product by incurring the ollowing expenses:
Material costs : ₹ 80,000
Labour costs : ₹ 40,000
Production overhead : ₹ 30,000
Office overhead : 20% of factory cost
Estimated selling and distribution overhead is ₹ 4 per unit. If the firm has no inventory at the beginning of the period and expects to maintain 20% of output as closing inventory, at what price per unit the product should be sold to earn a profit of 20% on sales?
(a) ₹ 27.50
(b) ₹ 23.00
(c) ₹ 26.40
(d) ₹ 28.75

36. Pricing of a product shall necessarily be guided by the philosophy that it is able to help the firm:
(a) recover its cost and generate a fair and reasonable return in the long run.
(b) recover its cost only.
(c) generate a fair return in the long run only.
(d) to be competitive. 

37. ‘X’ Ltd. prices its product at full cost plus 20%.  The variable cost per unit is ₹ 12 and total fixed cost amounts to ₹ 2,40,000. The demand levels at different selling prices are as follows:
Price (₹) Demand (Unit)
17 100000
18 80000
19 60000
What should be the selling price of the product?
(a) ₹ 17
(b) ₹ 18
(c) ₹ 19
(d) ₹ 20

38. When production facility is sufficient but demand of products is the limiting factor, which one of the following budgets should be prepared first?
(a) Production budget
(b) Purchase budget
(c) Sales budget
(d) Cash budget

39. ‘B’ Ltd. is currently preparing cash budget for the year 2019. An extract from its sales budget for the same year shows the following sales values:
(₹ ’000)
March 600
April 700
May 800
June 500
40% of its sales are expected to be for cash. Of its credit sales, 80% are expected to be realised in the next month and the balance in the second month. The value of sales receipts to be shown in cash budget for May 2019 is (in ₹ ’000):
(a) 660
(b) 728
(c) 740
(d) 860

40. A method of budgeting whereby all activities  are revaluated each time a budget is set is called:
(a) appropriation budgeting.
(b) master budget.
(c) programme budgeting.
(d) zero base budgeting. 

41. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of a Budget Committee?
(a) To provide all historical data to the functional heads
(b) Preparation and development of Departmental Budget
(c) Providing central guidelines
(d) Approving the functional budgets after making the required changes

42. Master budget is prepared:
(a) after preparation of all the functional budgets.
(b) after preparation of flexible budgets.
(c) before preparation of the cash budget.
(d) at the beginning of all other budgets.

43. The budget cost for repairs and maintenance at 15000 units and 18000 units levels are ₹ 2,50,000 and ₹ 2,95,000 respectively. If 20000 units are to be produced, how much should be budgeted for repairs and maintenance?
(a) ₹ 3,15,000
(b) ₹ 3,10,000
(c) ₹ 3,25,000
(d) ₹ 3,35,000

44. Zero-base budgeting has been developed on the premises that:
(a) the amount of current budgetary allocation should always be above the previous allocation.
(b) each manager justifies his budgetary requests.
(c) the controlling authority making the budgetary allocation enjoys the privilege of making a higher allocation than what the manager has asked for.
(d) resources are unlimited.

45. If the current ratio is 2.5 and net working capital is ₹ 45,000 what is the value of current assets?
(a) ₹ 75,000
(b) ₹ 1,12,500
(c) ₹ 80,000
(d) ₹ 72,000

46.  ‘XYZ’ Limited has current PBIT of ₹ 16,80,000 on the total assets of ₹ 84,00,000. The company has decided to increase assets by ₹ 20,00,000, which is expected to increase the operating profit before depreciation by ₹ 5,52,000. There will be a net increase in depreciation by ₹ 3,60,000. The resultant ROI will be:
(a) 20%
(b) 18%
(c) 21.46%
(d) 22% 

47. The current assets and working capital of a firm are ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 50,000 respectively. How much can the firm borrow on a short-term basis to maintain its current ratio of 1.50?
(a) ₹ 35,000
(b) ₹ 50,000
(c) ₹ 70,000
(d) ₹ 1,00,000

48. Trend Percentage Analysis (TPA) helps comparing the performance of a company:
(a) with other companies of the same industry.
(b) with other industries.
(c) over a period of time for the same company.
(d) to estimate the future performance of the company only.

49. As per Du Pont analysis: a/b = a/c × c/ b where,
(a) a = Net Profit, b = Sales and c = Total Assets
(b) a = Total Assets, b = Sales and c = Net Profit
(c) a = Sales, b = Net Profit and c = Total Assets
(d) a = Net Profit, b = Total Assets and c = Sales

50. As per extended Du  Pont analysis:
ROE = NPM × TATR × x/y
Where, ROE = Return on Equity
NPM = Net Profit Margin
TATR = Total Asset Turnover Ratio
Here, x/y represents:
(a) Debt / Equity
(b) Total Assets / Sales
(c) Total Assets / Equity
(d) Equity / Debt

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Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

51. Budgeted annual sales of a firm is ₹ 80,00,000 and 25% of the sales are on cash basis. If average amount of debtors of the firm is ₹ 10,00,000, find the average collection period of the firm:
(a) 2.4 months
(b) 2 months
(c) 1 month
(d) 1.5 months  

52. A higher price-earnings ratio indicates:
(a) higher competition in the line of business.
(b) better productivity of the firm.
(c) improved capital structure of the firm.
(d) higher expected future income of the firm compared to its current income.

53. If Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) = 4/3, which one of the following will be the interest coverage ratio?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 3/4
(d) 1.33

54. The following data applies to a firm:
Interest charges : ₹ 1,50,000
Loan repayment instalment : ₹ 2,00,000
Depreciation : ₹ 1,00,000
Profit after tax : ₹ 4,50,000
What is the debt service coverage ratio of the firm?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1.71
(d) 2

55. ‘ABC’ Construction Company undertook a contract for ₹ 5,00,000 on 1st January, 2018. On 31st December, 2018 profit transferred to Costing Profit and Loss Account was ₹ 96,000. Cost of work uncertified was ₹ 1,20,000 and cash received (being 80% of work certified) was ₹ 2,50,000. What is the notional profit?
(a) ₹ 1,64,000
(b) ₹ 1,50,000
(c) ₹ 1,44,000
(d) ₹ 1,80,000

56. Which one of the following is NOT an example of multiple or composite costing?
(a) Bicycle
(b) Toy manufacturing
(c) Automobile industry
(d) Textile industry

57. Which one of the following items of cost is NOT excluded from cost records?
(a) Financial charges or losses
(b) Financial income or gains
(c) Implicit charges
(d) Profit appropriations 

58. Consider the following information:
Market demand per month : 500 units
Setting-up cost per batch : ₹ 120
Cost of manufacture per unit : ₹ 20
Rate of interest : 10% p.a.
Which one of the following is the Economic Batch Quantity (EBQ)?
(a) 600 units
(b) 848.53 units
(c) 268.33 units
(d) 1200 units

59. Cost, which requires their occurrence in cash,  is known as:
(a) explicit cost.
(b) opportunity cost.
(c) unavoidable cost.
(d) differential cost.

60. Under net realisable value method of apportionment of joint costs, the sales value of joint products is reduced by which of the following?
1. Estimated profit margin
2. Selling and distribution expense
3. Post-split-off costs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

61. In a production process, normal loss is 10%  of input and abnormal gain amounting to 800 units. If final output of the process is 18800 units then the actual loss in process will be:
(a) 1200 units
(b) 1800 units
(c) 2000 units
(d) 1880 units

62. ‘SR’ Limited has agreed to supply 40000 units of an instrument next year on regular basis to ‘RS’ Limited. It is estimated that inventory holding cost per instrument per month is ₹ 0.20 and set-up cost per run of instrument manufacturing is ₹ 480. Assuming that ‘SR’ Limited is manufacturing this instrument solely for ‘RS’ Limited, what should be its optimum run-size?
(a) 4000 units
(b) 4200 units
(c) 13857 units
(d) 12400 units
 

63. While calculating profits from an incomplete contract, 1/3rd of the notional profit is transferred to the year’s Profit and Loss Account when the work completed is:
(a) less than 25%.
(b) 25% and above but less than 50%.
(c) 50% and above.
(d) closer to 100%.

64. During a month, 10000 units were introduced into Process I. Units processed and transferred to Process II were 6000 units. 3400 units were incomplete at the end of the month. Normal loss is 10% of input. There was no opening work-in-progress. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Normal loss 1000 units and abnormal loss 3000 units
(b) Normal loss 1000 units and abnormal gain 600 units
(c) Normal loss 600 units and abnormal gain 400 units
(d) Normal loss 1000 units and abnormal gain 400 units

65. A firm’s Profit Volume ratio is 50% and fixed cost is ₹ 10,00,000. To earn a profit of ₹ 10,00,000 the firm should sell goods worth:
(a) ₹ 40,00,000
(b) ₹ 20,00,000
(c) ₹ 30,00,000
(d) ₹ 50,00,000

66. Margin of safety is determined by using:
(a) Profit / Profit Volume ratio.
(b) Contribution – Fixed cost.
(c) BEP Sales + Actual sales.
(d) Sales × Profit Volume ratio.

67. The amount by which the aggregate costs are changed for the change of one unit of volume is termed as:
(a) Fixed cost.
(b) Nominal cost.
(c) Marginal cost.
(d) Total cost. 

68. Consider the following information:
Sales per unit : ₹ 100
Variable cost : 40%
Units sold : 800
Profit : ₹ 28,000
Which one of the following is the value of fixed cost?
(a) ₹ 80,000
(b) ₹ 2,80,000
(c) ₹ 32,000
(d) ₹ 20,000

69. A firm produced and sold 10000 units in a month and suffered a loss of ₹ 10,000. In the next month, the firm produced and sold 20000 units and made a profit of ₹ 10,000. What is the contribution per unit if variable cost per unit is ₹ 5?
(a) ₹ 2
(b) ₹ 3
(c) ₹ 4
(d) ₹ 5

70.  Consider the following information:
Sales : ₹ 50,000
Fixed cost : ₹ 20,000
Break Even Point : ₹ 40,000
Which one of the following is the Contribution / Sales ratio?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.2

71.  A firm has monthly fixed cost of ₹  30,000 and earns ₹ 40,000 profits in a month at a sale of ₹ 3,50,000. The firm’s break even sales and margin of safety respectively are:
(a) ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹ 1,50,000
(b) ₹ 2,50,000 and ₹ 1,00,000
(c) ₹ 1,50,000 and ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 1,50,000 and ₹ 2,50,000

72. A firm incurs a loss of ₹ 20,000 on a monthly sale of ₹ 1,00,000. In the next month it plans to increase its sales by 50% to earn a profit of ₹ 10,000. What is the break-even sales?
(a) ₹ 1,40,000
(b) ₹ 1,33,333
(c) ₹ 1,20,000
(d) ₹ 1,10,000 

73. A firm has generated sales of ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹  3,00,000 over the last two years, with a corresponding profit of ₹ 40,000 and ₹ 70,000. What is the annual fixed cost?
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 20,000
(c) ₹ 40,000
(d) ₹ 50,000

74. Product X has a standard cost of ₹ 25, ₹ 6 of which relates to direct materials. Budgeted production for the month was 1600 units. During the month, 1500 units of X were produced and materials worth ₹ 9,000 were purchased. There was no opening stock of materials but closing stock, which was valued at standard cost, amounted to ₹ 1,000. What is the total variance for materials?
(a) ₹ 500 (F)
(b) ₹ 500 (A)
(c) ₹ 1000 (F)
(d) ₹ 1000 (A)

75. A company budgets for fixed overheads of ₹  24,000 and production of 4800 units. Actual production is 4200 units and the fixed overhead incurred is ₹ 20,000. What is the fixed volume variance?
(a) ₹ 3,000 (A)
(b) ₹ 3,000 (F)
(c) ₹ 1,000 (A)
(d) ₹ 2,000 (F)

76. NPV and IRR techniques of capital budgeting can give contradictory  results in the following situations:
1. Mutually exclusive projects having different scale of investment
2. When projects have conventional cash flows
3. Mutually exclusive projects having unequal lives
4. When projects are of independent nature
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

77. Standard cost of materials for an output of 4800 units is ₹ 1,20,000 and the actual output from the same quantities of the materials is 4550 units. What will be the material usage variance if material mix variance is ₹ 2,750 (A)?
(a) ₹ 3,500,(A)
(b) ₹ 6,250 (A)
(c) ₹ 9,000 (A)
(d) ₹ 9,000 (F) 

78. The standard quantity required to produce one ton of output is 60 units at a standard rate of ₹ 10 per unit. During a given period, the firm has produced 50 tons of output by consuming 2950 units at a total cost of ₹ 30,975. What is the material cost variance of the firm?
(a) ₹ 1,475 (A)
(b) ₹ 975 (F)
(c) ₹ 975 (A)
(d) ₹ 1,475 (F)

79. SOAP in ERP stands for:
(a) Standard Option Access Protocol
(b) Standard Operating Access Protocol
(c) Simple Object Access Protocol
(d) Single Object Access Protocol

80. The Cost Accounting Standard Board, in order to bring uniformity and consistency in the method of determining Research and Development Cost, has issued detailed guidelines through Cost Accounting Standard known as:
(a) CAS 15
(b) CAS 16
(c) CAS 11
(d) CAS 18

81. Identify the document against which materials can be issued by the stores department?
(a) Stores requisition
(b) Material slip
(c) Stores slip
(d) Bin card

82. A quantitative record of the all receipts, issues and balance of material after  each receipt or issue is found in:
(a) Accounts ledger
(b) Bin card
(c) Re-order level
(d) Re-order quantity

83. Cost of material consumed is always equal to:
(a) Opening stock of raw materials + Purchases – Closing stock of raw materials
(b) Opening stock of raw materials + Purchases returns – Closing stock of raw materials
(c) Opening stock of raw materials + Closing stock of raw materials – Returns
(d) Opening stock of raw materials – Closing stock of raw materials + Returns 

84. Danger level of inventory is obtained by calculating:
(a) average consumption × maximum re-order period for emergency purchases.
(b) average consumption × re-order level + re-order quantity.
(c) re-order level + re-order quantity + EOQ.
(d) EOQ + average consumption × number of safety days.

85. Average stock level is always equal to:
(a) Minimum stock level + ½ re-order quantity
(b) Re-order quantity + ½ re-order level
(c) EOQ + maximum stock level/2
(d) EOQ + buffer stock + re-order level

86. Carrying cost of material does​​​​​​​ NOT include:
(a) cost of storage space.
(b) cost of bins and racks.
(c) cost of obsolescence.
(d) cost of defective materials replacement.

87. Consider the following information:
1. Minimum, average and maximum consumption per week = 400 kg, 600 kg and 750 kg
2. Minimum, average and maximum lead time = 3 weeks, 5 weeks and 7 weeks
Which one of the following is the re-order level?
(a) 5000 kg
(b) 6800 kg
(c) 5250 kg
(d) 6000 kg

88. What is just in time purchasing?
(a) Purchase when required only
(b) Purchase before production
(c) Purchased just to store
(d) Purchase to display

89. During a month, the opening stock of raw materials were ₹ 4,00,000. Purchases made were ₹ 7,50,000. Payment made for the same was ₹ 6,00,000 and purchases returns were ₹ 50,000. Closing stock is nil. What is the value of materials consumed?
(a) ₹ 11,00,000
(b) ₹ 6,00,000
(c) ₹ 5,50,000
(d) ₹ 1,50,000 

90.  Why weighted average method of pricing material issues is​​​​​​​ considered best?
1. Cost comparison of different jobs can be easily made
2. Production is charged at the most recent price
3. It helps in smoothing out fluctuations in prices
4. Product is charged at the old price
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

91. Why is a material requisition raised?
(a) To intimate the supplier the quantity and quality of material required
(b) When stock of material has reached re-order level
(c) When material contained therein is required to be issued from stores department
(d) To request the purchase department for purchasing the material contained therein

92. A perpetual inventory system may  be defined as:
(a) checking of physical stock against the bin card information on continuous basis.
(b) checking of stock on the same date in each accounting period.
(c) maintenance of bin cards and store-ledger cards on continuous basis.
(d) ensuring that stock taking procedures conform to a previously agreed procedure.

93. The value of the rupee received at the end of each year for three years discounted at 10% per annum will be:
(a) more than ₹ 3.00.
(b) ₹ 3.00.
(c) sum of the discounted value of ₹ 1.00 at the end of each year.
(d) ₹ 3.00 plus interest.

94. In a make or buy decision the management is undecided between make and buy. When the monthly requirement of the component is 10000 units the firm should opt for:
(a) make if requirement is 12000 units.
(b) make if requirement is 8000 units.
(c) buy if requirement is 12000 units.
(d) buy for any level of requirement in units. 

95. Which one of the following statements regarding Decision Rule of MIRR is correct?
(a) If Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) ≥ Required rate of Return: Accept the proposal
(b) If Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) ≤ Required rate of Return: Accept the proposal
(c) If modified Internal rate of Return (MIRR) < Required Rate of Return: Accept the proposal
(d) If Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) > Required Rate of Return: Reject the proposal

96. Which one of the following costs does NOT involve any cash outlay and are computed and considered only for the purpose of decision-making?
(a) Imputed costs
(b) Out-of-pocket costs
(c) Sunk costs
(d) Avoidable costs

97. P/V ratio is used as a criterion for deciding product mix when:
(a) there is scarcity of material.
(b) there is scarcity of labour.
(c) sales potential in terms of units are limited.
(d) sales potential in terms of value is limited.

98. Which one of the following helps in calculating the ‘shut down point’?
(a) Standard costing
(b) Marginal costing
(c) Opportunity costing
(d) Replacement costing

99. When increase in cost results because of increase the level of activity, the differential cost is known as:
(a) net relevant cost.
(b) decremental cost.
(c) incremental cost.
(d) conversion cost.

100. Contribution per unit is used as a criterion for assessing profitability of products when:
(a) sales potential in terms of value is limited.
(b) material is in short supply.
(c) there is scarcity of labour.
(d) sales potential in terms of units are limited. 

101. In determining transfer price, which one of the following is NOT considered?
(a) Centralization of decision
(b) Goal congruence
(c) High level of decentralization
(d) Sub-unit autonomy

102. According to CAS–24 which one of the following is NOT an item of other operating brevenue?
(a) Sale of By-products
(b)Export incentives received from Government
(c) Profit on sale of property
(d)Sale of manufacturing scrap

103. IRR is one of the sophisticated techniques of capital budgeting, because it:
(a) considers time value of money with a rate.
(b) ignores present value of money.
(c) is calculated at an assumed cost of capital.
(d) is calculated without an assumed cost of capital.

104. Bailout Payback time of a capital project is reached, when its cumulative cash receipts plus it’s salvage value at the end equal its:
(a) initial investment.
(b) rate of return expected.
(c) nominal return.
(d) discount rate.

105. If the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is more than the required rate of return, then the project is:
(a) rejected
(b) evaluated
(c) considered for payback period
(d) accepted

106. A firm has to impose restrictions on the selection of capital projects so as to maximize the use of available resources. This is known as:
(a) capital rationing
(b) capital budgeting
(c) capital expenditure
(d) revenue expenditure 

107. While computing Net Cash Flow, for determining Net Present Value (NPV), the value of depreciation charged during the year is added back:
(a) after deducting taxes.
(b) before deducting taxes.
(c) after deducting salvage value.
(d) before adding scrap value

108. According to CAS–7, which one of the following is NOT included in employee cost?
(a) Payment made to employees engaged by employer on contract basis
(b) Employees cost incurred in kind
(c) Compensation paid to employees for the past service on account of any dispute / Court order
(d) Employees cost incurred on retirement / separation benefits

109. Standard overhead for actual output is called as:
(a) Standard overhead
(b) Budgeted overhead
(c) Recovered overhead
(d) Actual overhead

110. The process of planning expenditure that will influence the operation of a firm over a number of years is called:
(a) investment.
(b) capital budgeting.
(c) dividend valuation.
(d) net present valuation.

111. If expected sales (based on competitor’s price)  are ₹ 1,00,000; required rate of return on cost of sale is 25%; present feasible cost of sales is ₹ 90,000; what should be the cost reduction target for this level?
(a) ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 20,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) ₹ 5,000

112. Customer relationship management refers to:
(a) network of facilities and distribution options that performs the function of procurement of materials, transformation of these materials into intermediate and finished products and the distribution of these finished products to customer.
(b) fast analysis of shared multidimensional information system.
(c) computer based tool for mapping and analysing things that exist and events that happen on earth.
(d) methods and technologies used by companies to manage their relationship with clients. 

113.  What is Data mining?
(a) Data stored for business analysis can most effectively be accessed by separating it from the data in the operational systems
(b) The process of identifying valid, potentially useful and ultimately comprehensible knowledge from data bases to make crucial business decisions
(c) The tools and systems that play a key role in the strategic planning process of the corporation
(d) The practice of interactive methodical exploration of an organizations data with emphasis on statistical analysis

114. Which one of the following is NOT a hidden cost of implementation of ERP?
(a) Brain drain
(b) Data conversion
(c) Training of employees
(d) Core software license fee

115. Which one of the following is a technological risk of ERP?
(a) Programme management and execution
(b) Business process re-engineering
(c) Stage transition
(d) Software functionality

116. The slack in PERT is computed by comparing:
(a) earliest start time with latest start time for any activity.
(b) earliest start time with earliest finish time.
(c) latest start time with latest finish time.
(d) latest start time with expected time.

117. In PERT/CPM the latest start time and latest finish time for each activity is computed using:
(a) forward pass.
(b) backward pass.
(c) critical path.
(d) probabilistic time. 

118. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of program evaluation and review technique (PERT)?
(a) Crashing a project
(b) Event oriented technique
(c) Non-repetitive nature
(d) Used probabilistic time estimation 

119. Which one of the following Cost Accounting  Standard is related to “Pollution Control Costs”?
(a) CAS–3
(b) CAS–13
(c) CAS–14
(d) CAS–19

120.  Which one of the following is NOT a motivating factor for downsizing?
(a) Reducing working hours
(b) Reduce costs
(c) Right size resources relative to market demand
(d) Release the least-productive resources 

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1. Consider the following statements regarding air traffic controllers:
1. The ground controllers work on the runway and are responsible for the separation of aircraft and vehicles operations on the ramp, taxi ways.
2. The local controller is primarily responsible for the separation of aircraft operating within the airport traffic area and those landing on any of the active runways.
3. One of the duties of local controllers is to control taxiways lighting systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

2. A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction opposite to landing is called
(A) Downwind
(B) Upwind
(C) Crosswind
(D) Base

3. Consider the following statements regarding  controller duties in air route traffic control centre:
1. Flight data controller is responsible for assisting the other controllers, who actually separate the aircraft.
2. Non Radar controller is responsible to assist the radar controller when separating aircraft appears on the radar display.
3. Radar controller is responsible to separate participating aircraft using a radar-derived display.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements regarding aircraft entry requirements:
1. ATC clearance is required for both IFR and VFR for class E airspace category.
2. ATC clearance is required for both IFR and VFR for class A airspace category.
3. ATC clearance is required for both IFR and VFR for class B airspace category.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 

5. Consider the following statements:
An aircraft desiring to enter the other airspace must:
1. be equipped with a two-way radio and obtain an ATC clearance.
2. file a flight plan.
3. be equipped with an altitude reporting transponder.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only

6. At selected controlled airports where appropriate data have been published, air traffic controllers may use an expanded procedure whereby they may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway,  an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on runway. This operation is called 
(A) Land and hold short operation
(B) Available landing distance
(C) Airport facility directory
(D) Short approach

7. A touch and go clearance permits an aircraft
(A) to land on runway but does not actually make contact with runway surface.
(B) to perform a landing, touch and go, stop and go, or low approach
(C) to land on runway but to take off again before actually coming to a stop
(D) to make a full stop landing

8. Consider the following statements regarding ATS airspace in India:
1. Designated airspace within controlled airspace is classified as class A.
2. Designated airspace within air traffic service route segment outside controlled airspace is classified as class F.
3. Airspace outside air traffic service route segment and outside controlled airspace is classified as class G.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

9. Consider the following statements:
The objectives of air traffic services shall be to:
1. prevent collision between aircraft.
2. expedite and maintain on orderly flow of air traffic.
3. notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

10. Consider the following statements regarding aviation:
1. ARTCC stands for air route traffic control centers.
2. TRACON stands for terminal radar approach control.
3. MARSA stands for military authority assumes responsibility for separation of aircraft.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

11. If a radar system with an unambiguous range of 100 Km, and a bandwidth of 0.5 MHz, what is the required Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF)?
(A) 1100 Hz
(B) 1500 Hz
(C) 1300 Hz
(D) 1600 Hz

12. Which one of the following is a computer system used as a backup for airport surveillance radar?
(A) Radar data acquisition system
(B) Beacon data acquisition system
(C) Center data processing system
(D) Center radar ARTS presentation

13. Consider the following statements regarding Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR):
1. ASR-9 is short range radar that detects weather and aircraft within a radius of 60 nautical miles.
2. ASR-11 is used at aircraft to monitor closely spaced parallel runways.
3. ASR-9 is known as dual channel radar.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only 

14. Consider the following statements regarding Enhanced Back-Up Surveillance (EBUS):
1. EBUS system replaced the direct access radar channel (DARC) system, which was used as the backup system at domestic ARTCCs.
2. EBUS has all the functionality of the primary radar system including automated flight data processing capability.
3. EBUS uses components from the microprocessor en route automated radar tracking system (MEARTS) application to provide backup radar data processing services.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only

15. Consider the following statements regarding Data Acquisition Subsystem (DAS):
1. It is a peripheral device that receives raw radar data from the primary surveillance radar system.
2. It is a device that receives beacon-derived information from the secondary surveillance system.
3. It is composed of two different subsystems: radar data acquisition system and beacon data acquisition system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
16. Consider the following statements regarding Sensitivity Time Control (STC):
1. It is an electronic circuit that automatically controls the receiver’s sensitivity to equalize the display intensity of both nearby and distant targets.
2. It reduces the receiver’s sensitivity during the initial segment of the listening cycle, when strong echoes from nearby targets are received.
3. It reduces the receiver’s sensitivity during the final segment of the listening cycles, when strong echoes from nearby targets are received.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3 

17. Consider the following statements regarding Moving Target Detection (MTD):
1. MTD attempts to mitigate blind speed, tangential course, and precipitation display problem in Moving Target Indicator based radar systems.
2. During routine operation of ASR-11, reflected radar energy is processed by MTD system.
3. During routine operation of digital radar, the energy processed by MTD system is stored into computer memory known as random-access memory (RAM).
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

18. Consider the following statements regarding Moving Target Indicator (MTI):
1. It is an electronic circuit used for reducing the ground clutter from the radar screen.
2. It uses phase-change filtering techniques to eliminate any objects that are actually moving.
3. It uses phase-change filtering techniques to eliminate any objects that are not actually moving.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only

19. Consider the following statements regarding User Request Evaluation Tool (URET):
1. It displays electronic flight information in both a graphical and a tabular display.
2. It operates in the background, monitoring aircraft progress and correlating it with stored flight plan information.
3. When identified, it provides alerts to controllers up to 30 minutes in advance of the potential conflict.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only 

20. Consider the following statements  regarding Traffic Information Service (TIS):
1. It was designed to provide a lower cost service using existing ground-based infrastructure.
2. It is a ground-based service available to all aircraft equipped with mode-S transponders.
3. It provides escape maneuvering.
4. It uses existing mode-S data links to transmit aircraft position information to the pilot for display in the cockpit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4

21. Which one of the following types of indications is displayed in a signal area owing to the bad state of the manoeuvring area, or for any other reason?
(A) A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals
(B) A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal
(C) A horizontal yellow square panel with red diagonals
(D) A horizontal yellow square panel with one red diagonal

22. Which one of the following types of routes is designed for channeling the flow of traffic?
(A) Air traffic control route
(B) Air traffic service route
(C) Air clearance service route
(D) Air traffic clearance service route

23. Consider the following statements regarding Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems (RPAS):
1. RPAS engaged in international air navigation can be operated without appropriate authorization from the state from which the take-off of the Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) is made.
2. RPA shall not be operated over the high seas without prior coordination with the appropriate Airport Traffic Services (ATS) authority.
3. RPAS shall meet the performance and equipment carriage requirements for the specific airspace in which the flight is to operate. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only 

24. Consider the following statements regarding runway:
1. Number of longitudinal strips of uniform dimensions required for 23 m runway is 6.
2. Number of longitudinal strips of uniform dimensions required for 30 m runway is 8.
3. Number of longitudinal strips of uniform dimensions required for 45 m runway is 10.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

25. Consider the following statements regarding estimated surface friction:
1. If runway friction coefficient is 0.40, then estimated surface friction is good.
2. If runway friction coefficient is 0.35, then estimated surface friction is medium.
3. If runway friction coefficient is 0.30, then estimated surface friction is poor.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

26. Consider the following statements regarding visual ground signals:
1. A horizontal white dumbbell when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
2. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal when displayed in a signal area indicates that landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
3. Crosses of a single contrasting color, white or yellow displayed horizontally on runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for movement of aircraft.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

27. Consider the following statements  regarding aviation:
1. Aerodrome control tower is the elevation of the highest point of the landing area.
2. Aerodrome beacon is used to indicate the location of an aerodrome from the air.
3. Hazard beacon is used to designate a danger to air navigation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

28. Consider the following statements regarding Areas over which flight by aircraft is prohibited:
1. The Area includes within a radius of 5 Kms from Kalpakam nuclear extending vertically from ground level up to an upper level of 2000 feet.
2. The Area included within a radius of one mile from the Towers of Silence on Malabar hills, Mumbai.
3. The Area near Bhubaneshwar extending vertically from ground level to upper level of 50,000 feet.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

29. Which one of the following techniques is useful to detect  the material failures in aircrafts?
(A) Ultrasound-based techniques
(B) Acoustic-based technique
(C) Cyclic stress based technique
(D) Fatigue based technique

30. Which of the following functions can be integrated for Flight Management System (FMS)?
1. navigation
2. performance management
3. flight planning
4. three dimensional guidance and control
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only

31. Consider the following statements regarding bubble memory in flight management computers:
1. A computer incorporates a bubble memory for holding the bulk navigation.
2. A computer incorporates aircraft performance characteristics data bank.
3. A computer incorporates a bubble memory for holding specific navigation and performance data.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

32. If the forces and moments on the body caused by a disturbance tend initially to return the body towards its equilibrium position, the body is
(A) neutrally stable
(B) statically unstable
(C) dynamically stable
(D) statically stable

33. The flat-faced CRT of the display unit gives  a dual character size presentation of
(A) 21 stroke-written characters per 12 lines
(B) 24 stroke-written characters per 14 lines
(C) 14 stroke-written characters per 24 lines
(D) 12 stroke-written characters per 21 lines

34. When a large aircraft is being taxied in the  vicinity of other aircraft or near terminal buildings, what signal the lineman gives with abruptly extended arms and wands to top of head, crossing wands?
(A) Set brakes
(B) Normal stop
(C) Straight ahead
(D) Emergency stop

35. Consider the following statements regarding  the purpose of Centralized Fault Display System (CFDS):
1. CFDS is to make maintenance task easier.
2. CFDS is to display fault messages in cockpit.
3. CFDS is to permit the flight crew to perform some specific tests.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

36. Which one of the following information is NOT displayed by engine indication and crew alerting system?
(A) Engine compressor and turbine speeds
(B) Lateral guidance information along with the location of ground facilities
(C) Engine temperature
(D) Engine vibration data

37. Which one of the following stabilities exists, when the object subject to a disturbance has neither the tendency to return nor the tendency to continue in the displacement direction?
(A) Dynamic stability
(B) Positive static stability
(C) Neutral static stability
(D) Negative static stability 

38. Consider the following statements regarding supercritical airfoil:
1. Supercritical airfoil has a very slight curvature on upper surface.
2. Maximum thickness is much farther back than normal.
3. The airfoil curves downward at the trailing edge.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the velocity field given by u = x/x2+y2  and v = -x/x2+y2  . What is the equation of the  streamline passing through the point (0, 5)? 
(A) x2-y2 = −25 
(B) x2+y2 = 25 
(C) x2+y=  5 
(D) x2-y = −5 

40. Which one of the following changes will be experienced by a supersonic airstream passing through an expansion wave?
(A) The airstream is decelerated; the velocity and Mach number behind the wave are lower.
(B) The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is increased.
(C) The airstream is accelerated; the velocity and Mach number behind the wave are greater.
(D) The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is unchanged.

41. A supersonic airstream passing through the oblique shock wave will experience the changes:
1. The flow direction is changed to flow along the surface of airfoil
2. The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is decreased.
3. The density of the airstream behind the wave is increased.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

42. The straight line connecting the leading edge (the forward-most tip) and the trailing edge of the airfoil is called
(A) Chord line
(B) Camber line
(C) Mean line
(D) Maximum camber 

43. Which of the following are the  classifications for high-speed flights?
1. Subsonic – the aircraft’s maximum Mach number that all local speeds are less than Mach 1.
2. Transonic – the regime where local speeds are greater and less than Mach 1.
3. Supersonic – the aircraft’s minimum Mach number when all local speeds are less than Mach 1.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

44. For subsonic and supersonic compressible flow, the freestream Mach number is determined by the ratio of
(A) freestream static pressure to pitot pressure
(B) pitot pressure to freestream static pressure
(C) total pressure to pitot pressure
(D) upstream static pressure to pitot pressure

45. Which one of the following is NOT a primary flight control?
(A) Ailerons
(B) Flaps
(C) Rudder
(D) Elevator

46. Consider the following statements regarding classification of beams:
1. Beams supported at more than two sections are known as continuous beams.
2. Beam with one end fixed and other simply supported are known as propped cantilever.
3. A beam with both ends fixed is known as simply support beam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

47. Consider the following statements regarding plane strain conditions:
1. All the points in the body undergo displacements in one plane only.
2. All the components of stress are perpendicular to the plane of deformation.
3. Except the normal component, all the other components of stress are perpendicular to the
plane of deformation of the body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

48.Consider the following statements regarding the requirements for doors and exits of an aircraft:
1. Closed cabins on all aircraft carrying passengers must be provided with at least one adequate and easily accessible external door.
2. For external doors, it is not necessary to be equipped with devices for locking and for safeguarding against opening in flight.
3. No passenger door may be located in the plane of rotation of an inboard propeller or within 5° thereof as measured from the propeller hub.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

49. A chordwise member of the wing structure used to give the wing section its shape and also to transmit the air loads from the covering to the spars is called
(A) wing spar
(B) monospar wing
(C) two-spar wing
(D) plain rib

50. The fuselages should be designed to satisfy which of the following major criteria?
1. Protect the passengers in the event of a crash.
2. Efficiently tie together the power plant, wing, landing gear and tail surface loads.
3. In single engine type airplane, the engine is usually not mounted in the nose of the fuselage.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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51. A line established for locating stations on a vertical line is called
(A) water line
(B) butt line
(C) fuselage station
(D) wing station 

52. Consider the following  statements regarding the retractable landing gear:
1. It is carried partially or completely inside the airframe structure to reduce drag.
2. When necessary for landing, the gear is extended by some mechanism.
3. It is normally used with relatively low speed aircrafts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

53. Which of the following are the qualifications of licensee for the issue of aerodrome license?
1. Citizen of India
2. A society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 (21 of 1860)
3. The Central Government or State Government or any Company or any Corporation owned or controlled by either of the said Governments 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only

54. Consider the following statements regarding flight crew personnel and logging of flight time: 
1. Every member of flight crew should maintain a personal log book.
2. All entries in log books shall be made in ink.
3. Log books shall be preserved for not less than 3 years after the date of last entry.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

55. Consider the following statements regarding flight crew:
1. Crew member is a person assigned by an operator to perform duty on an aircraft during a flight duty period.
2. Cabin crew member is a person assigned to perform pilot tasks during cruise flight, to allow the pilot-in-command or a co-pilot to obtain planned rest.
3. A cruise relief pilot is not allowed to perform pilot tasks during planned rest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

56. Consider the following statements regarding the aircraft rules for license issue controls of an aerodrome:
1. Rule 79 defines qualifications of licensee.
2. Rule 83 specifies the validity period of an aerodrome license.
3. Rule 87 defines the information to be included in the aerodrome manual.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only

57. Consider the following statements regarding aerodrome license fee:
1. Rs. 1,00,000 are charged to grant the license for private use.
2. Rs. 5,00,000 are charged to grant the license for public use up to runway length of 5000 feet.
3. The fee chargeable for renewal of license of an aerodrome shall be seventy five percent of the fee chargeable for grant of the license.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

58. An aerodrome license may be granted for any period NOT exceeding
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 60 months

59. The Airport Authority of India constituted under which section of AAI Act, 1994 (55 of 1994)?
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 4
(D) Section 5

60. Which one of the following rules is considered for preparation of aerodrome manual for getting aerodrome license?
(A) Rule 86A of Aircraft Rule 1937
(B) Rule 81 of Aircraft Rule 1937
(C) Rule 47 of Aircraft Rule 1948
(D) Rule 71 of Aircraft Rule 1954 

61. Consider the following statements regarding educational qualification for different licenses:
1. Minimum educational qualification for Student Pilot’s License shall be a pass in class ten from recognized Board.
2. Minimum educational qualification for Flight Radio Telephone Operator’s License shall be a pass in class ten from recognized Board.
3. Minimum educational qualification for Student Flight Engineer’s License shall be a pass in class ten from recognized Board.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

62. What are the functions of  the air traffic control service?
1. Preventing collisions between aircraft
2. Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
3. Preventing collisions on the Manoeuvring area between aircraft and obstructions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following statements regarding aerodrome design:
1. Non-intersecting runways whose extended center lines have an angle of convergence/divergence of 90 degrees or less are known as Near-Parallel runways.
2. Manoeuvring area is a part of an aerodrome used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.
3. A symbol or group of symbols displayed on the surface of the movement area in order to convey aeronautical information is known as Marking.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

64. Which one of the following organizations recommends the standards for the operation and management of civil-use airports internationally?
(A) International Federal Aviation Organization
(B) International Airports Authority
(C) International Civil Airports Organization
(D) International Civil Aviation Organization 

65. In which year, the International Air Transport Association (IATA) was founded?
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1948

66. In structural design of airport pavements, which one of the following types of pavement is nown as flexible pavement?
(A) A pavement consisting of slab of Portland cement and concrete.
(B) A pavement consisting of a mixture of bituminous material and aggregate placed on high  quality granular materials.
(C) A pavement consisting of rubber and coal tar.
(D) A pavement consisting of mixture of cement and plaster of paris.

67. The Aerodrome Emergency Plan document should include the following:
1. A grid map of the aerodrome and its immediate vicinity.
2. Agencies involved in the plan.
3. Responsibility and role of each agency, the emergency operations centre and the command post, for each type of emergency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only

68. Consider the following statements regarding clearways:
1. The origin of a clearway should be at the end of the take-off run available.
2. The length of a clearway should not exceed half the length of the take-off run available.
3. A clearway should extend laterally to a distance of at least 85 m on each side of the extended centre line of the runway.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only

69. The threshold is identified  at large airports by a complete line of which one of the following color lights extending across the entire width of the runway?
(A) Red
(B) Violet
(C) Green
(D) White 

70. In the context of obstacle  limitation surfaces, the limits of the conical surface shall comprise 
(A) a lower edge coincident with the periphery of inner horizontal surface.
(B) an upper edge located at a specific height below the inner horizontal surface.
(C) a lower edge coincident with the periphery of outer horizontal surface.
(D) an upper edge coincident with the periphery of inner horizontal surface.

71. A minimum set of parameters required to define location and orientation of the local reference system with respect to the global reference system/frame is called 
(A) Geodetic datum
(B) Geoid undulation
(C) Geoid
(D) Barrette

72. A system designed to decelerate an aeroplane overrunning the runway is called
(A) Clearway
(B) Arresting system
(C) Apron
(D) Barrette

73. High altitude VORs (VHF  Omnidirectional Ranges) are used by aircraft operating between
(A) 5000 feet to 10000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles
(B) 10000 feet to 18000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles
(C) 18000 feet to 60000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles
(D) 60000 feet to 90000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles

74. Consider the following statements regarding long range navigation (LORAN):
1. LORAN-A system consists of a master station and a slave station.
2. LORAN-C ground stations consist of one master station and ten slave stations.
3. LORAN-D is a short range military version used for pin point navigation.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

75. Consider the following statements regarding rotating beacons used at airports:
1. Green and White indicates a land airport
2. White and Yellow indicates a water airport
3. Yellow and Green indicates a military airport
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

76. Which one of the following type of lighting systems is used to delineate the flight path that should be used by a pilot approaching a specific runway?
(A) omnidirectional approach lighting system
(B) runway end identifier lights
(C) medium-intensity approach lighting system
(D) simplified approach lighting system

77. Which one of the following aircraft is the first transport aircraft that uses electrically driven air cycle air conditioning and cabin pressurization function, with fresh air brought onboard via dedicated cabin air inlets?
(A) Boeing 737
(B) Boeing 747
(C) Boeing 787
(D) Boeing 777

78. Consider the following statements regarding aviation:
1. Wide area augmentation system uses a network of precisely located ground reference stations that monitor transmitted global positioning system satellite signals.
2. Aircraft using ground based augmentation system receive augmentation information directly from a local ground based transmitter.
3. The inertial navigation system committee was found to develop a strategy that would include new concept of aircraft communication, navigation and air traffic management. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

79. The frequency shift observed at a receiver due to any relative motion between transmitter and receiver is called
(A) Radio frequency shift
(B) Controller frequency shift
(C) Doppler shift
(D) Digital link shift 

80.Consider the following statements regarding a pressure type altimeter calibrated in accordancewith the standard atmosphere:
1. When set to a “Query Nautical Height (QNH)” altimeter setting, will indicate altitude.
2. When set to a “Query Field Elevation (QFE)” altimeter setting, will indicate height above the QFE reference datum.
3. When set to a pressure 1013.2 hPa, may be used to indicate flight level.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only

81. Consider the following  statements regarding the air navigation systems:
1. Inertial Navigation System (INS) is totally autonomous navigation system.
2. Doppler Navigation System (DNS) is fully autonomous system like INS.
3. Radio Navigation System (RNS) does not depend on a network of ground-based transmitters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

82. Consider the following statements regarding air traffic control information:
1. Flight information service is a service provided for the purpose of giving flight information service and alerting service.
2. Flight information center is a unit established to provide flight information service and alerting service.
3. Flight information region is airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting service are provided.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

83. Consider the following  statements regarding the air route traffic control centers:
1. The position responsible for compiling statistical data and forwarding flight plan data is radar flight data position.
2. The position that is in direct communication with aircraft is radar associate position.
3. The position responsible for ensuring separation, initiating control instructions, managing flight strip information, and assisting radar position with coordination is the radar coordinator position.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only

84. Which one of the following landing systems is designed to provide the pilot with an approach path that is perfectly aligned with the runway centerline?
(A) Global Navigation Landing System
(B) Surveillance Landing System
(C) Instrument Landing System
(D) Terminal Landing System

85. Consider the following statements regarding provisions of Control Service AIP (India):
1. Radio communication shall be established with the appropriate aerodrome prior to taxiing for departure.
2. While operating in class ‘C’ and ‘D’ airspace only direct controller-pilot communication is permitted.
3. For Visual Flight Rules operation in class ‘C’ and ‘D’ airspace, aircraft shall be equipped with appropriate two-way VHF radio apparatus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

86. Consider the following statements regarding air traffic service route in India:
1. Aircraft shall obtain air traffic control clearance from the appropriate air traffic service unit at least 60 minutes prior to entering controlled airspace.
2. Minimum flight altitudes providing 1000 feet clearance from the highest obstacle within the route width are indicated in the appropriate column.
3. All aircraft are forbidden to operate within 15 NM of the international border of India unless specifically permitted or except when following the ATS route or operating to and from any aerodrome situated within 15NM of the international border of India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

87. Consider the following statements regarding automatic terminal information service:
1. The information communicated shall relate to a single aerodrome.
2. The information communicated shall be updated immediately when a significant change occurs.
3. The meteorological information shall be extracted from the global meteorological routine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following  statements regarding air traffic control service:
1. Air traffic control service shall be provided to all IFR flights in airspace classes A, B, C, D and E.
2. Air traffic control services shall be provided to all VFR flights in airspace classes F and G.
3. Air traffic control service shall be provided to all special VFR flights. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

89.The category of airspace  within which the pilots provide all separation, is called
(A) controlled airspace
(B) positive controlled airspace
(C) special use airspace
(D) uncontrolled airspace 

90. Which one of the following facilities is an ATC facility that uses radar and non radar capabilities to provide control services to aircraft arriving, departing and transiting airspace in a terminal area?
(A) Flight Radar Approach Control
(B) Runway Radar Approach Control
(C) Terminal Radar Approach Control
(D) Navigation Radar Approach Control

91. Consider the following statements regarding phrases and abbreviations used by air traffic controllers while performing their duties:
1. ‘L’ stands for cleared to airport of intended landing.
2. ‘Q’ stands for cleared to fly specified sectors of a navaid.
3. ‘Z’ stands for tower jurisdiction
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

92. Consider the following statements regarding aircraft call sign:
1. R23956 call sign is used for army
2. VV1963 call sign is used for navy
3. A24367 call sign is used for air force
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

93. Consider the following statements regarding coordinated universal time (UTC):
1. UTC is same as local time in Greenwich, England, which is located on the 30° line of longitude.
2. UTC was previously known as Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
3. To convert local time to UTC, convert local time to a 24-hour clock, and then add the required time difference.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

94. Consider the following statements regarding cruise clearance:
1. It is used by air traffic controllers to authorize an IFR aircraft to operate at any altitude between the assigned altitude and minimum IFR altitude.
2. The clearance permits the pilot to level off and operate at any intermediate altitude within this assigned block of airspace.
3. It authorizes the pilot to conduct any instrument approach procedure published for the destination airport.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

95. Consider the following statements regarding wind direction and velocity:
1. Wind direction at airport is always determined in reference to magnetic north.
2. Wind direction at airports is always determined in reference to magnetic south.
3. The wind direction is always rounded off to the nearest 10°.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only

96. Consider the following statements regarding the duties of the ground controller:
1. Issuing clearance to IFR and participating VFR aircraft.
2. Receiving and relaying IFR departure clearances.
3. Controlling taxiway lighting systems.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

97. Consider the following statements regarding radar associate/non-radar controller:
1. The radar controller must be prepared to assume aircraft separation responsibility if the radar display should malfunction.
2. The non-radar controller’s duties are similar to those performed by the B controller in the old air traffic control centers.
3. The non-radar controller’s duties include updating the flight progress strips to accurately reflect every aircraft’s position, altitude, and route of the flight.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 only 

98. Consider the following statements regarding aircraft altitudes:
1. When the aircraft is within 1000 feet of the assigned altitude, the pilot should attempt to decrease the climb or descent rate to approximately 1000 feet per minute.
2. If the controller requires the pilot to change altitude at the aircraft’s optimal rate of climb or descent, the controller should precede the clearance with the phrase “descend now”.
3. If the phrase “at pilot’s discretion (PD)’ is used by the controller in conjunction with an altitude assignment, the pilot is given the option of when to begin the climb or descent. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 2

99. While operating within MARSA airspace, who is responsible for seeing and avoiding any participating military aircraft?
(A) VFR pilot
(B) IFR pilot
(C) Civilian pilot
(D) Military pilot

100. Consider the following statements regarding runway numbers:
1. The runway’s number is its magnetic heading rounded to the nearest 90° with leading and trailing zeros removed.
2. Runway designations are always prefixed with the word “runway” followed by runway number and a suffix.
3. If two or three runways are constructed parallel to each other, the suffix L for “left”, R for “right”, and C for “center” are used to differentiate the runways from one another. 
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(A) 3 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 2 

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Deputy Architect in Military Engineer Service (MOD)

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Deputy Architect in Military Engineer Service (MOD)



1. A safety nosing in a staircase is
(A) the least thickness of a stanchion
(B) a non-slip surface flush with the riser surface
(C) a non-slip surface flush with the tread surface
(D) the least thickness of a reinforced concrete slab

2. Sumerian units of measurement were based on
(A) parts of an ancient buildings
(B) parts of animals’ body
(C) parts of trees and plants
(D) parts of the human body

3. Which one of the following statements is NOT fit for ambient luminescence in the context of interior lighting?
(A) It is shadowless
(B) It maximizes form and bulk
(C) It reduces the importance of things and people
(D) It fills people with a sense of freedom of space

4. Which one of the following enhances the perception of depth by emphasizing the natural texture and sculptural relief of the surface?
(A) Diffuse light
(B) Grazing light
(C) Contrast light
(D) Sparkle light

5. Consider the following statements regarding different types of design:
1. Semi-circular arched opening was the hallmark of the Romanesque style of Architecture.
2. Gothic style of Architecture is characterized by the use of pointed arch, groined vault and tracery.
3. The Cathedral of Notre-Dame is a prime example of Renaissance Architecture.
4. The emphasis during the Rococo period was on interior application rather than the exterior façade. Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4 

6. The art of inserting a part of one plant into  another plant by exposing the actively growing tissue so that they will unite and continue their growth as one plant is called
(A) Budding
(B) Stooling
(C) Layering
(D) Grafting

7. Albert Atterberg, a Swedish soil scientist defined the boundaries between different consistency states for soil that are referred to as the Atterberg limits. Of which, what comprises the plastic limit?
(A) Boundary between the plastic and liquid states
(B) Boundary between the semisolid and solid states
(C) Boundary between the plastic and semisolid states
(D) Boundary between the liquid and semisolid states

8. As far back as 1887, the Gazetteer of Delhi described Delhi district as having 4 ‘natural divisions’, which are still useful descriptive labels for Delhi microhabitats of which the sandy riverain of the Yamuna is called
(A) khadar
(B) bangar
(C) kohi
(D) dabar

9. ‘Solum’ is a term which describes one of the following elements of landscape: 
(A) Soil
(B) Water
(C) Trees
(D) Shrubs

10. What is the maximum angle of repose for strong bedrock at which it can be safely inclined and beyond which it will fail?
(A) 90°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) 30°

11. Consider the following statements with regard to deciding the performance of masonry buildings in earthquakes:
1. The masonry courses from the walls meeting at corners must have good interlocking.
2. Openings too close to wall corners hamper the flow of forces from one wall to another.
3. It is best to keep all openings as small and far away from the corners as possible.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

12. For minimizing the impact of earth quake, which of the following solutions are proposed for L-shape building?
1. Separate the wings
2. Add collector walls
3. Join the wings
4. Stiffen the ends
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

13. In the purview of earthquake engineering, the effect of internal friction, imperfect elasticity of material, slipping, sliding, etc in reducing the amplitude of vibration, is called
(A) Floor Response Spectra
(B) Liquefaction
(C) Damping
(D) Ductility

14. Which one of the following is NOT suitable building construction method in earthquake-prone areas?
(A) Roof with tiles or stone plates
(B) Wattle and daub wall system
(C) Textile walls filled with earth
(D) Adobe walls

15. Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale is used for  measuring
(A) temperature for volcano lava
(B) the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake
(C) sound intensity of thunder storm
(D) the intensity of flood 

16. In world design conference, 1960, Fumihiko Maki described three specific modes of urban design as:
(A) Core, Periphery, Suburban
(B) Lattice, Megastructures, Networks
(C) Homogeneous, Lattice, Heterogeneous
(D) Composition, Megastructures, Group form

17. Constantinos A Doxiadis, prepared the master plan of which one of the following cities?
(A) Baghdad
(B) Karachi
(C) Gandhinagar
(D) Kuwait

18.Jane Jacobs argued for repressed minorities and neighborhood protection against the large scaled development of cross-island highway through lower Manhattan to serve the suburbs, was proposed by
(A) Robert Moses
(B) J.L.Sert
(C) Edward Soja
(D) Rudyard Gulliani

19. In Chandigarh, Le Corbusier and his associates designed many of the buildings in sector 17 based on the prototype of
(A) Maison Domino
(B) Terrace Garden
(C) Maison Arch
(D) Human Body

20. Urban actor in a city is defined as
(
A) urban ecological system of city for critical and sustainable survival
(B) urban transport which connects the fragmented city together through complex network
(C) large buildings in the city which influence the growth and future patterns of the city
(D) individuals or small or large groups who are active and organized to use and manipulate  space in the city

21. In cement manufacturing process,  gypsum is added to the clinker to
(A) soften the mixture
(B) retard setting
(C) solidify the mixture
(D) keep moisture 

22. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in PERT network?
(A) PERT is event based
(B) PERT is frequently used in research and development projects
(C) PERT is preferred for those projects which are of repetitive nature
(D) Probabilistic approach is used by PERT planner

23. Under the Indian Contract Act-1872, which section states that “when a contract consists of reciprocal promises to be simultaneously performed, no promiser need perform his promise unless the promisee is ready and willing to perform his reciprocal promise”?
(A) Section – 37
(B) Section – 51
(C) Section – 53
(D) Section – 54

24. In tender documents, under a security deposit subhead, which clause is related to “Payment due to variation in prices of materials after receipt of tenders”?
(A) Clause – 10
(B) Clause – 10 C
(C) Clause – 10 CA
(D) Clause – 10 CC

25. Breach of contract means the failure or refusal to perform the promises that a party has made or deemed to have made under a contract. In this context, which section of the Contract Act provides payment of only reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named or penalty stipulated?
(A) Section 52
(B) Section 70
(C) Section 20
(D) Section 74

26. The establishment of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) are done under
(A) River Boards Act, 1956
(B) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(D) National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1995

27. Resources like oxygen, water, food, which constitutes life support comes under
(A) Ecological Services
(B) Government and Public Services
(C) Climate Change Services
(D) International Standard Services 

28. If the outside temperature is 10℃ and the inside temperature is 22℃ over a 10 m2  brick wall, having transmittance value of 1.5 Wm-2K -1, what is the heat flow rate?
(A) -120 W
(B) +120 W
(C) +180 W
(D) -180 W

29. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for designing shelter for hot-dry climate?
(A) Buildings should have open elongated plan shapes.
(B) Shading of roofs, wall and out-door spaces is critical.
(C) The larger dimensions of a building should preferably face north and south.
(D) An enclosed, compactly planned and essentially inward-looking building is the most  suitable.

30. The process of conversion of  
into N2 by anaerobic bacteria is called
(A) Nitrification
(B) Ammonification
(C) Denitrification
(D) Anammox

31. Consider the following statements:
1. HUDCO is public sector undertaking under Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. RERA scheme is for promoting and regulating the real estate sector.
3. PMGSY is launched for the mission of ‘Housing for All”.
4. BSUP scheme is for providing “Houses for Urban Poor”.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 2 only

32. Identify the first sky-scraper building:
(A) Home Insurance Building, Chicago
(B) The Empire State Building, New York
(C) Burj Khalifa, Dubai
(D) Chrysler Building, New York 

33. Consider the following statements:
1. Housing demand is the total requirement while housing need is associated with the affordability.
2. TDR means achieving additional FAR in lieu of the area surrendered by the owner of the land.
3. Housing need is not standard across cultures and other societal groups. Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

34. The housing trend  of ‘Expandable Dwelling’ is associated with
(A) Row Housing
(B) Apartment Housing
(C) Core Housing
(D) Detached Housing

35.  As per Kenneth Frampton,  which one of the following built-up forms of urban settlement is assumed to be cost effective in terms of land-use and also has many social advantages in terms of services?
(A) high-rise, high-density
(B) high-rise, low-density
(C) low-rise, high-density
(D) low-rise, low-density

36. The antique statue of ‘Herkulanerin’ was first discovered by
(A) Alcubierre
(B) Camillo Paderni
(C) Prince d’Elboeuf
(D) Maria Amalia

37. The famous treatise ‘De Architectura’ of classical architecture is written by
(A) Domenico Fantana
(B) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
(C) Michelangelo
(D) Giuliano da Sangallo

38. Which one of the following International organizations is NOT associated with protection of cultural heritage?
(A) ICCROM
(B) ICOMOS
(C) UNESCO
(D) IRCOM 

39. The famous slogan “Conserve, do not store” is given by
(A) Mynors Charles
(B) Georg Dehio
(C) Robert Garland
(D) David Lowenthal

40. A master piece of Roman architecture ‘Montecitorio obelisk’ was restored by using
(A) Plain Egyptian red granite of huge monolithic column of Roman Emperor
(B) Reintegrating hieroglyphs
(C) Roman sail with gravels
(D) Egyptian sand and nearby conservation

41. Which one of the following is a good example of a successful application of thin film technology in a design context?
(A) Anti-reflection glass
(B) Holographically pattern glass
(C) Dichroic glass
(D) Electro-optical glass

42. The airflow of a fan operating at 9000 cfm and 1 inch of water gauge static pressure must be increased to 10500 cfm. The fan operates at 1500 rpm and requires 5 brake horsepower at the rated conditions. What is the new operating speed?
(A) 1450 rpm
(B) 1550 rpm
(C) 1650 rpm
(D) 1750 rpm

43. In Building Automation System, ‘Smart Window’ possesses which of the following functions?
1. Control of optical transmittance
2. Control of thermal transmittance
3. Control of thermal absorption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only

44. In modern Building Automation System, most of the equipments are based on the technology of
(A) Light amplification by simulation of energy reflection
(B) Light amplification of solar energy and radiation
(C) Layer application for simulation energy and radiation
(D) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation 

45. Ventilation cooling (100 percent untreated outdoor air) can be provided in locations where summer design temperatures are at least 
(A) 20℉ cooler than the required outdoor temperature
(B) 10℉ cooler than the required outdoor temperature
(C) 20℉ cooler than the required water temperature
(D) 10℉ cooler than the required indoor ambient temperature

46. As per NBC-2016 norms for roads and paths in hilly areas, the street orientation shall preferably be
(A) north – south
(B) north east – south west
(C) east – west
(D) north west – south east

47. As per NBC-2016 in case of single room tenements, the carpet area of the multipurpose single room should be at least
(A) 9 m2
(B) 10 m2
(C) 12.5 m2
(D) 15 m2

48. As per National Building Code, for group housing development in an area with a density of 250 Persons per hectare, maximum allowable ground coverage in percentage (%) is
(A) 25
(B) 33
(C) 30
(D) 35

49. For new buildings, structures which rise to 30 m or more in height need ‘No-objectioncertificate’ from the Directorate General of Civil Aviation as per NBC, if the proposed location lies within how much distance of the aerodrome reference point?
(A) 15 km
(B) 20 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 5 km

50. As per National Building Code, the ceiling height of the industrial buildings (except when air conditioned) should be
(A) 3.0 m
(B) 3.6 m
(C) 4.0 m
(D) 4.6 m 

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51. Victor Gruen is famously referred to as
(A) inventor of the passenger lift
(B) early designer of ‘mall’ as building type
(C) inventor of H.V.A.C.
(D) inventor of fire safety system in building

52. Durga temple at Aihole, built by Chalukyan builders adopted a plan of
(A) Buddhist chaitya hall
(B) Sanchi stupa
(C) Islamic mosque
(D) Christian church

53. One of the distinctive architectural characters of the Hoysalas of Karnataka is
(A) Chaitya style plan
(B) Star-Shaped plan
(C) Greek style plan
(D) Roman style plan

54. Which one of the definitions correctly defines the centralized organization in architectural design?
(A) A central space from which linear organizations of space extend in a radial manner.
(B) Spaces grouped by proximity or the sharing of a common visual trait or relationship.
(C) A central, dominant space about which a number of secondary spaces are grouped.
(D) Spaces organized within the field of a structural grid or other three-dimensional  framework.

55. Le Corbusier developed his proportioning  system, the Modulor, to order “the dimensions of that which contains and that which is contained”. The basic grid consists of three measures proportioned according to the Golden Section. They are
(A) 114 cm, 71 cm, 44 cm
(B) 113 cm, 70 cm, 43 cm
(C) 112 cm, 89 cm, 42 cm
(D) 111 cm, 88 cm, 41 cm

56. Which one of the following does NOT represent a visual art movement?
(A) Impressionism
(B) Cezanne
(C) Minimalism
(D) Prism 

57. Who wrote the book “DeColoribus” and established that all colors were derived from different mixtures of sunlight, firelight, air and water?
(A) Newton
(B) Da Vinci
(C) Aristotle
(D) Le Blen & Harris

58. Which one of the following is NOT an example of basic design ordering principles?
(A) Symmetry
(B) Datum
(C) Rhythm
(D) Scale

59. The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial separation individuals maintain in various social and interpersonal situations, and how the nature and degree of this spatial arrangement relates to environmental and cultural factor is called 
(A) pylon
(B) propylon
(C) proxemics
(D) propylaeum

60. Who developed one of the first full-color circles, which spaced the primaries at equal distances from one another?
(A) Munsell
(B) Moses Harris
(C) Goethe
(D) Le Blon

61. Radiance software can be used  for
(A) thermal comfort in a building
(B) structural design for high rise building
(C) acoustical measurement for a building
(D) lighting simulation of interior spaces

62. Which commands are NOT used in AutoCAD?
(A) UCSICON and MATCHPROP
(B) DXFOUT and MLEADER
(C) TURNOVER and DRAWORDER
(D) DRAWORDER and DXFIN

63. In ‘Sketch up’, moving the time slider back and forth, for shadow setting indicates
(A) moving sun and moon around in the sky
(B) moving sun around in the sky
(C) moving moon around in the sky
(D) moving artificial lights around in the sky 

64. To display one or more scaled views of your design on a standard-size drawing sheet is called
(A) layers
(B) layouts
(C) blocks
(D) geometry

65. In AutoCAD, Precision feature which specifies a location by its Cartesian, either absolute or relative is
(A) Polar tracking
(B) Locking angles
(C) Grid snaps
(D) Coordinate entry

66. Difference between the readings of wet-bulb thermometer and dry-bulb thermometer is called
(A) Variable depression
(B) Wet-bulb depression
(C) Dry-bulb depression
(D) Atmospheric depression

67.Operative temperature scale was developed by
(A) Bedford, Harris
(B) C G Webb, Givoni
(C) Winslow, Herrington, Gagge
(D) Missenard, Otto Koenisberger

68. The amount of moisture actually present in unit mass or unit volume of air, in terms of gramme per kilogramme (g/kg) or gramme per cubic meter (g/m 3 ) is called 
(A) atmospheric humidity
(B) absolute humidity
(C) relative humidity
(D) saturation point humidity

69. Assume that the outdoor temperature is 18 ℃, the indoor temperature has risen to 28 ℃ and there is an internal heat gain of 5 kW, which would cause a further increase of indoor temperature. What is the rate of ventilation? (Assume the specific heat of air as 1300 J/m3  degC)
(A) 0.485 m2 /s
(B) 0.385 m2 /s
(C) 0.285 m2 /s
(D) 0.185 m2 /s  

70. The intensity of radiation reaching the upper surface of the atmosphere is taken as the Solar Constant 1395 W/m2 , but it actually varies due to variations in the output of the sun itself and also due to changes in the earth-sun distance. What is the percentage variation in both cases respectively?
(A) ±3.5 %, ±2 %
(B) ±3.5 %, ±1 %
(C) ±2 %, ±1 %
(D) ±2 %, ±3.5 %

71. A mixing of Romano-Greek and  Indian motifs in architecture/sculpture is called
(A) Gandhara style
(B) Ashoka style
(C) Islamic style
(D) Mauryan style

72. In architectural design theory, synectics is referred to as
(A) a study of synergy between various building materials
(B) a study of creative processes involving free use of metaphor and analogy
(C) a study of visual aesthetics of a building
(D) a study of processes in sequence to understand the construction techniques in buildings

73. In the purview of social comprehension and assimilation architecture, who said this “A society can be defined as a group of individuals competing for conventional prizes by conventional means”?
(A) V.C. Wynne - Edwards
(B) Staurt Altmann
(C) Manfredo Tafuri
(D) Terence Hawkes

74. The Angkor Vat in Cambodia, is culmination of which one of the following concepts of the Buddhist planning?
(A) Dwiratna
(B) Charbagh
(C) Nagara
(D) Pancharatna

75. Who authored “The Seven Lamps of Architecture”?
(A) John Ruskin
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Paul Horwich
(D) William James 

76. In building acoustics, the function of an acoustical cloud is
(A) reflecting the sound from ceiling for improving the acoustic quality of music
(B) absorbing the white noise from the source
(C) creating the echo within the given space
(D) creating a new sound by absorbing the noise from surrounding

77. The time in seconds required​​​​​​​ for a sound made in an enclosed space to diminish by 60 dB is called
(A) Decay rate
(B) Interference
(C) Reverberation time
(D) Metric sabin

78. If two sounds differ by 20 dB, the louder of them is 100 times more intense and when they differ by 30 dB, the louder of them would be
(A) 20 times more intense
(B) 150 times more intense
(C) 1000 times more intense
(D) 200 times more intense

79. The sound which is transmitted first through the structure is called
(A) Structure sound
(B) Airborne sound
(C) Impact sound
(D) Transfer sound

80. The ratio of transmitted sound power and the power incident on the surface is called
(A) Transmission index
(B) Transmission factor
(C) Sound incident index
(D) Sound incident factor

81. The Town Hall, Leeds is a classical master piece of
(A) Edwardien Era
(B) High Victorian Classicism
(C) Historical Anachronism
(D) Norwich Classicism

82. The White House, Washington D.C., was designed by
(A) Charles Bulfinch
(B) Thomas Jefferson
(C) James Hoban
(D) Sir John Soane 

83. Who wrote the book “Complexity  and Contradiction” in Architecture?
(A) Robert Venturi
(B) Bernhard Tschumi
(C) Bruno Zevi
(D) Gordon Cullen

84. Radburn city in USA was planned by
(A) Clarence Stein
(B) Ebenezor Howard
(C) Patrick Geddes
(D) Patrick Abercrombie

85. Which one of the following terms​​​​​​​ was used by Dutch architectural group ‘MVRDV’ to describe a city formed from information?
(A) Megacity
(B) Metacity
(C) Beta city
(D) Invisible city

86. What is the cost of brickwork and plastering work on both sides, respectively for the wall of 4 m long, 3 m high and 30 cm thick, if the rate of brickwork is Rs. 320 per cubic metre and plastering Rs. 8.50 per square metre?
(A) Rs. 1150, Rs. 200
(B) Rs. 1152, Rs. 204
(C) Rs. 1150, Rs. 204
(D) Rs. 1152, Rs. 200

87. Which of the following methods are predominantly used for the detailed estimation of quantities of various items of a building in the construction process?
(A) Long & short wall method and Centre line method
(B) Centre line method and Plinth area method
(C) Plinth area method and Cubical method
(D) Long & short wall method and Cubical method

88. Which valuation method out of the following options can be adopted when the rental value is not available from the property concerned, but there are evidences of sale price of the property as a whole for fixing the capitalized value?
(A) Valuation based on profit
(B) Valuation based on cost
(C) Valuation based on depreciation
(D) Direct comparison with the capital value 

89. If the brick size is 20 cm × 10 cm ×10​​​​​​​ cm, how many bricks required for brick floor to cover 100 sqm floor area?
(A) 5000
(B) 4000
(C) 3500
(D) 5500

90. The fund which is gradually accumulated by way of periodic deposit for the replacement of a building at the end of its useful life is called
(A) Life cycle fund
(B) Salvage fund
(C) Sinking fund
(D) Capitalized fund

91. Central Place Theory was proposed by
(A) Walter Miles
(B) Walter Gropius
(C) Walter Christaller
(D) Walter Benjamin

92. In physical planning, the Concept of Saturation Flow is associated with
(A) Temperature flow
(B) Traffic flow
(C) Wind flow
(D) Electricity flow

93. In alternative systems for sanitation and sewage, UASB (Dutch Technology) stands for
(A) Urban Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
(B) Urban Aerobic Sludge Blanket
(C) Up-flow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
(D) Up-flow Aerobic Sludge Blanket

94. According to WHO standards, the number of hospital beds recommended for per 1000 population in urban areas is
(A) 3 hospital beds
(B) 4 hospital beds
(C) 5 hospital beds
(D) 6 hospital beds

95. Cul-de-sac is associated with
(A) Dead end
(B) Central Island
(C) Sectoral Planning
(D) Intersection 

96. The Council of Architecture has adopted nine ‘Conditions of Engagement’ to maintain the highest standards of practice and conduct. Indicate which factor out of the following does NOT come under the Conditions of Engagement.
(A) Remuneration
(B) Interpretation
(C) Responsibilities
(D) Indemnification

97. Consider the following circumstances with  regard to Architects Professional Guidelines:
1. Use of building for the purposes other than for which it has been designed.
2. Modifications to the building carried out by the owner without the consent of the  Architect who designed.
3. Damages caused due to any reasons arising out of specialized consultants, who were  engaged in consultation with client.
4. Any compromise with the safety norms by the architect.
In which of the above circumstances Architect is NOT liable?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only

98. Under which section of the Architects  Act 1972, if an architect is found guilty of professional misconduct, he/she is liable for disciplinary action by the Council of Architecture?
(A) Section – 30
(B) Section – 53
(C) Section – 35
(D) Section – 20

99. As per the Architects Regulation (Professional Conduct) 1989, an architect may exhibit his name outside his/her office and on a building either under construction or completed, for which he/she is/was an Architect, provided the lettering does not exceed in height more than
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 10 cm

100. For conducting an Architectural competition, the guidelines are framed by Council of Architecture based on Architecture Competition Rule formed by International Union of Architects on behalf of
(A) UNESCO
(B) ASI
(C) INTACH
(D) WHO  

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Assistant Hydrogeologist in Central Ground Water Board (GEOLOGY)

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Assistant Hydrogeologist in Central Ground Water Board (GEOLOGY)



1. Which one of the following minerals has highest susceptibility to weathering?
(a) Olivine
(b) Pyroxene
(c) Muscovite
(d) Quartz

2. The ridge like deposits of silt and clay along the borders of the flooded rivers after a flood are known as:
(a) Placer deposit
(b) Natural levées
(c) Scree
(d) Cuesta

3. Which one of the following is NOT a sink hole?
(a) Uvala
(b) Polje
(c) Solution pan
(d) Lapies

4. Which one of the following is NOT related to glaciers?
(a) Doline
(b) Firn
(c) Cirque
(d) Drumlins

5. A graph showing percentage of Earth’s surface area as a function of elevation or depth relative to sea level is called:
(a) Hypsometric curve
(b) Stress curve
(c) Strain curve
(d) Creep curve 

6. The process of sinking to maintain isostatic equilibrium during cooling of the lithosphere is called:
(a) Gravitational subsidence
(b) Thermal subsidence
(c) Continental rise
(d) Extensional collapse

7. Regions where continental lithosphere is currently undergoing extension or underwent extension in the past are termed as:
(a) Rifts
(b) Subduction
(c) Obduction
(d) Trench

8. Which one of the following margins represents plate boundaries?
(a) Active continental margins
(b) Passive continental margins
(c) Active ocean margins
(d) Passive ocean margins

9. Which one of the following backarcs  is commonly called “Mariana-type backarcs”?
(a) Extensional backarcs
(b) Compressional backarcs
(c) Twisting backarcs
(d) Couple backarcs

10.  Which one of the following is an ore mineral of silver?
(a) Arsenopyrite
(b) Argentite
(c) Cassiterite
(d) Cerussite

11. Which one of the following is a chromium-bearing garnet?
(a) Grossular
(b) Uvarovite
(c) Spessartine
(d) Pyrope 

12. Which one of the following minerals shows piezoelectric property?
(a) Garnet
(b) Apatite
(c) Quartz
(d) Orthoclase feldspar

13. In isometric system, a six faced solid in which each face cuts one axis and is parallel to the other two axes is known as:
(a) Hexahedron
(b) Octahedron
(c) Rhombic dodecahedron
(d) Tetrahexahedron

14. An open form comprising two horizontal faces in normal class of Tetragonal system is termed as:
(a) Pyramid
(b) Dome
(c) Basal Pinacoid
(d) Prism

15. Which one of the following is the correct composition of Troctolite?
(a) Olivine + Plagioclase
(b) Olivine + Clinopyroxene
(c) Clinopyroxene + Plagioclase
(d) Clinopyroxene + Orthopyroxene

16. The degrees of freedom at peritectic point in binary peritectic system will be:
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Zero

17. Which of the following are the examples of layered mafic intrusion?
1. Bushveld igneous complex
2. Still water complex
3. Skaergard intrusion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

18. Mineralogical composition of pulaskite rock is:
(a) Olivine + augite + calc. plagioclase
(b) Antiperthite + aegirine + nepheline
(c) Nepheline + plagioclase + quartz
(d) Hypersthene + diopside + augite

19. Which one of the following is a diagenetic process?
(a) Metamorphism
(b) Dissolution
(c) Deposition of sediments
(d) Palingenesis

20. Which one of the following is a unidirectional paleocurrent indicator?
(a) Grove casts
(b) Symmetrical ripples
(c) Channel and scour margins
(d) Cross-bedding

21. Which of the following are the lithologies of deltaic deposits?
(a) Siltstone, greywacke and claystone
(b) Conglomerate, sandstone and mudstone
(c) Shale, clay and limestone
(d) Limestone, dolomite and shale

22. Which one of the following is NOT a clastic rock?
(a) Sandstone
(b) Shale
(c) Limestone
(d) Conglomerate

23. A geothermometer is based on which one of the following type of reactions?
(a) Net transfer reaction
(b) Ion exchange reaction
(c) Oxidation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction

24. What will be the AKF values of Fe3 Al2 Si3 O12?
(a) F = 75; A = 0; K = 25
(b) F = 75; A = 25; K = 0
(c) A = 75; F = 25; K = 0
(d) K = 75; F = 25; A = 0

25. Which one of the following minerals is formed during ultrahigh pressure metamorphism?
(a) Quartz
(b) Tridymite
(c) Coesite
(d) Labradorite

26. Which one of the following rocks is the protolith for marble?
(a) Arenaceous rocks
(b) Argellaceous rocks
(c) Mafic rocks
(d) Calcareous rocks

27. The smaller folds, which occur on the limbs or hinge of the larger folds, are known as:
(a) Parasitic folds
(b) Kink folds
(c) En echelon folds
(d) Radial folds

28. A set of new planar surfaces produced in a rock as a result of deformation is called:
(a) Foliation
(b) Bedding plane
(c) Lineation
(d) Deformation surface

29. If the dip of a plane is measured in a vertical plane perpendicular to the strike, it is called:
(a) True dip
(b) Apparent dip
(c) True slope
(d) Apparent slope

30. A fault that strikes parallel to the  strike of axial plane of the regional fold is known as:
(a) Longitudinal fault
(b) Transverse fault
(c) Dip slip fault
(d) Diagonal slip fault

31. A major anticline that is composed of many smaller folds is called:
(a) Anticlinorium
(b) Synclinorium
(c) Antiformal syncline
(d) Synformal anticline

32. Which one of the following is the fundamental unit of biostratigraphy?
(a) Barren zone
(b) Abundance zone
(c) Biozone
(d) Overlap zone

33. Which one of the following groups contains Sirbu Shale Formation?
(a) Semri Group
(b) Kaimur Group
(c) Rewah Group
(d) Bhander Group

34.  Gulcheru quartzites belong to which one of the following groups?
(a) Papaghani Group
(b) Cheyair Group
(c) Nallamalai Group
(d) Kistna Group

35. Which one of the following ages is assigned to Syringothyris Limestone?
(a) Ordovician
(b) Lower Silurian
(c) Lower Carboniferous
(d) Lower Permian

36.  Which one of the following formations is correlated to Raniganj Formation in Son and Mahanadi valleys?
(a) Talchir Formation
(b) Karharbari Formation
(c) Himgir Formation
(d) Maleri Formation

37. Consider the following statements regarding Gastropods:
1. They are typically benthic, though pelagic forms do occur
2. Forms with a siphonal canal are generally carnivorous
3. Forms in which the shell has an entire aperture are often herbivorous
4. Fresh water gastropods for the most part have thin shells with a thick periostracum
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

38. Ammonoids belong to which one of the following geological ranges?
(a) Cambrian–Jurassic
(b) Ordovician–Triassic
(c) Silurian–Jurassic
(d) Devonian–Cretaceous

39. The entire skeleton of a solitary or  of a colonial coral is known as:
(a) Corallum
(b) Corallite
(c) Columella
(d) Coenenchyme 

40. The triangular gap along the hinge line of  the pedicle valve of brachiopods, through which the pedicle emerges, is known as:
(a) Deltidium
(b) Delthyrium
(c) Brachidium
(d) Brachiophore

41. The moulting of the exoskeleton in arthropods is known as:
(a) Ecdysis
(b) Metamorphosis
(c) Integument
(d) Exuvia

42. Which one of the following is a phosphatic microfossil?
(a) Foraminifera
(b) Radiolaria
(c) Cocolithophore
(d) Conodonts

43. Which one of the following is NOT a seed fern?
(a) Pecopteris
(b) Neuropteris
(c) Alethopteris
(d) Glossopteris

44. The capability of the sensor to discriminate the smallest object on the ground of different sizes, usually specified in linear dimension, is known as:
(a) Spatial resolution
(b) Spectral resolution
(c) Radiometric resolution
(d) Temporal resolution

45. Which one of the following is NOT a spatial data?
(a) Location of the city
(b) Location of the river
(c) Temperature of the city
(d) Location of the hill 

46. Which one of the following is NOT related to topology?
(a) Adjacency
(b) Containment
(c) Connectivity
(d) Attribute data

47. Which one of the following non-spatial scales would you select for recording of snow-depth in GIS database?
(a) Nominal scale
(b) Ratio scale
(c) Ordinal scale
(d) Interval scale

48. What is the spatial resolution of LISS III camera of IRS 1C?
(a) 72.0 m
(b) 36.0 m
(c) 23.5 m
(d) 6.0 m

49. Consider the following statements regarding conservative ions:
1. Conservative ions are those that will undergo association and dissociation reactions over the normal range of pH of natural water
2. Conservative ions are those whose concentrations are not affected by changes in pH, temperature or pressure, assuming no precipitation or dissolution
3. Na+ , K+ , Ca2+, Mg2+, Cl– , SO4 2– and NO3 – are not the conservative ions of natural water Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3

50. The majority of Earth’s Fe and Ni are found in:
(a) Lower crust
(b) Upper crust
(c) Upper mantle
(d) Inner core

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51. Consider the following statements regarding continental crust and oceanic crust:
1. Continental crust is less dense and thicker than oceanic crust
2. Continental crust is poor in Iron and Magnesium
3. Continental crust is rich in Iron and Magnesium
4. Continental crust is more dense and thinner than oceanic crust
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

52. Mercury is the path finder element for:
(a) Copper deposits
(b) Lead-Zinc-Silver deposits
(c) Chromite deposits
(d) Uranium deposits

53. Gossan is used to identify a buried:
(a) Sulphide deposit of epigenetic origin
(b) Auriferous vein
(c) Copper porphyry deposit
(d) Multimineral Zinc-Silver deposit

54. Radon-222 gas is used in prospecting for:
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Silver
(d) Antimony

55. The most important hydrochemical indicator of petroleum is:
(a) Napthenates
(b) Ethanol
(c) Humic acids
(d) Brines

56. Which one of the following is NOT a manganese mineral?
(a) Pyrolusite
(b) Sitaparite
(c) Vredenburgite
(d) Smithsonite

57. Which one of the following deposits does NOT occur in Archaean greenstone belts?
(a) Gold
(b) Platinum
(c) Aluminum
(d) Chromite

58. Which one of the following deposits is formed at oceanic ridges?
(a) Sulphide
(b) Carbonate
(c) Oxide
(d) Phosphate

59. The Khetri belt of Rajasthan is famous for:
(a) Gold
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Coal

60. Which type of tin mineralization occurs in Tosham hills of Haryana?
(a) Cassiterite-Sulphide type
(b) Cassiterite-Quartz and disseminated type
(c) Greisen type
(d) Pegmatite type

61. Which one of the following ore deposits having ferruginous character occurs in Kalahandi area of Odisha?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Copper
(c) Galena
(d) Diamond 

62. The method, which involves the forceful injection of slurry of water and cement into the fractured rocks of the site, is known as:
(a) Back filling
(b) Lining
(c) Cement stabilization
(d) Grouting

63. The walls constructed on both sides of the crest of a dam are known as:
(a) Retaining walls
(b) Key walls
(c) Safety walls
(d) Parapet walls

64. Rutting is a phenomenon associated with:
(a) Bridges
(b) Pavements
(c) Dams
(d) Tunnels

65. Which one of the following rock types has highest compressive strength?
(a) Diorite
(b) Marble
(c) Sandstone
(d) Basalt

66. Which one of the following tests  is used to know the durability of a building stone?
(a) Jack test
(b) Smith’s test
(c) Los Angeles’ test
(d) Dorry test

67. Which one of the following arrangements made in a dam near the top to let off excess water of the reservoir to the downstream side?
(a) Diversion tunnel
(b) Sluice
(c) Cut-off wall
(d) Spillway 

68. Which one of the following rock types at the reservoir site is most suitable for its foundation?
(a) Schists
(b) Laterites
(c) Marbles
(d) Quartzites

69. Which type of the land cover will provide the highest degree of recharge in a watershed?
(a) Pasture of grazing land
(b) Forest with thin carpet of litter
(c) Forest with thick carpet of litter
(d) Cropland

70. Which one of the following is the correct order of abundance of different elements in weight percentage in bulk Earth?
(a) O>Si>Fe>S>Ca>Al>Mg>Ni
(b) Fe>O>Si>Mg>S>Ni>Ca>Al
(c) Fe>Si>O>Mg>Ni>S>Ca>Al
(d) Si>Fe>O>Ni>S>Ca>Al>Mg

71. Which one of the following minerals is called fool’s gold?
(a) Hematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Pyrite
(d) Halite

72. The ability of rocks or sediments to contain water is determined by its:
(a) Permeability
(b) Porosity
(c) Viscosity
(d) Transmissivity

73. A geological formation that holds enough water and transmits it rapidly enough to be useful as a source of ground water is known as:
(a) Aquifer
(b) Aquitard
(c) Aquifuse
(d) Aquiclude

74. Which seismic wave is responsible for maximum shaking during an earthquake?
(a) P wave
(b) S wave
(c) Rayleigh wave
(d) Love wave

75. Shallow foundations are sensitive to the vertical displacement component, especially if the structure is:
(a) Heavy and water table is shallow
(b) Light and water table is shallow
(c) Heavy and water table is deep
(d) Light and water table is deep

76. Bhuj earthquake of 2001 belonged to which one of the following categories?
(a) Deep focus
(b) Shallow focus
(c) Intermediate focus
(d) In between deep and intermediate focus

77. The calcareous and siliceous oozes are:
(a) Neritic deposits
(b) Littoral deposits
(c) Pelagic deposits
(d) Terrigenous deposits

78. Which type of clay is found in the deepest parts of the ocean and is also abundant near the volcanoes?
(a) Black clay
(b) Brown clay
(c) Red clay
(d) Green clay 

79. Ocean tides are generated due to:
1. Gravitational attraction of the Moon
2. Gravitational attraction of the Sun
3. Declination of the Moon and the Sun
4. Gravitational force of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

80. Which one of the following satellites can be used for monitoring changes in ground water storage?
(a) LANDSAT TM
(b) IRS LISS III
(c) QuickBird
(d) GRACE

81. How much water the ice caps and glaciers contribute in terms of percentage at or near the Earth’s surface?
(a) 2.05 %
(b) 3.05 %
(c) 1.78%
(d) 1.23 %

82. What type of well can be constructed for small domestic water supplies in clayey-sandy soil region?
(a) Deep and small diameter well
(b) Shallow and large diameter well
(c) Shallow and small diameter well
(d) Deep and medium diameter well

83. What is the nature of water table contour map in the region of groundwater recharge?
(a) Convex water table contours
(b) Concave water table contours
(c) Closely packed water table contours
(d) Sparsely packed water table contours 

84. Clay lenses, occurring in alluvial formations which can produce water table conditions in the unsaturated zone of the main unconfined aquifer are known as:
(a) Perched Aquifer
(b) Leaky Aquifer
(c) Unconfined Aquifer
(d) Composite Aquifer

85. What is the name of the wide belt (5–15 Km) along the northern margin of Indo-GangeticBrahmaputra plain, where major artesian aquifers give rise to free flow in wells?
(a) Foredeep basin
(b) Tarai belt
(c) Bhabar belt
(d) Siwalik belt

86. Which mineral provides highest swelling property to the soil?
 (a) Kaolinite
 (b) Montmorillonite
 (c) Ilmenite
 (d) Quartz

87. What happens to soil quality if there is high sodium ion concentration in irrigation water?
(a) Increase in permeability of soil
(b) Decrease in permeability of soil
(c) Compaction of the soil
(d) Change in grain size of soil

88. If the concentration of Ca2+ in water is 130  mg/L, what will be the concentration of Ca2+ in meq/L? [Atomic weight of Ca = 40.08]
(a) 6.48 meq/L
(b) 6.80 meq/L
(c) 13.00 meq/L
(d) 3.24 meq/L

89. Which one of the following is the correct order of cation exchangeability for common ion in groundwater?
(a) K + > Mg2+ > Ca2+ > Na+ 
(b) Ca2+ > Mg2+ > K+ > Na+
(c) Na+ > K+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+
(d) Ca2+ > K+ > Mg2+ > Na+

90. According to Indian Standard, what is the maximum permissible limit of F – (Fluoride) in groundwater for drinking purpose?
(a) 1.0 mg/L
(b) 1.3 mg/L
(c) 1.5 mg/L
(d) 2.5 mg/L

91. Which one of the following will exhibit the maximum diurnal fluctuation in groundwater table due to evapotranspiration?
(a) Bare soil
(b) Shallow rooted vegetation
(c) Deep rooted vegetation
(d) Exposed bed rock within soil

92. Which one of the following is the characteristic of piezometric surface of flowing well?
(a) Piezometric surface lies above the ground surface
(b) Piezometric surface lies below the ground surface
(c) Piezometric surface lies below the confined aquifer
(d) Piezometric surface lies below the mean sea level

93. In which type of unconsolidated sediments, the capillary rise of ground water is the highest?
(a) Fine gravel
(b) Medium sand
(c) Coarse sand
(d) Silt

94. A soil sample has d60 and d10 values of 1.9 mm and 0. 2 mm respectively. The uniformity coefficient of the soil will be:
(a) 9.5
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.38
(d) 0.15

95. Which one of the following particles contributes to the greatest amount of surface area in unconsolidated formations?
(a) Gravel
(b) Coarse sand
(c) Silt
(d) Clay

96. In Intermediate Vadose zone, water moves:
(a) under the influence of gravity
(b) under the influence of groundwater head difference
(c) under the influence of atmospheric pressure
(d) under the influence of osmotic pressure

97. Which one of the following formations shows the  maximum anisotropism and heterogeneity in terms of its hydrogeological properties?
(a) Crystalline rock formation
(b) Alluvial formation
(c) Lacustrine formation
(d) Eolian formation

98. A saturated but poorly permeable stratum that impedes groundwater movement and does not yield water freely to the wells is known as: 
(a) Aquifuge
(b) Aquiclude
(c) Aquitard
(d) Aquifer

99. What type of information can be provided by Radar imagery of a region?
(a) Color of the soil
(b) Presence of moisture at shallow depth
(c) Void ratio of the soil
(d) Texture of the soil

100. The recharge of the groundwater can be improved by stream channel through:
(a) Proper lining at the bottom of channel
(b) Narrowing of the channel
(c) Construction of low check dam and dikes across the stream at wide stretch of a channel
(d) Channel bank development

101. The combination of specific yield and specific retention is known as:
(a) Transmissivity
(b) Storativity
(c) Porosity
(d) Hydraulic conductivity

102. The topographic area that collects and discharges surface stream flow through one outlet or mouth is generally referred to as:
1. Catchments
2. Drainage basins
3. Watersheds
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

103. Which of the following groundwater management models is used for water allocation plans involving economic management objectives subject to institutional policies as constraints in addition to hydraulic management constraints?
(a) Embedding approach
(b) Groundwater policy evaluation
(c) Groundwater policy evaluation and allocation models
(d) Optimal allocation approach

104. Which of the following statements about juvenile water is/are correct?
1. It is surface water that was trapped by soil
2. It is subsurface water that was derived from the interior of the Earth
3. It is surface water that was trapped by rock formation
4. It is subsurface water that was trapped by soil and rock formation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4 

105. Which one of the following methods is NOT​​​​​​​ used for measurement of evapotranspiration?
(a) Priestley-Taylor method
(b) Blaney-Criddle method
(c) Theissen method
(d) Adjusted Pan method

106. The incidence of infantile “Methemoglobinemia” is caused due to intake of water having high concentration of:
(a) Boron
(b) Fluoride
(c) Nitrate
(d) Manganese

107. The ratio of transmissivity to the coefficient of storage (T/S) of an aquifer is termed as:
(a) Leakage factor
(b) Hydraulic resistance
(c) Hydraulic diffusivity
(d) Boulton delay index

108. Geysers and fumeroles are manifestations of hydrothermal phenomena and are nearly always found in:
(a) regions of seismic activity
(b) regions of volcanicity
(c) regions of landslides
(d) regions of plate collisions

109. Consider the following statements regarding hydrologic properties of sedimentary rocks:
1. It depends largely on the size, shape and arrangement of the grains
2. It depends largely on the degree to which the rock particles are sorted
3. It depends largely on hydraulic resistance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only 

110. In mining operations, production shafts are used for carrying:
(a) Cables
(b) Minerals
(c) Men
(d) Equipment

111. In a working Mine, stope is used for:
(a) removing the Ore
(b) storing the Ore
(c) looking down to explore the Mine
(d) movement inside a Mine

112. Rocker is used in which  type of mining?
(a) Manual mining
(b) Underground mining
(c) Lead-Zinc mining
(d) Block caving mining

113. Lower Gondwana coal seams belong to which one of the following ages?
(a) Permo-Triassic
(b) Late Carboniferous-Permian
(c) Triassic-Jurassic
(d) Ordovician-Silurian

114. The organic compounds in sediments, rocks and crude oil whose carbon structures can be traced back to a living organism are called as:
(a) Biomarkers
(b) Fossil markers
(c) Trace markers
(d) Index markers

115. Which one of the following physical properties is NOT related to mineral asbestos?
(a) Readily separable into fine filaments
(b) High tensile strength
(c) Enough flexibility
(d) High degree of combustibility 

116. The clay used in petroleum refining is:
(a) Kaolin
(b) Ball clay
(c) Flint clay
(d) Fuller’s earth

117. In the electrical resistivity method, if a material of resistance has a cross-sectional area and length , then its resistivity ( ) can be expressed as:
(a) 1/ρ = RA/L
(b) ρ = RA/L
(c) ρ = L/RA
(d) 1/ρ = L/RA

118. The method of prospecting which is based on anomaly in chemical constituents of natural water is termed as:
(a) Hydrological prospecting
(b) Mineralogical prospecting
(c) Chemical prospecting
(d) Hydrogeochemical prospecting

119. In which one of the following geophysical methods, the potential electrodes are located at onethird points between the current electrodes?
(a) Schlumberger arrangement
(b) Wenner arrangement
(c) Gravity method
(d) Magnetic method

120. Consider the following statements about well logging:
1. Clayey formations display lower resistivities than permeable alluvial aquifers
2. Clay minerals do not conduct electrical current through their matrix
3. In porous formations, water content and quality factors control their resistivity value
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only  

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Medical Officer (General Duty Medical Officer), GNCTD

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Medical Officer (General Duty Medical Officer), GNCTD



1. A 28 year old lady develops atypical chest pain and she is advised exercise stress test to assess for coronary artery disease. In such a case, the test will have:
(a) High positive predictive value
(b) Low negative predictive value
(c) High false positive results
(d) High false negative results

2. Abnormality of which one of the following waves/segments of the ECG suggests an atrial enlargement?
(a) P-wave
(b) Q-wave
(c) T-wave
(d) ST segment

3. Which one of the following does NOT cause ST segment elevation? 
(a) Hypokalemia
(b) Pericarditis
(c) Left ventricular aneurysm
(d) Pulmonary embolism

4. An elderly patient presents with exertional dyspnea. On examination, the patient has a slowrising carotid pulse, heaving apex beat and an ejection systolic murmur. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Senile degenerative aortic stenosis
(b) Rheumatic heart disease with mitral stenosis
(c) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
(d) Myocardial infarction 

5. A plateau of inspiratory limb of flow-volume curve during spirometry is suggestive of: 
(a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(b) Extrathoracic large-airway obstruction
(c) Pulmonary fibrosis
(d) Interstitial lung disease

6. Which one of the following is NOT used/advised in the stepwise management of bronchial asthma?
(a) Inhaled short-acting beta 2 agonist (SABA)
(b) Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
(c) Oral theophyllines
(d) Oral leukotriene receptor agonists

7. A patient presents with fever, cough and expectoration of 4 days duration. On examination the respiratory rate is 30/min and auscultation reveals bronchial breathing. Which one of the following may help in deciding regarding hospitalization of the patient?
(a) APACHE-II score
(b) CURB-65
(c) GINA guidelines
(d) BODE index 

8. Consider the following statements with regard to acute rheumatic fever:
1. It is an infectious illness characterized by fever, anorexia and joint pain.
2. It is an autoimmune condition.
3. Revised Duke’s criteria are used for the diagnosis.
4. A patient presenting with chorea may be the only feature of this condition.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

9. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all EXCEPT:
(a) Recurrence after surgery
(b) Mucus in stools
(c) Gross blood in stools
(d) Continuous disease spread

10. The urinary D-xylose test is useful in assessment of disease of:
(a) Stomach
(b) Kidney
(c) Small intestine
(d) Large intestine

11. A patient presents to the emergency with upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage. The differential diagnosis includes all EXCEPT:
(a) Diverticular disease
(b) Fundal varices
(c) Mallory-Weiss tear
(d) Cancer of esophagus 

12. Consider the following statements with regard to ulcerative colitis: 
1. Inflammation invariably involves the rectum and spreads proximally.
2. The inflammatory process involves all the layers of the bowel wall.
3. Rectal bleeding and bloody diarrhea are the common symptoms.
4. The first attack is usually the most severe.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

13. A young adult male is brought to emergency following head trauma. On investigations, the serum Na+ level is 128 mmol/L. What is the most likely cause? 
(a) Adrenocortical failure
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) SIADH
(d) Dehydration

14. All of the following are common causes of erectile dysfunction with intact libido EXCEPT:
(a) Vascular insufficiency
(b) Anxiety
(c) Neuropathic
(d) Hypogonadism 

15. Which among the following are poor prognostic indicators in glomerular disease?
1. Hypertension
2. Persistent proteinuria
3. Rapid rate of decline in renal function
4. Reduced serum creatinine levels at the time of presentation
5. Male sex
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 2, 4 and 5

16. Clue cells on Gram staining microscopy of vaginal discharge are seen in:
(a) Candidiasis
(b) Trichomoniasis
(c) Bacterial vaginosis
(d) Streptococcal infection

17. ‘Focal sensory seizures’ is a positive phenomenon seen due to pathology in which lobe of cerebral cortex?
(a) Frontal
(b) Temporal
(c) Parietal
(d) Occipital 

18. Which of the following are appropriate in the work-up of patient with recurrent syncope?
1. MRI brain
2. EEG
3. ECG
4. Tilt-Table test
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

19. A 65 year old male presents with slowness of movements, postural instability, rigidity and expressionless face. The most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Multi infarct dementia
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) Parkinson’s disease

20. After a head trauma, a young patient was unable to close his left eye and had drooling of saliva from left angle of mouth. He is suffering from:
(a) 7th cranial nerve injury
(b) 3rd cranial nerve injury
(c) 5th cranial injury
(d) Combined 3rd and 7th cranial nerve injuries 

21. A patient with anaemia is found to have low MCV, low reticulocyte count, low MCH, target cells on blood smear, and a normal serum ferritin levels. The most suggestive diagnosis is:
(a) Anemia of chronic disease
(b) Sideroblastic anemia
(c) Iron deficiency anemia
(d) Beta-thalassemia trait

22. Which one of the following is a suspected carcinogen for urinary bladder carcinoma?
(a) Nickel
(b) Phenacetin
(c) Vinyl chloride
(d) Asbestos

23. Consider the following statements with regard to Hematological Physiology in pregnancy:
1. There is increased plasma volume which lowers the measured hemoglobin level
2. There is progressive neutropenia
3. Tissue stores of folic acid become depleted
4. Procoagulant factors increase approximately threefold, starting from the second trimester
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

24. Which of the following clotting factors require Vitamin K dependent post-translational carboxylation in order to participate in the coagulation cascades?
(a) Factors I, VII, IX, XII
(b) Factors II, VIII, XI, XIII
(c) Factors V, VII, X, XI
(d) Factors II, VII, IX, X 

25. Which one of the following is NOT a part of MEN-4 syndrome?
(a) Parathyroid adenoma
(b) Pituitary adenoma
(c) Testicular cancer
(d) Medullary thyroid carcinoma

26. Weight loss is a clinical feature in all EXCEPT:
(a) Thyrotoxicosis
(b) Pheochromocytoma
(c) Acromegaly
(d) Adrenal insufficiency

27. A patient presents with ‘bones, stones and abdominal groans’. This adage classically describes which one of the following conditions?
(a) Primary hypothyroidism
(b) Primary hyperparathyroidism
(c) Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
(d) Hypoparathyroidism

28. Which one of the following laboratory test results is NOT confirmatory of Cushings’ syndrome?
(a) Failure to suppress serum cortisol with low dose of oral dexamethasone
(b) Abnormally elevated late night serum cortisol
(c) Abnormally elevated late night salivary cortisol
(d) Reduced levels of 24 hour urine free cortisol

29. The World Health Organization operationally defines Osteoporosis as ‘T’–score of:
(a) 0 to +1
(b) –1 to 0
(c) –2.5 to -1
(d) < -2.5 

30. Which one of the following is NOT a laparoscopic bariatric surgery procedure?
(a) Gastric banding
(b) Heller’s myotomy
(c) Roux-en-y gastric bypass
(d) Duodenal switch

31. A 30 year old pregnant woman is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. The antibiotic of choice is:
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Gentamycin

32. Which of the following are characteristics of scrub typhus?
1. It is caused by a spirochete
2. It is transmitted by flea bites
3. Onset of symptoms is sudden with headache, fever and malaise
4. An eschar is a valuable clinical diagnostic finding in such illness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 

33. Which of the following parameters are included in the scoring system to assess the pre-test probability of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. Timing of fall in platelet count
3. Presence of new thrombosis
4. Likelihood of another cause for thrombocytopenia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2,3 and 4

34. Which one of the following antibacterial agents targets DNA topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase?
(a) Tetracyclines
(b) Quinolones
(c) Beta-lactams
(d) Sulfonamide-trimethoprim

35. Which one of the following fourth generation cephalosporins can be given orally?
(a) Cefotaxime
(b) Ceftriaxone
(c) Cefixime
(d) Ceftazidime

36. Prion disease affecting humans includes all EXCEPT:
(a) Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis(SSPE)
(b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
(c) Fatal familial insomnia
(d) Kuru 

37. The resting basal metabolic rate in a patient with Escherichia coli septicemia:
(a) falls by 30 % to 60 %
(b) increases by 30 % to 60 %
(c) remains unchanged
(d) initially decreases, then increases

38. Casal’s necklace is seen in:
(a) Scurvy
(b) Pellagra
(c) Beri-Beri
(d) Rickets

39. Which of the following are common causes of acute monoarthritis?
1. Septic arthritis
2. Viral arthritis
3. Reactive arthritis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

40. Which one of the following is NOT a radiological abnormality seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
(a) Periarticular osteoporosis
(b) Marginal joint erosions
(c) Pseudofractures
(d) Joint space narrowing 

41. The most prevalent psychiatric illness in the community is:
(a) Anxiety disorders
(b) Depression
(c) Bipolar disorders
(d) Schizophrenia

42. Which one of the following anti-epileptic drugs has the lowest incidence of fetal malformations?
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Carbamazepine
(c) Levetiracetam
(d) Valproate

43. The most important, strongest risk factor for dementia is:
(a) Increasing age
(b) Male gender
(c) Smoking
(d) Atherosclerosis

44. Which one of the following most closely reflects core body temperature?
(a) Oral cavity temperature
(b) Rectal temperature
(c) Lower esophageal temperature
(d) Tympanic membrane temperature

45. ‘J waves’ on electrocardiogram are seen in:
(a) Hyperthermia
(b) Hypokalemia
(c) Hypothermia
(d) Hypercalcemia 

46. Methaemoglobinaemia is associated with which of the following?
1. Dapsone
2. Chloroquine
3. Aniline dyes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

47. Radical cure using a course of primaquine is a part of management of which of the following malaria infection?
1. P. vivax
2. P. malariae
3. P. ovale
4. P. falciparum
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 4 only 

48. Which of the following conditions are considered in the differential diagnosis of a patient presenting with elevated core body temperature?
1. Malaria
2. Malignant hyperpyrexia
3. Meningitis
4. Thyroid storm
5. Heat stroke
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

49. An 8 year old boy ingests twenty tablets of a drug prescribed for anemia. He develops shock, myocardial dysfunction and metabolic acidosis within a few hours. Which of the following should be used as an antidote?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Deferoxamine
(c) Methylene blue(1%) solution
(d) N-acetylcysteine

50. A 6 year old child with chronic kidney disease presents with oliguria, metabolic acidosis and symptomatic bradycardia. Which one of the following is the drug of choice?
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Adenosine
(c) Lidocaine
(d) Amiodarone 

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51. A mother has active pulmonary tuberculosis and has received antituberculosis therapy for 1 month before delivery. The newborn is started on isoniazid prophylaxis. What is the next step in management?
(a) Exclusive breast feeding and evaluation of the baby at 6 weeks
(b) Isoniazid therapy for 6 months
(c) Exclusive breast feeding and BCG vaccination at birth
(d) BCG vaccine at 6 weeks of age

52. A 23 year old female with history of vaginal discharge delivers a baby who develops copious purulent bilateral eye discharge 48 hours after birth. Gram staining of the discharge reveals Gram-positive diplococci. What is the treatment of choice?
(a) Topical gentamicin drops
(b) Injection ceftriaxone
(c) Ciprofloxacin or polymyxin ointment
(d) Oral erythromycin

53. Which one of the following is a red flag sign in child development?
(a) No visual fixation by 3 months
(b) No vocalization by 4 months
(c) Not walking alone by 12 months
(d) No single words by 14 months

54. Which one of the following poisonings is associated with bradycardia?
(a) Clonidine
(b) Aspirin
(c) Cocaine
(d) Tricyclic antidepressants 

55. What are the most common symptoms of kerosene oil poisoning?
(a) Respiratory
(b) Cardiovascular
(c) Central nervous system
(d) Endocrinal

56. A 3 month old infant with brachycephaly, hypotonia and mongoloid eye slant presents with congestive heart failure. What is the most likely underlying cardiac lesion?
(a) Pulmonary artery stenosis
(b) Aortic stenosis
(c) Endocardial cushion defect
(d) Tetrology of fallot

57. A 10 year old child presents with chronic liver disease and portal hypertension. Which one of the following vaccines may be administered?
(a) Hepatitis A vaccine
(b) Typhoid vaccine
(c) Influenza vaccine
(d) Meningococcal vaccine

58. What is the primary objective of ‘Mission Indradhanush’ ?
(a) To fully immunize more than 90% of infants by 2020
(b) To completely immunize all children of all under five years by 2020
(c) To vaccinate all pregnant women at delivery by 2020
(d) To fully immunize all newborns by 2030

59. Beneficiaries of Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) include children aged:
(a) 0-3 years
(b) 0-5 years
(c) 0-12 years
(d) 0-18 years 

60. A two year old child presents with poor growth, anemia, easy bruising and hepatosplenomegaly. 
Which one among the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Krabbe disease
(b) Gaucher disease
(c) Tay Sach disease
(d) Phenylketonuria

61. A 25 year old male patient presents to the emergency following road traffic accident with severe pain and swelling of right lower extremity. Local examination reveals tensly swelling lower extremity with absence of distal pulses. All of the following statements regarding this patient are correct EXCEPT:
(a) Absence of distal pulsation is an indication for fasciotomy
(b) Renal failure can occur due to myoglobinuria in this patient
(c) Lower limb can be decompressed by an incision in the posterior compartment
(d) Pain on passive movement of affected compartment muscles is an indication for fasciotomy

62. A ‘Thimble Bladder’ with ‘Golf Hole’ ureteric orifices are seen in:
(a) Schistosomiasis
(b) Carcinoma of urinary bladder
(c) Tuberculosis of urinary bladder
(d) Detrusor hypertrophy

63. Causes of Secondary lymphoedema are all EXCEPT:
(a) Filariasis
(b) Podoconiosis
(c) Bacterial infection
(d) Genetic factors 

64. A person presented with local gigantism of the leg and pulsation in the lower limb vein. The probable diagnosis is:
(a) Soft tissue tumor
(b) AV fistula
(c) Varicose vein
(d) Incompetent S-F junction

65. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in respect of cystic hygroma?
(a) It is filled with clear lymph
(b) It is situated in anterior triangle of neck
(c) It is occasionally present since birth
(d) It is lined by single layer of epithelium

66. Which of the following statements regarding medullary carcinoma of thyroid are correct?
1. It has an origin from parafollicular C cells
2. Serum thyroglobulin is valuable tumor marker
3. Lymphatic spread is present in 50–60% of cases
4. It occurs as a part of MEN–2A syndrome
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 

67. Which of the following statements regarding Crohn’s disease are correct?
1. Terminal ileum is the most common site for involvement in Crohn’s disease
2. Crohn’s disease involves the mucosa of the small intestine
3. Presence of skip lesions is a characteristic feature of Crohn’s disease
4. Crohn’s disease is often associated with perianal disease
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

68. Which one of the following statements about liver is correct?
(a) 80 % of blood supply is from hepatic artery
(b) Liver is divided into10 segments
(c) Liver develops from the foregut embryologically
(d) Venous drainage is into superior mesenteric vein

69. The most common site for Splenunculi is:
(a) Mesocolon
(b) Splenic vessels
(c) Splenic hilum
(d) Tail of pancreas

70. Which one of the following statements about Mesenteric cysts is NOT correct?
(a) It is more common in females
(b) It is most common in the fourth decade of life
(c) It is more common in the mesentery of the colon
(d) One third of cases are seen in patients with less than 15 years 

71. Indications for CT scan in head injury within 1 hour include:
1. Glasgow Coma Scale < 13 at any point
2. Post traumatic seizure
3. Single episode of vomiting
4. Focal neurological deficit
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

72. Left vocal cord palsy is most common due to long intrathoracic course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve which arches around the aorta. Any inflammatory or neoplastic condition to involve it is most likely to arise from:
(a) Left lung hilum
(b) Nasopharynx
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Oesophagus

73. Which of the following statements regarding femoral hernia are correct?
1. It is less common as compared to inguinal hernia
2. It appears below and lateral to the pubic tubercle
3. It is more common in men than women
4. Strangulation is present in 50 % cases of femoral hernia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 

74. Common tumors that metastasize to the spine are all EXCEPT:
(a) Breast
(b) Lung
(c) Testis/Germ cell
(d) Thyroid

75. The most common ocular malignancy of childhood is:
(a) Oculoblastoma
(b) Choroidal blastoma
(c) Iridioblastoma
(d) Retinoblastoma

76. The maximum safe dose of lignocaine (with adrenaline) for local anesthesia is:
(a) 3 mg/kg
(b) 5 mg/kg
(c) 7 mg/kg
(d) 9 mg/kg

77. All of the following symptoms in a 24 year old person having a head injury following a road traffic accident, point towards the fracture of skull bone EXCEPT:
(a) CSF otorrhea
(b) CSF rhinorrhea
(c) Cranial nerve deficits
(d) Diplopia 

78. Which one of the following CANNOT be included in the list of advantages of minimal access surgery?
(a) Decrease in wound size
(b) Decrease in wound pain
(c) Increase bleeding
(d) Decrease chances of hernia

79. A 40 year male patient was operated for a benign tumor of the muscles of the right thigh. 4 hours later he developed severe excruciating pain in the right thigh, paraesthesia and pallor of the right leg. The probable diagnosis is:
(a) Thromboembolism
(b) Compartment syndrome
(c) Wound infection
(d) Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

80. Consider the following statements regarding Hemorrhage.
1. Primary hemorrhage occurs immediately due to injury or surgery
2. Reactionary hemorrhage occurs after 24 hours of surgery
3. Reactionary hemorrhage is due to dislodgement of clot, normalization of blood pressure and slipping of ligature
4. Secondary hemorrhage occurs 7–14 days after surgery
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 

81. Consider the following in respect of vaccination in pregnancy
1. Tetanus vaccination protects both the mother and the neonate
2. Live virus vaccination can be given in pregnancy
3. Two doses of tetanus toxoid should be given at 6 weeks interval
4. Previously immunized woman does not need booster dose of tetanus vaccine
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 only

82. Oedema in pregnancy can be:
1. physiological oedema of pregnancy
2. always a sign of disease
3. due to cardiac failure
4. normal over the whole body
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 only

83. Advantages of active management of third stage of labour are all EXCEPT:
(a) Early separation of placenta
(b) Reduction in maternal anemia
(c) Control of maternal blood pressure
(d) Prevention of postpartum haemorrhage

84. The most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage is:
(a) Uterine atony
(b) Coagulopathy
(c) Obstetric trauma
(d) Retained placenta

85. Which one of the following is NOT a pathological criterion for morbid adherent placenta?
(a) Absence of decidua basalis
(b) Presence of multiple infarctions
(c) Absence of Nitabuch’s fibrinoid layer
(d) Varying degree of penetration of villi into muscle bundles 

86. Which one of the following is a systemic cause of abnormal uterine bleeding, according to FIGO classification?
(a) Adenomyosis
(b) Coagulopathy
(c) Submucosal fibroid
(d) Malignancy

87. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of discharge in cases of Bacterial vaginosis?
(a) Thick discharge
(b) pH ≥ 5
(c) Positive Whiff test
(d) Clue cells in wet mount microscopy

88. Which one of the following is the most common route of infection in genital tuberculosis?
(a) Lymphatic spread
(b) Hematogenous spread
(c) Ascending infection
(d) Droplet infection

89. All of the following are the risk factors for development of cervical cancer EXCEPT:
(a) High risk HPV infection
(b) Smoking
(c) Age < 30 years
(d) Multiple sexual partners

90. Which one of the following methods is NOT used as a Triage screening test for cervical cancer?
(a) Liquid based cytology
(b) Endometrial aspiration biopsy
(c) Colposcopy
(d) Hybrid capture -2 for HPV DNA

91. All are supports of uterus EXCEPT:
(a) Uterosacral cardinal ligament
(b) Levator ani muscle complex
(c) Pelvic fascia
(d) Ovarian ligament

92. Which one of the following is NOT a determinant factor for choice of surgery in management of uterovaginal prolapse?
(a) Degree of prolapse
(b) Presence of decubitus ulcer
(c) Prior surgery for prolapse
(d) Parity 

93. Stallworthy’s sign is seen in which one of the following clinical situations?
(a) Anencephaly
(b) Hydatidiform mole
(c) Placenta previa
(d) Multifetal gestation

94. A 30 year old female G3 P2+0 has come with history of two months of amenorrhoea with irregular bleeding for 3 days and history of passage of clots and some fleshy mass. Probable clinical diagnosis is:
(a) Missed abortion
(b) Incomplete abortion
(c) Inevitable abortion
(d) Septic abortion

95. Which one of the following abnormal Doppler changes is seen early in Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)?
(a) Elevated S/D ratio in umbilical artery
(b) Decreased S/D ratio in middle cerebral artery
(c) Absent end-diastolic flow in the umbilical artery
(d) Decreased S/D ratio in umbilical artery

96. Which of the following statements regarding contraception are correct?
1. Barrier methods have high failure rate unless used correctly and consistently
2. Spermicide and microbicide are not used in combination
3. Male condoms can reduce the risk of STDs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. The replacement time for Cu-T 380A is:
(a) 4 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 5 years

98. Mechanism of action of Combined Oral Contraceptives (COC) includes the following EXCEPT:
(a) Inhibition of ovulation by suppression of FSH and LH
(b) Making endometrium non-receptive for implantation
(c) Making cervical mucus thick, viscid and scanty
(d) Causing breakthrough bleeding 

99. Failure rate in Mini laparotomy operation is:
(a) 0.2–0.6 %
(b) 1–2 %
(c) 0.1–0.3 %
(d) 0.4–0.9 %

100. The dose required for medical method of termination of pregnancy is:
(a) Oral Mifepristone–200 mg
(b) Oral Mifepristone –200 mg and vaginal Misoprostol 600 µg
(c) Vaginal Misoprostol –800 µg
(d) Oral Mifepristone–200 mg and vaginal Misoprostol 800 µg

101. Live attenuated vaccine for influenza administered as a single dose intranasal spray is recommended for the use of which age group of people? 
(a) Infants less than 6 months of age
(b) Elderly people more than 70 years of age
(c) Individuals 2 years to 49 years
(d) Elderly people more than 80 years of age

102. The natural history of disease can be best studied by which type of epidemiological study?
(a) Cross sectional study
(b) Case control study
(c) Cohort study
(d) Experimental study

103. Which one of the following statements about Sentinel Surveillance is most appropriate?
(a) It is routine notification so that some cases can be identified
(b) The data collected cannot be extrapolated to population
(c) It identifies the missing cases and thereby supplements notified cases
(d) It creates a reporting bias in the system

104. Proportional mortality from tuberculosis is calculated by which one of the following rates?
(a) Total number of deaths from tuberculosis per 1000 mid-year population
(b) Total number of deaths due to tuberculosis per total number of cases of tuberculosis in that year
(c) Total number of patients of tuberculosis alive per total number of patients diagnosed in that year
(d) Total number of deaths from tuberculosis per total deaths from all causes in that year 105.
Which one of the following vaccines is recommended for prevention of diphtheria under Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) at present?
(a) DTaP
(b) dT
(c) Pentavalent
(d) DTPw

106. All the houses in a community are numbered first. Then a number is selected between 1 and 10 randomly. Then every 10th number is selected from that point onwards. Which sampling method has been followed in the above example?
(a) Non randomized sampling
(b) Simple random sampling
(c) Systematic random sampling
(d) Stratified random sampling

107. Vaccination schedule of Rotarix vaccine for prevention of diarrhea is described by which one of the following statements?
(a) Two doses given 4 weeks apart between 2 - 4 months
(b) Two doses given 4 weeks apart between 4– 6 months
(c) Three doses given 4 weeks apart starting after 6 weeks
(d) Three doses given 4 weeks apart starting after 12 weeks

108. The food contaminated with Clostridium botulinum toxin can be made safe by which one of the following procedures?
(a) Deep freezing the food to –20 ˚C for few minutes
(b) Heating the food up to 100 ˚C for few minutes
(c) Keeping the food at room temperature open to air for a day
(d) Passing oxygen through the food for few minutes

109. Orthotolidine (OT) test in water enables determination of:
(a) free chlorine only
(b) combined chlorine only
(c) both free and combined chlorine
(d) free fluorine

110. Insulin resistance syndrome is NOT associated with which one of the following?
(a) Hyperinsulinaemia
(b) Low levels of triglycerides
(c) Hypertension
(d) Increased endothelial proliferation 

111. Which one of the following statements regarding anthracosis is NOT correct?
(a) Simple pneumoconiosis may require about 12 years of work exposure for its development
(b) Progressive massive fibrosis (PMF) frequently results in premature death
(c) Risk of death among coal-miners is nearly five times that of the general population
(d) Coal-miners’s pneumoconiosis is a notifiable disease in Indian Mines Act of 1952

112. The Rockfeller Foundation has helped India in the following projects EXCEPT:
(a) Control of Hookworm disease
(b) Establishment of All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health at Kolkata
(c) Establishment of National Institute of Health Administration and Education
(d) Development of Medical College Libraries, Population Studies

113. The recommended dose of Iron-folic acid (IFA) for an 8 year old child for prevention and control of anemia as per Iron Plus Initiative is:
(a) 20 mg elemental iron and 100 µg folic acid for 100 days in a year
(b) 30 mg elemental iron and 100 µg folic acid for 100 days in a year
(c) 30 mg elemental iron and 250 µg folic acid for 100 days in a year
(d) 20 mg elemental iron and 250 µg folic acid for 100 days in a year

114. ‘Sisterhood method’ is an approach used to measure:
(a) Breast cancer burden
(b) Cervix cancer burden
(c) Maternal mortality
(d) Infant mortality

115. The daily supplementary nutrition that should be given to a pregnant/lactating mother under Integrated Child Development Services Scheme (ICDS) is:
(a) 300 cal, 13–15 gm protein
(b) 300 cal, 18–20 gm protein
(c) 600 cal, 13–15 gm protein
(d) 600 cal, 18–20 gm protein

116. The period of surveillance or quarantine for a disease should be equal to:
(a) Minimum incubation period of the disease
(b) Maximum incubation period of the disease
(c) Median incubation period of the disease
(d) Does not depend on the incubation period 

117. Which mode of intervention is health education?
(a) Health promotion
(b) Specific protection
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment
(d) Disability limitation

118. Polio epidemic is a:
(a) Common source single exposure epidemic
(b) Common source, continuous or repeated exposure
(c) Propagated epidemic
(d) Modern epidemic

119. Doll and Hill study on smoking and lung cancer is a:
(a) Case Control study
(b) Prospective Cohort study
(c) Retrospective Cohort study
(d) A combination of Retrospective Cohort study and Prospective Cohort study

120. Which one of the following diseases with fever and rash has an incubation period of 10-21 days?
(a) Measles
(b) Chicken pox
(c) German measles
(d) Dengue 

 

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Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

(Notification) WBPSC: CIVIL SERVICE (EXECUTIVE) ETC. EXAMINATION, 2020 (ADVT. NO. 22/2019)



(Notification) WBPSC: CIVIL SERVICE (EXECUTIVE) ETC. EXAMINATION, 2020 (ADVT. NO. 22/2019)



VACANCIES : 

The number of vacancies in different services and posts to be filled up on the results of the examination will be announced in due time. Posts of some groups may not be filled up on the basis of the results of the examination if vacancies for the same are not reported within the stipulated time for filling up such vacancies.

Qualifications :

  • (i) A degree of a recognized University.
  • (ii) Ability to read, write and speak in Bengali (not required for those candidates whose mother tongue is Nepali) – vide Finance Department’s Notification No.1243-F(P) dated 02.03.2016.

N.B. : The candidates must fulfill the requisite qualifications by the closing date ofsubmission of application.

(Cut-Off) Indian Forest Service Examination, 2017



(Cut-Off) Indian Forest Service Examination, 2017



Minimum Qualifying Standards/Marks approved for qualifying the candidates for Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination, 2017 on the basis of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2017: 

Minimum Qualifying Standard

Community/Category

Minimum Qualifying Standards

General

121.34

OBC

119.34

SC

106.00

ST

105.34

PH-2

77.34

PH-3

43.34

*Cut off marks  on  the basis  of  GS Paper-I  only.  However,  GS Paper-II  was  qualifying with 33% (Rule-13  of Indian Forest Service  Examination, 2017).

Click Here for Official Cut-Off Pre Exam

I. Minimum qualifying standards/marks approved at the Written Part of the Indian Forest Service Examination-2017:- 

S.No.

Category

Marks Out of 1400 #

1.

General

652

2.

OBC

606

3.

SC

555

4.

ST

530

5.

PH-2

551

6.

PH-3

386

# Subject to a minimum 5% marks in each paper.

II. Marks secured by the last finally recommended candidate of Indian Forest Service Examination-2017:- 

S.No.

Category

Marks Out of 1700

1.

General

889

2.

OBC

836

3.

SC

800

4.

ST

807

5.

PH-2

861

6.

PH-3

680

Click Here for Official Cut-Off Main Exam

Courtesy: IFoS

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