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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Labour Enforcement Officers (Central) (GAT)

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Labour Enforcement Officers (Central)

(GAT)



1. Consider the following Commissions / Committees:
1. First National Commission on Labour
2. Labour Investigation Committee
3. Royal Commission on Labour
4. National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of the above, in ascending order, in terms of their submission of reports?
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 3-4-2-1

2. Family planning became an integral part of labour welfare as per the International Labour Organization Resolution passed in the year:
(a) 1917
(b) 1927
(c) 1937
(d) 1947

3. Which of the following is / are  NOT correct approach with respect to welfare services undertaken by organizations in the commercial and public organizations?
1. As welfare is provided by the State to all , hence duplication by other organizations is undesirable
2. Welfare services may be provided for matters concerning employees which may not be immediately connected with their jobs, though connected with their place of work
3. Welfare services will include special services for retired employees
4. Child care facilities may be provided on a collective basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

4. Which one among the following is the earliest labour law in India?
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act
(b) Trade Unions Act
(c) Employee’s Compensation Act
(d) Factories Act

5. Which one of the following theories of labour welfare is also called efficiency theory?
(a) Functional theory
(b) Public relations theory
(c) Religious theory
(d) Philanthropic theory

6. Which of the following statements with  respect to housing is / are NOT correct?
1. It is a basic requirement for living life with dignity
2. According to the Revised Integrated Housing Scheme 2016 for workers, central assistance for a new house may be released in twelve equal installments
3. House Listing and Housing Census data of 2011 is provided by the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

7. Which of the following benefits can be combined under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Sickness benefit and maternity benefit
(b) Sickness benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(c) Maternity benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(d) Maternity benefit and medical benefit

8. Which one of the following is   the total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee having two or more than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
(a) Twenty six weeks
(b) Fourteen weeks
(c) Twelve weeks
(d) Sixteen weeks

9. What is the share of women representatives in the Advisory Committee to be constituted under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) One half of the total members
(b) One third of the total members
(c) One fourth of the total members
(d) Three fourth of the total members

10. The International Labour Organization’s Convention No 102 on ‘Minimum Standards of Social Security’ was adopted in the year:
(a) 1948
(b) 1953
(c) 1952
(d) 1950

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Assistant Engineer Grade-I (Mining, Mechanical & Drilling Engineering)

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Assistant Engineer Grade-I

(Mining, Mechanical & Drilling Engineering)



 1. Throttling curve in a centrifugal pump running at constant speed represents the relationship between:
(a) Power and flow rate
(b) Efficiency and flow rate
(c) Head and flow rate
(d) Efficiency and net suction positive head 

2. Consider the following statements regarding the stability of bodies in a fluid medium:
1. The stability of a submerged body requires that the centre of gravity lies below the centre of buoyancy
2. To improve the stability of a floating body by increasing the bottom width and reducing the draft
3. For stability of a floating body, the metacentre should be above the centre of buoyancy but below the centre of gravity
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only 

3. How does the angle of attack effect lift and drag?
(a) Increasing the angle of attack can decrease the lift, but it also increases drag so that less thrust required
(b) Increasing the angle of attack can increase the lift, but it also increases drag so that less thrust required
(c) Increasing the angle of attack can increase the lift, but it also increases drag so that more thrust required
(d) Increasing the angle of attack can decrease the lift, but it also increases drag so that more thrust required

4. A stone weighs 392.4 n in air and 196.2 n when fully submerged in water. The volume of the stone is:
(a) 1 × 104 cm3
(b) 2 × 104 cm3
(c) 3 × 104 cm3
(d) 4 × 104 cm3

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Medical Officer (Homoeopathy)

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Medical Officer

(Homoeopathy)



1. Pernicious anaemia is:
(a) Microcytic normochromic
(b) Microcytic hypochromic
(c) Macrocytic normochromic
(d) Macrocytic hypochromic

2. Blackwater fever is a complication of infection w ith:
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plamodium malaraia
(d) All of these

3. Which one of the following is correct in respect of Raynaud’s disease?
(a) Women are affected five times more often than men
(b) Fingers are involved more frequently than toes
(c) Most patients experience only mild or infrequent episodes
(d) Results of physical examination are often entirely normal

4. The clinical variety of psoriasis which is most common in children and young adults is:
(a) Palmoplentar psoriasis
(b) Plaque-type psoriasis
(c) Guttate psoriasis
(d) Pustular psoriasis

5. Aschoff’s  nodules are seen in:
(a) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
(b) Libman sacks endocarditis
(c) Rheumatic carditis
(d) Non-bacterial endocarditis

6. All are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis EXCEPT:
(a) Malignancy
(b) Pregnancy and postpartum
(c) Age less than 60 years
(d) High dose oestrogen oral contraceptive pill

7. A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmentation and hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:
(a) Haemochromatosis
(b) Tumor lung
(c) Wilson’s disease
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis

8. Hypoglycaemia is a recognised feature of all EXCEPT:
(a) Uremia
(b) Acromegaly
(c) Addisons disease
(d) Hepatocellular failure

9. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of multiple myeloma?
(a) Hypercalcemia
(b) Hyperviscosity
(c) Anaemia
(d) Elevated alkaline phosphatase

10. Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies EXCEPT:
(a) Hodgkin’s disease
(b) Non Hodgkins lymphoma
(c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(d) Multiple myeloma

11. The diagnostic test with best sensitivity and specificity to diagnose chronic pancreatitis is:
(a) Abdominal CT scan
(b) Abdominal radiograph
(c) Abdominal ultrasound
(d) Secretion test

12. Radiographic ‘string sign’ is a feature of:
(a) Diverticular disease
(b) Ulcerative colitis
(c) Crohn’s disease
(d) Acute Intestinal obstruction

13. A booming ‘pistol-shot’ sound heard over the formal arteries is found in:
(a) Mitral stenosis
(b) Mitral regurgitation
(c) Aortic regurgitation
(d) Aortic stenosis

14. Detection of which autoantibody is considered as the best screening test for SLE?
(a) Anti-dsDNA
(b) Anti-Ro
(c) Antinuclear antibody
(d) Anti-RNP

15. All are radiographic features of Osteoarthritis EXCEPT:
(a) Narrowed joint space
(b) Osteophytes
(c) Subchondral bone sclerosis
(d) Subchondral bone osteopenia

16. The hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
(a) Microaneurysms
(b) Haemorrhage
(c) Cotton-wool spots
(d) Neovascularisation

17. In cholinergic urticaria the pruritic wheals develop after exposure to:
(a) Hot bath
(b) Cold bath
(c) Pressure
(d) Wheat protein

18. The ‘tram tracks’ sign on X ray is found in patients of:
(a) Bronchial asthma
(b) Bronchiectasis
(c) Chronic bronchitis
(d) Silicosis

19. Neurologic symptoms produced by an elevation of the body’s core temperature are featuresof:
(a) Systemic sclerosis
(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c) Systematic lupus erythematosus
(d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

20. Pel-Ebstein fever is seen in:
(a) Burkitt’s lymphoma
(b) Mantle cell lymphoma
(c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(d) Follicular lymphoma

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21. The modified Child-Pugh classification is used for staging patients of:
(a) Pancreatic disorders
(b) Liver disorders
(c) Stomach disorders
(d) Intestinal disorders

22. The antimitochondrial antibodies are found in majority of patients of:
(a) Alchoholic cirrhosis
(b) Primary biliary cirrhosis
(c) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
(d) Cardiac cirrhosis

23. ‘Monday chest tightness’ is a characteristic feature of:
(a) Silicosis
(b) Asbestosis
(c) Byssinosis
(d) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

24. The joint which is NOT commonly involved in patients of Rheumatoid Arthritis is:
(a) Metacarpophalangeal joint
(b) Proximal interphalangeal joint
(c) Wrist joint
(d) Distal interphalangeal joint

25. All of the following structures contribute to joint pain in osteoarthritis EXCEPT:
(a) Subchondral bone
(b) Joint capsule
(c) Joint cartilage
(d) Muscles

26. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in respect of Meningococcal infection?
(a) Asymptomatic carrier state does not exist
(b) A petechial rash develops in more than 80% of the patients
(c) Absence of meningism in a case of meningococcal septicaemia is associated with poor outcome
(d) Most deaths from meningococcal meningitis alone are associated with raised intracranial pressure

27. Ischaemic cerebral stroke is produced by all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Polycythemia
(b) Severe dehydration of acute onset
(c) Dissecting aortic Aneurysm
(d) Deep Vein Thrombosis

28. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in respect of cardiac murmur?
(a) The systolic murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy decreases in intensity during valsalva maneuver
(b) The murmur of mitral regurgitation is best heard over the cardiac apex
(c) The murmur of mitral stenosis is low-pitched with presystolic accentuation
(d) Austin Flint murmur in severe Aortic Regurgitation is low-pitched diastolic murmur

29. Gottron’s sign is found in patients of:
(a) Psoriasis
(b) Lichen planus
(c) Dermatomyositis
(d) Discoid lupus erythematosus

30. The Modified Epley maneuver is used for treatment of:
(a) Vestibular migraine
(b) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
(c) Vestibular schwannoma
(d) Psychosomatic vertigo

31. The medicine that does NOT belong to Compositae family is:
(a) Calendula
(b) Cina
(c) Aloes
(d) Arnica

32. “Urticaria all over the body without fever”, is one of the red line symptoms of:
(a) Merc.sol.
(b) Sulphur
(c) Apis mel.
(d) Dulcamara

33. “Backache relieved by lying on back”, is the characteristic symptom of:
(a) Lycopodium
(b) Ruta graveolens
(c) Aesculus hip.
(d) None of these

34. “Rheumatism alternates with gastric symptoms one appearing in the fall and another in the spring” , is one of the characteristic symptoms of:
(a) Kali bich
(b) Lycopodium
(c) Nux vom.
(d) Ignatia

35. “Hoarse; voice deep, harsh; sounds like a trumpet; ‘ basso profundo’ ” , is present under:
(a) Causticum
(b) Argentum nitricum
(c) Ignatia
(d) Verbascum

36. Which drug is known as Dog’s mercury?
(a) Mephitis
(b) Mercurialis perennis
(c) Menyanthes
(d) Melilotus

37. “Neuralgia of testicles with nausea aggravation at night”, is a symptom of:
(a) Hamamelis
(b) Ferrum metallicum
(c) Clematis
(d) Arsenic album

38.‘Forget me not’ is common name of which one of following drugs?
(a) Myosotis
(b) Myrica
(c) Mygale Lasiodora
(d) Myristica Sebifera

39. “Swelling in bend of knee”, is a symptom of which drug?
(a) Magnesium carb.
(b) Magnesium phos.
(c) Colocynth
(d) Ruta

40. “Throbbing headache in the forehead, just above the root of the nose”, is a symptom of:
(a) Arsenic alb.
(b) Aconite nap.
(c) Arnica mom.
(d) Belladonna

41. “Nose stuffs up when there is a cold rain”, is a symptom of:
(a) Sarasaparilla
(b) Dulcamara
(c) Lycopodium
(d) Silicea

42. “Sensation of something alive in abdomen and stomach”, is a symptom of:
(a) Chamomilla
(b) Crocus sativus
(c) Arsenic.alb.
(d) Thuja oc.

43. “Antidotes ill-effects of eating shellfish”, is a symptom of:
(a) Urtica urens
(b) Apis mel.
(c) Cantharis
(d) Causticum

44. “After lying down in the evening, he lies awake till late at night and cannot go to sleep” , is a syptom of :
(a) Nat.mur.
(b) Rhus tox
(c) Spigelia
(d) Hamamelis

45. Complementary relationship is found in:
(a) Aconitum napellus-Sulphur
(b) Mercurius solubilis-Silicea
(c) Causticum-Phosphorus
(d) Nux vomica-Camphora

46. “Loss of smell and taste”, is a symptom of:
(a) Hyoscyamus
(b) Aurum metallicum
(c) Kali bichromicum
(d) Hepar sulphur

47. “Involuntary evacuation of faeces in sleep”, is a symptom of:
(a) Aconite nap.
(b) Bellis per.
(c) Arnica mont.
(d) Hypericum

48. “The borders of the eyelids are painful on moving as if they were dry, and rubbed upon the eyeballs”, is a symptom of:
(a) Aconite
(b) Arsenic alb.
(c) Bellis p.
(d) Murex

49. “Vertigo on quickly turning the head to left side specially”, is one of the characteristic symptoms of:
(a) Pulsatilla
(b) Silicea
(c) Colocynthis
(d) Thuja

50. “Stools are knotty like sheep’s dung, crumbling at the verge of anus”, is a symptom of:
(a) Magnesia phos.
(b) Calcarea phos.
(c) Opium
(d) Magnesia muriatica

51. Consider the following statements:
1. Phosphorus has craving for salty dishes
2. Causticum has the symptom of paralysis of single part
3. Alumina has alternate diarrhoea and constipation
4. Ruta has the symptom of bad effects of injury to periosteum
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

52. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: Medorrhinum is gonorrhoeal preparation
Statement-2: We should begin treatment of gonorrhoea with medorrhinum
Which one of the following is correct in respect of above statements?
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
(d) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true

53. “Skin itching when undressing, uncovering or exposure to cold air”, is a symptom of:
(a) Ruta graveolens
(b) Rheum
(c) Tellurium
(d) Rumex crispus

54. Which of the following features confirm a Belladonna patient?
1. Sudden and violent onset
2. Violent and furious mania
3. Delirium, nonsense, with eyes open
4. Cobweb, sensation of face
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 4 only

55. Consider the following symptoms:
1. Shining, glazed appearance of diphtheritic deposits chancres and ulcers
2. Sensation as of a large ball rising from stomach to throat
3. Very forgetful, absent-minded, makes purchases and walks away without them
4. Violent palpitations while lying on left side but feels better while lying on right side
Which of the above symptoms is/are found in Lac.can. ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 only

56. Tuberculinum has the following characteristics features:
1. Early morning diarrhoea
2. Tubercular deposit begins in the apex of lungs, especially the left
3. Crops of boils containing green foetid pus; appear successively on nose
4. Changeable symptoms
Which of the above symptoms are also found in sulphur?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

57. Consider the following symptoms:
1. Can pass stool better in standing position
2. Symptoms aggravated in damp cold weather
3. Undue sympathy for the sufferings of others
4. Cough with roughness of throat which is ameliorated by drinking hot water
Which of the above features is/are found in Causticum?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

58. Consider the following symptoms:
1. Extreme thirst in dropsy, diabetes and chronic diarrhoea but no thirst in fever
2. Nausea more or less constant with nearly all the sufferings
3. Haemorrhage from every mucus outlet
4. Debility out of proportion to the degree of sufferings
Which of the above features are found in Acetic Acid?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

59. Nessler’s reagent is added to check the impurity of which substance in water?
(a) Sulphate
(b) Ammonia
(c) Calcium
(d) Chloride

60. Consider the following in respect of LM potencies:
1. Aggravation is minimum or absent
2. Can be repeated more frequently
3. Effects of the medicine are ascertained earlier
4. The easiest method of preparation
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only

61.Which actions of the medicines are commonly recorded during drug proving?
(a) Secondary actions
(b) Counter actions
(c) Curative actions
(d) Primary actions

62. Consider the following factors:
1. Chilly patient
2. Worse in morning
3. Relief during menstruation
4. Relief during rapid motion
Which of the above factors is/are true with regard to PSORA?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following:
1. The Doctrine of analogy
2. The concept of grand generalisation
3. Concomitant symptoms
Which of the above concepts were advocated by Von Boenninghausen?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

64. Consider the following:
1. Gentle
2. Effective
3. Rapid
4. Permanent
Which of the above qualities are true for highest ideal of cure, included in aphorism-2 of Organon of Medicine?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

65. When the dose of the first medicine ceases to have a beneficial effect, a new examination must be instituted to know the:
(a) Auxiliary symptoms
(b) Local disease
(c) Accessory symptoms
(d) Status Morbi

66. ‘All the things that are predicated of any given organ are things in particular. If you examine any part alone, you are only examining the particulars.’ The statement was given by:
(a) Hahnemann
(b) J T Kent
(c) Boger
(d) T L Bradford

67. The quality of ‘being pre-eminently trustworthy and conscientious’ of the Homeopathic drugprover is explained in which edition of Organon of Medicine?
(a) Second Edition
(b) Third Edition
(c) Fifth Edition
(d) Sixth Edition

68. According to aphorism 143 of Organon of Medicine, a true materia medica is a collection of:
(a) Drugs proven by ideal provers only
(b) Drugs derived from plant kingdom only
(c) Real, pure, reliable modes of action of simple medicinal substances
(d) Action of alkaloid in medicinal substances on vital organs only

69. According to Homoeopathy, the process by which the medicinal properties, that are latent in natural substances in their crude state, become aroused and enabled to act in almost spiritual manner on life, is known as:
(a) Dynamization
(b) Dilution
(c) Ultradilution
(d) Succussion

70. The importance of ‘Massage’ has been mentioned in the Organon of Medicine, Sixth Editionin aphorism number:
(a) 290
(b) 284
(c) 286
(d) 291

71.‘Collection of symptoms by drug proving’ and ‘Matching proving symptoms with patient’s symptoms’ are examples of:
(a) Inductive logic
(b) Deductive logic
(c) Deductive logic and Inductive logic respectively
(d) Inductive logic and deductive logic respectively

72. The ‘homoeopathic aggravation’ as defined by Dr Hahnemann, was renamed andreinterpreted by many medical scientists and given variable names. The name assigned by Dr J H Allen to Dr Hahnemann’s homoeopathic aggravation is:
(a) Rebound phenomenon
(b) Belated aggravation
(c) Retrograde metamorphosis
(d) Rebound aggravation

73. In the preface to the fifth edition of Organon, Dr Samuel Hahnemann mentions‘Homoeopathy avoids everything in the slightest degree enfeebling’, which refers to:
(a) External means of treatment
(b) Idiosyncracy
(c) Homeopathic aggravation
(d) Genus epidemicus

74. ‘The cure of an old psora that has been deprived of eruptions whether it may be latent andquiescent or already broken out into chronic diseases can never be accomplished with sulphuralone’. This was written by Dr Hahnemann in:
(a) Organon of Medicine
(b) Materia Medica Pura
(c) The Chronic Diseases
(d) Lesser Writing

75. In emotional diseases which are of recent origin and have not made very great inroads on thecorporeal state, Dr Hahnemann advises that the following measures should be taken initiallyfor relief:
(a) Psoric treatment
(b) Appropriate diet and regimen
(c) Wait and watch
(d) Psychical remedies-friendly exhortations, sensible advice etc

76. According to Dr Hahnemann, substances belonging to the animal and vegetable kingdom possess their medicinal properties most perfectly:
(a) By boiling, slewing, toasting
(b) By fermentation
(c) In their raw state
(d) By pickling

77. The desire of the patient affected by an acute disease with regard to food and drink is generally considered to be:
(a) Nutritious relief
(b) Palliative relief
(c) Curative
(d) Medicinal relief

78.“The apparent symptoms caused by the excess of the homoeopathic medicine, will soon disappear and leave undisturbed health in its wake”. These are:
(a) Auxiliary symptoms
(b) Schein symptoms
(c) Accessory symptoms
(d) Altered symptoms

79. The power of magnet for healing purposes; with their positive effects in the Materia Medica Pura; have been described by Dr Hahnemann in the Sixth Edition of Organon in Aphorism number:
(a) 287
(b) 288
(c) 290
(d) 291

80. According to Dr Kent, there can be 6-types of second prescriptions. Which one out of the following is NOT a second prescription?
(a) Change of plan of treatment 
(b) Cognate to first prescription
(c) Antidote of first prescription
(d) Acute remedy of first prescription

81. Who criticised Boenninghausen that he has made too broad application of principle of concomitants?
(a) Boger
(b) Lippe
(c) Jahr
(d) Hering

82. According to Dr J T Kent, after the first prescription “ A prolong aggravation and finaldecline of the patient” indicates:
1. The first prescription was wrong
2. The anti-psoric was too deep, which has established destruction
3. Vital reaction was impossible and the case is incurable 
Which of the above factors is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

83. What does the word ‘quando’ mean in reportorial language?
(a) Time
(b) Seat of Disease
(c) Cause
(d) Personality

84. In which Section of Kent’s Repertory is the rubric “ Involuntary Urination and Stool” found?
(a) Bladder
(b) Urethra
(c) Stools
(d  Rectum

85. Remedy for “Aversion to Onion” in Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Veratrum album
(b) Sabadilla
(c) Thuja occidentalis
(d) Sulphur

86. The indicative medicine against the rubric ‘Squanders money’ in Mind Chapter of Dr Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Nux vomica
(b) Lycopodium
(c) Veratrum album
(d) Nat mur.
 
87. Who contributed the components of a complete symptom-Location, Sensation, Modality and concomitant?
(a) C M F Von Boenninghausen
(b) Richard Hughes
(c) Carol Dunham
(d) Adolph Von Lippe

88. ‘Stammering’ is found in which chapter of Kent’s Repertory?
(a) Larynx and Trachea
(b) Mouth
(c) Mind
(d) Thorax

89. ‘Talking, Sleep in’ is found under which chapter in Kent’s Repertory?
(a) Mouth
(b) Generalities
(c) Throat
(d) Mind

90. The remedy for sweat on Sternum in Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Silicea
(b) Calc.carb.
(c) Sulphur
(d) Graphites

91. Medicine for ‘Aura begins from heart’in Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Bufo rana
(b) Calcarea ars.
(c) Digitalis
(d) Crataegus oxy.

92. Anaemia is found under which chapter in Kent’s Repertory?
(a) Chest
(b) Generalities
(c) Mouth
(d) Extremities

93. The medicine found under the rubric ‘Benevolence’ in Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Aconite nap.
(b) Belladonna
(c) Coffea cruda
(d) None of these

94. The remedy for ‘Lump, sensation in rectum not ameliorated by stool’ in Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Nux vomica
(b) Aesculus hip.
(c) Sepia
(d) Alumina

95. ‘Sweat, axilla’ is given in which chapter of Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics & Repertory?  
(
a) Chest
(b) Sweat
(c) Axilla
(d) Sensation and complaints

96. The indicated remedy on ‘Fissures in Larynx’ in Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Acid nit.
(b) Silicea
(c) Bufo rana
(d) Thuja

97. In construction of Boenninghausen Therapeutic Pocket Book, which of the following books were incorporated?
1. Repertory of Antipsoric Medicines
2. Repertory of the Medicines which are not antipsoric
3. Attempt of showing the relative kinship of Homoeopathic Medicines
4. Repertory of comparative Materia Medica
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

98. ‘Reflexes, diminished’ is mentioned in the   Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics & Repertory in the Chapter:
(a) Aggravation and Amelioration in General
(b) Concordances
(c) Sensation and Complaints in General
(d) Sensorium

99. The indicated remedy against ‘White mucus in Stool like little pieces of popped corn’ in Kent’s Repertory is:
(a) Cina
(b) Colchicum
(c) Borax
(d) Kali chl.

100. The foundation of Boenninghausen Therapeutic Pocket Book is the:
(a) Doctrine of Concomitance
(b) Doctrine of Relationship of Remedies
(c) Doctrine of Clinical symptoms
(d) Doctrine of Key note symptoms

101. Percolation is used for the extraction of which type of drug s​​​​​​​  ubstances?
(a) Dried vegetables only
(b) Animal drug substances only
(c) Exotic plants
(d) Dried vegetables as well as animal drug substances

102. Nux vomica is prepared from seeds. It       belongs to family:
(a) Loganiaceae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Ranunculaceae
(d) Papavelarea

103. Aegle folia belongs to plant source, the description and details for this drug includes:
1. Synonym bael
2. Family Compositaceae
3. It is distributed in India
4. Part used for its preparation is whole plant
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only

104. Which medicine after preparation should be stored in glycerine?
(a) Merc.sol.
(b) Petroleum
(c) Lachesis
(d) Picric acid

105. What is the common name for the drug Lycopodium clavatum?
(a) Foxglove
(b) Club moss
(c) Broom
(d) Daffodil

106. Which one of the following vehicles (dry) is NOT used for potentisation?
(a) Sugar of milk
(b) Cane sugar
(c) Globules
(d) Grape sugar

107. Which one of the following is NOT correct with regard to preservation of potentised medicines?
(a) Bottles should be filled entirely full
(b) They should be preserved in a dry cool place
(c) Coloured bottles should be avoided
(d) If the liquid or solid potentised medicines change their normal colours, they should be rejected immediately

108. Which one of the following is an example    of Exanthem Nosode?
(a) Psorinum
(b) Anthracinum
(c) Tuberculinum
(d) Carcinosinum

109. In reference to habit and environment, higher potencies are best suited to:
(a) Those who sleep little
(b) Those persons engaged in highly intellectual and mental work
(c) Those whose food is coarse
(d) Idiots, imbeciles and the deaf and dumb

110. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding minimum dose?
(a) It is not beneficial to the patient
(b) It is curative in action
(c) It is not toxic in nature
(d) Its action has been proved

111. In case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis the metabolic disturbance is:
(a) Respiratory alkalosis
(b) Metabolic acidosis
(c) Metabolic acidosis with alkaline urine
(d) Metabolic acidosis with paradoxical aciduria

112.  A two year boy presents with poor urinary stream. The most likely cause is:
(a) Stricture urethra
(b) Neurogenic bladder
(c) Posterior urethral valve
(d) Ureteral calculus

113. Bitemporal Hemianopia is seen in:
(a) Occipital lobe tumor
(b) Frontal lobe tumor
(c) Parital lobe tumor
(d) Pituitary tumor
 
114. All of the following are features of    Subdural haemorrrhage EXCEPT:
(a) Relatively severe trauma
(b) Lucid internal
(c) Diffuse concave lesion on CT
(d) 50 percent mortality

115. The Lachmann Test is the most sensitive test for the evaluation of:
(a) Medial collateral ligament
(b) Lateral collateral ligament
(c) Anterior cruciate ligament
(d) Posterior cruciate ligament

116. All of the following are pre-malignant lesions of oral cavity EXCEPT:
(a) Oral candidiasis
(b) Erythroplakia
(c) Leukoplakia
(d) Oral submucosal fibrosis

117. The most common cause of cyanosis from a congenital cardiac defect in newborn period is:
(a) Tetralogy of fallot
(b) Transposition of great vessels
(c) Eisenmenger’s syndrome
(d) Ventricular septal defect

118. Calorigenesis is a typical feature of:
(a) Hypothyroidism
(b) Hyperthyroidism
(c) Hypoparathyroidism
(d) None of these

119. Which of the following are the functions of spinal cord?
1. It gives origin to 31 pairs of spinal nerves
2. It gives origin to autonomic nerves
3. Reflex centre for spinal reflexes
4. Contains lower centres like micturition, defaecation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

120. Thyrotropin releasing      hormone is secreted from:
(a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Posterior pituitary
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Hypothalamus

121. Which of the following cacrossn the cell membrane?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Alcohols
(d) All of these
 
122. The phagocytic cells of the placenta are:
(a) Macrophages
(b) Microglias
(c) Hofbauer cells
(d) Kupffer cells

123. Which one of the following is NOT correct about testosterone?
(a) Increases body hair but decreases scalp hair growth
(b) Maintains spermatogenesis, prolongs life of sperms
(c) Decreases protein synthesis, increases protein break down
(d) Causes development of internal and external genitalia in foetus

124. Mode of transportation  of carbon dioxide in blood is mainly in the form of:
(a) Bicarbonates
(b) Serum globulin
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Physical solution in plasma

125. The endocrine status of ovarian failure is identified by the demonstration of:
(a) Raised serum FSH concentration
(b) Raised serum LH concentration
(c) Raised serum oestradiol levels
(d) Raised serum prolactin levels
  
126. Which one of the following examinations is required for vaginal diseases?
(a) Sigmoidoscopy
(b) Bronchoscopy
(c) Colposcopy
(d) Colonoscopy

127. In the mechanism of labor, ‘External Rotation’ is the movement of rotation of head visible externally due to:
(a) Untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation
(b) Internal rotation of the shoulders
(c) Exaggerated movement of neck
(d) Bearing down pains
 
128. Which one of the following is the smallest antero-posterior engaging diameter on the fetal skull?
(a) Suboccipito frontal
(b) Occipito frontal
(c) Mento vertical
(d) Submento-bregmatic

129. Which one of the following is NOT a criterion for diagnosis of PCOS?
(a) Acanthosis nigricans
(b) Menstrual cycle disturbance
(c) Biochemical hyperandrogenism
(d) Ultrasound detection of polycystic ovaries

130. Which one of the following is a main cause of Asherman’s syndrome?
(a) Chronic cervicitis
(b) Hystero salpingo graphy
(c) Fibroid uterus
(d) Endometrial curettage

131. The symptom ’During pregnancy, foetus moves too violently’ is given under which one of the following medicines in Allen’s Key notes?
(a) Psorinum
(b) Medorrhinum
(c) Syphilinum
(d) Ambra grisea

132. The lipid layer of tear film is secreted by which one of the following glands/cells?
(a) Tarsal gland
(b) Lacrimal gland
(c) Orbital gland
(d) Goblet cells

133. Which muscle of the soft palate is supplied by     mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve?
(a) Palatoglossus
(b) Palatopharyngeus
(c) Levator veli palatini
(d) Tensor veli palatini

134. All are the branches of deep palmar arch EXCEPT:
(a) Palmar metacarpal arteries
(b) Perforating digital arteries
(c) Recurrent branch
(d) Digital arteries

135. Which part of the stomach is supplied by the short gastric arteries?
(a) Lesser curvature
(b) Fundus
(c) Pylorus
(d) Pyloric antrum

136. Which one of the following muscles has a dual nerve supply?
(a) Adductor brevis
(b) Adductor longus
(c) Adductor magnus
(d) Adductor hallucis

137. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding nucleus pulposus?
(a) It is the central part of the disc
(b) It is hard at birth
(c) It acts as a hydraulic shock absorber
(d) With advancing age the elasticity is much reduced

138.  Peripheral heart is the name of which muscle?
(a) Involuntary muscle
(b) Intercostal muscle
(c) Soleus muscle
(d) Pectoralis major

139. Helicobacter Pylori can tolerate gastric acid due to:
(a) Breakdown of urea by urease
(b) Formation of enzymes other than urease
(c) Remain deep inside the mucous layer
(d) Remain within the muscular contraction
 
140. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC) is diagnosed by the following tests EXCEPT:
(a) Rabbit ileal loop test
(b) Infant mouse assay
(c) Sereny test
(d) ELISA test

141. A female patient developed gangrene in her fingers during winter season. She is instructed to dip her hands in cold water kept in a tumbler. In doing so, she develops cyanosis in her  hands. The probable diagnosis is: 
(a) Raynaud’s disease
(b) Buerger’s disease
(c) Frost bite
(d) Cyanotic heart disease

142. Mycobacterium leprae are found in:
(a) Skin lesions
(b) Nerve lesions
(c) Nasal smears
(d) All of these

143. Length of foetus after full term gestation is:
(a) 40 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 55 cm
(d) 50 cm

144. Putrification of the    body is due to:
(a) Cl. welchii
(b) E. coli
(c) Streptococci
(d) Air born virus

145. Functions of Indian Medical Council are all EXCEPT:
(a) Maintenance of medical register
(b) Derecognition of medical qualification
(c) Exercise of disciplinary control
(d) Recognition of foreign medical graduates

146. Administering narcotics or other medications   to relieve pain with incidental consequence of causing sufficient respiratory depression to result in patient’s death is termed as:
(a) Voluntary active euthanasia
(b) Involuntary active euthanasia
(c) Indirect euthanasia
(d) Physician assisted suicide

147. Which one of the understated areas is identified as major malaria priority area accounting for 80% of incidence?
(a) Forest malaria
(b) Tribal malaria
(c) Urban malaria
(d) Border malaria
 
148. Which one of the morbidity rates is NOT used for assessing ill health in the community?
(a) Incidence and prevalence
(b) Duration of stay in hospital
(c) Full attendance at work or school
(d) Attendance rates at out-patient departments of health centres

149. Jones criteria is taken into consideration for diagnosing:
(a) Malaria fever
(b) Rabies
(c) Rheumatic fever
(d) Dengue fever

150. The occupational hazard related to​​​​​​​ bladder cancer is:
(a) Asbestos industry
(b) Working with chromium
(c) Rubber industry
(d) Aniline dye industry  

 

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Store Officer  (GAT)

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Store Officer 

(GAT)



1. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘The story indicates the subtle _______ of the system in crushing the movements of the people ’?
(a) engagement
(b) interest
(c) involvement
(d) check

2. Which one of the following is the    correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘It is ______ simpler to do mental calculation when you have small figures’?
(a) more
(b) better
(c) too
(d) much

3. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘Travellers who visit foreign countries have to get their passports _________ by the Embassy’?
(a) endorsed
(b) signed
(c) authorized
(d) legalized

4. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘People do not have easy ________ to protected areas’?
(a) approach
(b) reach
(c) access
(d) excess

5. Which one of the following is the correct word to be used in the blank space in the sentence ‘He was so surprised that he looked at the man with _________’?
(a) confusion
(b) shock
(c) confidence
(d) perplexity

6. Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘The establishment found him a capable person in many ways’?
(a) Weak
(b) Inefficient
(c) Lazy
(d) Uninspiring

7. Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘It was after long trial that he was convicted of murder’?
(a)  Dismissed
(b) Relieved
(c) Released
(d) Acquitted

8. Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘It is not easy to preserve one’s equanimity under trying circumstances’?
(a) Perspicuity
(b) Nervousness
(c) Animosity
(d) Hostility

 9.Which one of the following is the antonym of the underlined word in the   sentence ‘Independence  has come after a long and arduous struggle’? 
(a) Eager
(b) Intense
(c) Easy
(d) Apathetic

10. Which one of the following      is the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘The speed of the growth of a plant is influenced by a number of factors, most of which we have no control over’?
(a) Deterred
(b) Persuaded
(c) Restrained
(d) Instigated

11. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘We buy vegetables from the market’?
(a) Procure
(b) Obtain
(c) Purchase
(d) Get

12. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘He saw no alternative but to harass every official he knew, and to campaign in the press’?
(a) Choice
(b) Opportunity
(c) Alternate
(d) Change

13. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘Workers who repeat the same operation day after day can take no pleasure in their work’?
(a) Do regularly
(b) Hear regularly
(c) Say regularly
(d) See regularly
   
14. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘Raju’s appearance on the scene inspired the people’?
(a) Startled
(b) Dampened
(c) Elevated
(d) Stimulated

15. Which one of the following is the synonym of the underlined word in the sentence ‘I was very apprehensive about the outcome of the meeting’?
(a) Excited
(b) Hopeful
(c) Depressed
(d) Concerned

16. Which one   of the following parts of the sentence ‘Where, after all, have they hidden the stolen property’ has an error?
(a) Where, after all,
(b) have they hidden
(c) the stolen property
(d) No error

17. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘What his father is, is of no interest to me, nor to my colleagues who, like me, have a poor opinion of him’ has an error?
(a) What his father is
(b) is of no interest to me
(c) nor to my colleagues who, like me, have a poor opinion of him
(d) No error

18. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘He got up quickly and stalked out of the room, slamming the door behind him’ has an error? 
(a) He got up quickly
(b) and stalked out of the room
(c) slamming the door behind him
(d) No error

19. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘It takes a lot of stamina to climb on a mountain’ has an error?
(a) It takes
(b) a lot of stamina
(c) to climb on a mountain
(d) No error

20. Which one of the following parts of the sentence ‘In the relatively short history of industrial developing on the United States, New York has played a vital role’ has an error?
(a) In the relatively short history
(b) of industrial developing on the United States
(c) New York has played a vital role
(d) No error

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21. The federal system of Government in India was first prescribed by: 
(a) The Government of India Act, 1909.
(b) The Government of India Act, 1919.
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935.
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947.

22. Which one of the following is the date  of commencement of the Constitution of India?
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 26th November, 1949
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) 9th December, 1946

23. Which one of the following was NOT associated with the Non Aligned Movement? 
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Josip Broz Tito
(c) General Abdel Nasser
(d) Desmond Tutu

24. Which one of the following statements regarding the SAARC is NOT true?
(a) The SAARC has seven member countries
(b) The SAARC Secretariat is located in Kathmandu
(c) The Secretary General of the SAARC is appointed by the Council of Ministers from member States in an alphabetical order
(d) The current Secretary General of SAARC is Mr. Amjad Hussain B. Sial

25. Republicans and Democrats are the names of Political Parties in:
(a) United Kingdom
(b) United States of America
(c) Australia
(d) Germany

26. Which one of the following CPSEs does NOT have the Maharatna Status?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(b) Coal India Limited
(c) National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
(d) Bharat Electronics Limited

27. The Universal Declarati on of Human Rights (UDHR) was made in the year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1948

28. Which one of the following Acts / Treaties led to the creation of the European Union?
(a) The Single European Act
(b) The Maastricht Treaty
(c) The Treaty of Amsterdam
(d) The Treaty of Nice

29.Which one of the following Commissions    was NOT set up by an Act of Parliament? 
(a) The National Commission for Women
(b) The National Commission for Minorities
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The National Human Rights Commission

30. Which of the following is NOT a central tenet of liberalism?
(a) Individual liberty or freedom is a fundamental value
(b) Individual freedoms may clash with similar freedoms of others
(c) To alleviate conflict limitations on freedoms may justifiably be made
(d) Freedom and equality are irreconcilable

31. Which one of the  following statements about appointment of judges is NOT correct?
(a) Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President as per the provisions under Article 124 of the Constitution of India
(b) In the case of the appointment of a judge other than the Chief Justice of India, the Chief Justice of India is consulted
(c) Only a person who has been a judge of the High Court for at least 5 years or an advocate of a High Court for a period of at least 10 years may be appointed a judge in the Supreme Court

32. Which of the following is/are the implication(s) of the judgment in the Lily Thomas v. Union of India and others case?
1. A convicted MP or MLA is  disqualified from contesting elections from the date of his or her conviction
2. A convicted MP or MLA cannot contest election for a further period of six years after release from prison after serving his or her sentence
3. An MP or MLA is protected from any judicial proceedings till the time he or she remains a Member of the Parliament or State Legislature
4. He or she is protected against immediate disqualification under the Representation of the People Act 1950
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Which one of the following statements about the Gandhian principle of ahimsa is NOT correct?
(a) There is an inviolable connection between truth and ahimsa
(b) It is adopted from the Buddhist tenet ‘ahimsa parama dharma’
(c) It can be achieved by the discipline of ‘mind and body’ or tapas
(d) Satyagraha may be practiced privately and does not necessarily require a public statementof intent

34. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India assures the right to equality?
1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 17
4. Article 19
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
 
35. Which one of the following is NOT a salient feature of the political system in India?
(a) Rigid Constitution
(b) Democratic Republic
(c) Secular State
(d) Asymmetrical Federalism

36. Which of the following is / are characteristic(s) of pressure groups?
1. They are organized associations which aim to influence the policies or actions of the Governments
2. They have a narrow focus and serve the cause and interests of particular groups
3. They seek political power by exercising influence from the outside
4. They are like social movements since both have formal structures of organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 only

37. Which one of the following was the official mascot of FIFA U-17 World Cup Football 2017?
(a) Kheleo
(b) Rongman
(c) Shera
(d) Olly

38. Which one of the following statements about the Global Competitiveness Index 2017-2018 Rankings is correct?
(a) United States is at the top of the index
(b) India has slipped one place from the ranking of previous year
(c) Among the BRICS economies, Russia is at the top
(d) Sri Lanka is at the top place among South-East Asian countries

39. Recently, India has entered into an agreement with which one of the following countries to undertake a joint tiger census in their national parks, forests and protected areas adjoining the two countries?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal

40. Which one among the following countries has recently decided to pull out of the United Nation’s cultural organization UNESCO accusing it of being anti-Israel?
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) USA
(d) China

41.Exercise INDRA-2017, is the first ever Tri Services Joint Exercise between Indian Armed Forces and Armed Forces of:
(a) Japan
(b) Israel
(c) USA
(d) Russia

42. Which one of the following statements about Asia Cup Hockey Tournament-2017 (Men) is NOT correct?
(a) India defeated Malaysia in the final
(b) India clinched their third consecutive Asia Cup hockey title
(c) Pakistan won the bronze medal after defeating Korea
(d) The tournament was held in Dhaka

43. Which of the following statements about Girija Devi, who died in October, 2017 is / are correct?
1. She was considered as the queen of Thumri
2. She was a legendary singer of the Delhi Gharana
3. She was awarded the Padam Shri, the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

44. Why was Etikoppaka village of Andhra Pradesh in news recently?
(a) Obtained GI tag for its traditional toys made by the artisans in the village
(b) Declared India’s first open defecation free village
(c) India’s first village to have 100 per cent literacy rate
(d) India’s first village to have access to solar energy in all its households

45. What is ‘SAAW’, which was recently tested successfully by DRDO?
(a) Anti aircraft missile
(b) Guided bomb
(c) Battle tank
(d) Submarine

46. Who among the following was chosen for the 53rd Jnanpith Award?
(a) Suranjan Das
(b) Shamim Hanif
(c) Krishna Sobti
(d) Shankha Ghosh

47. ‘Vigilant Ace’, an air exercise, was conducted in December 2017 between:
(a) USA and South Korea
(b) North Korea and Russia
(c) India and Japan
(d) South Korea and Japan

48. Mirabai Chanu is famous for which one of the following sports?
(a) Table Tennis
(b) Archery
(c) Weightlifting
(d) Boxing


49. Who among the following is appointed as the Chairman of the Fifteenth Finance Commission?
(a) Dr. Anoop Singh
(b) Shri Shakti kanta Das
(c) Shri N K Singh
(d) Dr. Ramesh Chand

50. Which one of the following is NOT a salient feature of the National Nutrition Mission proposed to be set up in India?
(a) ICT based Real Time Monitoring System
(b) Incentivizing States / UTs for meeting the targets
(c) Social Audit
(d) Introduction of registers for Anganwadi Workers

51. Which one of the following is the exponent of 10 which divides the number 511 × 1010 × 353 × 483 × 564 × 757 ?
(a) 10
(b) 24
(c) 34
(d) 38

52.  Inan examination, 53% passed in History, 61% passed in Geography, 60% passed in Sociology,21% passed in both History and Geography, 35% passed in both History and Sociology, 30% passed in both  Geography and Sociology and 5% in none of the subjects. The ratio of percentage of candidates passed in History and Geography but not in Sociology relative to the percentage of candidates passed in History and Sociology but not in Geography is: 
(a) 7 : 5
(b) 5 : 7
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 2

53. Which of the following holds true if a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive odd numbers inascending order?
1. Their average is (a + 4)
2. Their average is (b – 2)
3. Their average is (e – 4)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Consider the following figure:  

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Three girls, A, B and C are standing at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown in thefigure above. Which one of the following statements will hold true if A, B and C move along thesides in clockwise direction and stop after covering 1 2 1 sides of the triangle by each of them?
(a) B will be N 300 E of C
(b) A will be S 600 E of C
(c) A will be S 300 E of C
(d) None of these 


55. Consider the following figures:

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Which one of the following is the missing number?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

56. Find the odd one out in the     following terms related to Indian railways:
(a) WL
(b) CNF
(c) RAC
(d) PNR

57. Find the odd one out in the following terms related to places in India:
(a) Delhi
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan

58. On expanding the product (x1 + y1) (x2 + y2) … (x10 + y10) which have 10 factors, the number of terms which will have two x’s and eight y’s is:
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) 45

59. Given that 1st December 2019 is Sunday. Then 1st December 2023 is a:
(a) Wednesday
(b) Thursday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday

60. To indicate travelling 1km towards North, South, East and West, we write N, S, E and W respectively. Then WSENSESSSESEN results travelling:
(a) 7 km to a point lying between South and East direction.
(b) 7 km to a point lying between North and East direction.
(c) 5 km to a point lying between North and East direction.
(d) 5 km to a point lying between South and East direction.

61. Three distinct single digit positive integers x, y, z are picked. If x < y < z and their product xyz is 48, then number of possible such triplets is:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

62. What will be the maximum value of Q in the equation 5P9+3R7+2Q8=1114 ?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 8

63. Consider the following Table showing distribution of scores of boys and girls in a small class: 

UPSC

Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Class average is less than the average among the girls
(b) Class average is less than the average among the boys
(c) A boy secured the highest score
(d) A girl secured the least score

64. Consider the following:
P+Q indicates that P and Q are married to each other
P–Q indicates that P and Q are children of the same parents
P×Q indicates that Q is a child of P
If M+S, S×T, L×M and T–N, then which one of the following holds?

(a) L is a parent of S
(b) L is a parent of N
(c) L is a grandparent of N
(d) T is a grandchild of S

65. A word is coded by replacing the j-th letter of the word by the letter obtained by advancing j places in the alphabet. Assume that Z is followed by A. Then the codes for ZORRO and BAAZY are respectively  given by: 
(a) AQUVT and CCCDD
(b) APUVT and CCCDC
(c) APQVT and CDDDC
(d) AQUVT and CCDDD

66. Seven years back the age of X was five times her daughter and the next year, the age of X will be  three times her daughter. What is present age of the daughter?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 40

67. A job can be completed by 50 persons in 100 days.    For 80 days, 60 persons worked. In how many days can 20 persons compete the remaining part of the job?
(a) 1 day
(b) 10 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 50 days

68. If 1 Dollar is 55 Rupees, 1 Euro is 500 Yens and 1 Euro is 1.5 Dollar, then approximately how many of Yens is one Rupee?
(a) 5.1
(b) 5.5
(c) 5.05
(d) 6.06

69. An amount is distributed in three parts in the proportion of  4 : 9 : 7. If the largest part turns out to be Rs. 25,200, which one of the following will be the smallest part?
(a) Rs. 19,500
(b) Rs. 11,200
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) Rs. 7,000


70. If the two dice each with six faces marked 1 to 6 are thro wn, what is the probability that the sum of the two outcomes is 6?
(a) 1/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 5/36
(d) 7/36

71. The Annual Accounts of the Government of India showing under the respective Heads the annual receipts and disbursements and statement of balances for the purpose of the Union, called Finance Accounts, shall be prepared and signed by: 
(a) the Controller General of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance.
(b) the Chief Controller of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance.
(c) the Chief Controller of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs), Ministry of Finance.
(d) the Controller of Accounts and countersigned by the Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance.

72. For capital outlay, other than capital outlay met   out of specific loans raised by the Government, who among the following determines the rate of interest to be levied? 
(a) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(d) Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

73. Mr. X, a Government Servant was asked to issue a sanction to a necessary expenditure before funds for that activity for the Financial Year 2017-18 were communicated. What should he do?
(a) He should refuse to issue the sanction stating that sanctions can be issued only after fundscan be communicated
(b) He should issue a sanction specifying that expenditure is subject to funds being communicated in the budget of the year
(c) He should wait till the funds for the Financial Year 2017-18 are communicated
(d) He should prepare the sanction, get it approved by the competent authority and issue it only after the funds are communicated in the budget of the year

74. The financial powers of the Government which have NOT been delegated to a subordinate authority vests with:
(a) Administrative Ministry.
(b) Ministry of Finance.
(c) Cabinet Secretariat.
(d) Parliament.

75. As per General Financial Rul es, 2017 which of the following statements regarding a Service Book is / are correct?
1. The service book should be maintained in duplicate
2. If a Government Servant wants a copy of the service book, Rs. 500 should be paid initially by him
3. A copy of the Service Book should be given to a new appointee within six months of the date of appointment
4. All Service Books should be digitized
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

76. Which of the following   has NOT been mentioned under the Standards of Financial Propriety in General Financial Rules, 2017?
(a) Every officer is expected to exercise the same vigilance in respect of expenditure incurred from public moneys as a person of ordinary prudence would exercise in respect of expenditure of his own money
(b) The expenditure should not be prima facie more than the occasion demands
(c) No authority should exercise its powers of sanctioned expenditure to pass an order which will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage
(d) While discharging the duties of financial concurrence of any public expenditure, such authorities subsequent to such decision, shall not be involved in any future financial/audit/payment responsibilities which may create conflict of interest

77. Which one of the following is the format in which the utilization certificate in respect of nonrecurring Grants to an Institution or Organization is to be submitted?
(a) Form GFR 12-A
(b) Form GFR 12-C
(c) Form GFR 13
(d) Form GFR 14

78. Release    of Grants-in-aid in excess of what percentage of the total amount sanctioned for the subsequent financial year shall be done only after the utilization certificate and the annual audited statement relating to Grants-in-aid released in the          preceding year are submitted to the satisfaction of the Ministry/Department concerned? 
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%

79. In which one of the following instances, Utilization Certificates need NOT be furnished in so far as Grants-in-aid are concerned?
(a) Non-recurring grants to an Institution or Organization
(b) Central Grants given to State Governments for implementation of Central Scheme
(c) Central Grants given to State Governments for expenditure to be incurred by them through local bodies or private institutions
(d) Grants-in-aid being made as reimbursement of expenditure already incurred on the basis of duly audited accounts

80. Who among the following submits a copy of Annual Assessment Report on status of all outstanding loans of a Ministry, including timely and accurate payment of principal and interest due, to the Ministry of Finance and by what date? 
(a) Financial Advisor of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of June
(b) Financial Advisor of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of September
(c) Controller of Accounts of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of June
(d) Controller of Accounts of the Administrative Ministry concerned by 30th of September

81. Which one of the following is the nodal agency for executing the legal agreement for loans or grants from external funding agency(ies)?
(a) Controller of Aid, Accounts and Audit
(b) Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(c) Controller General of Accounts
(d) Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance 

82. As per General Financial Ru les, 2017 which one of the following is the rate of Guarantee Fee per annum for external borrowings? 
(a) 0.25%
(b) 1.00%
(c) 1.20%
(d) 2.50%
 
83.What is the limit beyond which loss of immovable property, such as buildings, communications, or other works caused by fire, flood, cyclone, earthquake or any other natural cause, is to be reported by the subordinate authority concerned to Government through the usual channel instead of bringing to the notice of the next higher authority? 
(a) Above Rs. 50,000
(b) Above Rs. 75,000
(c) Above Rs. 60,000
(d) Above Rs. 25,000

84. Which of the following is / are correct in respect of the Government Guarantees?
1. The Guarantee fee should be levied before the guarantee is given and thereafter on first September every year
2. Government Guarantees will be extended to only central public sector companies / agencies
3. Government Guarantees shall be provided to the private sector on need basis.
4. Government Guarantees should normally not be extended for external commercial borrowings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

85. The Guarantee Redemption Fund for redemption of guarantees given by the Central Government, whenever such guarantees are invoked, is established in: 
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Contingency Fund of India
(c) Public Account of India
(d) Current Account

86. What is the time limit beyond which a      Travelling Allowance claim of a Government Servant shall stand forfeited?
(a) 60 days of its becoming due
(b) Three months of its becoming due
(c) Six months of its becoming due
(d) One year of its becoming due

87. The time limit for submission of the Leave Travel Concession claims by a Government Servant, where an advance has been drawn, from the date it falls due is: 
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days

88. Which one of the following devic es is intended to facilitate the Designated Officer thereof to credit receipts into and effect withdrawals directly from the account, subject to an overall check being exercised by the bank in which the account is authorized, to be opened? 
(a) Current Account
(b) Personal Deposit Account
(c) Public Account
(d) Revenue Account

89. Which one of the following can be treated as losses NOT due to depreciation?
(a) Normal fluctuation of market prices
(b) Normal wear and tear
(c) Losses due to theft or fraud
(d) Lack of foresight in regulating purchases

90. As per General Financial Rules, 2017 all Drawing and Disbursing Officers have to maintain separate registers physically or electronically for allocation under each minor or sub-head of account with which they are concerned. In which form is this register to be maintained?
(a) Form GFR 3
(b) Form GFR 4
(c) Form GFR 5
(d) Form GFR 6

91.As per General Financial Rules, 2017 all Grantee Institutions or Organizations which receive more than a certain value of their recurring expenditure in the form of Grants-in-aid, should ordinarily formulate terms and conditions of service of their employees which are, by and large,  not higher than those applicable to similar categories of employees in Central Government.What is that value of recurring  expenditure? 
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%

92. What does PFMS stand for?
(a) Public Finance Monitoring System
(b) Public Financial Management System
(c) Plan Fund Management System
(d) Public Fund Management System

93. What do you call a significant expenditure incurred with the object of acquiring tangible assets f a permanent nature or enhancing the utility of existing assets?
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Voted Expenditure
(d) Charged Expenditure

94.Which head is called the final unit of appropriation?
(a) Major Head
(b) Minor Head
(c) Object Head
(d) Detailed Head

95. Who among the following is the Chief Accounting Authority of the Ministry / Department?
(a) Financial Advisor
(b) Secretary
(c) Controller of Accounts
(d) Chief Controller of Accounts

96. Which one of the following statements with regard to the advance payment to be made to the supplier is NOT correct?
(a) Ordinarily, payments for services rendered or supplies made should be released only fter the services have been rendered or supplies made
(b) Normally, thirty per cent of the contract value can be paid as advance for fabrication contracts, turn-key contracts etc. to private firms
(c) Normally, fifty per cent of the contract value can be paid as advance for fabrication contracts, turn-key contracts etc. to a State or Central Government agency or a Public Sector Undertaking
(d) In case of maintenance contract, the amount should not exceed the amount payable for six months under the contract

97.As per General Financial Rules, 2017 who is NOT exempted from the payment of Bid security?
(a) Micro and Small Enterprises (MSE) as defined in MSE procurement policy issued by Department of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
(b) Firms registered with Central Purchase Organization
(c) Startups as recognized by Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)
(d) Kendriya Bhandar and Super Bazar

98.Which of the following values of the contract should be taken as performance security from thesuccessful bidder who has been awarded the contract?
(a) 2 to 5%
(b) 3 to 6%
(c) 4 to 7%
(d) 5 to 10%

99. Which one of the  following is the estimated value of the procurement of goods below which the method of Limited Tender Enquiry may be adopted by a Ministry / Department? 
(a) Rs. 10 Lakh
(b) Rs. 15 Lakh
(c) Rs. 25 Lakh
(d) Rs. 50 Lakh

100. What is the limit below which goods can be purchased without quotation? 
(a) Rs. 15,000
(b) Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 25,000
(d) Rs. 30,000

101. As per the Government e-Market place (GeM), which one of the following regarding procurement of Goods and Services is NOT correct?
(a) Procurement up to Rs.50,000 can be made through any of the available suppliers on the GeM
(b) Procurement can be made above Rs.50,000 and up to Rs.30,00,000 through the GeM seller having lowest price amongst the available sellers, of at least three different manufacturers, on GeM 
(c) Procurement can be made above Rs.30,00,000 through the supplier having lowest price meeting the requisite quality, specification and delivery period after mandatorily obtaining bids, using online bidding or reverse auction tool provided on GeM 
(d) Above Rs.50,00,000 procurement can be made through the supplier having lowest price meeting the requisite quality, specification and delivery period after mandatorily obtaining bids, using online bidding or reverse auction tool provided on GeM 

102. Department of Personnel and Training floated an open tender, which resulted in only one effective offer. What should the Department do now as per the provisions contained in the General Financial Rules, 2017? 
1. It should go for re-tendering
2. It should check whether the procurement was satisfactorily advertised and sufficient time was given for submission of bids
3. It should ensure that qualification criteria were not unduly restrictive and pricesare reasonable in comparison to market values
4. It should proceed ahead treating the effective offer as a single tender contract
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

103. Under the provisions of the General Financial Rules, 2017, goods costing what value may be purchased on each occasion on the recommendation of a duly constituted Local Purchase Committee?
(a) Rs. 15,000 to 1.5 Lakh
(b) Rs. 20,000 to 2.0 Lakh
(c) Rs. 25,000 to 2.5 Lakh
(d) Rs. 30,000 to 3.0 Lakh

104. Which one of the following does NOT come under the definition of ‘Goods’ as per General Financial Rules, 2017?
(a) Live stock
(b) Software
(c) Technology transfer
(d) Books for library

105.In case of furnishing of security by Government Servants handling cash, what should be the form in which Fidelity Bond deposited as security is to be executed?
(a) Form 17
(b) Form 14
(c) Form 15
(d) Form 16

106. What do we call a contract in which the price payable for supplies or services under the contract is determined on the basis of actual cost of production of the supplies or services concerned and profit either at a fixed rate per unit or at a fixed percentage on the actual cost of production? 
(a) Percentage contract
(b) Lump-sum contract
(c) Retainership cum success fee based contract
(d) Cost plus contract

107. Price variation clause can be provided only in a long term contract, where delivery period  extends beyond:
(a) 6 months.
(b) 12 months.
(c) 18 months.
(d) 24 months.

108. In how many days should       a contract document be executed after the issue of letter of acceptance?
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 28 days

109. As per the provisions contained in General Financial Rules, 2017, the Ministries/Departments have to work out their procurement requirements of Goods and Services as per their  requirement/suitability at the time of preparation of Budget Estimates and have to project their Annual Procurement Plan of Goods and services on Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal. In how many days after the Budget approval should this be done? 
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days

110. Which one of the following organizations is NOT covered under the reserved items and otherpurchase / price preference policy of the Government?
(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
(b) Association of Corporations and Apex Societies of Handlooms (ACASH)
(c) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
(d) Kendriya Bhandar, Super Bazar and National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation Limited

111. Under the General Financial Rules, 2017, what should be the minimum number of supplier firms in a Limited Tender Enquiry?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

112. Norma lly,      the Limited Tender Enquiry is used when estimated value of the goods to be procured is upto the limit specified in the General Financial Rules. Out of the circumstances given below, which circumstance is NOT a situation in which goods can be procured through Limited Tender Enquiry?
(a) The competent authority in the Ministry or Department certifies that the demand is urgent and any additional expenditure involved by not procuring through advertisedtender enquiry is justified in view of urgency 
(b) There are sufficient reasons, to be recorded in writing by the competent authority,indicating that it will not be in public interest to procure the goods through advertised tender enquiry
(c) The sources of supply are definitely known and possibility of fresh source(s) beyond those being tapped is remote
(d) It is in the knowledge of the user department that only a particular firm is the manufacturer of the required goods

113. Which one of the following is NOT a reason for adopting the method of procurement of goods from a single source?
(a) It is in the knowledge of the user department that only a particular firm is the manufacturer of the required goods
(b) In a case of emergency, the required goods are necessarily to be purchased from a particular source and the reason for such decision is to be recorded and approval of competent authority obtained 
(c) For standardization of machinery or spare parts to be compatible to the existing sets of equipment (on the advice of a competent technical expert and approved by the competent authority), the required item is to be purchased only from a selected firm 
(d) It will not be in public interest to procure the goods through advertised tender enquiry

114. As per General Financial Rules, 2017 bid security is to be obtained from the bidders unless they are exempted from paying the bid security. What percentage of the estimated value of the goods to be procured should be the bid security?
(a) 1 to 4%
(b) 2 to 5%
(c) 4 to 7%
(d) 5 to 10%

115. What is the value of the procurement of non-consulting service above which it is mandatory for the Ministry/Department to issue advertisement on Central Procurement Portal and on Government e-Marketplace (GeM)?
(a) Rs. 5 Lakh
(b) Rs. 10 Lakh
(c) Rs. 15 Lakh
(d) Rs. 25 Lakh

116. As per General Financial Rules, 2017 which one of the following is NOT a method used forselection/evaluation of Consultancy proposals?
(a) Quality alone Based Selection
(b) Quality and Cost Based Selection
(c) Least Cost System
(d) Single Source Selection

117. Which one of the following is NOT a Consulting Service as per General Financial Rules, 2017?
(a) Management Consultants
(b) Finance, Accounting and Taxation services
(c) Annual Maintenance Contract
(d) Communications Consultants

118. What is the value above which an enquiry for seeking “Expression of Interest” from consultants for identifying likely source of consulting service should be mandatorily published on Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP) and Government e-Marketplace (GeM) by the Ministry/Department?(a) Rs. 10 Lakh
(b) Rs. 15 Lakh
(c) Rs. 20 Lakh
(d) Rs. 25 Lakh

119. Find the odd one amongst the following modes of purchase mentioned in General Financial Rules, 2017.
(a) Purchase through Local Purchase Committee
(b) Limited Tender Enquiry
(c) Single Tender Enquiry
(d) Purchase through Government e-Marketplace

120. According to the General Financial Rules, 2017, what is the process of obtaining bids in two stages, with receipt of financial bids after receipt and evaluation of technical bid, called?
(a) Two bid system
(b) Two-stage Bidding
(c) Electronic Reverse Auction
(d) Electronic Bidding
 

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Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

(Answer Key) UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (I & II), 2018



(Answer Key) UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (I & II), 2018



Exam Name: Combined Defence Services Examination (I),

Year: 2018

Subjects:

  • General Knowledge
  • English
  • Elementary Mathematics

Click Here to Download General Knowledge Answer Key

Click Here to Download English Answer Key

Click Here to Download Elementary Mathematics Answer Key

Exam Name: Combined Defence Services Examination (II),

Year: 2018

Subjects:

  • General Knowledge
  • English
  • Elementary Mathematics

Click Here to Download General Knowledge Answer Key

Click Here to Download English Answer Key

Click Here to Download Elementary Mathematics Answer Key

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