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UPSC IAS (Pre.) Exam 2024 Notification Released (Last Date: 05.03.2024)

IAS EXAM

UPSC IAS (Pre.) Exam 2024 Notification Released

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

All candidates (male/female/transgender) are requested to carefully read the Rules of Civil Services Examination notified by the Government (Department of Personnel and Training) and this Notice of Examination derived from these Rules. The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. The Commission takes up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test. 

2. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in. It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination. 

3. LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS :

The online Applications can be filled up to 05th March, 2024 till 6:00 PM. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website [ https://upsconline.nic.in ] for downloading by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. 

4. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

5. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:

In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.

F.No. 1/3/2023-E.I(B) : Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Services and Posts mentioned below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 26h May, 2024 in accordance with the Rules published by the Department of Personnel & Training in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 14th February, 2024. All candidates must carefully read the Civil Services Examination2024 Rules together with all the Appendices along with the Annexures thereof and this Examination Notice derived from the CSE Rules-2024 in entirety for gaining awareness of the current Rules and Regulations as changes may have been incorporated since the previous Examination Rules. 

(i) Indian Administrative Service
(ii) Indian Foreign Service
(iii) Indian Police Service
(iv) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’
(v) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’
(vi) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group ‘A’
(vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’
(viii) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’
(ix) Indian Information Service, Group ‘A’
(x) Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’
(xi) Indian P&T Accounts and Finance Service, Group ‘A’
(xii) Indian Railway Protection Force Service, Group ‘A’
(xiii) Indian Revenue Service (Customs & Indirect Taxes) Group ‘A’
(xiv) Indian Revenue Service (Income Tax) Group ‘A’
(xv) Indian Trade Service, Group ‘A’ (Grade III)
(xvi) Indian Railway Management Service, Group ‘A’
(xvii) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade)
(xviii) Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service (DANICS), Group ‘B’
(xix) Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service (DANIPS), Group ‘B’
(xx) Pondicherry Civil Service (PONDICS), Group ‘B’
(xxi) Pondicherry Police Service (PONDIPS), Group ‘B’ 

Click Here to Download UPSC Official Notification PDF

The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 1056 which include 40 vacancies reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability Category, i.e. 06 Vacancies for candidates of (a) blindness and low vision; 12 Vacancies for (b) deaf and hard of hearing; 09 Vacancies for (c) locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy; and 13 Vacancies for (e) multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (c) including deaf-blindness. The final number of vacancies may undergo change after getting firm number of vacancies from Cadre Controlling Authorities. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. 

As per the decision taken by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job opportunities, the Commission will publicly disclose the scores of the candidates (obtained in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test) through the public portals. The disclosure will be made in respect of only those willing candidates who will appear in the Interview/Personality Test for the Civil Service Examination and are not finally recommended for appointment. The information shared through this disclosure scheme about the non-recommended candidates may be used by other public and private recruitment agencies to appoint suitable candidates from the information made available in the public portal. 

Candidates will be required to give their options at the time of Interview/Personality Test, while downloading the e-Summon Letter from the Commission’s website for the interview. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published by the Commission. Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of this examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and manner in which information related to such candidates is utilized by public/private organizations. 

3. Eligibility Conditions: (I) Nationality

  1. For the Indian Administrative Service, the Indian Foreign Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India.

  2. For other services, a candidate must be either:-

  • a citizen of India, or

  • a subject of Nepal, or

  • a subject of Bhutan, or

  • a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or

  • a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

(II) Age Limits:

1.A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 32 years on the 1st of August, 2024 i.e., the candidate must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1992 and not later than 1st August, 2003.

(b) The upper age-limit prescribed above will be relaxable:
(i) up to a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe;
(ii) up to a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates;
(iii) up to a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services Personnel, disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof;
(iv) up to a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2020 and have been released;
(a) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st August, 2020 otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency; or
(b) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service; or
(c) on invalidment.
(v) up to a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service as on 1st August, 2020 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three months’ notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment. 
(vi) up to a maximum of 10 years in the case of (a) blindness and low vision; (b) deaf and hard of hearing; (c) locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy; (d) autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness; and (e) multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness. 

(III) Minimum Educational Qualifications :

A candidate must hold a Graduate degree of any of the Universities incorporated by an Act of the central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification.

Note I:—Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the result as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination along with their application (i.e. Detailed Application Form-I) for the Main Examination, failing which
such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. Such proof of passing the requisite examination should be dated earlier than the due date (closing date) of Detailed Application Form-I of the Civil Services (Main) Examination.

Note II: In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who does not have any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/she has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.

Note III: Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by the Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

Note IV: Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award of the Degree 

4. FEE:

Candidates (Except Female/SC/ST/Persons with Benchmark Disability Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of State Bank of India by cash or by using Net Banking facility of any bank or by using Visa/Master/RuPay/Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment.  

Applicants who opt for "Pay by Cash" mode should print the system generated Pay-in-slip during part II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. "Pay by Cash” mode will be deactivated at 11.59 P.M. of 4th March, 2024 i.e. one day before the closing date; however applicants, who have generated their Pay-in- Slip before it is deactivated, may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reasons whatsoever, even if holding valid pay-inslip will have no other offline option but to opt for available online Debit/Credit Card/UPI Payment or Internet Banking payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 06:00 P.M. of 5th March, 2024. 

NB: Notwithstanding, the aforesaid provision for fee exemption, a candidate of Persons with Benchmark Disability will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if the candidate (after such physical examination as the Government or the Appointing Authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to candidates of Persons with Benchmark Disability by the Government.

Note I: Applications without the prescribed Fee (unless remission of Fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.

Note II: Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

Note III: If any candidate who took the Civil Services Examination held in 20221 wishes to apply for admission to this examination, he/she must submit his/her application without waiting for the results or an offer of appointment.

Note IV: Candidates admitted to the Main Examination will be required to pay a further fee of Rs. 200/-(Rupees Two hundreds only).

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(e-Admit Card) UPSC: Combined Geo-Scientist and Geologist Examination 2016

(e-Admit Card) UPSC: Combined Geo-Scientist and Geologist Examination 2016

Exam Name: Combined Geo-Scientist and Geologist Examination 2016

Year: 2016

Admit Card Issue Date: 13-04-2016

Admit Card Download End Date: 15-05-2016

(Admit Card) UPSC GEO-SCIENTIST (Preliminary) Examination, 2024

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(Admit Card) UPSC GEO-SCIENTIST (Preliminary) Examination, 2024



Exam Name: GEO-SCIENTIST Examination

Year: 2024

(Answer Keys) IAS Preliminary General Studies Paper-1: 2013 "Test Booklet-B"

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Union Public Service Commission
IAS Preliminary (CSAT) Exam, 2013

Actual Paper of the IAS PRE Exam, held on 26 May 2013.

General Studies Paper-1 "Test Booklet Series - B"

1. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to
(a) agriculture
(b) micro and small enterprises
(c) weaker sections
(d) All of the above

 

2. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a) Engineering
(b) Paper and pulp
(c) Textiles
(d) Thermal power

 

3. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a) Promoting skill development
(b) Introducing more social security schemes
(c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(d) Privatization of higher education

 

4. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism.

 

5. Annie Besant was
1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2. The founder of the Theosophical Society
3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement / statements using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

6. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth.

 

7. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1. an increase in the money supply
2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3. an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1only
(b) 1and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

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8. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign – exchange reserves?
(a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b) Foreign – currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c) Foreign – currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d) Foreign – currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

 

9. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

 

10. Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a) a fall in the level of prices
(b) an increase in the rate of interest
(c) a decrease in the rate of interest
(d) an increase in the level of income and employment

 

(Download) IAS, IFoS Preliminary General Studies Paper-1: 2013 "Test Booklet Series - A"

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(Download) UPSC IAS, IFoS Preliminary General Studies Paper-1: 2013 "Test Booklet Series - A"

Actual Paper of the IAS PRE Exam, held on 26 May 2013.

General Studies Paper-1 "Test Booklet Series - A"

 

File Type: PDF File

File Size: 5 MB

Date of Exam: 26-05-2-13

Questions Asked from Below Topics: 

  • Current events of National and International importance.
  • History of India and Indian National Movement.
  • Indian and World Geography - Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.
  • Indian Polity and Governance - Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
  • Economic and Social Development -Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.
  • General issues on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change - that do not require subject specialisation
  • General Science

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UPSC IAS PRE 2021 EXAM GS Paper-1 PDF Download SET-C Held On 10 Oct 2021

UPSC Exam Papers



UPSC IAS PRE 2021 EXAM G.S. Paper-1 PDF Download (SET-C) Held On 10 Oct 2021



  • SET: C
  • Time: 2 Hours
  • Marks: 200

Q1. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

  1. the Right to Equality
  2. the Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. the Right to Freedom
  4. the Concept of Welfare

Q2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

  1. Legal right available to citizens only
  2. Legal right available to any person
  3. Fundamental Right available to citizens only
  4. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Q3.What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

  1. A Democratic Republic
  2. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
  3. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
  4. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Q4.Constitutional government means

  1. a representative government of a nation with federal structure
  2. a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
  3. a government whose Head enjoys real powers
  4. a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Q5.With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to

  1. dance forms of Northwest India
  2. musical instruments
  3. pre-historic cave paintings
  4. tribal languages

Q6.Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards

  • Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
  • Padma wards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
  • The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3


Q7.Consider the following statements

Statement1:

  • The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.

Statement 2:

  • Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
  2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
  3. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
  4. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Q8.Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000

  • American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
  • The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
  • Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q9.Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics :

  • The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
  • Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q10.Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship

  • The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
  • New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q11.`Consider the following statements:

  • ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
  • ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
  • ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 2 and 3

Q12.With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  • Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
  • During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q13.With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  • When a prisoner makes a sufficient case, parole cannot be out denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
  • State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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