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(Download) UPSC 2024 LAW Paper II

• Exam Name: UPSC 2024 LAW Paper II
• Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
• Year : 2024
• Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड 'A' SECTION ‘A’ 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each.Support your answer with relevant legal provisions and Judicial pronouncements : 10×5=50

1. (a) The underlying principle of mens-rea is expressed in the familiar Latin maxim 'actus non-facit reum nisi mens sit rea,' - 'the act does not make a man guilty unless the mind is also guilty.' Explain with decided cases.  
1. (b) "The principle that every conspirator is liable for all the acts of co-conspirators if they are towards attaining the goals of the conspiracy even if some of them have not actively participated in the commission of that offence/s." In the light of above statement, explain the principle of criminal conspiracy as per Indian Penal Code 1860.
1. (c) 'It is the degree of negligence which really determines whether a particular action will amount to rash and negligent act as required to hold a person guilty of homicide under Section 304 - A of Indian Penal Code, 1860.' Discuss. 
1. (d) 'The determination of vicarious liability of the state is linked with the negligence made by all its functionaries and no immunity can be claimed.' In the light of above observation discuss; vicarious liability of state with reference to its sovereign functions.
1. (e) “The introduction of 'product liability' under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 marked an end of the 'buyer beware' doctrine and the introduction of 'seller beware' as the new doctrine.” Discuss. 

2. (a) "Justification for introduction of 'plea-bargaining' in India was that it will reduce delay in case of undertrial prisoners in a cheaper and quicker method." Do you appreciate its existence in the same form or not? Justify your answer.
2. (b) 'Intoxication impairs perception and judgement both so one fails to foresee the result of his conduct.' In this backdrop, examine the law relating to the defence of intoxication and refer to the leading cases. 
2. (c) How far do you agree that prevention of corruption Act 1988 is an important legal instrument in curbing corruption in the society. Discuss. What are the types of offences recognised under this law and what are punishments?

3. (a) "It is the mode of acquiring possession of property of other party with/without his consent, which determines the type of offence against property and thus distinguishes theft, misappropriation and Criminal breach of trust.” Discuss. 
3. (b) "A person is liable for Public nuisance, when he does an act or illegal omission which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public..." Discuss Nuisance in the light of above statement along with its types. 
3. (c) Explain 'false imprisonment' as per law of Torts and distinguish it from 'malicious prosecution.' 

4. (a) 'If an enterprise is permitted to carry on any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity for its profits, the cost of any accident arising on account of such activity must be an appropriate term of overheads.' Comment. (M. C. Mehta v. U.O.I.) 
4. (b) 'Kidnapping is a substantive offence while abduction is not an offence exclusively. It becomes offence, when committed with a criminal intent.' Explain. 
4. (c) 'The offence of abetment depends upon the intention of the abettor not upon the act committed by the abetted person.' Explain. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. Support your answer with relevant legal provisions and Judicial pronouncements: 10×5=50 

5. (a) A "Quasi-Contract' arises out of judicial principles and not out of contractual agreement between two parties." Explain. 
5. (b) Every partner of a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) for the purposes of its business is its agent but not that of other partners. Analyse the extent of liability of LLP and its partners. 
5. (c) "The rights of an unpaid seller do not depend upon any agreement, express or implied, between the parties. They arise by implication of law.' Explain. 
5. (d) Mutual rights and duties of the Principal and agent may be wholly provided for in their contract. Discuss the general duties of the agent with special reference to the duty of reasonable care and skill. 
5. (e) What is the commercial significance of the Geographical Indications of Goods? Explain the benefits that accrue to the registered proprietors and authorised users by registration of Geographical Indications of Goods. 

6. (a) Discuss the rules which are taken into account by the courts while awarding damages for the breach of contract. Refer to the relevant statutory provisions and case law. 
6. (b) 'An illegal contract is always void but a void contract is not always illegal.' Examine while illustrating both the types of contract. 
6. (c) "The principle of arbitral autonomy is an integral element of the ever evolving domain of arbitration law .... The basis of arbitral autonomy is to give effect to the true intention of the parties to distance themselves from the 'risk of domestic judicial parochialism.'" Comment with reference to the theory and practice. 

7. (a) 'The liability of a surety is secondary, but it is co-extensive with that of Principal debtor.' In this backdrop, discuss the nature and extent of liability of surety.
7. (b) ‘Sections 124 and 125 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are not exhaustive of the law of indemnity.' Comment in the context of Indemnity and Indemnity - holder's rights.
7. (c) 'Mistake does not defeat consent, but only misleads the parties.' Explain citing the 15 relevant legal provisions and cases decided by the courts. 

8. (a) "There is, in recent years, a feeling which is not without any foundation that 'public interest litigation' is now tending to become 'publicity interest litigation' or 'private interest litigation', and has a tendency to be counter-productive." Examine the 20 statement critically. 
8. (b) Discuss the relevance of the 'safe harbour' clause under the Information Technology Act 2000. Comment on the need to make the intermediaries liable for transmitting the posts and communications of third parties.
8. (c) An information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought. Are there any exceptions to this rule? Explain with suitable illustrations. 

(Download) UPSC 2024 LAW Paper I

• Exam Name: UPSC 2024 LAW Paper I
• Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
• Year : 2024
• Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Examine the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to criminal matters. 
(b) The Parliament or any State Legislature should keep within the domain assigned to it and not encroach upon the other's subject. Critically examine. 
(c) "Every person who is a member of civil service of the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President." Is there any exception to this rule? Describe. 
(d) The Indian Constitution permits delegation but imposes specific restrictions to ensure alignment with the Parent Act and protect legislative intent. Examine with illustrations. 
(e) "A law is void only to the extent of inconsistency or contravention with the relevant Fundamental Right." Explain with the help of decided cases. 

2. (a) The concept of Public Interest Litigation is an exception to the rule of 'locus standi'. Elaborate in the light of its evolution, aims and objects in India with the help of leading cases. Also discuss its drawbacks. 
(b) "Constitutionalism is the concept of limited government under a Fundamental Law." In the light of this, differentiate between distinctive features of Constitution and Constitutionalism. 
(c) Discuss the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers under the parliamentary form of government in India. Explain with the help of relevant constitutional provisions. 

3. (a) “Article 194, which is an exact reproduction of Article 105, deals with the State Legislatures and their members and committees." On this background, comment that both the Articles are complementary to each other and should be read together. 
(b) Who are 'minorities'? The Constitution of India protects the rights and interests of minorities to the extent that the rights conferred to them to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions. Discuss with the help of decided case laws. 
(c) Discuss the procedure of amending the Constitution. Are there any restrictions also in this regard? Support your answer with the help of relevant Supreme Court judgments. 

4. (a) In recent years, the concept of 'Cooperative Federalism' has played a pivotal role in constitutional governance of the nation but at the same time it comes across various challenges as well. Elaborate. 
(b ) "The Fundamental Rights are not an end in themselves but are the means to an end. The end is specified in the Directive Principles." Analyze the statement. 
(c) "The ordinance making power of the President and the Governors is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution but it balances on a razor-sharp edge between pragmatic governance and potential over-reach." Critically examine with the help of decided case laws. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Define International Law. Enumerate its weaknesses and give suggestions for improvement. 
(b) What is State recognition? Draw a distinction between recognition de jure and de facto. 
(c) Examine the importance of nationality and discuss the modes of acquisition of nationality. 
(d) Distinguish between the concept of territorial sea and inland water. Comment on the breadth of territorial sea that is internationally accepted. 
(e) Examine the importance of 'the Economic and Social Council' as a principal organ of the United Nations. 

6. (a) Peaceful settlement of international disputes has been developed on the principles of International Law concerning friendly relations and cooperations among States. Explain. 
(b) The present world 'Economic Order' is supposed to be granted by the operation of free market forces propelled by free competition and enterprises, based on free movement of goods and services including technology. Elucidate. 
(c) International Law and Municipal Law are two branches of unified knowledge of law, which are applicable to human community in someway or the other. Elaborate with the help of prevalent theories. 

7. (a) Following 'World War II' destruction, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund emerged as two historic institutions to promote economic recovery and to build a global monetary system to ensure economic stability around the world. Discuss at length. 
(b) Discuss the law on extradition. The procedure for granting asylum and approving extradition requests differ significantly. Explain. 
(c) What is intervention? Discuss the intervention on humanitarian grounds and the intervention due to self-defence. 

8. (a) Describe the constitution of United Nations Security Council's 'Counter- Terrorism Committee'. To what extent has this Committee been effective in countering terrorism across international borders? Critically analyze. 
(b) What do you understand by nuclear disarmament? Do you agree with the opinion that Comprehensive Nuclear - Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) has been successful in achieving its objects? Critically examine. 
(c) What is statelessness? A stateless person is often subjected to a number of human rights violation. What are the impediments that people face due to statelessness? Elaborate the human rights issues that are connected to statelessness. 
 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - History (Paper-2)

• Exam Name: UPSC IAS MAINS HISTORY - PAPER- II
• Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
• Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड 'A' SECTION 'A' 

1. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10×5=50 

1. (a) After the battle of Plassey, the mercenary became the Kingmaker. 
1.(b) The values of utilitarianism prompted the Company administration to attempt reform of Indian society.
1.(c) In course of the 19th century, the agenda of social reform was gradually replaced by revivalism. 
1. (d) The federal provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935 foundered on the rock of princely intransigence. 
1.(e) The strength of the Pakistan programme was its vagueness. It meant everything to everyone. 

2. (a) The pace of commercialisation of agriculture increased as a result of British revenue policies in India. - Critically examine. 
2.(b) Why was the Great Revolt of 1857 confined only to North India? How did it change the character of British rule in the subcontinent? Explain.
2.(c) Why did the demand for land reform never become an agenda in national politics after 1947? Elucidate. 

3. (a) Political extremism in colonial India often converged with cultural nationalism, but not always. - Comment. 
3.(b) Regionalism in India after 1947 was occasioned by developmental imperatives as much as linguistic particularism. – Elucidate.
3.(c) Twenty years of peace secured by the treaty of Salbai proved very costly to the Marathas in strategic terms. - Elucidate.

4. (a) The Swadeshi movement of 1905 anticipated many of the tactics that were later developed during the Gandhian mass movement. - Critically examine.
4. (b) The trade union movement joined forces with the mainstream of nationalist politics to strengthen each other in their struggle against colonial rule. - Comment. 
4. (c) India's developmental strategy after independence was influenced by economic imperatives, not ideological considerations. – Comment. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10×5 = 50

5. (a) The ideas raised by Enlightenment thinkers were profoundly unsettling and challenging to old regime society and political order. 
5.(b) The American Civil War was a result of disparity of needs of industrial north and agrarian south. 
5.(c) The unification of Germany was as much a product of coal and iron as it was of blood and iron. 
5. (d) The new regime in China addressed the peasant question by instituting wholesale land redistribution, which was carried out swiftly and ruthlessly. 
5. (e) The revolutions of 1989 did not simply destroy governments; they also ended an ideology. 

6. (a) The course of the English industrialization was too long drawn to be considered a revolution. Comment. 
6. (b) The social and political landscape of Europe after the first world war was uniquely suited to the rise of Fascism. Discuss. 
6. (c) The state was the most important factor in the industrialization of Russia. Comment. 

7.(a) The second world war was a truly global conflict. Discuss.
7.(b) Trace the different stages of European economic integration. 
7. (c) The nature of apartheid regime undermined South Africa's claim of being a democratic polity. 

8. (a) The emergence of two power blocs not only symbolised two competing ideologies but also two alternative models of economic growth. Explain. 
8. (b) To what extent underdevelopment in Latin America is caused by neo-imperialism? 
8. (c) How did Ho Chi Minh emerge as the central figure in the Vietnamese independence movement ? 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - History (Paper-1)

• Exam Name: UPSC IAS MAINS HISTORY - PAPER- I
• Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
• Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Identify the following places marked on the map supplied to you and write a short note of about 30 words on each of them in your Question-cum-Answer Booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim: 50 
(i) Prehistoric site 
(ii) Area of petroglyphs 
(iii) Neolithic site 
(iv) Harappan site 
(v) Buddhist monastery 
(vi) Chalcolithic site 
(vii) Neo-Chalcolithic site 
(viii) Megalithic site with rock art 
(ix) One of the Mahajanapadas' capital and associated with Buddha's miracle 
(x) Hominid fossil find site 
(xi) Major rock edict of Ashoka 
(xii) Ancient trade centre 
(xiii) Stone inscription recording land grants with tax exemptions 
(xiv) Shiva temples named after family relationships 
(xv) Place of art-related inscription 
(xvi) Place of inscription of three languages 
(xvii) Temple site where three styles of temple architecture are found 
(xviii) Jain pilgrimage site 
(xic) Shiva temple of Gupta period 
(xx ) Megalithic monumental site 

2. (a) Harappan art contributes to our understanding of their aesthetic sensibilities in addition to spiritual and ritualistic life. Comment. 20 
(b) Discuss different types of Megalithic burial practices in India. How far does the archaeological evidence from it help us to know the religious beliefs and cultural practices? 
(c) Western Kshatrapas are known for their socio-economic contribution, particularly in trade, agriculture and urbanization. Examine the statement. 

3. (a) Symbiotic relationships between Buddhist establishments, traders, artisan guilds, and royal support led to a close proximity of religion, economy and polity in the Mauryan and post-Mauryan periods. Examine the statement. 
(b) Discuss the role of Buddhism in shaping the socio-religious landscape of the Mauryan Empire. 
(c) Discuss the evolution of State institution and taxation system from Rigvedic period to later Vedic period. 

4. (a) Highlight the contributions of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta in the fields of Astronomy and Mathematics. 
(b) Examine the course of Pallava-Chalukya conflicts between sixth and eighth century CE. 
(c) Examine the role played by the Agraharas in the promotion of education in the early medieval India. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5 = 50 

(a) Illustrate the main features of Vesara style temple architecture. 
(b) Evaluate Firuz Shah Tughluq's economic policies. 
(c) Evaluate the contribution of Qalandariyyah to medieval Indian culture. 
(d) Discuss the main features of Malwa school of painting with examples. 
(e) Highlight the features of Portuguese colonial enterprise. 

6. (a) Analyze the contributions of Acharya Triumvirate to Indian Vedanta. 
(b) Compare and contrast the position of Hindu and Muslim women in 13th and 14th century India. 
(c) Examine the causes and consequences of peasants uprising during the reign of Aurangzeb. 

7. (a) "Instead of bringing credit, the Ibadat Khana brought growing discredit to Akbar." Comment. 20 
(b) How did the Maratha guerrilla warfare tactics contribute to their military successes against larger and more established armies? 
(c) Examine the role of Asaf Jahi Dynasty in the political transformation of the State of Hyderabad. 

8. (a) Discuss the contributions of Bahmani Sultans to the development of Indo-Islamic architecture. 
(b) Evaluate the impact of the Third Battle of Panipat on the political economy of 18th century India. 
(c) Examine the process of urbanization caused by the establishment of European trading companies in India. 
 

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper II)

• Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper II)
• Marks: 250
• Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड A SECTION A 

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10x5=50 

(a) What are the different types of rotational axes of symmetry present in a crystal? What are the different types of twinning observed in quartz? 
(b) How does one define "Double refraction" and "Birefringence" of an anisotropic mineral? Write with the help of suitable sketches. 
(c) Show diagrammatically the characteristics of binary eutectic system under 1 atmosphere (1 atm pressure). How does one explain the formation of porphyritic basic rock with phenocryst of plagioclase in a groundmass with plagioclase and clinopyroxene with the help of a suitable binary eutectic system? 
(d) Explain the processes involved in magmatic differentiation. 
(e) With the help of suitable diagrams, describe Folk's graphic classification of carbonate rocks. 

Q2. (a) What are the symmetry elements present in the normal class of an isometric system? Write the Hermann-Mauguin notation of the normal class of isometric system. Plot the face (hkl) and deduce the form generated by operation of symmetry elements from the face (hkl) on a stereogram of the normal class of isometric system. 
(b) Draw and describe the structure of mica group of minerals. Describe the chemical composition and optical properties of minerals of mica group. 
(c) Define polymorphism and discuss different types of polymorphic transitions. What are the different types of polymorphs of SiO2 and AlgSiO5? 

Q3. (a) Describe the mineral reactions in prograde metamorphism of argillaceous sedimentary rocks with appropriate diagrams. 
(b) Write the mineralogy and texture of basalt. How does basaltic magma form in deep earth? 
(c) Discuss the process of magma generation in the Earth's interior and its causes. 

Q4. (a) Discuss the various factors that control the composition of sandstone. 
(b) What do you understand by facies model? Describe the facies and facies association produced in a fluvial environment. 
(c) What are heavy minerals? Describe methods of their separation and comment on the utility of heavy mineral suite in provenance interpretation. 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10x5=50 

(a) Give an account of the geology and the process of formation of aluminium mineral deposits of India. 
(b) What are the Iron-Titanium oxides associated with igneous rocks? Add an account of their mineral associations and textures. 
(c) What is the difference between prospecting and exploration? Explain the various techniques of sampling. 
(d) Discuss briefly about the abundance of elements in the Universe. State Oddo-Harkins rule with examples. 
(e) Describe the natural hazards due to earthquakes. Discuss the mitigation aspects of earthquake hazards. 

Q6. (a) Explain the various peculiarities inherent in the mineral industry. 
(b) What is mineral conservation? Explain how it can be achieved. 
(c) Describe the classification of magmatic deposits and add a note on "late magmatic deposits". 

Q7.(i) What is the difference between a sample and a specimen ?

(ii) Describe the classification of mineral reserves. 
(iii) What are the different marine mineral resources? 

(b) What is the principle and nature of construction of Wilfley Table? Which mineral product is separated in tabling? 
(c) What do you know about 'Neyveli Lignite Mine'? Enumerate the methodology of mining and machinery under use in this mine, with neat sketches. 

Q8. (a) What are the different layers in the Earth's interior? How is the layered structure of the Earth determined? Name two most abundant elements of each layer of the Earth. 
(b) Define major, minor and trace elements. Write briefly about the characteristics of lithophile, chalcophile, siderophile and atmophile elements with examples. Why are trace elements considered more efficient than major elements in understanding the Earth's processes? 
(c) Discuss in detail the pollution of surface water and groundwater due to mining activities. 

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper I)

• Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper I)
• Marks: 250
• Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Discuss two widely accepted theories of origin of the earth. Elucidate the position of all planets within the solar system and write the important facts of the earth. 
(b) What are the planar and linear structures of a rock? Discuss the genesis of boudins. 
(c) Discuss the applications of remote sensing in Geology. 
(d) Discuss the process of soil formation. 
(e) Define dip of a rock bed. What is true dip and apparent dip? Find the strike direction of a bed which dips 30°; towards North 30° East. 

2. (a) Discuss the intensity and magnitude scale commonly used to assess seismic damage. Write a note on the global distribution pattern of earthquake. Mark the different seismic zones of India on the given map and discuss about them. 
(b) Discuss in detail the ideas of geomorphic cycle proposed by Davis and Penck.
(c) What do contours represent in a toposheet? How do the contour lines help to identify the different geomorphic features of an area? Explain with neat diagrams. 

3. (a) Discuss in detail, with diagrams, the landforms and features resulting from deposition by rivers. 
(b) Describe the characteristics of Indian remote sensing satellites. 
(c) Diagrammatically explain the formation of normal fault, strike-slip fault and thrust fault with the help of stress ellipsoid. 

4. (a) Describe fold geometry. Illustrate various types of folds on the basis of their symmetry, orientation of axial plane and the trend of the fold axis. 
(b) Describe and illustrate different types of plate boundaries, and explain the mechanism of plate motion. 
(c) "At depth of compensation, the pressure generated by all overlying landmass substances on the earth is everywhere equal." Describe the hypotheses which support this statement. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 

(a) Define species and explain how paleontological species are different from biological species. 
(b) Discuss the geological parameters used to subdivide the Dharwar Craton into two subcratons.
(c) Describe the Cretaceous volcanic province in India. 
(D) Describe how Darcy's law and Reynolds' number are related to the types of fluid flow in aquifers. 
(e) Describe the rehabilitation measures required in landslide-affected area to restore the community and the ecology of the area affected. 

6. (a) Elucidate the evolutionary trend of Proboscidea with examples. 
(b) Describe lithostratigraphic classification and shift of depositional environments during deposition of the Vindhyan Supergroup. Comment on the age of the Vindhyan succession. 
(c) Describe briefly the characteristics of different types of aquifers and also discuss the important properties that an aquifer should possess. 

7. (a) Discuss the merits and limitations of different methods of stratigraphic analysis in brief. Comment on the most suitable method of stratigraphic analysis with justification. 
(b) Describe in brief various types of organic-walled microfossils. Add a note on their biostratigraphic and paleogeographic significance. 
(c) Describe the types of geological investigation required before construction of a highway in the Himalayas. 

8. (a) Explain the concept of drainage basin morphometry. How do morphometric parameters influence the groundwater conditions of an area? 
(b) Discuss various modes of preservation of fossils. 
(c) Discuss the evolution of the Himalayas. Illustrate your answer with suitable labelled sketches. 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 Geography (Paper-2)

• Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Geography (Paper-II)
• Marks: 250
• Time Allowed: 3 Hours
• Year : 2024

खण्ड - A / SECTION—A 

1. (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic / ecological/environmental / cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2×10=20 

(i) Lunkaransar 
(ii) Gua 
(iii) Raidak River 
(iv) Ekta Nagar 
(v) Chandanwari 
(vi) Babina 
(vii) Tatipaka 
(viii) Along Airport 
(ix) Karaikal 
(x) Panna 

(b) Discuss the basis of various explanations for the formation of Shiwalik. 
(c) Conservation and breeding centres are important components of the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation, 2020-2025. Why? 
(d) North-Eastern States of India are geopolitically sensitive and strategically significant. Explain. 

2. (a) Institutional factors are playing a dominant role in controlling the agricultural prosperity in India. Justify with evidences. 
(b) The Indian Space Policy, 2023 supports the commercial presence in space. In what ways will it benefit the socio-economic development and security of India? 15 
(c) Discuss the process of formation of conurbations in India and describe their problems. 

3. (a) India has wide-ranging regional disparities in economic development. Explain the patterns, implications and challenges. 
(b) Discuss the variations in nature of glaciers in India and the emerging issues due to climate change. 
(c) Domestic tourism in India has immense local resource potential. Discuss the reasons and its various dimensions. 

4. (a) Migration is the reflection of regional disparities. What socio-economic and demographic consequences are experienced at the place of origin and destination? 
(b) In spite of various tribal area development programmes in India, tribal areas still lag behind. Discuss critically with examples. 
(c) Water scarcity is an important cause of disputes and conflicts in India. Suggest innovative methods for location-based solutions. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) How are geographic factors influencing the distribution of high annual rainfall in certain parts of India? 
(b) Indian population belongs to large number of races. Discuss the spatial distribution of major races. 
(c) Examine the transitional role of technology on Indian agriculture sector. 
(d) Describe the area-specific strategies for the development of drought-prone areas in India. 
(e) Examine the relationship between seaports and regional development in India. 

6. (a) Industrial waste is diversified. Discuss the potentials and challenges associated with it. 
(b) How is cultural background of States of India reflected in the attributes of sex and age structure? 
(c) Discuss the targets of focused interventions of the Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain, 2024 in rural and urban areas. 

7. (a) India is playing a very significant role in world affairs. Examine the stands taken by India in important global and regional summits. 
(b) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act devolved functions, finances and functionaries for planning of rural areas in India. Discuss the major achievements with examples. 
(c) How do small and fragmented landholdings affect the agro-ecological system in rural India? What are the resilient steps needed to overcome this issue? 

8. (a) How can morphology of Indian towns be described historically? Discuss the major features of the first planned city in India after independence. 
(b) Health is the outcome of interaction between physical setting, cultural traits and ecological connection. Explain. 
(c) What are the major regional rapid transit systems developed in India? How are urban problems being addressed by them?

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 Geography (Paper-1)

• Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Geography (Paper-I)
• Marks: 250
• Time Allowed: 3 Hours
• Year : 2024

खण्ड A SECTION A

Q1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10x5= 50 

(a) What are 'truncated spurs' ? Where and how are they formed ? 
(b) Formation of temperate cyclone depends on the condition of axis of dilation. Elucidate. 
(c) With suitable examples explain the factors causing sea level changes. 
(d) Examine the impacts of social forestry in socio-economic transformation of rural areas. 
(e) Mountain regions are more fragile to ecological changes. Elucidate. 

Q2. (a) Examine the recent views on mountain building process and divide the world mountains on the basis of their genesis. 
(b) Describe latitudinal distribution of Köppen's classification of world climate. 
(c) With suitable sketches elaborate the bottom topography of the Indian Ocean. 

Q3.(a) Explain air masses and associated weather dynamics. How do air masses influence the weather conditions of the Northern Hemisphere ? 
(b) "Soil erosion is creeping death." Explaining the statement, suggest various soil conservation measures. 
(c) Perception, Attitude, Value and Emotion (PAVE) are important components for biodiversity and sustainable environmental conservation. Elaborate. 

Q4. (a) How is carbon neutrality essential for future environmental conservation? Describe various efforts taken by nations in this regard. 
(b) What is a Yazoo stream? Why are Yazoo basins the areas of repeated flooding? Give examples of Yazoo stream/areas from various parts of the world. 
(c) "The latitudinal gradient in species richness is an important geographic trend in biodiversity." Examine the statement. 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10x5=50 

(a) Critically examine the significance of Behavioural Approach in the development of human geography. 
(b) "While scarcity of water resources are felt locally, but its causes are increasingly global." Comment. 
(c) Central Business Districts (CBDs) are in decline as the economic core of metropolitan cities. Critically examine. 
(d) There is a need for gender-sensitive regional development. Elaborate.
(e) Explain the theoretical framework and stages of economic growth proposed by Rostow's model. 

Q6. (a) The urbanisation process is particularly pronounced in Asia and Africa, where too many urban residents grapple with extreme poverty, exclusion, vulnerability and marginalisation. Discuss. 
(b) Explain how the physical view of geographical space has impacted the forms of spatial analysis. 
(c) Explain the Heartland theory with reference to contemporary geopolitical scenario of the world. 

Q7. (a) Explain the basis of D. Whittlesey's classification of agricultural regions of the world. 
(b) What is Transnationalism? Why has the scale and scope of transnational linkages of diaspora multiplied in recent times? 
(c) Assess the criteria required for selecting regions for developmental planning. 

Q8. (a) What is complementary region? With reference to hierarchy of settlements, describe the different types of complementary regions as proposed by Christaller. 
(b) Analyse the spatial changes and emerging patterns of semiconductor manufacturing in the world. 
(c) "In developed countries, migration rather than fertility will be the main driver of population dynamics over the next few decades." Examine the statement. 

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Electrical Engineering (Paper II)

• Exam Name : CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024
• Subject : Electrical Engineering
• Marks: 250
• Time Allowed : Three Hours
• Paper-II

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(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Electrical Engineering (Paper I)

• Exam Name : CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024
• Subject : Electrical Engineering
• Marks: 250
• Time Allowed : Three Hours
• Paper-I

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(GIST OF SCIENCE REPORTER) Messenger Ribonucleic Acid

(GIST OF YOJANA) SALARIED CLASS AND CONSUMERS: KEY TO VIKSIT BHARAT

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 Economics (Paper-2)

Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Economics (Paper-II)

Marks: 250

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Year : 2024

खण्ड 'A' SECTION 'A' 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 

1. (a) Mention the items of 'Economic Drain' from India as conceived by Dadabhai 10 Naoroji. 
1.(b) Discuss why the railway system developed by the East India Company went against the Indian interest. 
1.(c) Discuss why 'Laissez Faire' was not good for India during the pre-independence India.  
1.(d) Describe why farmers derived little benefits from the commercialisation of agriculture in pre-independence India. 
1.(e) What are the implications of "PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi" scheme? 

2. (a) What schemes are launched by the Government to deal with the problem of unemployment in India? Why the problem still persists? 
2. (b) Why the Mahalanobis strategy of development was abandoned? What were its inadequacies ? 
2. (c) Explain the problems faced by the Jute industry during pre-independence India. Why the problem aggravated after partition of the country? 

3. (a) Highlight the role of MSMEs in Indian Economy. What steps have been taken by the Government to enhance its contribution? 
3.(b) Describe the trend in the growth rate of national income in India from 1950 to 1980 and its impact on poverty. 
3.(c) Discuss the inadequacies in the process of industrialisation in the pre-liberalised India. 

4. (a) Discuss the changes made by the Government of India in the fiscal policy since liberalisation. How far these changes proved to be conducive to growth with social justice in the country? Discuss. 
4. (b) For faster increase in farmers' income, is it necessary to link them with corporate -sector in India ? Discuss. 
4. (c) What are the main features of ‘TRIMS' ? How does it act against India's interest ? 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

5. (a) Examine the alternative model of planning given by C. N. Vakil. 
5. (b) Is service-led growth in India sustainable ? Comment. 
5. (c) What are the implications of depreciating Rupee on Indian Economy?
5. (d) Comment on FDI in Multi-brand Retail sector in India. 
5. (e) Is poverty 'capability deprivation' ? Discuss. 

6. (a) Evaluate the policy of Government of India with regard to foreign investment in the country. Do you feel that there is a need for control of their activities?
6. (b) What steps have been taken by the Government of India to increase exports during the last 10 years ? Have these yielded the desired result ? Examine. 
6. (c) Why second green revolution was advocated for India? Mention the recom- mendation of the National Commission for Farmers in this regard. 

7.(a) Distinguish between fiscal federalism, fiscal consolidation and cooperative federalism. Comment on the outcome of cooperative federalism in India. 
7.(b) Whether the role of women in agriculture has changed after liberalisation in India? Comment. 
7.(c) Explain the various estimates of rural poverty in India. What measures have been 15 adopted by the Government to reduce it? 

8. (a) What are the main objectives of monetary policy adopted by the R.B.I. during last years ? Discuss the steps taken by the R.B.I. to encourage investment and maintain price-stability during this period. 
8. (b) Why in spite of massive expansion of institutional finance, contribution of non- institutional sources in providing agricultural credit is still predominant? 15 
8. (c) What are the various forms of subsidies that go into agriculture sector in India? What is the justification for these? 
 

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 Economics (Paper-1)

Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Economics (Paper-I)

Marks: 250

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Year : 2024

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 

(a) Differentiate between perceived demand curve and proportional demand curve in a monopolistic competitive market. Explain why the proportional demand curve is steeper than the perceived demand curve. 
(b) Discuss critically the phenomenon of classical dichotomy. 
(c) Show that ad valorem tax is preferable to specific sales tax from a firm's point of view in generating the same level of tax revenue. 
(d) Examine the role of treasury bills in controlling money supply. 
(e) Write down the major assumptions behind Neoclassical Loanable Funds Theory of Interest. 

2. (a) Derive Pareto optimality conditions in production in a two commodities-two factors-two producers framework. Show that Pareto optimality does not necessarily guarantee for equity.
(b) Write down the behavioural assumptions used in Marshallian and Walrasian approaches of market stability. Show that these two approaches become conflicting when both the demand and supply curves are positively sloped. 
(c) Describe the short-run and long-run equilibrium of a firm under monopolistic competition. 

3. (a) Explain the concept of underemployment equilibrium with graphical illustration. Why full employment cannot be reached automatically in Keynes' approach? Analyse. 
(b) Calculate the equilibrium national income (Y) and interest rate (r) by using an appropriate macroeconomic model from the information given below: 
Aggregate saving function : s = -40 +0.5(Y – T) + 0.25r 
Tax function : T = 20 + 0.2Y 
Investment function : I = 20 - 0.25r 
Money demand function : L = 0.4Y - 0.5r 
Aggregate money supply : M= 40 ( rupees in crore ) 
How will the equilibrium values change when money supply is increased by ₹20 crore? 

(c) Critically analyse classical theory of interest. 

4. (a) Describe the mechanism of credit creation by commercial banks and its implications on multiplier effect. Analyse some of the limitations that can jeopardise the implications on multiplier effect. 
(b) Distir uish between public goods and private goods. Explain how market failure occurs in the case of public goods. 
(c) What is the difference between Fisher's theory and Cambridge cash balance approach to quantity theory of money? What is the criticism of each? Which one is more relevant in present context? Justify. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Critically examine 'per capita' GDP as a crude indicator of development. 
(b) Explain managed floating and sterilized interventions for exchange rate. 
(c) Discuss how carbon trading is helpful in reducing environmental degradation. 
(d) "Higher tariffs do not increase employment, they just redistribute the unemployed." Do you agree with the statement? Explain.913A 
(e) Explain how the equilibrium terms of trade are determined by using offer curves of the trading partners. 

6. (a) Discuss the elasticity approach and absorption approach for adjustments in balance of payments. 
(b) By using Stolper-Samuelson theorem, discuss the possible effects of free trade on income inequalities in developing countries. 
(c) Explain how the elasticity of demand for foreign exchange is influenced by the elasticity of home demand for imports and by the elasticity of home supply of import-competing goods. 

7. (a) Explain how the structural transformation, in the economy, takes place with surplus labour as per Lewis theory of economic development. 
(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of public-private partnership model for economic development? What are the key prerequisites for success of PPP model? Explain giving examples. 
(c) Discuss the issues (pros and cons) in the debate over import substitution and export promotion strategy for developing countries. Which strategy would you favour and why? Explain. 

8. (a) Describe the major components used in Human Development Index (HDI) by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Write down the methodological limitations of this index. Suggest appropriate method to eliminate these limitations. 
(b) Discuss the inverted 'U' shaped hypothesis by Kuznets in describing the relationship between inequality and economic growth. How is this hypothesis useful for developing countries? 
(c) Distinguish between warranted rate of growth and natural rate of growth. Explain how knife-edge instability problem occurs in Harrod's model of economic growth. 

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(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper 2)

• Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper II)
• Time Allowed : Three Hours
• Marks: 250

खण्ड —A / SECTION A

1. Answer each of the following questions in about 150 words : 10×5=50

(a) How does sensation differ from perception? 
(b) Explain the major differences between transactional and transformational leaders. 
(c) Why do we need to coordinate formal and informal organizations? 
(d) What are the limitations of matrix organization? 
(e) How does socialization help in maintaining organizational culture? 

2. (a) How have organizations been defined? Compare different perspectives of organizations in India and Western countries. 
(b) What are the 'big five personality traits'? Which one seems to have the biggest impact on performance? How would the knowledge of these help the manager in his job? 
(c) Explain the phases of developing quality circle. 

3. (a) What are the major criticisms levelled against Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation? Explain its contribution for the better understanding of motivation at the workplace. 
(b) Examine the different approaches for designing organizational structure. Evaluate the process involved in it. 
(c) How does organizational transition differ from organizational change and renewal? 

4. (a) Why does organizational politics emerge? What are its consequences? Suggest measures to avoid them. 
(b ) "There is a need for integrating individual and organizational goals." Examine this statement. How does it affect organizational effectiveness? 
(c) Distinguish between delegation of authority and decentralization. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer each of the following questions in about 150 words : 10×5 = 50 

(a) Discuss the problems faced in human resource planning. 
(b) Elaborate the merits and limitations of 360° feedback. 
(c) Why is collective bargaining not effective in India? Explain its reasons. 
(d) How is voluntary separation different from involuntary separation? 
(e) Explain the productivity implications of labour turnover. 

6. (a ) "Tests are useful in predicting the failure rather than success of the candidate on the job.” Comment. 
(b) Explain the rationale of workers' participation in management. Suggest measures to make it more effective. 
(c) "Multiplicity of unions has retarded the effective working of trade unions in India." Discuss. 

7. (a) What do you mean by a model employer? Critically examine the role of public enterprises in acting as a model employer. 
(b) Elucidate the executive development techniques relating to interpersonal and decision-making skills. 
(c) How is job design different from job analysis? 

8. (a) "There are two approaches of managing industrial disputes in organization-preventive and curative." Examine this statement. Also evaluate their individual effectiveness. 
(b) "An experiment in profit-sharing scheme on a wide scale would be definitely undertaking a voyage on uncharted seas." Discuss this statement. 
(c) Explain the organs of International Labour Organization. 

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(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper 1)

• Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper I)
• Time Allowed : Three Hours
• Marks: 250

खण A SECTIONA 

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : (10x5=50)

(a) Briefly explain the significance of Accounting Standard-7 (AS-7). 
(b) Explain why the companies issue right shares. How are right shares different from bonus shares? 
(c) Discuss the main aspects of audit of a banking company in India. 
(d) Define fair rent and annual rent under income from house property as per Indian Income Tax Act, 1961. Explain it with an example. 
(e) What is job costing? How is it different from process costing? Explain. 

Q2. (a) A Ltd. has acquired the business of B Ltd., whose Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2024 is as under: 

A Ltd. was to take over all assets (except cash) and liabilities (except for interest due on debentures) and to pay the following amounts: 

(i) 4,00,000, 7% Debentures ( 100 each) in A Ltd. for the existing debentures in B Ltd.; for the purpose, each debenture of A Ltd. is to be treated as worth 105. 
(ii) For each preference share in B Ltd. 10 in cash and 9% preference shares of 100 each in A Ltd. 
(iii) For each equity share in B Ltd. 20 in cash and one equity share in A Ltd. of 100 each having market value of 140. 
(iv) Expenses of liquidation of B Ltd. are to be reimbursed by A Ltd. to the extent of 20,000. Actual expenses amounted to 25,000. 

A Ltd. valued Land and Building at 11,00,000, Plant and Machinery at 13,00,000 and Patents at 40,000 of B Ltd. for the purpose of amalgamation. 
Pass necessary journal entries in the books of A Ltd. and B Ltd. 

(b) A Ltd. furnishes the following Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2024 : 

The company passed a resolution to buy back 20% of its equity capital @15 per share. For this purpose, it sold its investments of 60 lakhs for 50 lakhs.
You are required to pass necessary journal entries in the books of A Ltd. and prepare Balance Sheet after buyback of shares. 

(c) (i) State the methods of computation of Short-term and Long-term capital gains under Indian Income Tax Act, 1961. 
(ii) State the rules of capital gains in case of transfer of depreciable assets under Section 50 of the Indian Income Tax Act, 1961. 

Q3. (a) During the month of May 2024, total 2000 units were introduced into Process-I. The normal loss was estimated at 5% on input. At the end of the month, 1400 units had been produced and transferred to the next process, 460 units were incomplete and 140 units had been scrapped. It was estimated that incomplete units had reached a stage in production as follows : 
Material : 75% completed
Labour :  50% completed 
Overheads : 50% completed 
The cost of 2000 units introduced was Rs. 5,800. Direct material introduced during the process amounted to Rs. 1,440. Production Overheads incurred were Rs. 1,670 and Direct Labour was Rs. 3,340. Each unit scrapped was realized at 1 each unit. The units scrapped have passed through the process, so were 100% completed as regards material, labour and overheads. 

You are requested to prepare the following statements: 
(i) Statement of Equivalent Production; 
(ii) Statement of Cost and Evaluation; 
(iii) Process-I Account ; and 
(iv) Abnormal Loss Account. 

(b) "Cost Accounting is a system of foresight and not a post-mortem, it turns losses into profits, speeds up activities and eliminates waste." Explain the statement along with your viewpoints. 
(c) What are the key differences between Special Audit and Accounts Investigation? Give your viewpoint along with examples. 

Q4. (a) Mrs. Y (59 years) receives Rs. 7,90,000 as basic pay and Rs. 1,18,000 as bonus during the previous year 2023 – 24. Besides, she gets Rs. 52,000 as Dearness Allowance (forming part of salary) and 4 percent commission on turnover achieved by her. During the year, turnover achieved by her is Rs. 90 lakh. The employer contributes Rs. 2,24,240 towards recognised provident fund. The amount of interest credited to provident fund on 30 November, 2023 at the rate of 10 percent comes to Rs.40,000. She also gets child education allowance of Rs. 450 per month ( for daughter) and Rs. 80 per month ( for son). Cost of education is approximately Rs. 1,80,000 for two children (out of which Rs. 1,10,000 is tuition fees paid by Mrs. Y). The employer company provides 1800 cc car to her for official and private purpose and incurs the entire expenditure on running and maintenance of the car. Personal use of the car as per log book is approximately 65 percent. With effect from 1 November, 2023, she gets a driver to whom the company pays Rs. 6,000 per month. Her income from house property is Rs. 1,65,000. 

During the year she makes the following contributions and investments : 

(i) Own contribution towards provident fund Rs.3,36,360.
(ii) Insurance premium on own life Rs.9,000 (sum assured Rs.80,000, policy taken in December 2018). 
(iii) Contribution towards NSC VIII issue Rs. 11,000. 
(iv) Insurance premium on the life of major son (not dependent on her) Rs.4,000 (sum assured Rs. 1,00,000). 
(v) Insurance premium on the life of her mother (age 80 years ) dependent on her Rs.2,000. 
(vi) Repayment of loan taken to purchase house property Rs. 21,000. Determine the taxable income of Mrs. Y for the assessment year 2024 – 25 under regular tax regime. Also calculate Gross Qualifying amount under Section 80 C. 

(b) What are the conditions required for availing of additional depreciation as per the Indian Income Tax Act, 1961 ? Explain with a detailed example. 
(c) Discuss in detail the important checklist points for a smooth and effective audit of non-profit making organisations. How is it different from the audit of modern day business organisations? 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : ( 10x5= 50 ) 

(a) Define corporate restructuring. Differentiate between mergers and acquisitions. Also give suitable examples. 
(b) Distinguish between money market and capital market. Explain the present state of RBI policy for the money market. 
(c) management. Why wealth-maximization the preferred objective? 
(d) "Indian capital markets are sound and well-structured under SEBI's supervision.” Explain this statement. 
(e) "Investment decisions are more important than financing and distribution decisions in financial management." Discuss this statement.

Q6. (a) Six years ago, a machine was purchased for Rs. 3,00,000. It has been depreciated to a book value of Rs. 1,80,000. Its economic life was 15 years with no salvage value. If this machine is replaced by a new machine costing Rs. 4,50,000, the operating cost would be reduced by Rs. 60,000 for the next 10 years. The old machine could also be sold for Rs. 10,000. The cost of capital is 10%. The new machine will be depreciated on straight line basis over eight years life with Rs. 50,000 as salvage value. 
Assuming the company's tax rate to be 55% and using the NPV method, state whether the old machine should be replaced or not. 

The present value factor at 10% is as follows : 

Year      1         2           3         4            5         6          7       8
PVF | 0909 | 0-826 | 0-751 | 0-683 | 0-621 | 0-564 | 0513 | 0-467 

(b) Discuss the risk-return trade-off in financial decisions. Give examples.
(c) How will you measure the degree of combined leverage? Also describe the effects of combined leverage along with suitable examples. 

Q7. (a) The Board of Directors of a company asks to prepare a statement showing working capital estimates for a level of activity of 15,600 units of production. The following information is available for calculation: (A) Per Unit Cost and Selling Price: 
Raw materials 90 
Labour RS.RS.40 
Overheads RS.75 
total : 205 
Selling Price: 265
Profit :RS.60 

(B) (i) Raw materials are in stock on an average for one month. 
(ii) Raw materials are in process on an average for two weeks. 
(iii) Finished goods are in stock on an average for one month. 
(iv) Credit allowed by suppliers - one month. 
(v) Credit allowed to debtors - two months. 
(vi) Lag in payment of wages 1 weeks. 
(vii) Lag in payment of overheads is one month. 

20% of the production is sold against cash. Cash in hand is expected to be 60,000. It is to be assumed that production is carried on evenly, throughout the year, wages and overheads accrue similarly and the time period of 4 weeks is equivalent to one month. 

(b) A company has earnings of 1,00,000. The capital structure of the company contains debt as well as equity in which debt is of 4,00,000 borrowed at the rate of 10%. Presently, the cost of equity capital of the company is 12.50%. Find out the total value of the company and the overall cost of capital using Net Income approach. If debt is increased or reduced by 1,00,000, what will be the effect on the value of the company and on overall cost of capital as per the Net Income approach? 
(c) Discuss the leading financial market instruments and innovative debt instruments in the Indian financial system. Also give suitable examples. 

Q8. (a) Explain the key classification of the Indian financial system. Make a diagram that depicts the entire financial system and its key components.
(b) "The insurance industry in India is growing very fast under the direction and control of IRDA." In the light of this statement, discuss the emerging trends in life and health insurance. Also explain the government policy initiatives in this regard. 
(c) Define working capital management in a manufacturing firm. What are the key components of working capital? How does inventory management hold importance over cash management in modern business organisations? 

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