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(Download) UPSC (MAIN) EXAM:2024 PHILOSOPHY (Paper 2)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 PHILOSOPHY (Paper 2)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Philosophy

  • Paper :2

  • Year : 2024

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड 'A' SECTION 'A' 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50

1.(a) Briefly discuss Plato's concept of justice. 
1.(b) Present a brief account of origin and development of Social Contract Theory.
1.(c) Discuss the main factors responsible for caste discrimination. 
1.(d)  Present an exposition of the concept of alienation as propounded by Marx.
1.(e) Compare socialism and communism as two distinct political ideologies.

2. (a) Delineate the central tenets of Humanism. How does advent of enlightenment in Europe pave the way for Humanism? Discuss.
2. (b) Critically evaluate the concepts of liberty and equality as political ideals. 
2. (c) Present an exposition of Gandhi's views on secularism as one of the foundational principles of democracy. 

3. (a) Do you agree with the view that Aristotle was more successful than Plato in steering a 20 middle course between 'Statism' and 'individualism' ? Discuss with arguments.
3.(b) On what grounds would you accept or reject the idea of capital punishment as an effective deterrent ? Discuss. 
3.(c) Is economic development a necessary condition, sufficient condition, both or neither, in order to achieve social progress? Give reasons and justifications for your answer. 10+5=15 

4. (a) Discuss gender equality as a necessary condition to achieve empowerment of women. Also examine the role of women empowerment in curbing the menace of female foeticide. 
4. (b) What insights does the Arthaśāṣtra offer with regard to the concept of sovereignty? Does it have any relevance in the modern times? Critically discuss. 
4. (c) Discuss the role of ethical principles of tolerance and coexistence for the rise of multicultural societies. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5.Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50

5. (a) Can there be a religion without morality? Discuss. 
5.(b) Write a note on the notion of absolute truth in the context of religion. 
5.(c) Discuss the concept of liberation (Apavarga) according to Nyāya-Vaiseṣika. 
5. (d) Discuss the role of reason in religion. 
5. (e) Explain the analogical nature of religious language 

6. (a) Is it necessary to adhere to the notions of immortality of soul and rebirth in order to have a robust conception of liberation? Give reasons and justifications for your answer. 
6. (b) How does the notion of God in Spinoza's philosophy embedded in his metaphysics of substance and attributes? Critically discuss. 
6. (c) "The problem of evil is a direct offshoot of how God is conceptualised in a system." Critically discuss. 

7.(a) State and evaluate Buddhism as a religion without God. 
7.(b) What kind of epistemic justifications are possible with regard to claims to revelation? Discuss with your own comments. 
7.(c) Present an exposition of ontological proof for the existence of God along with its criticism. 

8. (a) Distinguish between cognitivist and non-cognitivist account of religious language. Does the cognitivist account lead to any contradiction? Answer with reference to the 10+10=20 philosophical views of R. B. Braithwaite. 
8. (b) "In order to be conceived as the ultimate cause of the world, God must necessarily have some form of physical manifestation." Do you agree with this view? Give reasons and justifications for your answer. 
8. (c) Discuss the main features of religious experience according to Advaita Vedanta. 
 

(Download) UPSC (MAIN) EXAM:2024 PHILOSOPHY (Paper 1)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 PHILOSOPHY (Paper 1)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Philosophy

  • Paper : 1

  • Year : 2024

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours


खण्ड A SECTION A 

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5= 50 

(a) Differentiate between Plato's and Aristotle's conceptions of form. 
(b) How does Kant respond to Hume's scepticism with regard to a priori judgments? Discuss. 
(c) What arguments are offered by Moore to prove that there are certain truisms, knowledge of which is a matter of common sense? Critically discuss. 
(d) Why does later Wittgenstein think that there cannot be a language that only one person can speak a language that is essentially private ? Discuss. 
(e) How does Kierkegaard define truth in terms of subjectivity? Critically discuss. 

Q2. (a) Is rejection of Locke's notion of primary qualities instrumental in Berkeley's leaning towards idealism? In this context, also discuss how Berkeley's subjective idealism is different from the absolute idealism proposed by Hegel. 
(b) How does Spinoza establish that God alone is absolutely real with his statement – “Whatever is, is in God” ? Critically discuss. 
(c) Critically examine Kant's objections against the ontological argument for the existence of God.  

Q3.(a) Explain Russell's notion of incomplete symbols. Also explain how this notion leads to the doctrine of logical atomism. 
(b) Is the sentence "All objects are either red or not red" meaningful in the same way as "This page is white" is, according to the logical positivists? Discuss with arguments. 
(c) Among the rationalists, whose account of mind-body problem is compatible with the notion of human freedom and free will? Critically discuss. 

Q4. (a) What do the existentialist thinkers mean by the slogan "existence precedes essence"? How is human existence related to human freedom according to them ? Discuss. 
(b) Why does Husserl think that essences exhibit a kind of continuity between consciousness and being? Discuss. 
(c) Explain the nature of the two dogmas that Quine refers to in his paper "Two Dogmas of Empiricism'. 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5=50  

(a) Do you think Cārvāka's philosophy is positivistic in nature? Give reasons and justifications for your answer. 
(b) Explain the six reasons offered by the Naiyayikas to prove the existence of the self. 
(c) Do these two sentences "Air does not have heat" and "Air is not fire" refer to the same type of absence or abhāva, according to the Vaiśesikas? Discuss. 
(d) How does Bhāṭṭa's view of nature of word-meaning and sentential-meaning differ from Prābhākara's view ? Critically discuss. 
(e) "In Visiṣṭādvaita philosophy, the relationship between God and the world is parallel to that between an individual self and its body." Critically discuss. 

Q6. (a) Differentiate between the Cārvākas' refutation of self as transcendental category and the Buddhist rejection of ātmā. 
(b) How do the two schools of Buddhism arrive at two opposed conclusions, namely "everything is void" and "everything is real" from the same doctrine of Pratityasamutpada? Answer with arguments. 
(c) What is the distinction between Bhavabandha and Dravyabandha, according to the Jainas ? Discuss. 

Q7. (a) Present an account of evolution of Prakṛti as propounded in Sāmkhyakārikā. In this context, also explain the difference between buddhi, mahat and ahamkāra. 
(b) "So long as there are changes and modifications in citta, the self is reflected therein, and, in the absence of discriminative knowledge, identifies itself with them." Present an appraisal of Yoga Soteriology in the light of the above statement. 
(c) "Our Yoga is a double movement of ascent and descent." Discuss the above statement in the context of Sri Aurobindo's conception of Integral Yoga. 

Q8. (a) How do I know that I know? Answer this question with reference to the Naiyāyikas, the Bhāṭṭa Mīmāmsākas and the Prabhakaras. 
(b) "A candidate who is never seen to be studying during the day time secures a high position in a competitive exam." How would the Bhāṭṭa Mīmāmsākas and the Naiyayikas explain the success of this candidate? Discuss. 
(c) On what grounds do the Prabhakaras and the Naiyayikas reject memory as a source of knowledge ? Discuss. 

(Download) UPSC MAINS 2024 - LAW Paper-2

(Download) UPSC 2024 LAW Paper II

  • Exam Name: UPSC 2024 LAW Paper II
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Year : 2024
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड 'A' SECTION ‘A’ 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each.Support your answer with relevant legal provisions and Judicial pronouncements : 10×5=50

1. (a) The underlying principle of mens-rea is expressed in the familiar Latin maxim 'actus non-facit reum nisi mens sit rea,' - 'the act does not make a man guilty unless the mind is also guilty.' Explain with decided cases.  
1. (b) "The principle that every conspirator is liable for all the acts of co-conspirators if they are towards attaining the goals of the conspiracy even if some of them have not actively participated in the commission of that offence/s." In the light of above statement, explain the principle of criminal conspiracy as per Indian Penal Code 1860.
1. (c) 'It is the degree of negligence which really determines whether a particular action will amount to rash and negligent act as required to hold a person guilty of homicide under Section 304 - A of Indian Penal Code, 1860.' Discuss. 
1. (d) 'The determination of vicarious liability of the state is linked with the negligence made by all its functionaries and no immunity can be claimed.' In the light of above observation discuss; vicarious liability of state with reference to its sovereign functions.
1. (e) “The introduction of 'product liability' under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 marked an end of the 'buyer beware' doctrine and the introduction of 'seller beware' as the new doctrine.” Discuss. 

2. (a) "Justification for introduction of 'plea-bargaining' in India was that it will reduce delay in case of undertrial prisoners in a cheaper and quicker method." Do you appreciate its existence in the same form or not? Justify your answer.
2. (b) 'Intoxication impairs perception and judgement both so one fails to foresee the result of his conduct.' In this backdrop, examine the law relating to the defence of intoxication and refer to the leading cases. 
2. (c) How far do you agree that prevention of corruption Act 1988 is an important legal instrument in curbing corruption in the society. Discuss. What are the types of offences recognised under this law and what are punishments?

3. (a) "It is the mode of acquiring possession of property of other party with/without his consent, which determines the type of offence against property and thus distinguishes theft, misappropriation and Criminal breach of trust.” Discuss. 
3. (b) "A person is liable for Public nuisance, when he does an act or illegal omission which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public..." Discuss Nuisance in the light of above statement along with its types. 
3. (c) Explain 'false imprisonment' as per law of Torts and distinguish it from 'malicious prosecution.' 

4. (a) 'If an enterprise is permitted to carry on any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity for its profits, the cost of any accident arising on account of such activity must be an appropriate term of overheads.' Comment. (M. C. Mehta v. U.O.I.) 
4. (b) 'Kidnapping is a substantive offence while abduction is not an offence exclusively. It becomes offence, when committed with a criminal intent.' Explain. 
4. (c) 'The offence of abetment depends upon the intention of the abettor not upon the act committed by the abetted person.' Explain. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. Support your answer with relevant legal provisions and Judicial pronouncements: 10×5=50 

5. (a) A "Quasi-Contract' arises out of judicial principles and not out of contractual agreement between two parties." Explain. 
5. (b) Every partner of a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) for the purposes of its business is its agent but not that of other partners. Analyse the extent of liability of LLP and its partners. 
5. (c) "The rights of an unpaid seller do not depend upon any agreement, express or implied, between the parties. They arise by implication of law.' Explain. 
5. (d) Mutual rights and duties of the Principal and agent may be wholly provided for in their contract. Discuss the general duties of the agent with special reference to the duty of reasonable care and skill. 
5. (e) What is the commercial significance of the Geographical Indications of Goods? Explain the benefits that accrue to the registered proprietors and authorised users by registration of Geographical Indications of Goods. 

6. (a) Discuss the rules which are taken into account by the courts while awarding damages for the breach of contract. Refer to the relevant statutory provisions and case law. 
6. (b) 'An illegal contract is always void but a void contract is not always illegal.' Examine while illustrating both the types of contract. 
6. (c) "The principle of arbitral autonomy is an integral element of the ever evolving domain of arbitration law .... The basis of arbitral autonomy is to give effect to the true intention of the parties to distance themselves from the 'risk of domestic judicial parochialism.'" Comment with reference to the theory and practice. 

7. (a) 'The liability of a surety is secondary, but it is co-extensive with that of Principal debtor.' In this backdrop, discuss the nature and extent of liability of surety.
7. (b) ‘Sections 124 and 125 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are not exhaustive of the law of indemnity.' Comment in the context of Indemnity and Indemnity - holder's rights.
7. (c) 'Mistake does not defeat consent, but only misleads the parties.' Explain citing the 15 relevant legal provisions and cases decided by the courts. 

8. (a) "There is, in recent years, a feeling which is not without any foundation that 'public interest litigation' is now tending to become 'publicity interest litigation' or 'private interest litigation', and has a tendency to be counter-productive." Examine the 20 statement critically. 
8. (b) Discuss the relevance of the 'safe harbour' clause under the Information Technology Act 2000. Comment on the need to make the intermediaries liable for transmitting the posts and communications of third parties.
8. (c) An information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought. Are there any exceptions to this rule? Explain with suitable illustrations. 

(Download) UPSC MAINS 2024 - LAW Paper-1

(Download) UPSC 2024 LAW Paper I

  • Exam Name: UPSC 2024 LAW Paper I
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Year : 2024
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Examine the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to criminal matters. 
(b) The Parliament or any State Legislature should keep within the domain assigned to it and not encroach upon the other's subject. Critically examine. 
(c) "Every person who is a member of civil service of the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President." Is there any exception to this rule? Describe. 
(d) The Indian Constitution permits delegation but imposes specific restrictions to ensure alignment with the Parent Act and protect legislative intent. Examine with illustrations. 
(e) "A law is void only to the extent of inconsistency or contravention with the relevant Fundamental Right." Explain with the help of decided cases. 

2. (a) The concept of Public Interest Litigation is an exception to the rule of 'locus standi'. Elaborate in the light of its evolution, aims and objects in India with the help of leading cases. Also discuss its drawbacks. 
(b) "Constitutionalism is the concept of limited government under a Fundamental Law." In the light of this, differentiate between distinctive features of Constitution and Constitutionalism. 
(c) Discuss the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers under the parliamentary form of government in India. Explain with the help of relevant constitutional provisions. 

3. (a) “Article 194, which is an exact reproduction of Article 105, deals with the State Legislatures and their members and committees." On this background, comment that both the Articles are complementary to each other and should be read together. 
(b) Who are 'minorities'? The Constitution of India protects the rights and interests of minorities to the extent that the rights conferred to them to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions. Discuss with the help of decided case laws. 
(c) Discuss the procedure of amending the Constitution. Are there any restrictions also in this regard? Support your answer with the help of relevant Supreme Court judgments. 

4. (a) In recent years, the concept of 'Cooperative Federalism' has played a pivotal role in constitutional governance of the nation but at the same time it comes across various challenges as well. Elaborate. 
(b ) "The Fundamental Rights are not an end in themselves but are the means to an end. The end is specified in the Directive Principles." Analyze the statement. 
(c) "The ordinance making power of the President and the Governors is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution but it balances on a razor-sharp edge between pragmatic governance and potential over-reach." Critically examine with the help of decided case laws. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Define International Law. Enumerate its weaknesses and give suggestions for improvement. 
(b) What is State recognition? Draw a distinction between recognition de jure and de facto. 
(c) Examine the importance of nationality and discuss the modes of acquisition of nationality. 
(d) Distinguish between the concept of territorial sea and inland water. Comment on the breadth of territorial sea that is internationally accepted. 
(e) Examine the importance of 'the Economic and Social Council' as a principal organ of the United Nations. 

6. (a) Peaceful settlement of international disputes has been developed on the principles of International Law concerning friendly relations and cooperations among States. Explain. 
(b) The present world 'Economic Order' is supposed to be granted by the operation of free market forces propelled by free competition and enterprises, based on free movement of goods and services including technology. Elucidate. 
(c) International Law and Municipal Law are two branches of unified knowledge of law, which are applicable to human community in someway or the other. Elaborate with the help of prevalent theories. 

7. (a) Following 'World War II' destruction, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund emerged as two historic institutions to promote economic recovery and to build a global monetary system to ensure economic stability around the world. Discuss at length. 
(b) Discuss the law on extradition. The procedure for granting asylum and approving extradition requests differ significantly. Explain. 
(c) What is intervention? Discuss the intervention on humanitarian grounds and the intervention due to self-defence. 

8. (a) Describe the constitution of United Nations Security Council's 'Counter- Terrorism Committee'. To what extent has this Committee been effective in countering terrorism across international borders? Critically analyze. 
(b) What do you understand by nuclear disarmament? Do you agree with the opinion that Comprehensive Nuclear - Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) has been successful in achieving its objects? Critically examine. 
(c) What is statelessness? A stateless person is often subjected to a number of human rights violation. What are the impediments that people face due to statelessness? Elaborate the human rights issues that are connected to statelessness. 
 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam : 2024 - History (Paper-2)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - History (Paper-2)

  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS MAINS HISTORY - PAPER- II
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड 'A' SECTION 'A' 

1. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10×5=50 

1. (a) After the battle of Plassey, the mercenary became the Kingmaker. 
1.(b) The values of utilitarianism prompted the Company administration to attempt reform of Indian society.
1.(c) In course of the 19th century, the agenda of social reform was gradually replaced by revivalism. 
1. (d) The federal provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935 foundered on the rock of princely intransigence. 
1.(e) The strength of the Pakistan programme was its vagueness. It meant everything to everyone. 

2. (a) The pace of commercialisation of agriculture increased as a result of British revenue policies in India. - Critically examine. 
2.(b) Why was the Great Revolt of 1857 confined only to North India? How did it change the character of British rule in the subcontinent? Explain.
2.(c) Why did the demand for land reform never become an agenda in national politics after 1947? Elucidate. 

3. (a) Political extremism in colonial India often converged with cultural nationalism, but not always. - Comment. 
3.(b) Regionalism in India after 1947 was occasioned by developmental imperatives as much as linguistic particularism. – Elucidate.
3.(c) Twenty years of peace secured by the treaty of Salbai proved very costly to the Marathas in strategic terms. - Elucidate.

4. (a) The Swadeshi movement of 1905 anticipated many of the tactics that were later developed during the Gandhian mass movement. - Critically examine.
4. (b) The trade union movement joined forces with the mainstream of nationalist politics to strengthen each other in their struggle against colonial rule. - Comment. 
4. (c) India's developmental strategy after independence was influenced by economic imperatives, not ideological considerations. – Comment. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10×5 = 50

5. (a) The ideas raised by Enlightenment thinkers were profoundly unsettling and challenging to old regime society and political order. 
5.(b) The American Civil War was a result of disparity of needs of industrial north and agrarian south. 
5.(c) The unification of Germany was as much a product of coal and iron as it was of blood and iron. 
5. (d) The new regime in China addressed the peasant question by instituting wholesale land redistribution, which was carried out swiftly and ruthlessly. 
5. (e) The revolutions of 1989 did not simply destroy governments; they also ended an ideology. 

6. (a) The course of the English industrialization was too long drawn to be considered a revolution. Comment. 
6. (b) The social and political landscape of Europe after the first world war was uniquely suited to the rise of Fascism. Discuss. 
6. (c) The state was the most important factor in the industrialization of Russia. Comment. 

7.(a) The second world war was a truly global conflict. Discuss.
7.(b) Trace the different stages of European economic integration. 
7. (c) The nature of apartheid regime undermined South Africa's claim of being a democratic polity. 

8. (a) The emergence of two power blocs not only symbolised two competing ideologies but also two alternative models of economic growth. Explain. 
8. (b) To what extent underdevelopment in Latin America is caused by neo-imperialism? 
8. (c) How did Ho Chi Minh emerge as the central figure in the Vietnamese independence movement ? 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam : 2024 - History (Paper-1)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - History (Paper-1)

  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS MAINS HISTORY - PAPER- I
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Identify the following places marked on the map supplied to you and write a short note of about 30 words on each of them in your Question-cum-Answer Booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim: 50 
(i) Prehistoric site 
(ii) Area of petroglyphs 
(iii) Neolithic site 
(iv) Harappan site 
(v) Buddhist monastery 
(vi) Chalcolithic site 
(vii) Neo-Chalcolithic site 
(viii) Megalithic site with rock art 
(ix) One of the Mahajanapadas' capital and associated with Buddha's miracle 
(x) Hominid fossil find site 
(xi) Major rock edict of Ashoka 
(xii) Ancient trade centre 
(xiii) Stone inscription recording land grants with tax exemptions 
(xiv) Shiva temples named after family relationships 
(xv) Place of art-related inscription 
(xvi) Place of inscription of three languages 
(xvii) Temple site where three styles of temple architecture are found 
(xviii) Jain pilgrimage site 
(xic) Shiva temple of Gupta period 
(xx ) Megalithic monumental site 

2. (a) Harappan art contributes to our understanding of their aesthetic sensibilities in addition to spiritual and ritualistic life. Comment. 20 
(b) Discuss different types of Megalithic burial practices in India. How far does the archaeological evidence from it help us to know the religious beliefs and cultural practices? 
(c) Western Kshatrapas are known for their socio-economic contribution, particularly in trade, agriculture and urbanization. Examine the statement. 

3. (a) Symbiotic relationships between Buddhist establishments, traders, artisan guilds, and royal support led to a close proximity of religion, economy and polity in the Mauryan and post-Mauryan periods. Examine the statement. 
(b) Discuss the role of Buddhism in shaping the socio-religious landscape of the Mauryan Empire. 
(c) Discuss the evolution of State institution and taxation system from Rigvedic period to later Vedic period. 

4. (a) Highlight the contributions of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta in the fields of Astronomy and Mathematics. 
(b) Examine the course of Pallava-Chalukya conflicts between sixth and eighth century CE. 
(c) Examine the role played by the Agraharas in the promotion of education in the early medieval India. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5 = 50 

(a) Illustrate the main features of Vesara style temple architecture. 
(b) Evaluate Firuz Shah Tughluq's economic policies. 
(c) Evaluate the contribution of Qalandariyyah to medieval Indian culture. 
(d) Discuss the main features of Malwa school of painting with examples. 
(e) Highlight the features of Portuguese colonial enterprise. 

6. (a) Analyze the contributions of Acharya Triumvirate to Indian Vedanta. 
(b) Compare and contrast the position of Hindu and Muslim women in 13th and 14th century India. 
(c) Examine the causes and consequences of peasants uprising during the reign of Aurangzeb. 

7. (a) "Instead of bringing credit, the Ibadat Khana brought growing discredit to Akbar." Comment. 20 
(b) How did the Maratha guerrilla warfare tactics contribute to their military successes against larger and more established armies? 
(c) Examine the role of Asaf Jahi Dynasty in the political transformation of the State of Hyderabad. 

8. (a) Discuss the contributions of Bahmani Sultans to the development of Indo-Islamic architecture. 
(b) Evaluate the impact of the Third Battle of Panipat on the political economy of 18th century India. 
(c) Examine the process of urbanization caused by the establishment of European trading companies in India. 
 

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