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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 Economics (Paper-1)


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 Economics (Paper-1)


Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Economics (Paper-I)

Marks: 250

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Year : 2024

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 

(a) Differentiate between perceived demand curve and proportional demand curve in a monopolistic competitive market. Explain why the proportional demand curve is steeper than the perceived demand curve. 
(b) Discuss critically the phenomenon of classical dichotomy. 
(c) Show that ad valorem tax is preferable to specific sales tax from a firm's point of view in generating the same level of tax revenue. 
(d) Examine the role of treasury bills in controlling money supply. 
(e) Write down the major assumptions behind Neoclassical Loanable Funds Theory of Interest. 

2. (a) Derive Pareto optimality conditions in production in a two commodities-two factors-two producers framework. Show that Pareto optimality does not necessarily guarantee for equity.
(b) Write down the behavioural assumptions used in Marshallian and Walrasian approaches of market stability. Show that these two approaches become conflicting when both the demand and supply curves are positively sloped. 
(c) Describe the short-run and long-run equilibrium of a firm under monopolistic competition. 

3. (a) Explain the concept of underemployment equilibrium with graphical illustration. Why full employment cannot be reached automatically in Keynes' approach? Analyse. 
(b) Calculate the equilibrium national income (Y) and interest rate (r) by using an appropriate macroeconomic model from the information given below: 
Aggregate saving function : s = -40 +0.5(Y – T) + 0.25r 
Tax function : T = 20 + 0.2Y 
Investment function : I = 20 - 0.25r 
Money demand function : L = 0.4Y - 0.5r 
Aggregate money supply : M= 40 ( rupees in crore ) 
How will the equilibrium values change when money supply is increased by ₹20 crore? 

(c) Critically analyse classical theory of interest. 

4. (a) Describe the mechanism of credit creation by commercial banks and its implications on multiplier effect. Analyse some of the limitations that can jeopardise the implications on multiplier effect. 
(b) Distir uish between public goods and private goods. Explain how market failure occurs in the case of public goods. 
(c) What is the difference between Fisher's theory and Cambridge cash balance approach to quantity theory of money? What is the criticism of each? Which one is more relevant in present context? Justify. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Critically examine 'per capita' GDP as a crude indicator of development. 
(b) Explain managed floating and sterilized interventions for exchange rate. 
(c) Discuss how carbon trading is helpful in reducing environmental degradation. 
(d) "Higher tariffs do not increase employment, they just redistribute the unemployed." Do you agree with the statement? Explain.913A 
(e) Explain how the equilibrium terms of trade are determined by using offer curves of the trading partners. 

6. (a) Discuss the elasticity approach and absorption approach for adjustments in balance of payments. 
(b) By using Stolper-Samuelson theorem, discuss the possible effects of free trade on income inequalities in developing countries. 
(c) Explain how the elasticity of demand for foreign exchange is influenced by the elasticity of home demand for imports and by the elasticity of home supply of import-competing goods. 

7. (a) Explain how the structural transformation, in the economy, takes place with surplus labour as per Lewis theory of economic development. 
(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of public-private partnership model for economic development? What are the key prerequisites for success of PPP model? Explain giving examples. 
(c) Discuss the issues (pros and cons) in the debate over import substitution and export promotion strategy for developing countries. Which strategy would you favour and why? Explain. 

8. (a) Describe the major components used in Human Development Index (HDI) by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Write down the methodological limitations of this index. Suggest appropriate method to eliminate these limitations. 
(b) Discuss the inverted 'U' shaped hypothesis by Kuznets in describing the relationship between inequality and economic growth. How is this hypothesis useful for developing countries? 
(c) Distinguish between warranted rate of growth and natural rate of growth. Explain how knife-edge instability problem occurs in Harrod's model of economic growth. 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 COMMERCE AND ACCOUNTANCY (Paper 2)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper 2)


  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper II)
  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Marks: 250

 

खण्ड —A / SECTION A

1. Answer each of the following questions in about 150 words : 10×5=50

(a) How does sensation differ from perception? 
(b) Explain the major differences between transactional and transformational leaders. 
(c) Why do we need to coordinate formal and informal organizations? 
(d) What are the limitations of matrix organization? 
(e) How does socialization help in maintaining organizational culture? 

2. (a) How have organizations been defined? Compare different perspectives of organizations in India and Western countries. 
(b) What are the 'big five personality traits'? Which one seems to have the biggest impact on performance? How would the knowledge of these help the manager in his job? 
(c) Explain the phases of developing quality circle. 

3. (a) What are the major criticisms levelled against Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation? Explain its contribution for the better understanding of motivation at the workplace. 
(b) Examine the different approaches for designing organizational structure. Evaluate the process involved in it. 
(c) How does organizational transition differ from organizational change and renewal? 

4. (a) Why does organizational politics emerge? What are its consequences? Suggest measures to avoid them. 
(b ) "There is a need for integrating individual and organizational goals." Examine this statement. How does it affect organizational effectiveness? 
(c) Distinguish between delegation of authority and decentralization. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer each of the following questions in about 150 words : 10×5 = 50 

(a) Discuss the problems faced in human resource planning. 
(b) Elaborate the merits and limitations of 360° feedback. 
(c) Why is collective bargaining not effective in India? Explain its reasons. 
(d) How is voluntary separation different from involuntary separation? 
(e) Explain the productivity implications of labour turnover. 

6. (a ) "Tests are useful in predicting the failure rather than success of the candidate on the job.” Comment. 
(b) Explain the rationale of workers' participation in management. Suggest measures to make it more effective. 
(c) "Multiplicity of unions has retarded the effective working of trade unions in India." Discuss. 

7. (a) What do you mean by a model employer? Critically examine the role of public enterprises in acting as a model employer. 
(b) Elucidate the executive development techniques relating to interpersonal and decision-making skills. 
(c) How is job design different from job analysis? 

8. (a) "There are two approaches of managing industrial disputes in organization-preventive and curative." Examine this statement. Also evaluate their individual effectiveness. 
(b) "An experiment in profit-sharing scheme on a wide scale would be definitely undertaking a voyage on uncharted seas." Discuss this statement. 
(c) Explain the organs of International Labour Organization. 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 COMMERCE AND ACCOUNTANCY (Paper 1)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper 1)


  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Commerce and Accountancy (Paper I)
  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Marks: 250

खण A SECTIONA 

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : (10x5=50)

(a) Briefly explain the significance of Accounting Standard-7 (AS-7). 
(b) Explain why the companies issue right shares. How are right shares different from bonus shares? 
(c) Discuss the main aspects of audit of a banking company in India. 
(d) Define fair rent and annual rent under income from house property as per Indian Income Tax Act, 1961. Explain it with an example. 
(e) What is job costing? How is it different from process costing? Explain. 

Q2. (a) A Ltd. has acquired the business of B Ltd., whose Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2024 is as under: 


A Ltd. was to take over all assets (except cash) and liabilities (except for interest due on debentures) and to pay the following amounts: 

(i) 4,00,000, 7% Debentures ( 100 each) in A Ltd. for the existing debentures in B Ltd.; for the purpose, each debenture of A Ltd. is to be treated as worth 105. 
(ii) For each preference share in B Ltd. 10 in cash and 9% preference shares of 100 each in A Ltd. 
(iii) For each equity share in B Ltd. 20 in cash and one equity share in A Ltd. of 100 each having market value of 140. 
(iv) Expenses of liquidation of B Ltd. are to be reimbursed by A Ltd. to the extent of 20,000. Actual expenses amounted to 25,000. 

A Ltd. valued Land and Building at 11,00,000, Plant and Machinery at 13,00,000 and Patents at 40,000 of B Ltd. for the purpose of amalgamation. 
Pass necessary journal entries in the books of A Ltd. and B Ltd. 

(b) A Ltd. furnishes the following Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2024 : 


The company passed a resolution to buy back 20% of its equity capital @15 per share. For this purpose, it sold its investments of 60 lakhs for 50 lakhs.
You are required to pass necessary journal entries in the books of A Ltd. and prepare Balance Sheet after buyback of shares. 

(c) (i) State the methods of computation of Short-term and Long-term capital gains under Indian Income Tax Act, 1961. 
(ii) State the rules of capital gains in case of transfer of depreciable assets under Section 50 of the Indian Income Tax Act, 1961. 

Q3. (a) During the month of May 2024, total 2000 units were introduced into Process-I. The normal loss was estimated at 5% on input. At the end of the month, 1400 units had been produced and transferred to the next process, 460 units were incomplete and 140 units had been scrapped. It was estimated that incomplete units had reached a stage in production as follows : 
Material :
75% completed
Labour :  50% completed 
Overheads : 50% completed 
The cost of 2000 units introduced was Rs. 5,800. Direct material introduced during the process amounted to Rs. 1,440. Production Overheads incurred were Rs. 1,670 and Direct Labour was Rs. 3,340. Each unit scrapped was realized at 1 each unit. The units scrapped have passed through the process, so were 100% completed as regards material, labour and overheads. 

You are requested to prepare the following statements: 
(i) Statement of Equivalent Production; 
(ii) Statement of Cost and Evaluation; 
(iii) Process-I Account ; and 
(iv) Abnormal Loss Account. 

(b) "Cost Accounting is a system of foresight and not a post-mortem, it turns losses into profits, speeds up activities and eliminates waste." Explain the statement along with your viewpoints. 
(c) What are the key differences between Special Audit and Accounts Investigation? Give your viewpoint along with examples. 

Q4. (a) Mrs. Y (59 years) receives Rs. 7,90,000 as basic pay and Rs. 1,18,000 as bonus during the previous year 2023 – 24. Besides, she gets Rs. 52,000 as Dearness Allowance (forming part of salary) and 4 percent commission on turnover achieved by her. During the year, turnover achieved by her is Rs. 90 lakh. The employer contributes Rs. 2,24,240 towards recognised provident fund. The amount of interest credited to provident fund on 30 November, 2023 at the rate of 10 percent comes to Rs.40,000. She also gets child education allowance of Rs. 450 per month ( for daughter) and Rs. 80 per month ( for son). Cost of education is approximately Rs. 1,80,000 for two children (out of which Rs. 1,10,000 is tuition fees paid by Mrs. Y). The employer company provides 1800 cc car to her for official and private purpose and incurs the entire expenditure on running and maintenance of the car. Personal use of the car as per log book is approximately 65 percent. With effect from 1 November, 2023, she gets a driver to whom the company pays Rs. 6,000 per month. Her income from house property is Rs. 1,65,000. 

During the year she makes the following contributions and investments : 

(i) Own contribution towards provident fund Rs.3,36,360.
(ii) Insurance premium on own life Rs.9,000 (sum assured Rs.80,000, policy taken in December 2018). 
(iii) Contribution towards NSC VIII issue Rs. 11,000. 
(iv) Insurance premium on the life of major son (not dependent on her) Rs.4,000 (sum assured Rs. 1,00,000). 
(v) Insurance premium on the life of her mother (age 80 years ) dependent on her Rs.2,000. 
(vi) Repayment of loan taken to purchase house property Rs. 21,000. Determine the taxable income of Mrs. Y for the assessment year 2024 – 25 under regular tax regime. Also calculate Gross Qualifying amount under Section 80 C. 

(b) What are the conditions required for availing of additional depreciation as per the Indian Income Tax Act, 1961 ? Explain with a detailed example. 
(c) Discuss in detail the important checklist points for a smooth and effective audit of non-profit making organisations. How is it different from the audit of modern day business organisations? 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : ( 10x5= 50 ) 

(a) Define corporate restructuring. Differentiate between mergers and acquisitions. Also give suitable examples. 
(b) Distinguish between money market and capital market. Explain the present state of RBI policy for the money market. 
(c) management. Why wealth-maximization the preferred objective? 
(d) "Indian capital markets are sound and well-structured under SEBI's supervision.” Explain this statement. 
(e) "Investment decisions are more important than financing and distribution decisions in financial management." Discuss this statement.

Q6. (a) Six years ago, a machine was purchased for Rs. 3,00,000. It has been depreciated to a book value of Rs. 1,80,000. Its economic life was 15 years with no salvage value. If this machine is replaced by a new machine costing Rs. 4,50,000, the operating cost would be reduced by Rs. 60,000 for the next 10 years. The old machine could also be sold for Rs. 10,000. The cost of capital is 10%. The new machine will be depreciated on straight line basis over eight years life with Rs. 50,000 as salvage value. 
Assuming the company's tax rate to be 55% and using the NPV method, state whether the old machine should be replaced or not. 

The present value factor at 10% is as follows : 

Year      1         2           3         4            5         6          7       8
PVF | 0909 | 0-826 | 0-751 | 0-683 | 0-621 | 0-564 | 0513 | 0-467 

(b) Discuss the risk-return trade-off in financial decisions. Give examples.
(c) How will you measure the degree of combined leverage? Also describe the effects of combined leverage along with suitable examples. 

Q7. (a) The Board of Directors of a company asks to prepare a statement showing working capital estimates for a level of activity of 15,600 units of production. The following information is available for calculation: (A) Per Unit Cost and Selling Price: 
Raw materials 90 
Labour RS.RS.40 
Overheads RS.75 
total : 205 
Selling Price: 265
Profit :RS.60 

(B) (i) Raw materials are in stock on an average for one month. 
(ii) Raw materials are in process on an average for two weeks. 
(iii) Finished goods are in stock on an average for one month. 
(iv) Credit allowed by suppliers - one month. 
(v) Credit allowed to debtors - two months. 
(vi) Lag in payment of wages 1 weeks. 
(vii) Lag in payment of overheads is one month. 

20% of the production is sold against cash. Cash in hand is expected to be 60,000. It is to be assumed that production is carried on evenly, throughout the year, wages and overheads accrue similarly and the time period of 4 weeks is equivalent to one month. 

(b) A company has earnings of 1,00,000. The capital structure of the company contains debt as well as equity in which debt is of 4,00,000 borrowed at the rate of 10%. Presently, the cost of equity capital of the company is 12.50%. Find out the total value of the company and the overall cost of capital using Net Income approach. If debt is increased or reduced by 1,00,000, what will be the effect on the value of the company and on overall cost of capital as per the Net Income approach? 
(c) Discuss the leading financial market instruments and innovative debt instruments in the Indian financial system. Also give suitable examples. 

Q8. (a) Explain the key classification of the Indian financial system. Make a diagram that depicts the entire financial system and its key components.
(b) "The insurance industry in India is growing very fast under the direction and control of IRDA." In the light of this statement, discuss the emerging trends in life and health insurance. Also explain the government policy initiatives in this regard. 
(c) Define working capital management in a manufacturing firm. What are the key components of working capital? How does inventory management hold importance over cash management in modern business organisations? 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 BOTANY (Paper-2)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Botany (Paper II)


  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Botany (Paper II)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड 'A' SECTION ‘A’ 

1. Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 

1. (a) Explain the types of variations found in the structure of chromosomes and discuss their importance and significance. 
1. (b) Explain with at least two examples what is incomplete dominance and polygenic inheritance and what happens as a result of these events? 
1. (c) Discuss what are cell receptors and how do they help in cell signalling? Elaborate the answer with the help of at least one example. 
1. (d) Discuss with one example the role of RNA in the origin and evolution of life.
1. (e) Probability and distribution are two important factors which should always be taken into account to establish a successful breeding programme. Explain with a suitable example.

2. (a) Explain briefly the process and importance of the following: 
2. (a) (i) Male sterility and heterosis breeding. 
2. (a) (ii) Molecular basis of cell cycle. 
2. (a) (iii) Gene silencing. 
2. (b) Discuss briefly different methods of gene mapping. How molecular maps are of help in evulating the gene function? 
2. (c) Explain what is apomixis and how this may be of help in plant breeding? Elaborate the answer with suitable examples. 

3. (a) Describe along with illustrated diagrams the structure and function of mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. 
3. (b) (i) Explain with example how male sterility is related to cytoplasmic inheritance? 
3. (b) (ii) Discuss in brief the molecular basis of sex determination in plants.
3. (c) Explain the process of protein synthesis in plants and write a note on the structure and function of proteins. 

4. (a) Discuss briefly the following and comment on their significance: 10+5+5=20 
4. (a) (i) In what way the transfer of genes in plants help in their sustainable development ? Support the answer with an example. 
4. (a) (ii) Importance of biosafety aspects of transgenic crops. 
4. (a) (iii) Polytene chromosomes. 
4. (b) Explain how mass selection will be of help in a successful breeding program. Elaborate the answer with a suitable example. 
4. (c) Briefly discuss various theories of organic evolution. Support the answer with a suitable example and evidence. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

5. (a) Explain what is secondary active transport. Discuss its importance in ion acquisition in plants. 
5. (b) Discuss what is GOGAT? Comment on its catalytic function. 
5.(c) Regulation of seed dormancy and germination by phytohormones. 
5. (d) Metallophytes and their practical importance. 
5. (e) Invasive alien species and their impact on biodiversity. 

6. (a) Explain the compartmentation of biochemical reactions in photorespiration. Comment upon the significance of the process. 
6. (b) Describe the structure of phytochrome. Explain its mode of action in flowering plants. 
6. (c) Give a concise account on altitudinal zonation of vegetation with special reference to Himalayan Vegetation. 

7. (a) Define leaf senescence. Describe important physiological and biochemical changes taking place during this process. Comment upon the regulation of senescence by phytohormones. 
7. (b) Describe the molecular organization of chloroplast ATP synthase. Explain its mechanism of action. 
7. (c) (i) Discuss the causes, consequences and control of eutrophication. 
7. (c) (ii) In present Indian scenario, explain the importance of biosphere reserves in bio-diversity conservation. 

8. (a)(i) What are allosteric enzymes? Explain in detail on the allosteric enzyme modulation. 8 
8. (a) (ii) Describe the process of gluconeogenesis and its significance.
8. (b) What is environmental management? Discuss various control measures to minimize environmental pollution. 
8. (c) Differentiate between mutualism and commensalism by citing two examples for each of them. 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 BOTANY (Paper-1)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Botany (Paper I)


  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Botany (Paper I)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) How are viruses classified based on their symmetry? With a suitable diagram, explain the structure of T4 phage. 
(b) Explain various modes of entry of plant pathogens into their hosts. 
(c) Mention ecological and economic significance of bryophytes. 
(d) Where are the gymnosperms distributed naturally in India? Mention the places where fossils of Bennettitales occur abundantly in India. 
(e) What are the principal directions of evolution of floral structure in angiosperms? Name the ANA grade orders of angiosperms. 

2. (a) Describe the five distinct stages in the life cycle of Puccinia graminis with suitable diagrams. 
(b) With suitable examples, bring out the industrial uses of microorganisms. What are the advantages of using immobilised enzymes and cells in commercial processes? 
(c) Why is Ginkgo biloba called a 'living fossil'? Discuss in the light of its reproductive structures. 

3. (a) Enumerate the beneficial and harmful effects of algae. Add a note on their commercial cultivation. 
(b) Draw the life cycles of a homosporous and a heterosporous pteridophyte. How do they differ? Which is more evolved and why? 
(c) Compare the key features of classifications proposed by Hutchinson and Dahlgren. Discuss their merits and demerits. 

4. (a) Describe the male and female gametophytes of Pinus. How are the processes of pollination and fertilization accomplished in Pinus? 
(b) Illustrate the plant body of Psilotum. Add a note on the primitive characters of Psilotum which indicate its close relation to extinct group Psilotales. 10+5=15 
(c) What are myxomycetes? Outline the life cycle of a typical myxomycete. Mention its protozoa-like and fungus-like characters. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION —— B

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :10 × 5 = 50 

(a) What are the consequences of domestication of plants? Explain. 
(b) Describe how successive cambia cause thickening of the stem in some flowering plants Name any two families that display this phenomenon.
(c) Distinguish various types of agamospermy. Why is apomixis now regarded a tool of practical importance? 
(d) Write the botanical names, family and parts used of any five fibre-yielding plants. 
(e) Differentiate between zygotic and somatic embryos. 

6. (a) Describe different types of endosperm development in angiosperms. What is the significance of aleurone tissue? Mention the function of endosperm in seed. 
(b) Explain and illustrate the characteristic features of Brassicaceae. Mention any five species of the family and their economic importance. 
(c) Write an explanatory note on nutritional superiority of millets over cereals. Write the botanical names of any five millets grown in India. Mention the advantages of cultivating millets. 

7. (a) Write an explanatory account of ethnobotany. Give a critical account of whether ethnobotany is a faith, myth or science. 
(b) Compare the differentiation of xylem and phloem from the cells cut off by cambium. How is a vessel structurally different from a sieve element?
(c) What are the causes of variability in regenerated plants in tissue cultures? Give an account of utility of such variants in improvement of crop plants with examples. 

8. (a) Basal media, growth regulators, sterilization and culture conditions are essential components of plant tissue culture techniques. Write an explanatory note on each of these components. 
(b) How are pollen haploids produced? What are the methods to diploidize such haploids? Explain the importance of pollen haploids in agricultural research. 
(c) "Polarity and symmetry are two essential components of morphogenesis in plants." Elaborate the statement. 
 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper-2)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Animal Husbandry (Paper -II)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024  Animal Husbandry (Paper II)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड -A / SECTION — A 

1. Discuss the following in about 150 words each : 10×5=50

(a) Twinning during embryonic development in animals 
(b) Classification of antimicrobial agents based on the mechanism of action with examples 
(c) Specific requirements for brooder house of chicken 
(d) Important clinical signs exhibited by poultry due to deficiency of vitamin E 
(e) Clinical symptoms and treatment of impaction in bovines 

2. (a) Describe the etiology, clinical signs, postmortem lesions and control of hemorrhagic septicemia in buffaloes. 
(b) Describe various methods and procedures for in vitro staining with reference to histological examination. 
(c) Explain the pharmacology and clinical use of atropine in animals. 

3. (a) Discuss the etiology, clinical signs, diagnosis and treatment of abomasal displacement in cows. 
(b) Describe the causes, clinical symptoms, diagnosis, prevention and treatment of hypomagnesemic tetany. 
(c) Justify the enhanced acceptability of indigenous livestock breeds in changing climate scenario. 

4. (a) Explain various biological samples to be collected for laboratory investigation in bovines along with the tests which can be applied on these samples. 
(b) Discuss different types of conventional vaccines and name the animal diseases against which the vaccines are available in India. 
(c) Describe the boundaries and contents of pelvic cavity in male and female bovines.

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Discuss the following in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Classification of zoonoses based on etiological agents 
(b) Significance of the cohort, case-control and cross-sectional epidemiological studies in animals 
(c) Various procedures for the pasteurization of market milk 
(d) Mechanism of rigor mortis in the goat carcass 
(e) Preslaughter handling and transportation of poultry 

6. (a) Describe the physical, chemical and microbiological examination of blood stains required for veterolegal purposes. 
(b) Explain the manufacturing processes of reconstituted and recombined milks, and compare their attributes. 
(c) Describe various stunning techniques employed for humane slaughter of animals. 

7. (a) Explain the basic processing procedures for the preparation of convenience meat products. 
(b) Discuss the production and physico-chemical properties of cream. Enumerate the common defects encountered during its manufacture and storage. 
(c) Write down various steps in the processing of wool for woollen apparels. 

8. (a) Describe the social and economic implications of proper utilization of slaughter-house byproducts. 
(b) Discuss the preliminary steps required at the field level for controlling an infectious outbreak in animals. 
(c) Enlist various flavour defects in the market milk, their causes and preventions.

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper-1)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Animal Husbandry (Paper -I)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024  Animal Husbandry (Paper I)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड 'A' SECTION ‘A’ 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :10 × 5 = 50 

1. (a) Write about how secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary gland is regulated in animals ? 
1. (b) Discuss in brief about the physiological adjustment of camel in hot desert.
1. (c) Mention about the advantages and disadvantages of information and communication technology (I.C.T.) into animal husbandry. 
1.(d) Discuss about the protein efficiency ratio. 
1.(e) Describe Weende method of feed analysis. 

2. (a) Describe the measurement of energy retention by carbon-nitrogen balance technique. 
2. (b) What is "growth curve"? Describe the different stages of growth curve in animals. 
2. (c) Write about the nutrient requirement of chicken. 

3. (a) Describe about the copper-molybdenum-sulphur inter-relationship in ruminants. 
3. (b) Write in detail about the components of circulatory system in animals.
3. (c) Explain about the feeding of breeding bulls. 
3. (d) Discuss about the use and abuse of antibiotics as feed additives in swine feeding. 
 
4. (a) Describe the various blood biochemical tests and discuss their importance in health status of animals. 
4. (b) Classify antinutritional factors with suitable examples. 
4. (c) Give the diagrammatic representation of kidney.

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 

5. (a) Mention the steps involved in cryopreservation of bull semen.
5.(b) Discuss the points to be considered during care and management of neonatal calf. 
5.(c) Write the characteristics of Gir and Sahiwal cattle. 
5. (d) Discuss the feeding strategies of goat for chevon production.
5. (e) Explain the breeding system used for pig production in India. 

6. (a) Justify the statement that "Maintenance of sires in good condition is essentially required for the success of breeding programmes". Discuss the important points for the management of breeding males in good condition. 
6. (b) Describe the methods of oestrus detection in sheep. 
6.(c) Enumerate different types of natural calamities which may be encountered by the livestock rearer. Draw strategies for feeding and management of livestock during natural calamities to minimize the production losses. 

7.(a) Suggest the strategies which should be implemented by the dairy farmers to ensure round the year supply of green fodder. 
7.(b) Differentiate between the following: 
(i) Quantitative and qualitative traits 
(ii) Sex limited and sex influenced characters 
(iii) Production and reproductive traits 
(iv) Anoestrus and repeat breeding 
7. (c) Describe in detail the advantages and disadvantages of artificial insemination in animals. 

8. (a) Define gene frequency. Describe the method of estimation of gene frequency from genotypic frequency with the help of a suitable example. 
8. (b) Write the role of NDDB in rural development. 
8. (c) Write short notes on the following: 
(i) Methane inhibitors 
(ii) Role of rumen in feed fermentation 
(iii) Chemical regulation of respiration 
(iv) Blood-brain barrier 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 Agriculture (Paper-2)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Agriculture (Paper II)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024  Agriculture (Paper -II)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5 = 50 

(a) Explain the ultrastructure of chloroplast with the help of diagram. Briefly discuss the chemical composition and functions of chloroplast in higher plants. 
(b) Describe the latest advances in biotechnology for crop improvement. 
(c) Describe different approaches for improving the characteristics of inbred lines. 
(d) Discuss various tests undertaken in seed testing laboratories. 
(e) Discuss various theories of ion uptake with respect to passive absorption. 

2. (a) What is chromosomal aberration? Briefly discuss the changes in chromosomal structure due to aberrations. 
(b) Discuss the importance of crop genetic resource conservation and utilization. 
(c) Briefly explain the Soil-Plant-Atmosphere Continuum (SPAC). How are rooting characteristics related to the moisture extraction pattern from the soil? 

3. (a) What is allopolyploidy? Describe its applications and limitations in crops. 
(b) Discuss the involvement of public and private sectors in production and marketing of seeds. 
(c) Give an account of bulk method of breeding. Discuss its merits and demerits. 

4. (a) Give an account of cytoplasmic genetic male sterility and its utilization in plant breeding. Also discuss its limitations. 
(b) What is distant hybridization? Discuss its applications, achievements and limitations in plant breeding. 
(c) Discuss the guidelines for planning and organization of seed production programme. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5 = 50 

(a) Explain the properties and functions of enzymes in plants. 
(b) Write the methods of production of seed tubers from true potato seeds (TPS) under protected cultivation. 
(c) Discuss the systematic position, nature of damage and management of insect and mite pests of brinjal. 
(d) What is the scenario of hunger and malnutrition in the country? Discuss the initiatives taken by the government for their mitigation. 
(e) Illustrate how technology is improving the efficiency of public distribution system in the country. 
 
6. (a) Describe the process of anaerobic respiration and explain the factors affecting respiration. 
(b) Discuss banana crop in respect of its varieties, nutrient management, plant protection and post-harvest handling. 
(c) Discuss the factors which contribute to food insecurity in the country despite of significant improvement in food production and distribution. 

7. (a) Define water stress. Discuss the effects of water stress on anatomical and physiological changes in plant growth. Also discuss soil and weather based plant water stress indicators. 
(b) Discuss the causal organism, symptoms and management of tungro disease in rice. 
(c) What are the reasons behind food inflation? Discuss how it can be mitigated. 

8. (a) Explain the mode of action of organophosphate and Bacillus thuringiensis which are used in pest management. 
(b) What is phytochrome? Discuss its two forms and differentiate them. 
(c) Discuss the reasons for gap between production and consumption of cereals in the country. How can it be rectified? 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (Paper-2)


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (Paper-2)


  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Public Administration (Paper-II)
  • Marks: 250
  • Year : 2024
  • Time Allowed: 3 Hours

खण्ड 'A' 

SECTION 'A' 

1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

1. (a) "Ethics in Public services has been the main concern of Kautilya's Arthashastra." Examine the statement. 
1. (b) "The Mughal Administration was by nature centralised." Analyse.
1.(c) “Autonomy to Public Undertakings is a myth.” Analyse.
1. (d) “It should be people's Prime Minister Office (PMO), it can't be Prime Minister's PMO." Comment. 
1.(e) "Implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST) has led to a Paradigm shift in the centre-state relations, both financially and politically.” Analyse. 

2. (a) The National Data and Analysis Platform (NDAP) of NITI Aayog facilitates a robust ecosystem to promote democratisation and inclusivity in development. Discuss. 
2.(b) Examine the impact on administration in view of changing relations between 20 political and permanent executive. 
2. (c) development and social justice. Analyse. 

3. (a) "The role of State Finance Commission in distribution of finances between state and local governments is vital.” Discuss. 
3. (b) “Centre-state relations are undergoing a drastic change.” Elaborate. 
3. (c) "There has been a strain in relations between Governor and State governments in the recent past.” Examine. 

4. (a) Public sector undertakings have been the bedrock of welfarism in India for many decades. Evaluate the pros and cons of current disinvestment scenario. 
4. (b) The collegium system of appointments to higher judiciary has been the cornerstone of independence of judiciary. It has remained as the subject of debates in the recent past. Discuss. 
4. (c) The concept of bureaucratic authoritarianism is one of the models of non-democratic rules. Explain. 

खण्ड 'B'

SECTION ‘B’ 

5.Answer the following in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

5. (a) The constitutional stature provided to the Public Service Commissions accord them the autonomy to work towards fair recruitments. Comment. 
5.(b) "The neutrality of civil service has become a myth." Comment
5.(c) Examine the role of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in protecting the interests of consumers.
5. (d) "Parliamentary control over public expenditure is declining." Comment. 
5. (e) "The Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization (LPG) has enhanced the participation of private sector in Indian Economy." Comment. 

6. (a) "The success of administrative reforms in a country like India depends upon the political will." Comment. 
6. (b) The journey of transformation of local governance has been long. Examine the challenges to realise the spirit of gram swaraj. 
6.(c) With what aims and objectives was the Capacity Building Commission established? Evaluate how far it has come in realising the goals. 

7.(a) The separation of police investigation and prosecution has its own benefits and challenges. Analyse in context of recent developments. 
7.(b) Lack of financial resources and independence in managing local funding is hindering the economic and social development of urban areas. Discuss. 
7. (c) important role in countering terrorism. Comment. 

8. (a) Police-Public relations are poor in India. What measures are required to strengthen these relations? 
8. (b) public eye. Still it is one of the most important office under the constitution. Discuss. 
8. (c) Critically examine the problems of administration in coalition regimes. 
 

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