HIGHLIGHTS OF RAILWAY BUDGET 2010-11

Introduction:

• Economic viability and Social responsibility – main consideration for taking up of the projects.
• Inclusive growth and expansion of rail network’ for development of the country.
• Special Task Force to clear proposals for investments within 100 days.
• A separate structure will be created within the Railways for implementation of the business models.

Commitments Fulfilled

• Of the 120 new trains, extensions and increase in frequencies announced, 117 would be flagged off by the end of March 2010.
• Recruitment policy of the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) has been reviewed.
• RRB examination fee for woman candidates and those belonging to minority and economically backward classes waived.
• All question papers to be set in Hindi, Urdu, English and in local State languages and examination for a particular post will be held on the same date simultaneously by all RRBs.
• Izzat Scheme, implemented within three months of announcement.
• Work initiated in all the 67 Multi-functional Complexes (MFCs).
• Development of Adarsh Stations started in phases.

Free Online Test Series - History (Hindi) [PART-1] by Dr. Kumar Nalin

IAF EKT Engineering Knowledge Test Pattern and Syllabus

DISCLAIMER
The model question paper only offers a broad overview and does not purport to represent either the syllabus or the pattern of questions that would appear in the Engineering Knowledge Test

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS

Engineering Knowledge Test is a common test aimed at testing the Basic Engineering knowledge of the candidates applied for Aeronautical Engineering Courses. EKT has two parts, namely
Part A – General Engineering: 40 Questions Duration:
Part B - Specialist Paper for each Engineering discipline: 35 Questions : 1hour

Engineering Knowledge Test is pitched at pre-final to final year engineering level. The test consists of two parts viz General Engineering and Specialist subjects for the two streams of Technical Branches i.e Aeronautical Engineering (Electronics) and Aeronautical Engineering (Mechanical).

The specialised papers are in Mechanical Engineering, Aeronautical engineering, Electronics and Communication engineering, Electrical and Instrumentation engineering and Computer Engineering.

The questions are objective type in nature and duration of test is approximately one hour. It is mandatory for the candidates to pass in both General and Specialist papers to qualify for AFSB interview.

EKT SYLLABUS- GENERAL ENGINEERING

1. Modern Physics:- Quantum Mechanics, Electrical Conductivity in Metals, Dielectric and magnetic properties of materials, Lasers, Super Conductivity and optical fibers.
2. Chemistry :- Chemical Energy Sources, Solar Energy, Electrochemical Energy Systems, Battery Technology, Fuel Cell, Corrosion Science & Control, Metal finishing & Electroless Plating.
3. Mathematics :- Differential Calculus, Partial Differentiation, Integral Calculus & Application, Differential Equation, Vector Calculus & Infinite Series, Laplace Transform, Vector Integration, Integral Calculus.
4. Computers :- Computer peripherals, Data Processing, Data storage, Operation Systems, Networks of an Internets, Algorithms & Flow charts, Computer aided sketching.
5. Electrical :- DC Circuits, Electromagnetism, Single phase AC Circuits, Three phase Circuits, Measuring Instruments, Domestic Wiring, DC Machine Transformer, Synchronous Generation, Three phase Induction motor.
6. Electronics :- Semiconductors diodes, Transistor, SCR, Amp & oscillators, OP Amp, Communication Systems, Number System and Digital Logic.
7. Mechanical Engineering :- Energy & Steam, Turbines steam, Gas & Water, Internal combustion Engines, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, Lathe & Drilling Machines, Milling & Grinding Machines, Joining Processes, Lubrication & Bearing , Power Transmission and workshop technologies.

EKT SYLLABUS – COMPUTER AND ELECTRONICS

1. Digital Electronic Circuits:- Number representation and computer arithmetic (fixed and floating point),Boolean algebra and minimization of Boolean functions, Logic functions and logic gates, Minimization, Digital IC families (DTL, TTL, ECL, MOS, CMOS),Design and synthesis of combinational and sequential circuits, Combinational Circuits: arithmetic circuits, code converters, multiplexers, Decoders. Sequential circuits: latches and flip-flops, counters, shift-registers.
2. Analog Electronic Circuits: - Small Signal Equivalent circuits of diodes ,Simple diode circuits, clipping, clamping, rectifiers, Biasing and bias stability of transistor and FET amplifiers, Amplifiers, single-and multi-stage amplifiers, frequency response of amplifiers, Simple op-amp circuits, Sinusoidal oscillators and criterion for oscillation
3. Computer Organization and Architecture:- Machine instructions and addressing modes, Memory interface, Cache and main memory and Secondary storage. Microprocessor (8085): architecture and memory organisation.
4. Operating System:- Processes, Threads and Inter-process communication, Concurrency, Synchronization and Deadlock, CPU scheduling, Memory management and virtual memory, File systems and I/O systems, Protection and

GROUND DUTIES BRANCH COMMON ENTRANCE TEST (CET)

DISCLAIMER
The model question paper only offers a broad overview and does not purport to represent either the syllabus or the pattern of questions that would appear in the Common Entrance Test.

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS

Common entrance Test (CET) is a tool to assess the proficiency of the candidate in English and General Awareness, for selection in Ground Duties Branches.

CET has two parts, namely
Part A- Multiple Choice Questions: English and General Awareness (30 Questions) (Duration 20 Minutes)
Part B- Descriptive Test in English: Three Questions – One Comprehension passage with 5 Questions, one letter writing and One paragraph writing (Duration: 30 minutes).

This test is applicable to all those aspirants who apply for non-technical branches. The contents of the test include the following in
Part-A and Part-B respectively:-
Part A: English (Grammar and usage) and General Awareness – MCQs
Part B: General Composition in English
(i) Reading and Comprehension
(ii) Letter writing
(iii) Paragraph Writing

MODEL QUESTION PAPER COMMON ENTRANCE TEST (CET)

PART-A: Multiple Choice Questions

1. She spent her time in Mumbai ____________ in cafes and bars.
(a) hang out (b) hang up
(c) hang on (d) hanging out

2. One should ________ drugs.
(a) Keep up
(b) Keep Down
(c) Keep Off
(d) Keep on

3. The boy has __________ from all disciplines.
(a) Break away (b) Broken away
(c) Break into (d) Broken into

4. Strong Acids _________ metals.
(a) act upon (b) act upto
(c) act on (d) acting upto

5. If I _______________ you I wouldn’t return the call.
(a) Was (b) am
(c) were (d) would be

6. Our teacher ____________ us to the laboratory and showed us a number of experiments.
(a) taken (b) taking
(c) took (d) takes

7. Nisha________ her son against the dangers of driving the car too fast.
(a) threatened (b) warned
(c) spoke to (d) remembered

8. Give an example pertinent ________case.
(a) with (b) to
(c) on (d) for

9. He was, advised to abstain _______all alcoholic drinks.
(a) from (b) in
(c) by (d) to

10. In which year was Jesus crucified.
(a) 50 AD (b) 43 AD
(c) 33 AD (e) 190 AD

11. Lenin’s death took place in
(a) 1924 (b) 1922
(c) 1921 (d) None of these

12. The first president of USA was
(a) Jimmy Carter
(b) Theodore Roosevelt
(c) Abraham Lincoln
(d) George Washington

13. The most popular city of world
(a) New York (b) Mumbai
(c) Tokyo (d) London

14. World’s largest sugarcane producer is
(a) Cuba (b) India
(c) Pakistan (d) China

15. The brightest planet is
(a) Saturn (b) Mars
(c) Venus (d) Jupiter

16. Which of the following instruments
is used for measuring humidity of air?
(a)hydrometer(b) seismometer
(c)hygrometer(d) barometer

17. If a horse starts suddenly, the rider may fall due to
(a) moment of inertia
(b) inertia of rest
(c) law of conservation of mass
(d) third law of motion

All Subject : Civil Service Mains Examination Paper , 2009

Combined Medical Services Exam, 2010

General Instructions For Filling The Application Form

1) Candidates must read the detailed “Instructions and Additional Information to Candidates for Recruitment by Selection” before filling up Part-I  and Part-II of the application form. He must fill the form strictly according to the instructions.

2) CANDIDDATE MUST ENSURE THAT NO COLUMN IS LEFT BLANK OR WRONGLY FILLED IN EITHER PART-I OR PART-II OF THE FORM AS THE INFORMATION FURNISHED THEREIN WOULD BE USED FOR DECIDING THE ELIGIBILITY AND SUITABILITY OF THE CANDIDATES FOR BEING CALLED FOR THE INTERVIEW. APPLICATIONS NOT FILLED CORRECTLY, COMPLETELY AND AS PER THE INSTRUCTIONS IN BOTH PART-I AND PART-II ARE LIABLE TO BE REJECTED AND THE ONUS OF SUCH REJECTION WOULD BE ON THE CANDIDATE HIMSELF/HERSELF. THE COMMISSION WILL NOT ENTERTAIN ANY CLAIM AFTER SUCH REJECTION.

3) Copies of the certificates including mark-sheets should be attached in support of information given in the form wherever necessary. Any information contained in the attached certificates shall not be considered unless it is claimed in the application form.

4) Fee amount is Rs.50/- payable in the shape of CENTRAL RECRUITMENT FEE STAMP ONLY. NO OTHER MODE OF PAYMENT IS ACCEPTABLE.

5) For details of Recruitment Fee Concessions to specified categories of applicants, kindly refer to Instruction No.4 in the “Instructions and Additional Information to Candidates for Recruitment by Selection” published in the respective issue of the Employment News and available on this website.

The application form for candidates applying to the posts under “Recruitment by Selection” consists of Two Parts namely Part-I and Part-II. The following guidelines are provided to help in filling up the application form.

Part- I ( Brief particulars of Candidates)

Col. No. 1 : Consists of Advt. No., Item No. and year
Please write Advt. No., Item No. and year in the appropriate boxes mentioned against each. Advt No. is published at the top of the advertisement. The Serial No. of the post that is published under a Particular Advertisement is called Item No.

Col No. 2 : Name of the Post applied for
Write the name of the post for which candidate is applying for (in capital letters only) as mentioned against the Item No.

Col No.3 : Full Name (in capital letters).
The boxes against this column are divided into three parts as follows:-
1st part relates to First name, 2nd part relates to Middle Name and the 3rd and final part relates to Surname.
Candidate should write his name in capital letters. He should leave one box blank between each part of the name. He should not write any word/s outside the boxes provided for the purpose. If there is change in the name vis-à-vis the earlier name then proper evidence/documentary proof should be furnished in this regard

Do’s And Don’ts For Candidates Coming To Appear For Interview

Recruitment to 32 posts of Junior Works Manager (Mechanical) in OFB

Recruitment Test For 32 Posts of Junior Works Manager (Mechanical) in OFB
Department of Defence Production, M/o Defence

Date of Exam : 07.03.2010 (Sunday)
Timing: 02.00 PM TO 04.00PM

Download Vajiram & Ravi IAS Test Series | General Studies 2010 (Part -2)

Contents:

• Indian Polity
• General Studies
• Current Affairs (Oct. Nov. & Dec. 15th, 2009)

Time Allowed : 1.5 Hrs.
Maximum Marks: 150

CSIR-UGC NET Physical Science Syllabus for Paper I and II

CSIR-UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) for Junior Research Fellowship and Lecturer-ship
SYLLABUS FOR
Physical SCIENCES
PAPER I AND PAPER II

The full Syllabus for Part B of Paper I and Part B of Paper II.
The syllabus for Part A of Paper II comprises Sections I-VI.

I. Mathematical Methods of Physics
Dimensional analysis; Vector algebra and vector calculus; Linear algebra, matrices, Cayley Hamilton theorem, eigenvalue problems; Linear differential equations; Special functions (Hermite, Bessel, Laguerre and Legendre); Fourier series, Fourier and Laplace transforms; Elements of complex analysis: Laurent series-poles, residues and evaluation of integrals; Elementary ideas about tensors; Introductory group theory, SU(2), O(3); Elements of computational techniques: roots of functions, interpolation, extrapolation, integration by trapezoid and Simpson’s rule, solution of first order differential equations using Runge-Kutta method; Finite difference methods; Elementary probability theory, random variables, binomial, Poisson and normal distributions.

II. Classical Mechanics
Newton’s laws; Phase space dynamics, stability analysis; Central-force motion; Two-body collisions, scattering in laboratory and centre-of-mass frames; Rigid body dynamics, moment of inertia tensor, non-inertial frames and pseudoforces; Variational principle, Lagrangian and Hamiltonian formalisms and equations of motion; Poisson brackets and canonical transformations; Symmetry, invariance and conservation laws, cyclic coordinates; Periodic motion, small oscillations and normal modes; Special theory of relativity, Lorentz transformations, relativistic kinematics and mass–energy equivalence.

Copyright © Material

Instructions:

Assertion-Reason answer hint:
a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true

1) The ‘POSDCORB’ view of Public Administration-
1. represents Integral view of Public Administration.
2. stands for specific subject
3. was propounded by classical thinker.
4. equates Administration with management
Correct code is :-
a) 1, 3 & 4 b) 2, 3 & 4 c) 3 & 4 d) 1& 2
Answer: D

2) Which of the following aspect is the most common
between public and private Administration?
a) Methods of planning and organization
b) Methods of maintaining public contacts
c) Methods of dealing with clients
d) Methods of Accountability
Answer: A

3) Assertion (A): The Minnow Brook Conference
questioned the Wilsonian dichotomy.
Reason (R) : Value was considered as one of the most
important parameters of administration.
a)__________ b)____________ c) ____________ d)___________
Answer: A

4) Statement-I. The first book on New Public Administration was written by Dwight Waldo.
Statement-II. Waldo criticized one line definition of Public Administration.
Correct statement is
a) only I b) only II c) I and II d) neither I nor II
Answer: B

5) Statement-I. Participants of Minnow Brook II were more pragmatic.
Statement-II. Minnow brook II was organized to orient the Public Administration towards  Managerial movement.
Correct statement is
a) only I
b) only II
c) I and II
d) neither I nor II
Answer: B

6) The important proponents of Public Choice Theory are
1. Downs
2. Niskanen
3. Vincent Ostram
4. Hebermas
Select the correct answer using code
a) 1 & 2     b) 1, 2 & 3     c) 1, 2, 3 & 4     d) 1, 3 & 4
Answer: B

7) Considered the statement regarding Public Choice Theory:
1. It emphasized minimum role of state.
2. It gives emphasis on managerial autonomy.
3. Decentralization was one of the most important areas on which the thinkers dealt.
4. Its motive was to provide quality services to the people.
Choose the correct statement using code:
a) 1, 2 & 4     b) 1 & 4     c) 1, 3 & 4     d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: C

8) New Public Management is characterized by:
1. An active state
2. A facilitator state
3. Market orientation
4. Oligarchic socio-economic system or conditions.
Choose the correct answer using code:
a) 1, 2 & 3     b) 2 & 3     c) 3 & 4     d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: B

9) Which of the following thinker criticized New Public Administration?
a) Dwight Waldo
b) Vincent Ostram
c) Nicholas Henry
d) Golembiewski
Answer: D

10) Match the following using codes:
Code List I
    1. “Public Administration as a developing discipline”
    2. Inside bureaucracy
    3. Administrative Theories and Politics
    4. The Politics of Bureaucracy

Code List I
    A. Tullock
    B. Golembiewski
    C. Peter Self
    D. Downs Select the answer using code:

A B C D
a) 2 3 1 4
b) 4 1 3 2
c) 3 2 4 1
d) 4 2 3 1
Answer: B

CSIR-UGC NET Mathematical Science Syllabus for Paper I and II

CSIR-UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) for Junior Research Fellowship and Lecturer-ship
SYLLABUS FOR
MATHEMATICAL SCIENCES
PAPER I AND PAPER II

UNIT – 1

Analysis: Elementary set theory, finite, countable and uncountable sets, Real number system as a complete ordered field, Archimedean property, supremum, infimum.

• Sequences and series, convergence, limsup, liminf.
• Bolzano Weierstrass theorem, Heine Borel theorem.
• Continuity, uniform continuity, differentiability, mean value theorem.
• Sequences and series of functions, uniform convergence.
• Riemann sums and Riemann integral, Improper Integrals.
• Monotonic functions, types of discontinuity, functions of bounded variation, Lebesgue measure, Lebesgue integral.
• Functions of several variables, directional derivative, partial derivative, derivative as a linear transformation.
• Metric spaces, compactness, connectedness. Normed Linear Spaces. Spaces of Continuous functions as examples.

Linear Algebra: Vector spaces, subspaces, linear dependence, basis, dimension, algebra of linear transformations.

• Algebra of matrices, rank and determinant of matrices, linear equations.
• Eigenvalues and eigenvectors, Cayley-Hamilton theorem.
• Matrix representation of linear transformations. Change of basis, canonical forms, diagonal forms, triangular forms, Jordan forms.
• Inner product spaces, orthonormal basis.
• Quadratic forms, reduction and classification of quadratic forms.

CSIR-UGC NET Life Science Syllabus for Paper I and II

CSIR-UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) for Junior Research Fellowship and Lecturer-ship
SYLLABUS FOR
LIFE SCIENCES
PAPER I AND PAPER II

1. MOLECULES AND THEIR INTERACTION RELAVENT TO BIOLOGY

1. Structure of atoms, molecules and chemical bonds.
2. Composition, structure and function of biomolecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids and vitamins).
3. Stablizing interactions (Van der Waals, electrostatic, hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic interaction, etc.).
4. Principles of biophysical chemistry (pH, buffer, reaction kinetics, thermodynamics, colligative properties).
5. Bioenergetics, glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, coupled reaction, group transfer, biological energy transducers.
6. Principles of catalysis, enzymes and enzyme kinetics, enzyme regulation, mechanism of enzyme catalysis, isozymes.
7. Conformation of proteins (Ramachandran plot, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure; domains; motif and folds).
8. Conformation of nucleic acids (A-, B-, Z-,DNA), t-RNA, micro-RNA).
9. Stability of protein and nucleic acid structures.
10. Metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids, nucleotides and vitamins.

2. CELLULAR ORGANIZATION

1. Membrane structure and function: Structure of model membrane, lipid bilayer and membrane protein diffusion, osmosis, ion channels, active transport, ion pumps, mechanism of sorting and regulation of intracellular transport, electrical properties of membranes.
2. Structural organization and function of intracellular organelles: Cell wall, nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes, plastids, vacuoles, chloroplast, structure & function of cytoskeleton and its role in motility.
3. Organization of genes and chromosomes: Operon, interrupted genes, gene families, structure of chromatin and chromosomes, unique and repetitive DNA, heterochromatin, euchromatin, transposons.
4. Cell division and cell cycle: Mitosis and meiosis, their regulation, steps in cell cycle, and control of cell cycle.
5. Microbial Physiology: Growth, yield and characteristics, strategies of cell division, stress response.