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(Notification) UPSC NDA & NA Exam (II), 2016

(Notification) UPSC NDA & NA Exam (II), 2016

F.No.7/1/2016.E.1(B): An Examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 18th September, 2016, for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 138th Course, and for the 100th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd July, 2017.

Post Details:

National Defence Academy : 355 (208 for Army, 55 for Navy and 92 for Air Force)

Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme): 55

Total No of Posts: 410

Educational Qualifications:

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

(Download) Gist of Economic Survey 2015-16

(Download) Gist of Economic Survey 2015-16

A flagship annual document of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, Economic Survey 2015–16 reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the previous 12 months, summarizes the performance
on major development programmes, and highlights the policy initiatives of the government and the prospects of the economy in the short to medium term.

This document is presented to both houses of Parliament during the Budget Session.This document would be useful for policymakers, economists, policy analysts, business practitioners, government agencies, students, researchers, the media, and all those interested in the development in the Indian economy.

Following are the highlights of the report:

FISCAL DEFICIT

  • 2016/17 expected to be challenging from fiscal point of view; time is right for a review of mediumterm fiscal framework
  • 2015/16 fiscal deficit, seen at 3.9 percent of GDP, seems achievable
  • Credibility and optimality argue for adhering to 3.5 percent of GDP fiscal deficit target

INFLATION

  • CPI inflation seen around 4.5 to 5 percent in 2016/17
  • Low inflation has taken hold, confidence in price stability has improved* Expect RBI to meet 5 percent inflation target by March 2017
  • Prospect of lower oil prices over medium term likely to dampen inflationary expectations

CURRENT ACCOUNT DEFICIT

  • 2016/17 current account deficit seen around 1-1.5 percent of GDP

CURRENCY

  • Rupee's value must be fair, avoid strengthening; fair value can be achieved through monetary relaxation
  • India needs to prepare itself for a major currency readjustment in Asia in wake of a similar adjustment in China
  • Rupee's gradual depreciation can be allowed if capital inflows are weak

Strategy for History as Optional in UPSC IAS Main Examination

Strategy for History as Optional in Main Examination

Writing an answer for 60 marks question is challenging. It is as good as writing a short essay. Here you cannot bluff if you don’t know; you get exposed from second paragraph onwards. As it is rightly said that history is not a study of facts, but interpretation of facts. Facts are just raw material with which interpretation is done. Answers in the main’s are about your interpretation of History. Here you have to balance different view points. For that purpose you have to know different view points. At least three main currents i.e. leftist, centrist and rightist. The angle of focus on history has constantly changed. From Political to Cultural to Economic. Now the subaltern approach is in vogue.

HOW MUCH SCORING HISTORY IS?

History is most popular option is U.P.S.C. examination for obvious reasons. It has synergy with General studies. 90 marks questions of modern India get covered in optional history. It is also useful in writing essay. Since at least one socio-cultural issue comes as a topic, historic vision gives depth to the arguments.

Percentile method is not applied in the mains History is directly compared with other subjects. History is highly subjective subject. Suppose the question was given ‘Evaluate the Gandhi’, then all candidates will write different’ answers. Who of them is right & who is wrong? No one. It depends on how arguments are pushed. This makes the subject safe. Generally it is not possible that you don’t know anything about the answer. Ultimately you fetch some minimum marks in each question. That way nobody goes below 200 in history. But going by same logic history also does not give very high marks. There is nothing called perfect answer. Because of this phenomenon marks do not go above 380.

That doesn’t mean that history is not a scientific subject or cannot be studied scientifically. It is as scientific as physics or mathematics, only since it is from humanities side, things are open ended.

For those who are having History as first option in prelim,- Be cautious, don’t overestimate your knowledge of History. Prepare separately of mains.

For prelim’s following syllabus may not be a fruitful exercise, but for mains it is. The vast syllabus cannot be covered without the pointers. Especially they have made work easy by giving some points in bold, for e.g. Kitab-ul-Hind. It means short note or long answer question is expected. Indeed on Kitab-ul-Hind both came in different years. The compulsory map question should be solved first and prepared first. Fifteen sites are given & you have to mark the site in given map and describe its importance in four lines. Two marks for marking site and two for description. All sites are compulsory Fortunately they give only important sites, and that has made it scoring. Mapping has to be practiced daily. On the given map they use to give rivers in the beginning then they started giving states and now they give blank map with only India’s international boundaries. It is safer to make blocks and practice. Sites from Ancient and medieval India are asked. Spectrum has published the book about Ancient Indian places. Ensemble has come out with History through maps, a well researched and royally presented work. It is useful from both prelims and mains point of view. In paper II world history is to be targeted. On modern India now so much research is available that there is no end of interpretation. Comparatively world history is straight and neutral. There are controversies in France about how the fall of, Napoleon took place, but there are no such controversies in India. As it is, if world history questions are difficult you can jump to modern India in the last movement but reverse is not true

(Download) Civil Services Mentor Magazine, June 2016 - FREE PDF

Click Here to Download CSM Magazine (PDF) Copy

Free Digital Magazine: Civil Services Mentor, June 2016

Issue : June 2016

Size: 2.99 MB

File Type: PDF

Publisher : IASEXAMPORTAL.COM

UPSC IAS Mains 2006 Law (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

UPSC IAS Mains 2006 Law (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

Exam Name: IAS Mains

Year: 2006

Subject: Law (Optional)

Paper-I

Section - A

1. Answer any three of the following (each answer should be in about 200 words ):

(a) “In fact, equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies; one belongs to the rule of law in a republic while the other, to the whim and caprice of an absolute monarch.” Elucidate with the help of constitutional provisions & judicial decisions.
(b) “Fundamental duties are only ethical and moral duties and should not form a part of the fundamental law.” Comment.
(c) “The issue of parliamentary privileges has been bone of contention and conflict between the Parliament and Judiciary.” Critically examine in the light of the decided cases.
(d) “The concept of natural justice is elastic and is not susceptible to precise definition.” Do you agree with this statement? Explain the concept of natural justice with the help of case-law.

2.

(a) “Directive principles of state policy are not enforceable in the Court of Law but, nevertheless, they are fundamental in the governance of the country.” Discuss this statement with the help of decided cases.
(b) “Collective responsibility is the very basis of the Parliamentary system of government.” Do you agree with this statement? What has been the impact of coalition politics on the doctrine of collective responsibility?

3.

(a) “The Constitution has imposed an obligation on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. In order to enable the Union if to carry out this obligation the Constitution has conferred adequate powers on it.” Elucidate. Also discuss the safeguards against misuse of Article 356.
(b) What Constitutional safeguards are available to civil servants under the Constitution of India? Explain the circumstances under which a civil servant can be dismissed from service without holding a regular inquiry against him.

4.

(a) “Essential legislative functions cannot be delegated.” Explain with the help of case-law. Also discuss the technique and utility of legislative control of delegated legislation.
(b) How far the Governor of a State is bound to act with the advice of his Ministers? What functions are required by the Constitution to be exercised in his discretion?

Section - B

5. Answer any THREE of the following (each answer should be in about 200 words) : —

(a) Do you agree with the view that “International Law is merely a positive morality”? Discuss the nature of International Law.
(b) “Asylum ends where extradition begins.” Explain fully.
(c) “In the eyes of International Law treaties are meant to be kept. Their obligation is perpetual.” Comment.
(d) “A State is, and becomes, an international person through recognition only and exclusively.” Discuss. Is there any duty under International Law to recognise a State?

6.

(a) “The establishment of compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is essential for the maintenance of international peace and security.” Comment. Why are countries generally reluctant to accept the compulsory jurisdiction of the Court?
(b) Discuss the basis of State jurisdiction. What are the exemptions to the territorial jurisdiction of State?

7.

(a) “Arbitration is the most efficacious mode of settlement of international disputes.” Elucidate. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of arbitration as a method of settling international disputes.
(b) What is the role of the United Nations in the promotion and protection of Human Rights? How far the Universal Declaration of Human Rights has been successful in creating a human rights culture?

8.

(a) “WTO aims at progressive liberalisation of , world trade in goods and services and protection of intellectual property rights.” Explain. How WTO is a facility extending the institutional structure of GATT?
(b) Discuss the legality of the use of nuclear weapons in International Law.

Paper-II

Section - A

1. Answer any THREE of the following (answer to each question must not exceed 200 words). Support your answer with the help of legal provisions and decided cases :

(a) “An abetment of an offence being a complete offence by itself, an attempt of abetment of an offence is also an offence.” Examine.
(b) “Compensation to the victims of crime in India is the vanishing point of criminal jurisprudence.” Comment.
(c) What are liquidated damages and when are they awarded?
(d) “In tort the plaintiff wins his case only when he proves as to what particular tort the defendant has committed against him.” Examine.

UPSC IAS Mains Law Uncategorized Question Paper : 2000-2015

UPSC IAS Mains Law Uncategorized Question Paper : 2000-2015

2000

Paper-I

Section - A

1. Answer any three of the following (each answer should be in 200 words):

(a) “The Indian Constitution is essentially federal in character, though it tends to be unitary at times.” Comment.
(b) What are the discretionary powers of the Governors of States? Why is there no provision in the Constitution for impeachment of a Governor? Explain.
(c) Explain the provisions relating to protection and improvement of environment in our Constitution with special reference to the role of judiciary in this regard.
(d) “The question today is not whether there should be delegated legislation, but subject to what safeguards it should be resorted to.” Critically examine the statement.

2.

(a) “The Supreme Court in Maneka Gandhi’s case has revolutionised the law relating to ‘personal-liberty’ under Article 21 of the Constitution.” Explain with illustration,
(b) Examine critically the relationship between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy in the light of decided cases and the constitutional amendments.

3.

(a) Assuming that the Parliament, under Article 368 of the Constitution, passes the following constitutional amendments:
(i) Religion is a matter of personal faith. Its propagation in any form is strictly prohibited.
(ii) Article 16(4) of the Constitution empowering the state to make reservation in services under the state in favour of backward class of citizens is completely deleted. Discuss whether these amendments are likely to be held valid.
(b) “Article 311(2) lays down that a civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank unless he has been given a reasonable opportunity to show cause against the action proposed to be taken against him.” Critically examine the statement with reference to the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976.

4.

(a) The Transport Commissioner is the Director, ex-officio of the Karnataka State Road Transport Corporation (KSRTC) which is responsible .for the operation and management of the transport undertakings of the Corporation. The Transport Commissioner is simultaneously Chairman of the KSRTC Authority which has power to grant/refuse stage carriage permits. In this case, private bus operators had applied for renewal of their stage carriage permits in respect of various routes. At the same time, KSRTC also applied for fresh stage carriage permits in respect of the same routes. Examine with reference to the relevant provisions of the Administrative Law, whether the Commission can be restrained from exercising his power. Give reasons for your answer.

(b) The Civil Surgeon had issued an advertisement for a training course in midwifery at the District Hospital. The advertisement had a clause “Married women candidates must enclose along with their application their husband’s written permission for pursuing the course.” The wife got the letter of consent from her husband and joined the course. The husband, however, had second thoughts and wrote to her and the authority saying she should return immediately as her not being there would disturb the family life and hence she would not be permitted to join. Thereafter the authority asked her to produce another letter of “no objection” from the husband. Examine with reference to the relevant provisions of the Constitution the validity of the order of the authority.

Section - B

5. Answer any three of the following (each answer should be in 200 words):

(a) “International Law is a ‘weak-law.’” Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
(b) Is the provision of the I.C.J. pertaining to the appointment of’National Judges’ belonging to the nationality of parties to a dispute, proper in the interest of justice? How are judgements of the courts enforced? Explain.
(c) “Every person is subject to the territorial jurisdiction of a state.” Critically examine the statement.
(d) “The power of veto has paralysed the Security Council.” Do you agree with this view? Give reasons.

6.

(a) Give a brief account of attempts made in the international field for limitation of armaments. What, according to you, hinders the proposals to prohibit the production, possession and use of automatic weapons?
(b) Discuss the recognised procedure, with special reference to the Hague Convention, for peaceful settlement of international disputes. How can the arbitral award be enforced against a state refusing to submit to it?

7.

(a) State ‘A’ and ‘B’ are at war with each other. Examine the effect of the war on the following treaties: (i) An extradition treaty between the States ‘A’ and ‘B’ (ii) The Convention of Traffic in Narcotic Drugs 1926, to which States ‘A’ and ‘B’ are the parties, (iii) The Geneva Prisoners of War Convention, to which States ‘A’ and ‘B’ are the parties.
(b) A revolution takes place in State’ X’.’ Y’ seizes power in an unconstitutional manner by installing himself as the Head of State ‘X’. What principles will govern the question of recognition of Y’ as the Head of States ‘X’ on the part of other states? What consequences will ensure if recognition is accorded or refused?
(c) A foreign bank has given a loan to the Government of State ‘A’ for the improvement of roads in ‘X’, a province of State ‘A’. ‘X’ is subsequently ceded to State ‘B’. The Government of State ‘B’ refuses to accept any responsibility of the loan. Is State ‘B’ entitled to do so? Discuss.

8. Write explanatory notes on the following :

(a) Sanctions of International Humanitarian Law.
(b) The theory of consent as the binding force of international law.
(c) Prevention and punishment of crimes against diplomatic envoys.

Paper-II

Section - A

1. Answer any three of the following (answer to each question must not exceed 200 words):

(a) A, a pickpocket, puts his hand in the pocket of B, a person, who was reclining in the park. Incidentally, the person had a piston in his pocket and as the pickpocket put his hand in the pocket, it touched the trigger and the pistol went off killing the person. Is a guilty of culpable homicide? Explain when culpable homicide does not amount to murder with the help of illustrations and decided cases.
(b) X, a girl of 14, is ill-treated by her father and step mother. ‘A’, the neighbour under the belief that X was 18; takes her away from her parent’s house on her request but without the consent of the parents. Is he guilty of any offence? If yes, analyse the nature of the offence and cite relevant cases.
(c) A promises to B, his student, and induced her to cohabit with him. He has given her a false assurance of marriage and also fraudulently gone through certain ceremonies of marriage making B to believe that she was a lawfully wedded wife of A. Later A refused to recognise her as his wife. What is the offence committed by A? Explain its ingredients.
(d) There was a leakage of oleum gas from one of the units of Mr. X’s Textile Industry, situated in the city of Mumbai, on 4th and 5th October, 1995. It resulted in the death of an advocate practising in a court and all the ill effects of the same to various other persons. Mr. Y, a public spirited individual filed a writ petition, under Art. 32 of the Constitution, before the Supreme Court of India claiming compensation. Decide the liability of the occupier.

(Paper) General Studies and Engineering Aptitude Model Question Paper for IES Exam - 2017

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(Paper) General Studies and Engineering Aptitude Model Question Paper for IES Exam - 2017

1. Five candidates A, B, C, D and E had written an examination and the relationship between their marks was as follows:
  • D scored twice as many marks as E.
  •  Marks obtained by C were equal to the average of those of A and B.  
  •  A scored 23 marks more than E
  •  B scored 5 marks less than D

If E scored 42 marks, then the marks of C were:

(a) 42
(b) 65
(c) 72
(d) 79

2. The UN Conference on Environment and Development, known as Rio Summit, led to the final development of which international treaty?

(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) World Environment Treaty
(c) Environment Treaty of the G8 Nations
(d) Universal Environment Treaty

3. Consider the following statements regarding definition of ‘moral’:

1. Being or acting in accordance with standards and precepts of goodness
2. Arising from conscience or a sense of right and wrong
3. A concisely expressed precept or general truth, a maxim
4. The principles of conduct governing an individual or a profession, standards of behaviour

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

4. In a project, in which four roads A, B, C and D were to be completed:
  •  A was not completed first  
  • B was not completed last  
  • C was completed ahead of D  
  • D was not completed last  

Then, which road was completed last?

(a) B
(b) A
(c) C
(d) D

5. Consider the following statements regarding the responsibilities of the National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL):

1. To keep an electronic record of ownership of shares
2. To supplement electronic trading by introducing the concept of electronic scrips
3. To facilitate physical delivery of securities
4. To facilitate transmission of shares

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

6. Consider the following statements regarding safety in workplace:

1. It attracts visitors and tourists
2. It enhances the profit margin
3. It provides comforts and confidence in workers

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. The sales figures of a small company are listed as follows:
Year 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015
Sales (in units) 85000 87500 90100 92810 95625

What would be the sales projection (in units) for the year 2016?

(a) 98575
(b) 98545
(c) 98510
(d) 98475

(E-Book) UPSC IES PRE Exam Papers PDF Download

8. What is the area of quadrilateral ABCD shown below?

(a) 12 
(b) 28
(c) 36
(d) 38

9. Consider the following statements:

1. An organization can function efficiently only if a formal authority system exists. This has to be strengthened by informal bases of power and influence to bring in effectiveness.
2. Cooperation of supporting officials depends on the senior’s range of knowledge, experience and leadership abilities.
3. If one’s own actions or examples, directly or indirectly, cause a change in the behaviour or attitude of another person or group, this is called influencing.
4. Requiring compliance with instructions without being able to influence is tantamount to power vested in the one who instructs.

Which of the above statements conform to ethical practice?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. Which of the following are classifiable as non-destructive testing methods?

1. Harness testing
2. Liquid penetrant method
3. Magnetic particle inspection
4. Concrete test hammer

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. The main purpose of preventive maintenance of construction equipment is to:

(a) Prevent or delay failure
(b) Reduce repair time
(c) Allow for easy servicing
(d) Remedy minor defects

12. Consider the following steps which are used while solving the design problems:

1. Analyze and select optimum solution
2. Identify the problem and gather pertinent information
3. Test and implement the solution
4. Generate multiple solutions

What is the correct sequence of order for the design process?

(a) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(b) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(c) 2, 4, 1 and 3
(d) 1, 4, 2 and 3

13. Consider the following:

1. Flood moderation
2. Flow channelization
3. Bank protection
4. Sediment control

Which of the above are relevant in the design of river training works?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

(News) Rajasthan emerges as second Highest producers of IAS after U.P.

(News) Rajasthan emerges as second Highest producers of IAS after U.P.

Traditional wisdom has it that most of India's civil servants are either from Uttar Pradesh or Bihar. But this perception may not hold for long with candidates like Tina Dabi of Delhi and Athar Aamir Ul Shafi Khan of Jammu and Kashmir bagging the first and the second ranks in the civil services examination (CSE) 2015.

In fact, in the CSE 2014, three out of the top four Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers were from Delhi. The topper was Delhi's Ira Singhal. The person who came second belonged to Kerala. In CSE 2013, the second rank holder was from the national capital.

All About Civil Services Preliminary Examination

IAS EXAM

All About Civil Services Preliminary Examination

The Civil Services (Prelims) examination 2016 is scheduled to be held on 07.08.2016. The last date of filling online application for the civil services prelims exam is 27.05.2016.

The civil services preliminary examination has two papers in General Studies :

General Studies Paper 1 comprises seven sections like History of India and Indian National Movement; Geography of India and World , Indian Polity and Governance, Economic and Social Development, General issues on Environment and Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change , & General Science.

CSAT Paper 2 consists of questions related to aptitude like Reading Comprehension, Data Interpretation, Logical Reasoning and Mathematical calculations etc. Prelims paper 2 has been made qualifying only from 2015 and candidates only need to score at least one third of marks in this paper.

As mentioned in UPSC notification “The questions are likely to test the candidate’s basic understanding of all relevant issues, and ability to analyze, and take a view on conflicting socio- economic goals, objectives and demands. The candidates must give relevant, meaningful and succinct answers.”

  • One should start with the basic concepts and their application. Candidate should try to focus on understanding the concepts.
  • Candidates should necessarily check what are the type of questions UPSC is asking . Give your special attention to topics currently in news.
  • Develop a timeline for your whole syllabus to judge how much time you would take for particular topic.
  • Design a proper strategy for exam, based on SWOT anaysis.

S= Strength

W= Weaknesses

O= Opportunities

T= Threats

  • The best strategy include covering full syllabus with main focus on some areas and multiple revision as well.
  • GS requires time and multiple revision; CSAT, on the other hand, needs a basic understanding and practice.
  • Avoid political news,local news, micro news and Political parties internal news for General Studies Prelims.
  • Give preference to Government policies and bills, Bilateral treaties signed by India & news item related to UN, IMF, World Bank, Niti Aayog, RBI, and IMF.

CIVIL SERVICES - IAS EXAM 2017 THROUGH GS FOUNDATION (ENGLISH) :

  • GS-Preliminary and Mains 100% syllabus coverage : The GS foundation will cover the 100 % syllabus of GS both at the level of Preliminary and Mains.
  • Prescribe and Dispatch books : Under this GS foundation programme we will prescribe and dispatch the books for the basics and advanced studies.
  • Mock Test Papers : We will also conduct mock test papers for the all enrolled members both at the level of GS-Preliminary and Mains.
  • Monthly Magazine (Civil Services Mentor) : All the enrolled members will get the annual subscription of this magazine free of cost.
  • Gist of Important Newspapers and Magazines : All the enrolled members will get the annual subscription of this magazine free of cost.
  • Free Access to Online Coaching at IASEXAMPORTAL : All the enrolled members will get free access to the Online Coaching at IASEXAMPORTAL.
  • Previous Year paper’s with solution and trend analysis : All the enrolled members get Previous Year paper’s with solution and analysis.
  • Books, Study Kits and Magazines at your postal address: We dispatch Books , Study Kits and Magazines at the postal addresses of the all enrolled members.
  • Excellent Students’ Satisfaction Level: We will maintain excellent Students’ Satisfaction Level
  • Single Platform for Everything : You will find each and everything under the platform of Iasexamportal. You don’t need to read or buy any other material except this.
  • Experts will Guide you till your success : OUR EXPERT will guide you and support you till your success.
  • Telephonic Support of the Course Coordinator : All the enrolled members get the free telephonic Support of the Course Coordinator at anytime as per your convenience.

(News) Ex-Delhi Police Chief B. S. Bassi Appointed as UPSC member

(News) Ex-Delhi Police Chief B. S. Bassi Appointed as UPSC member

Former Delhi Police Commissioner BS Bassi has been appointed to the Union Public Service Commission, the central body that is in charge of civil services exams.

Mr Bassi ended a controversial term as chief of Delhi Police in February.

He was reportedly interested in a senior role in the country's top anti-graft agency, the Central Information Commission, but was dropped as a candidate because of strong opposition by the Congress.

The committee that appoints Information Commissioners is headed by the Prime Minister, and includes the Congress Leader Mallikarjun Kharge and Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.

Demo Online Test for CMS Exam 2016

Demo Online Test for CMS Exam 2016

Exam Name: Combined Medical Services Examination,

Year: 2016

(News) BS Baswan committee recommends reducing the upper age-limit for UPSC Exams

BS Baswan committee recommends reducing the upper age-limit for UPSC Exams

A Union Public Service Commission-appointed committee is set to tell the government to reduce the upper age-limit for appearing in the examination to get into premier civil services such as the IAS and IPS.

The UPSC appointed the panel headed by former education secretary BS Baswan last August as part of an initiative by the Narendra Modi government to overhaul the civil services examination.

The government had promised to review the examination after a string of protests in 2015 against a civil service aptitude test introduced by the previous Manmohan Singh-led government in the preliminary exam.

“We feel that the entry age is on the higher side. At the same time, we realise that candidates should not be put to any unforeseen hardship. Therefore, we would prepare a road map which will give all candidates sufficient time to adapt to the new system,” Baswan said.

Over the decades, the upper age-limit for candidates from general categories has gone up from 24 years in the 1960s to 32 years for the 2014 exam.

The upper age is relaxed by five years for candidates from the scheduled caste and scheduled tribes while those from the other backward classes get a three-year relaxation. Disabled candidates get an additional 10-year cut.

In 2012 and 2013, the proportion of successful candidates well past their 30th birthday was in the range of 6 to 11%.

A 43-year-old “grandfather”, a disabled from the scheduled caste community who had applied for age relaxation on both counts, could be the face of the panel’s argument for lowering the age in its report. Sources said the panel was trying to locate the candidate to make its point.

(Info) UPSC IES 2016 Exam Centre Correction "Nangloi, Delhi-110041"

(Info) UPSC IES 2016 Exam "Nangloi, Delhi-110041" Exam Centre Correction

The Candidates of Delhi Centre of Engineering Service Examination, 2016 whose Roll No. fall between 0093436 to 0096114 and who were allotted to the Venue address GOVT. SARVODAYA KANYA VIDYALAYA, NEAR NANGLOI METRO STATION, NANGLOI, DELHI-110041, may please note that the address of the venue has been rectified to ‘GOVT. SARVODAYA KANYA VIDYALAYA, SULTANPURI ROAD (Near Railway Crossing), NANGLOI, DELHI 110041’. Revised e-Admit card for these candidates has already been uploaded on the Commission’s website. Those who had downloaded their e-Admit card earlier are requested to download it afresh and appear in the examination at the rectified address of the Venue.

(Current Affairs) Sports | May - 2016

Sports

Vijender singh beats Hungary’s Alexander Horwath

  • There was no stopping Indian boxing star Vijender Singh as he notched up his fourth successive knockout professional win by pummelling Hungary’s Alexander Horvath in under three rounds here.
  • Vijender had little trouble outpunching his opponent, who failed to get up after being thrown off balance by his body blows in the third round of the six-round contest of the middlewight (75kg) category late on Saturday night.
  • The 30-year-old Indian, who went into the contest on the back of three successive knockout triumphs, continued to be a cut above his rivals, who talk big but deliver little inside the ring.
  • The 20-year-old Horvath, with an experience of seven pro fights, had been drinking snake blood to prepare himself but it seemed the bizarre routine helped little in countering the ferocity of India’s first Olympic and World Championships bronze medallist.
  • Vijender will next be seen in action on April 2, the opponent and venue for which would be decided later.

(Current Affairs) Science & Technology, Defence, Environment | May: 2016

Science & Technology, Defense, Environment

The global surface temperatures in February were 1.35 degree Celsius warmer

  • Global temperatures in February smashed previous monthly records by an unprecedented amount, according to NASA data, sparking warnings of a climate emergency.
  • It confirms preliminary analysis from earlier in March, indicating the record-breaking temperatures.
  • The global surface temperatures across land and ocean in February were 1.35 degree Celsius warmer than the average temperature for the month, from the baseline period of 1951-1980.
  • The global record was set just one month earlier, with January already beating the average for that month by 1.15 degree Celsius above the average for the baseline period.
  • Although the temperatures have been spurred on by a very large El Nino in the Pacific Ocean, the temperature smashed records set during the last large El Nino from 1998, which was at least as strong as the current one.
  • The month did not break the record for hottest month, since that is only likely to happen during a northern hemisphere summer, when most of the world’s land mass heats up.

(Corrigendum) UPSC Indian Forest Service Examination, 2016

(Corrigendum) UPSC Indian Forest Service Examination, 2016

In the Notice of Indian Forest Service Examination, 2016 uploaded in the Commission’s Website on 27th April, 2016, in the list of Centres for Preliminary Examination at Para 1A, ‘Warangal City’ may be read as ‘Warangal’.

(Official Answer Key) UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2015

(Official Answer Key) UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2015

Exam Name: Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination

Year: 2015

Paper:

  • GS Paper 1
  • CSAT Paper 2

(Mark Sheet) UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2015

(Mark Sheet) UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2015

Exam Name: Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination

Year: 2015

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