Sugamya Bharat Abhiyaan

Lack of proper physical infrastructure affects each and every one of our lives. From slow moving traffic to long que in reservation every thing takes precious time and energy of those involved in it. Public transport in country is highly overcrowded for even a person who does not have a physical disability. Situation becomes much more difficult for a person with disability. They have to face the problem of poor infrastructure with the problem they have already. Everyone becomes physically disabled at some stage in their lives. A person with a broken leg, a child, a mother with a pram, an elderly gentleman etc. are all disabled in some way or another. Thus, Needs of the disabled coincide with the needs of majority, but disabled persons needs enhanced much more than the people with out disability. As such, designing the facilities for the majority implies designing and planning for people with varying abilities and disabilities.

One of the most important ideals of India and our constitution is that everyone should live together with provision for positive discrimination for those who are in need of it. Ideally, a disabled person should be able to commute between home, work place and other destinations with independence, convenience and safety. This independence, sfety and convenience will help in integrating the persons with disability to the mainstream of the society.

UPSC Assistant Provident Fund Commissioners (APFC) Exam Paper - 2016 "held on 10-1-2016"

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Answers have been provided on a best effort basis and every attempt has been made to maintain high accuracy and correctness of the key provided. However, an error rate not exceeding +/- 2% can be assumed given the nature of Question Paper.

1. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks covering different areas. Their first alphabets L, W and M respectively stand for

(a) Local, World and Middle
(b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan
(c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
(d) Least, Wireless and Maximum

2. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long as its width. If 360m of fencing including gates will totally enclose this garden, what is the length of the garden?

(a) 120 m
(b) 130 m
(c) 140 m
(d) 150 m

3. The ‘Cloud Computing’ technology refers to

(a) A set of algorithms that solves problems using fuzzy logic
(b) Many computers that are interconnected through wireless networks and satellites
(c) A distributed computer architecture that provides software, infrastructure and platforms just as required by applications/users
(d) A futuristic technology that will use clouds to perform computing

4. Consider the following statements for Nano-technology:

It is the technology of creating materials and devices atom-by-atom.
Physical properties change at the nanometre scale.
Chemical properties change at the nanometre scale.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

5. The large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the CERN project is a particle accelerator located on the border between

(a) Spain and France
(b) France and Germany
(c) Spain and Switzerland
(d) France and Switzerland

6. The method of communication in which transmission can take place in both directions, but happens only in one direction at a time, is called

(a) Duplex
(b) Half Duplex
(c) Full Duplex
(d) Simplex

7. A collection of programs that controls how the computer system runs and processes information is called

(a) Compiler
(b) Operating System
(c) Linker
(d) Assembler

8. SMPS is the acronym for

(a) Store Mode Power Supply
(b) Single Mode Power Supply
(c) Switch Mode Power Supply
(d) Start Mode Power Supply

9. USB is the acronym for

(a) Uniform Service Broadcasting
(b) Unique Solution Bus
(c) Universal Serial Bus
(d) Universal Service Broadcasting

10. In a chess tournament, each of the six players will play with every other player exactly once. What is the number of matches that will be played during the tournament?

(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25

11. The Maternity Benefit act, 1961 (M.B Act) Provided for how many week’s wages during the maternity period?

(a) 11 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 13 weeks
(d) 14 weeks

12. Which of the following are the instruments of providing social security in India?

1. Income Tax
2. Employees’ Provident Fund
3. General Sales Tax
4. LIC
5. National Pension Scheme
6. Postal provident Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(d) 3, 4, 5 and 6

13. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen and sells them at 8 times price per hundered. What percentage does he gain or lose?

(a) 4% profit
(b) 6% profit
(c) 4% loss
(d) 6% loss

14. For which time intervals, is the percentage rise of population the same for the following data?

(a) 1970-80 and 1980 -90
(b) 1980-90 and 1990-2000
(c) 2000-2010 and 1990-2000
(d) 1980-90 and 2000-2010

15. Four quantities are such that their arithmetic mean(A.M) is the same as the A.M of the first three quantities . The fourth quantity is

(a) Sum of the first three quantities
(b) A.M of the first three quantities
(c) (Sum of the first three quantities)/4
(d) (Sum of the first three quantities)/2

16. If the difference of two numbers is greater than the sum of the numbers, then

(a) Both the numbers are negative
(b) Exactly one of the numbers is negative
(c) At least one of the numbers is negative
(d) None of the above

17. A palindrome is a number which reads the same from left as well as right, for example, 23732, what is the number of palindromes between 10 and 1010?

(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 99
(d) 90

18. In writing all the integers from 1 to 300, how many times is the digit 1 used?

(a) 160
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 110

19. Consider the sequential integers 27 to 93, both included in the sequence. The arithmetic average of these numbers will be

(a) 61.5
(b) 61
(c) 60.5
(d) 60

20. Consider the following statements in respect of Atal Pension Yojana:

1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to 40 years.
2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only after he attains the age of 60 years.
3. After the death of a beneficiary, his spouse continues to receive the pension.
4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(E-Book) UPSC APFC Question Papers PDF Download

UPSC Public Administration IAS Mains 2015 Categorised Paper -2

Paper-2

Section-A

Total 250 marks, duration: 3 hours; instructions: Same instructions as Paper-1.

Q1. Attempt all of the following in about 150 words each: 10×5=50

A. “Democracy within bureaucracy is likely to reduce its effectiveness.” Do you agree with this view? Argue your case. (Philosophical and Constitutional Framework of Government)
B. “District Collector’s role in the development process has been overemphasized.” Comment on the statement. (District Administration since Independence)
C. Why has District Planning been marginalized in many States and remained prominent in a few States? Explain. (Plans and Priorities)
D. “Ordinance-making power of the Executive needs to be suitably restrained.” Examine it critically. (Union Government and Administration)
E. ‘Minimum government, maximum governance’ is not just a slogan but a philosophy of administration with enormous potentialities.” Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer. (Philosophical and Constitutional Framework of Government )

Q2. 20 + 20 + 10 Marks

A. To what extent has political culture influenced the administrative culture of India? Explain. 20 (Philosophical and Constitutional Framework of Government )
B. Briefly discuss the main recommendations of the Punchhi Commission (2010) on Centre-State relations for transforming Indian Federal System. 20 (Philosophical and Constitutional Framework of Government )
C. As Dr. B. R. Ambedkar observed, “the text of the Constitution can provide the organs of the State, but the final outcome of the governance process depends on how it has operationalized by the political parties and people”. Elucidate the statement. 10 (Philosophical and Constitutional Framework of Government )

Q3. 20 + 20 + 10 Marks

A. The objectives, approaches and organizational arrangements for decision-making of the NITI Aayog aim at restoring the federal character of the Indian polity. Explain. (Plans and Priorities)
B. Explain fully how a balance can be struck between autonomy and accountability of India’s public enterprises. (Public Sector Undertaking)
C. “Decentralised governance must serve as an instrument of realizing social change and social justice.” Comment on the statement. (Rural Development)

(Answer Keys) UPSC Engineering Services Examination 2015

Exam Name: Engineering Services Examination

Year: 2015

Subjects:

• GAT
• Civil Engg. Paper I
• Civil Engg. Paper II
• Mechanical Engg. Paper I
• Mechanical Engg. Paper II
• Electrical Engg. Paper I
• Electrical Engg. Paper II
• E&T Engg. Paper I
• E&T Engg. Paper II

UPSC Public Administration IAS Mains 2015 Categorised Paper -1

Paper-1:

Section-A

Q1.Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: 10×5=50

A. Waldo’s The Administrative State’ provides a fundamental challenge to some of the orthodox premises. Explain. (Introduction)
B. Discuss how the Public Choice Theory promotes the concept of ‘Steering’ and undermines the concept of ‘Rowing’ in visualising efficient and effective administration. (Introduction)
C. “Delegated Legislation is a necessary evil.” Comment. ( Administrative Law)
D. Do you agree with the view that the charismatic approach of the mid-1970s is a “new version” of the Classical Trait Theory of Leadership? Give reasons. (Administrative Behaviour)
E. “The term policy implementation is in some respects preferable to the label public administration.” Argue. (Public Policy)

Q2. 20+15+15 marks

a. “Globalisation has transformed the nature and character of State from traditional administrative Welfare State to a Corporate State.” Analyse the changes in the nature of public administration in this context. (Introduction)
b. “Contemporary Organisational theory seems further afield of Chester Barnard’s Functions of the Executive than of organisational ecology.” Examine the statement in the light of ecological elements in Barnard’s thought. (Administrative thought)
c. “PPPs serve too many parties and too many interests … to be focussed.” Identify in the context of the statement, the parties involved in Public-Private Partnerships and their conflicting aims. (Organisations)

Q3. 20+ 15+ 15 marks

a. “Follett’s work was not directed towards the resolution of the conflict of ideas, but towards the resolution of structural conflicts between workers and capitalists.” In the light of the statement critically evaluate Follett’s idea of dynamic administration. 20 (Administrative thought)
b. “Information constitutes the life-blood of the functioning of an organisation.” Explain the utility and significance of communication in decision-making. 15 (Administrative Behaviour)
c. “Legislative action is not subject to the rules of natural justice.” Explain the exceptions to the rule of natural justice. . (Administrative Law)

(Reserve List) UPSC Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2014

The final results of the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2014 recommended 1236 candidates for appointment to IAS, IFS, IPS and Central Services Group ‘A’ and Group ‘B’ against 1364 vacancies and UPSC, in accordance with the Rule 16 (4) & (5) of the Civil Services Examination Rules, was also maintaining a Reserve List pool in order of merit.

Candidates under Reserve List (CSE 2014) : 1364 - 1236 = 128

The DoPT has now recommended 126 candidates to UPSC which include 109 General, 15 OBC and 02 SC candidates, to fill up the remaining posts based on the Civil Services Examination, 2014. The candidature of candidates bearing Roll 124690 and 390542 is provisional.

Particulars of these candidates are given below. The candidates so recommended will be informed directly by the DoP&T.

1. The results of the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2014 were declared vide Press Note dated 04.07.2015 recommending 1236 candidates in order of merit for appointment to IAS, IFS, IPS and Central Services Group ‘A’ and Group ‘B’ against 1364 vacancies.

2. The Commission, in accordance with the Rule 16 (4) & (5) of the Civil Services Examination Rules, was also maintaining a Consolidated Reserve List in order of merit below the last recommended candidate under the respective category.

3. As sought by the Department of Personnel & Training, the Commission has now recommended 126 candidates which include 109 General, 15 OBC and 02 SC candidates, to fill up the remaining posts based on the Civil Services Examination, 2014. Particulars of these candidates are indicated below. The candidates so recommended will be communicated directly by the DOP&T.

4. The candidature of following candidates bearing Roll 124690 and 390542 is provisional.

5. The list of these 126 candidates is also available on the UPSC website i.e. http//www.upsc.gov.in. 

(Notification) UPSC IES/ISS Examination - 2016

The Services to which recruitment is to be made on the results of this examination and the approximate number of vacancies in Junior Time Scale of the Services are given below :-

(i) Indian Economic Service - 15
(ii) Indian Statistical Service - 13

Minimum Educational Qualifications :

(a) A candidate for the Indian Economic Service must have obtained a Post-Graduate Degree in Economics/Applied Economics/Business Economics/Econometrics from a University incorporated by of an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other Educational Institutes established by an Act Parliament or declared to be deemed as University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or a Foreign University approved by the Central Government from time to time.

(b) A candidate for the Indian Statistical Service must have obtained a Bachelor's Degree with Statistics/Mathematical Statistics/Applied Statistics as one of the subject or a Master's degree in Statistics/Mathematical Statistics/Applied Statistics from a University incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other Educational Institutes established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or a Foreign University approved by the Central Government from time to time.

Age Limits :

(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on 1st August, 2016 i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1986 and not later than 1st August, 1995.

FEE :

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST/PH candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs.200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI, State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad /State Bank of Mysore/ State Bank of Patiala/ State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

SECTION-I

The examination shall be conducted according to the following plan—

Part I-Written examination carrying a maximum of 1000 marks in the subjects as shown below.
Part II-Viva voce of such candidates as may be called by the Commission carrying a maximum of 200 marks.

Maharashtra government will provide scholarships to UPSC Aspirants

The Maharashtra government has decided to give scholarships to encourage students to clear their Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) exam. The decision was taken in the cabinet meeting on Tuesday.

The state government has six coaching centres in Mumbai, Nagpur, Kolhapur, Amravati, Aurangabad and Nashik where 600 students are going to be trained. The government plans to give aspirants a sum of Rs 10,000 per month.

The government has made a provision of Rs 23.46 crore for the same. The civil services exam is conducted by the UPSC annually in three stages—preliminary, main and interview—to select officers of Indian Administrative Service, Indian Foreign Service and Indian Police Service, among others.

Civil Services Examination review committees constituted by UPSC

The Union Public Service Commission has so far constituted following committees for review of different aspects of Civil Services Examination including the language issues:-

i) Kothari Committee
ii) Satish Chandra Committee
iii) Y.K. Alagh Committee
iv) Anandakrishnan Committee
v) Bhattacharya Committee S.K. Khanna Committee
vii) Nigavekar Committee
viii) Purushottam Agarwal Committee.
ix) Baswan Committee.

Except for the Baswan Committee, which is yet to submit its report, all other Committees have since submitted their reports and in none of these reports, any recommendation has been made for revising the Civil Services to set questions in all the languages listed in Schedule VIII of the Constitution.

The Committee inter-alia recommended that the candidates in the Civil Services Examination should be allowed to write their papers (other than the Indian language and English compulsory papers) in any of the languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution provided the candidate has had his/her graduation in that particular language medium for the examination. However, in view of the concerns raised in the Parliament, print and electronic media about Civil Services Examinations Rules, 2013, the said recommendation was not given effect by the Central Government.

Free Digital Magazine: Civil Services Mentor, January 2016

Issue : January 2016
Size: 3.51 MB
File Type: PDF
Publisher : IASEXAMPORTAL.COM 

Table of Contents:

Articles:

• Sugamya Bharat Abhiyaan
• Gold Monetisation Schemes
• India and Nepal Relations
• Third India- Africa Summit
• UDAY
• Selected Articles from Various Newspapers & Journals

Current Affairs:

• National Issues
• International Issues
• Economy
• India & The World
• Science & Technology
• Sports
• Awards & Prizes
• Persons in News

Report of the Sixth Central Pay Commission, Govt of India

Content

Part-I – Common Issues

1 General

1.1 Introduction
1.2 Philosophy & Guiding principles
1.3 The General Economic Situation & Financial Resources of the Central and State Governments

2. Principles of Pay Determination and Pay Scales

2.1 Comparison with Public Sector and Private Sector
2.2 General Recommendations on Pay Structure & Fixation
2.3 Pay scales of Defence Forces Personnel
2.4 Lateral movement of Defence Forces personnel
2.5 Performance Related Incentive Scheme

3 Pay Scales for Specific Service, Categories & Cadres

3.1 Headquarters Organisations in Government of India & Office Staff in field offices
3.2 All India Services
3.3 Central Services Group 'A'
3.4 Engineering Services
3.5 Scientific Services
3.6 Medical and Para Medical Services
3.7 Group D Staff
3.8 Common Categories

(e-Summon) UPSC Central Armed Police Forces (ACs) Examination (CAPF-AC), 2015

"Candidates who have qualified for the Personality Test of CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES (ACs) EXAMINATION, 2015 are advised to download their e-Summon letter and its attachments for the Personality Test. No Summon letter is being sent by post."

Exam Name: Central Armed Police Forces (ACs) Examination

Year: 2015

(e-Summon) UPSC Indian Forest Service Examination (IFoS), 2015

"Candidates who have qualified for the Personality Test of INDIAN FOREST SERVICE EXAMINATION, 2015 are advised to download their e-Summon letter and its attachments for the Personality Test. No Summon letter is being sent by post."

Exam Name: IFoS

Year: 2015

(Notification) UPSC NDA/NA Exam (I) 2016

Post Details:

• National Defence Academy : 320 (208 for Army, 42 for Navy 300 and 70 for Air Force)
• Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme) : 55

Total No of Seats: 375

Educational Qualifications :

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also apply for this examination.

Age Limits:

Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 1997 and not later than 1st July, 2000 are eligible.

Physical Standards :

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2016 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV

FEE

Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.

(Written Result) UPSC Indian Forest Service Examination (IFoS), 2015

1. On the basis of the written results of the Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination, 2015 held by the Union Public Service Commission in November/December 2015, the candidates with the under mentioned Roll
Numbers have qualified for Personality Test.

2. Candidature of these candidates is provisional subject to their being found eligible in all respects. The candidates will be required to produce the original certificates in support of their claims pertaining to age, educational qualifications, community, physical handicap and other documents such as Attestation Form and TA Form, etc. at the time of their Personality Test.

CSAT marks no longer be included in UP PCS Combined State Upper Subordinate Services (Prelim) Exam

The marks obtained in the civil services aptitude test (CSAT) will no longer be included in deciding the merit of candidates clearing the Combined State Upper Subordinate Services (Preliminary) Examination — or PCS (Pre) as it is commonly known — besides the lower subordinate (preliminary) exams. The merit list is made to determine which of the candidates can go on to take the main exams.

In other words, the CSAT will now be just ‘qualifying’ in nature for the forthcoming preliminary recruitment examination of these two exams of the UPPSC.

Accepting the students’ demand, the state government has issued the requisite directives to the UPPSC for making the CSAT a mere qualifying paper. A fax in this regard was received at the commission on Monday.
Commission secretary Suresh Kumar Singh confirmed the state government’s decision and said that a communiqué had been received by the commission from the state capital in this regard.