(MCQ) NCERT Books Class-11 : Indian Constitution at Work (New)

1. Free and fair elections are the key to functioning of a vibrant democracy. Consider the following statements regarding elections in India and identify the correct ones.
1. Ballot papers with name of all candidates in a constituency were used for elections in India since Independence.
2. This method was replaced by Electronic Voting machines starting from end of 1990s.
3. Independent India’s first election was the largest of such an exercise in the world till then.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
Answer. C.

2. Read the statements below. They were written in context of India after Independence.
1. “... the biggest gamble in the history ...”
2. “Nehru will live to confess the failure of ...”
3. “.. a future and more enlightened age will view with astonishment the absurd farce of...”
Above statements were mode in the context of:
Code:
a) Integration of Princely States
b) Linguistic reorganization of states.
c) Introduction of Universal Adult Franchise
d) Establishment of secular India
Ans. C.

3. Match the following:
List-I                            List-II
A. Habeas corpus       1. The court finds that a particular office holder is not doing legal duty and is infringing on the right of an individual.
B. Mandamus              2. The court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it.
C. Quo warranto         3. The court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending before it to the higher authority or court.
D. Certiorari                4. If the court finds that a person is holding office but is not entitled to hold that office, the court restricts that person from acting as on office holder
Code:
A B C D
a) 2 1 3 4
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 1 2 4 3
d) 1 2 3 4
ans. B

4. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. The Constitution forbids employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines.
2. The freedom of religion is not an unlimited right as govt. can interfere in religious matters for rooting out certain social evils.
3. The Constitution allows conversions in India.
4. All minorities, religious or linguistic can set up their own education institutions.
Code:
a) 4 only b) 3 and 4
c) 3 only d) None
ans. D

5. Match the following:
Provisions borrowed Constitution of different countries
A. Institution of the                  1. Canadian speaker and his role Constitution
B. Directive principles of         2. French state policy Constitution
C. Power of judicial review     3. British and independence of the Constitution judiciary
D. Principles of liberty,            4. Irish Equality and Fraternity Constitution
E. The idea of Residual          5. United States powers Constitution
Code:
A B C D E
a) 3 4 2 5 1
b) 3 4 5 2 1
c) 4 3 5 1 2
d) 4 3 2 1 5
ans. B

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6. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I                                   List-II
A. Freedom to criticize       1. Substantive treatment of widows achievement
B. Taking decisions            2. Procedural in the Constituent achievement Assembly on the basis of reason, not self interest
C. Accepting importance   3. Liberal of community in an individualism individual’s life
D. Article 370 and 371       4. Attention to requirements of a particular region.
E. Unequal rights to           5. Neglect of women regarding family gender justice property and children
Code:
A B C D E
a) 3 1 2 4 5
b) 5 1 2 4 3
c) 5 2 1 4 3
d) 3 2 1 4 5
ans. D

7. Which of the following principles of secularism are adopted in the Constitution of India?
1. That state will have nothing to do with religion.
2. That state will have close relation with religion.
3. That state can discriminate among religions.
4. That state will recognize rights of religious groups.
5. That state will have limited powers to intervene in affairs of religions.
Code:
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 b) 4 and 5
c) 1, 4 and 5 d) All of the Above
ans. B

8. Identify the correct statements about the theory of basic structure.
1. Constitution specifies the basic tenets.
2. Legislature can amend all parts of the Constitution except the basic structure.
3. Judiciary has defined which aspects of the Constitution can be termed as the basic structure and which cannot.
4. The theory found its first expression in the Kesavananda Bharti case and has been discussed in subsequent judgments.
Code:
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4
ans. B

9. Which of the following is not a reasonable explanation of the conflict between the legislature and the judiciary over different amendments?
1. Different interpretations of the Constitution are possible
2. In a democracy, debates and differences are natural.
3. Constitution has given higher importance to certain rules and principles and also allowed for amendment by special majority.
4. Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the rights of the citizens.
5. Judiciary can only decide the Constitutionality of a particular law; cannot resolve political debates about its need.
Code:
a) 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 5 d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
ans. A

10. 42nd Amendment was one of the most controversial Amendments so far. Which of the following were the reasons for this controversy?
1. It was made during National emergency and the declaration of that emergency was itself controversial.
2. It was made without the support of special majority.
3. It was made without ratification by state legislatures.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
ans. B

11. Who among the following are involved in making amendment to the Indian Constitution.
1. Voters
2. President of India
3. State legislatures
4. Parliament
5. Governors
6. Judiciary
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 2 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
ans. C

12. Consider the following statements.
1. The President cannot send back a constitutional amendment bill for reconsideration to the Parliament.
2. Elected representatives alone have the power to amend the Constitution.
3. The judiciary cannot initiate the process of Constitutional Amendment but can effectively change the Constitution by interpreting it differently.
4. The Parliament can amend any section of the Constitution.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
ans. B

13. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones:
1. Federalism enhances the possibility of people from different regions to interact without the fear of one’s culture being imposed upon them by others.
2. Federal system will hinder easier economic transaction between two different regions that have distinct types of resources.
3. A federal system will ensure that the powers of those at the centre will remain limited.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
ans. B

14. Read the following statements given in list-I and match them with the different jurisdictions that Supreme Court can exercise given in list-II.
List-I
A. The govt. wanted to know if it can pass a law about the citizenship status of residents of Pakistanoccupied areas of Jammu and Kashmir.
B. In order to resolve the dispute about the sharing of police forces with Telangana, the Governmentof Andhra Pradesh wants to approach the Court.
C. Court rejected the appeal of the people against the eviction from the dam site.
List-II
1. Original Jurisdiction
2. Appellate Jurisdiction
3. Advisory Jurisdiction
Code:
a) A-3, B-1, C-2 b) A-3, B-2, C-1
c) A-2, B-1, C-3 d) A-1, B-3, C-2
ans. A

15. There are different ways in which the independence of the judiciary is ensured. Which among the following statements is/are correct in this regard:
1. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is consulted in the appointment of other judges of Supreme Court.
2. Judges are generally not removed before the age of retirement.
3. Judge of a High court cannot be transferred to another High Court.
4. The Parliament has no say in the appointment of judges.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
ans. C

16. Match the following item in List I with items in List II with the help of codes given below:
List-I
A. Works within the particular state in which recruited
B. Works in any central government office located either at the national capital or elsewhere in the county.
C. Works in a particular state to which allotted; can also be sent on deputation to the centre.
D. Works on Indian Mission abroad.
List-II
1. Indian Foreign Services
2. State Civil Services
3. All India Services
4. Central Services
Code:
A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 4 2 3 1
d) 2 4 3 1
ans. D

17. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. First past the post system is followed for all the elections in India.
2. Election Commission of India does not supervise Panchayat and Municipal elections.
3. President of India cannot remove the Election Commissioner.
4. Appointment of more than one Election Commissioners in the Election Commission is mandatory.
Code:
a) 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3 only
ans. B

18. Which of the following is/are common with respect to the election of the members of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha?
1. Every citizen above the age of 18 is an eligible voter.
2. Voter can give preference order for different candidates.
3. Every voter has equal vote.
4. The winner must get more than half the votes.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) Only 3 b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 1, 3 and 4 d) All of the above
ans. A

19. Which of the following can be termed as a violation of Fundamental Rights?
1. Not paying minimum wages
2. Banning of a book
3. Banning of loudspeakers after 9 p.m.
4. Restriction on making a public speech
Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) None of the above
ans. A

20. Consider the following statements.
1. A Bill of Right lays down the rights enjoyed by the people of a country.
2. A bill of Rights protects the liberties of an individual.
3. Every country of the world has a Bill of Rights.
4. The Constitution guarantees remedy against Violation of Rights.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above
ans. C

21. Consider the following statements about the Indian constitution and choose the correct ones:
1. Constitution makers were of the belief that there can be no faults in the constitution as each provision was deliberated in detail and passed unanimously.
2. Some provisions in Indian constitution were temporary in nature.
3. There are different ways for amending Indian Constitution.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of these
ans. C

22. Indian Constitution was amended several times in history of independent India. Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect ones
1. Indian Constitution was amended maximum during the period between 1960 to 1970
2. 44th Amendment was a mini constitution in itself.
3. 43rd and 44th amendment primarily sought to reverse the provisions in 38th, 39th and 42nd amendments.
4. The theory of basic structure is an example in itself of a living constitution.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 and 4 only
ans. A

23. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones:
1. Values and standards of constitution makers should be used to study constitutions all over the world.
2. Liberalism always privileges rights of individuals over demands of social justice and community values.
3. Reservation is against the ideal of classical liberalism.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
ans. C

24. Constitution is not an end in itself, but means to pursue the end, hence consider these statements and choose the correct ones.
1. One of the needs of a constitution is to restrict the exercise of power by the state.
2. Constitutions are documents capable of social transformation.
3. Constitutions cannot empower those who are traditionally kept out of power.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
ans. A

25. India created a constitution which is very much alive and strong even after 60 years of independence. Consider the following statements about the constitution.
1. Constitution is purely a legal document.
2. The ideals enshrined in constitution are variously interpreted and willfully manipulated at times to suit partisan interests.
3. Constitution is a document which can work as an arbitrator in a conflict of interpretation of values and ideals.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) All of these
ans. C

26. Consider the following statements about Indian Constitution.
1. Indian Constitution envisaged decentralized idea of national unity.
2. Indian constitution comprehensively addressed all issues of gender justice.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 1

27. Consider the following statements in the context of First Past the Post system of Election.
1. Under this system, the Candidates who secured more votes is declared elected.
2. First Past the Post system of Election is also called the Plurality System.
3. First Past the Post system of Election is not prescribed in the Constitution.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above

28. Consider the following statements in the context of Local Governments.
1. The reservation of seats apply only to ordinary members in Panchayats not to the positions of Chairpersons or ‘Adhyakshas‘
2. The stipulated reservation of the seats for women is restricted to general category of seats not to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. Consider the following statements in the context of Jammu & Kashmir.
1. Emergency due to internal disturbances can be declared in J&K without the concurrence of the State.
2. While Directive Principles of the constitution apply in J&K, the amendments to the Constitution can only apply in concurrence with the state.
3. The Financial Emergency declared by the union government under article 368 of the constitution cannot apply in J&K.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them

30. As per the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, the President of India (Article 143) can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice. Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India has empowered the President to seek advise from Supreme Court, if he wanted it in any matter and it comes under Advisory Jurisdiction, which is not available even forthe American Supreme Court.
2. If the Supreme Court is approached for its advice, then the court is bound to give the advice on the matter sought.
3. Both the President and Council of Ministers are bound to act upon the advise tendered by the Supreme Court.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

31. Consider the following statements in the context of Vice President of India.
1. The Vice President is removed from the office through the process of impeachment.
2. The Loksabha has no role in the removal of Ex-officio Chairman of Rajyasabha.
3. Dy. Chairman of the Rajyasabha acts as Vice-President during his absence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only d) None of them

32. Consider the following statements.
1. In the case of violation of the fundamental Rights, the affected person can directly approach the Supreme Court only.
2. In the matters under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, the High Court cannot be approached.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following statements.
1. The Right to Property stands as a non enforceable Right now.
2. The Right to Property is a part of basic structure doctrine of the Constitution.
3. Fundamental rights can only be changed by effecting amendments to the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Consider the following statements in the context of Council of Ministers.
1. If a no-confidence motion against a single minister is passed, then the minister has to resign but the council of ministers will remain.
2. The resignation of the Prime Minister automatically brings down the Council of Ministers. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Consider the following.
1. The Loksabha.
2. The Rajyasabha.
3. The State Legislative Councils.
4. The State Legislative Assemblies.
Electoral College to elect Vice President of India consist which of the above?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Consider the following.
1. Promotion Uniform civil code.
2. Prohibition of alcoholic liquor.
3. Promotion of cottage industries.
4. Promotion of International peace.
Which of the above are explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
a) 1 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

37. Consider the following statements.
1. Fundamental Duties of Citizens got inserted into the Constitution by the 44th amendment Act in 1976.
2. Constitution empowered the states to adopt mechanisms to enforce Fundamental Duties in contingencies.
3. Constitution does not make the enjoyment of some of the rights dependent upon the fulfilment or conditional of duties.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of them

38. Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India prescribed that the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed as the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Chief Justice of India shall be consulted by the president while appointing Judges to the High Courts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. Consider the following statements in the context of Panchayati Raj institutions.
1. The reservations for both SCs & STs are provided at all the levels of Panchayati Raj.
2. All the three levels of Panchayati Raj institutions are elected directly by the people.
3. The terms of all the three levels of Panchayati Raj institutions are coterminous.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them

40. Consider the following statements in the context of State Re-organization in India.
1. The implementation of States Reorganization Commission Report was resulted in creating 15 new states and six Union Territories.
2. While Gujarat and Maharashtra were created in 1966, the Punjab and Haryana were separated from each other in 1960.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Consider the following statements in the context of legislative business in our country.
1. In Zero Hour, members are free to raise any matter that they think is important.
2. The ministers are bound to reply to the question raised in the Zero Hour.
3. If a bill is presented, the President has to either return or give assent in same session.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of them

42. For conduction of free and fair elections, Election Commission of India was set up after independence. Consider following statements and choose incorrect statements in the context of elections.
1. Election Commission is a constitutional body to supervise, direct and control all elections in India.
2. Country’s first general elections were conducted in 1950.
3. Electronic Voting Machine method has been used in entire country since 2004.
Code:
a) 3 only b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 d) All the Above

43. Planning Commission was set up to uptake the task of planned development of Indian economy. Consider the following statements in this regard and choose correct statement/s:
1. Planning Commission is a statutory body set up in March, 1950 by government of India
2. Bombay Plan – 1944, was the brainchild of Congress working committee which provided a blueprint for the planned economy for the country
3. 1st five year plan had focussed on agrarian sector, investment in dams, irrigation and land reforms
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Federal character has been adopted by Indian constitution. Consider following statements in this regard and choose statements in this regard and choose the incorrect statements.
1. Constitution of India described India as a federation in Article 1.
2. Economic and financial powers are decentralized in character.
3. Central government can delay state legislations.
4. Executive powers of the states are equivalent to that of the centre.
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) None of the above

45. Constitution is a document which provides for rules and regulations controlling the powers of the government. Consider the following statements in this regard and choose the correct statements.
1. Constitution is a document which announces political self determination.
2. Constitution prevents States from becoming tyrannical.
3. American Constitution declares itself as based on Philosophy of Ideal of Peace.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

46. OBCs are the communities other than SC and ST who suffer from educational and social backwardness. Choose the correct statement/s in this regard.
1. Karpoori Thakur, was a pioneer in raising voice for reservations for backward castes in North India.
2. Mandal Commission was the first Backward Class Commission since Independence, appointed by Central Government.
3. The decision to implement Mandal Commission recommendation was challenged in the Supreme Court in the famous ‘S R Bommai Case’.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 only

47. Making a constitution is not an easy and smooth affair for any country. Nepal is an example of a country who faced the complications and challenges of constitution making.

 Choose the correct statement/s in this regard.
1. Since 1948, Nepal has had five constitutions in 1948, 1951, 1959, 1962 and 1990.
2. All these constitutions were granted by the King of Nepal.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both d) None

48. Which of the following is a conclusive reason for saying that the authority of the constitution is higher than that of the Parliament?
1. The Constitution was framed before the Parliament came in to being.
2. The Constitution makers were more eminent leaders than the members of the Parliament.
3. The Constitution specifies how Parliament is to be formed and what are its powers.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only
ans. D

49. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Election Commission of India and its members?
1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission, and has more power than Election Commissioners.
2. CEC and other Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Council of Ministers.
3. They are appointed for a five year term or continue till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
4. The CEC can be removed before the expiry of the term, by the President of India on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

50. Choose the incorrect statements from the following about the provision of State Election Commission introduced through the 73rd and 74th amendments.
1. The State Election Commission would be responsible for the elections of the local assemblies and the local bodies.
2. The Commission will report to the Election Commission of India.
3. This commission will function as a semi-autonomous body under the state government.
Code:
a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2 d) All the above

51. Which of the following is a criterion for an area to be declared as an ‘urban area’?
1. A minimum population of 5000.
2. At least 75 percent of the total working population engaged in non-agricultural occupations.
3. A density of population of at least 400 persons per sq.km
Code:
a) All the above b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3

52. Consider the following statements about the 73rd amendment act and choose the correct one/s.
1. The act provided for a three tier Panchayati Raj structure with Gram Sabha at the base.
2. The intermediary level body need not be constituted in smaller states.
3. Gram Sabha would comprise of all adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area.
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) Only 1

53. Universal adult franchise and a strong constitution are the prerequisites to ensure fairness of democracy. Which among the following statements is/are correct?
1. The concept of universal adult franchise was mentioned as early as the constitution of India Bill 1895.
2. The Constitution of India Bill 1895 is the first official attempt at drafting a Constitution for India.
3. Motilal Nehru report 1928, mentioned the age of a person as 21, he/she who is eligible to vote for the house of Parliament.
4. First country to implement universal adult franchise was Germany followed by Russia. Code:
a) 1, 2, 4 only b) 2, 3, 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only

54. Which among the following statements is/are correct?
1. State can prohibit criticism of executive action under the limitation to freedom of expression.
2. Freedom of press is expressly mentioned in Article 19 but has been held to flow from general freedom of speech given to all citizen.
3. Ram Mohan Roy protested against curtailment of freedom of the press.
4. Individual freedom includes freedom of expression, freedom of profession, freedom of residence, freedom of movement.
Code:
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 2 d) 3 and 4

55. Elections are the most important events, ensuring accountability of governments to the general public, in a democratic country. Which among the following statements is/are not correct.
1. Election Commission is a Constitutional body.
2. Article 325 deals with superintendence, direction and control of election.
3. Election Commissioner have fixed terms and tenures.
4. The Election Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the supreme court.
Code:
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only

56. Consider the following statements about local bodies in India
1. Local government is government at state and district level.
2. It is a statutory body.
3. It came into existence in 1993.
4. Local bodies in India are nominated bodies.
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) All of above

57. Local government strengthens the democratic process by:
1. By ensuring active participation of people since it is closer to people
2. By bringing purposeful accountability.
3. Make justice delivery quicker and cost effective.
4. Brings about effective problem solving and people-friendly administration
Code:
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) All of above

58. Consider the following statements about local bodies in India.
1. Local bodies in India is a modern phenomenon created by amending the constitution in 1993.
2. Government of India Act 1919 established Village Panchayats in Provinces.
3. Government of India Act 1935 abolished local bodies in India.
4. Lord Rippons resolution on democratic decentralization created local boards.
Which of following statements are incorrect?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only d) None of above

59. Consider the following statements regarding State Election Commission?
1. It is appointed by the President in consultation with the state government
2. Creation of the State Election Commission is the discretionary power of the state government
3. It is a subordinate office of Central Election Commissioner
4. It is responsible for conducting elections to state and local government institutions
Which of above statements is/are correct?
a) 3 and 4 only b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1 and 2 only d) None of above

60. Consider the following statements with respect to State Finance Commission.
1. It is a statutory body.
2. State Finance Commission is appointed by State Government once in every 5 years.
3. It examines the financial position of local government in the State.
4. It reviews the distribution of revenues between State & Local Government.
Which of following statements are correct?
a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4 only d) All of above
A. It is constitutional body

61. Our Constitution ensures that persons accused of various offences would also get sufficient protection. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. No person would be punished for the same offence more than once.
2. Law can declare any action as illegal retrospectively.
3. No person shall be asked to give evidence against himself or herself.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
C. No ex-post facto legislation

62. The legislature in Parliamentary system ensures executive accountability at various stages. The legislature does this through the use of variety of devices. Which among the following devices are used in Parliamentary control over executive
1. Question hour
2. No confidence motion
3. Budget
4. Adjournment motion
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ans. D

63. The Indian Constitution has ensured the Independence of the judiciary through a number of measures. Consider the following:
1. The legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges
2. Judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature
3. Parliament can never discuss the conduct of judges
4. The judiciary has the power to penalise those who are found guilty of contempt of Court
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

64. Consider the following statements about High Court:
1. High Court can issue writs only for restoring fundamental rights.
2. Its decisions are binding on all courts.
3. High Court can hear appeals from lower courts.
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 3 only d) 2 and 3

65. Consider the following statements with respect to Supreme Court of India:
1. Decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding on all other courts with in the territory of India
2. Supreme Court have no right to review its decision.
3. A person can appeal to the Supreme Court against the decisions of High Court only if, High
Court certify that the case is fit for appeal.
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
ans. A

66. Which among the following is included in the original jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
1. Dispute between centre and states
2. Dispute between states
3. Dispute in presidential election
4. Violation of fundamental rights
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1 only
ans. A

67. The Chief instrument through which judicial activism has flourished in India is Public Interest Litigation (PIL). Consider the following statement:
1. PIL is in consonance with Article 39A of the constitution
2. In PIL, court can take suo moto cases
3. Hussainava Khatoon v/s State of Bihar is a famous case in PIL
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
ans. D

68. The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to that of Lok Sabha. Consider the following statements in this regard:
1. A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha can not remove Council of Ministers by passing a no-confidence motion
3. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha)
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2 d) 1, 2 and 3

69. The Constitution under (Article 143) authorises the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court. Consider the following:
1. It is optional for the SC to express its opinion under Article 143
2. Opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 d) None

70. Consider the following about the nature of executive existing in different countries?
1. Japan has a parliamentary system with the emperor as the head of the state and Prime Minister as head of government
2. Germany has a presidential system
3. Russia has a semi-presidential system where president is the head of the state and prime minister, who is appointed by the president is the head of government
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

71. USA practises a Presidential form of government. Consider the following statements about Presidential system.
1. President is the head of the state as well as head of the government
2. The President is usually directly elected by the people
3. President is accountable to the legislature
Select the correct statements using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above

72. The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union formally in the President. Consider the following statements.
1. The President is elected indirectly by all the member of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Assembly
2. This election takes place in accordance with the List system
3. The Prime Minister is not obliged to furnish the information the President may call for Which of these statements are not correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

73. The constitution of India provides for a single integrated judicial system. This means that
1. Unlike most of the other federal countries of the world, India does not have separate state courts.
2. The structure of the judiciary in India is pyramidal with the Supreme Court at the top, High Courts below them and district and subordinate courts at the lowest level.
3. The lower courts function under the direct superintendence of the higher courts.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) All 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above
ans. C

74. Legislature is not merely a law making body. It is at the centre of all democratic political process. Consider the statement about the functioning of parliament in light of this.

1. The parliament has the power to amend the constitution by a joint sitting of both the houses and with a special majority
2. The judicial functions of the Parliament include considering the proposals for removal of President, Prime Minister, Vice-President and Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court.

Which of these statement/s are correct?
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None

75. Parliamentary privilege is a legal immunity enjoyed by members of legislatures, in which legislators are granted protection against civil or criminal liability for actions done or statements made in the course of their legislative duties. Consider the following statements about this and choose the incorrect ones.
1. The President has the final power in deciding matters of breach of privilege.
2. The main purpose of such privileges is to enable the members of the legislature to represent the people and exercise effective control over the executive.

Code:
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. Indian Independence Act of 1947 made various changes in the position of the Constituents Assembly. Consider the following statements in this regard.
1. Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any constitution it pleased.
2. Dual role of constituent assembly and parliament was assigned to the Assembly.
3. Muslim League members withdrew from the constituent Assembly for India.
Which among the above statements are correct:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only d) All the above

77. To provide independence to Judiciary the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is made extremely difficult. In this context which of the following statement/s are correct.
1. A judge of the Supreme of High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehavior (or) incapacity.
2. A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved with by special majority in both houses of the parliament.
3. So far, no judge has been removed from the office.

Code:
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2 only d) None
ans. B

78. In 1978 the constitution of Sri Lanka was amended and the system of executive presidency was introduced. Consider the following statements with respect to this find out the correct ones:

1. Here the president is directly elected by the people and the president and prime minister belong to the same political party
2. President has vast powers and he chooses the prime minister from party with majority in parliament.
3. President is the head of the state, commander-in-chief of armed forces and also head of the government
4. The president is elected for a term of four years and can be removed only by a resolution in parliament passed by the parliament with at least 2/3rd of total strength of the parliament
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4

79. The President of India has various legislative, judicial, and military powers as well as situational discretionary powers. Consider the following statements in this regard and choose the correct ones.

1. The president has a right to be informed about of all important matters and deliberations of the council of ministers.
2. The president can send back the advice given by the council of minister and ask the council to reconsider the decision
3. The president has the veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to bills passed by the parliament.
4. The president is always bound by the advice of council of ministers.
Code:
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3, 4 d) All the above

80. Trained and skilled officers who work as permanent employees of government are assigned the task of assisting the ministers in formulating policies and implementing these policies. Which of the following statements regarding the permanent executive are not correct.
1. The administrative officers can act in violation of the policies adopted by the legislature only in cases of greater public interest.
2. The bureaucracy is expected to be politically aligned to the minsters.
3. The bureaucracy is an instrument through which welfare politics of the government must reach the people.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All the above

81. Many Provincial Congress Committees were created on the basis of linguistic zones, which did not follow the administrative divisions of British India. In light of this which among the following statements are not correct?
1. State Re-organisation Commission was appointed in 1953 to look into the question of redrawing of the boundaries of the States.
2. State Re-organisation Commission wanted India to be divided into states based on geographic contiguity.
3. Statehood for Punjab was given in 1970 when the territories of today’s Haryana and Himachal Pradesh were separated from larger Punjab State.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above

82. Indian Constitution encourages equality and mutual-respect between different communities. Consider following statements in this regard and choose correct statement/s if any.
1. Indian Constitution consider religion merely as a ‘private’ matter concerning the individual and so it provides for secularism as a principle.
2. Indian Constitution provides that state should neither help nor hinder religions and religious affairs.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both d) None

83. Even after the 73rd and 74th amendments, the local bodies cannot really function in an effective manner. Which of the following can be termed as the reasons for this?
1. Many states have not transferred most of the subjects to the local bodies.
2. People at the local level do not enjoy much powers of choosing welfare programmes or allocation of the resources.
3. The dependence of local bodies on the State and central governments for financial support.

Code:
a) 1 and 3 b) Only 1
c) Only 2 d) All the above

84. Consider the following statements about the procedure for amendment of the Constitution of India and choose the correct ones.
1. Those voting in favour of the amendment bill should constitute at least half of the total strength of that house.
2. The supporters of the amendment bill must also constitute two-third of those who take part in voting.
3. Referendum is required in those amendments affecting the basic structure of the constitution.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All the above

85. Consider the following statements about the 42nd amendment act and choose the incorrect ones.
1. It was an attempt to override the ruling of the Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda Bharti case.
2. Duration of the Rajya Sabha was extended from five to six years.
3. This is the only amendment act which brought changes in the preamble of the constitution.
Code:
a) Only 2 b) Only 1
c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3

86. In late nineties, efforts were made to review the entire Constitution. Consider the following statements in this regard and choose the correct one/s.
1. In 2000, a commission to review the working of the Constitution was appointed by the Government of India under the chairmanship of retired Chief Justice Venkatachaliah.
2. The commission stuck to the theory of basic structure and did not suggest any measures that would endanger the basic structure of the constitution.
Code:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

87. The long lasting effect on the evolution of the Indian Constitution is the theory of the basic structure of the Constitution. Consider the following about the basic structure concept and choose the incorrect one/s.
1. It has set specific limits in the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution.
2. It allows the Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution within this limitation.
3. The power to decide what constitutes the basic structure lies with the Parliament only.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only

88. In India, Judiciary is an independent organ with respect to Executive and Legislative. In this context, which of the following statement/s are not correct.
1. The judiciary is financially dependent on either the executive (or) legislature.
2. The constitution provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature.
Code:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 bothc) 2 only d) None

89. The Constitution itself has made certain provisions to ensure smooth conduct of legislatures in India.
Consider the following statements in this regard and choose the correct one/s.
1. The Constitution has given the States the option of establishing either a unicameral or bicameral legislature.
2. The number of members to be elected to the Rajya Sabha from each State has been fixed as per fourth schedule of the Constitution
Code:
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
ans. C

90. The organ of the government that primarily looks after the function of implementation and administration is called the executive. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones:
1. Executive is the branch of government responsible for the implementation of laws and policies
adopted by legislature
2. Heads of the government departments are the ministers who are saddled with the overall responsibility of the government policies and are called as executives
3. The directive principles of the state policy suggests for a separate and independent legislature
and executive in India.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 1 d) All of the above

91. The Vice President of India is the second highest constitutional authority of the country. Which of the following statements in this regard are incorrect.
1. The vice president is elected in the same manner as that of president.
2. The vice president may be removed from his office by a resolution passed by Lok Sabha with a majority and agreed to by Rajya Sabha.
3. Vice president takes over the office of president when there is a vacancy due to death or resignation and remains in office till expiration of the term.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) All of the Above

92. A significant feature of the legislative process is the appointment of committees for various legislative purposes. Consider the following statements in this regard and choose the incorrect one/s.

1. Joint Parliamentary Committees supervise the work of various departments, their budget, their expenditure and bills that come up in the house relating to the departments.
2. Standing Committees can be set up for the purpose of discussing a particular bill, like the joint committee to discuss bill, or for the purpose of investigating financial irregularities
Code:
a) Only 1 b) Only2
c) Both of them d) None of these

93. Consider the following statements about eleventh schedule of the constitution and choose the correct one/s.
1. Twenty nine subjects which were earlier in the State list of subjects are identified and listed in the eleventh schedule.
2. These subjects are mostly linked to development and welfare functions at the local level.
3. It is mandatory for the state legislation to transfer all the subjects to the local bodies within the given time limit.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) Only 1

94. Due to the federal character, the Rajya Sabha has been given two exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha. Consider the following statements in this regard:
1. It can authorize the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the state list and concurrent list (Article 249)
2. It can authorize the Parliament to create new All-India services common to both the centre and states (Article 312)
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 d) None
B. State list only

95. Consider the following statements about Parliament?
1. Impeachment process of President can originate only in Lok Sabha
2. Introduction and passage of constitutional amendment bill originate in either of the houses of Parliament
3. Article 108 says that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
Select the incorrect statements:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Which among the following committees have representation only from Lok Sabha?
a) Public Accounts Committee
b) Public Undertaking Committee
c) Estimates Committee
d) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs

97. No discussion of government or politics in India could normally take place without mentioning one officer, the Prime Minister of India. Consider the following statements:
1. Only a Member of the Parliament can become the Prime Minister
2. It is the prerogative of the Prime minister to decide the members of the Council of Ministers.
3. Council of Minister cease to exist in case of resignation of the Prime Minister
Select the correct ones:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

98. Consider the following statements about the growth of local governments in India and choose the correct ones.
1. The concept of elected local government system in India was brought about by the Lord Rippon in 1882.
2. Following the Government of India Act 1919, village panchayats were established in a number of provinces.
3. The trend of organising panchayats discontinued after the Government of India Act 1935.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 d) All are correct

99. Different methods or systems of elections are adopted worldwide to elect their representatives. Choose the correct statement/s about Proportional Representation System.
1. In proportional representation system, very large geographical areas can be demarcated as constituencies.
2. More than one representative may be elected from one constituency.
3. Candidate who wins the election may not get majority.
Code:
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) All of the above

100. The Constitution Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Which of the following statement/s are incorrect with regard to this.
1. Each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
2. Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal communities- Muslims, Christians and Hindus.
3. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
Code:
a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only d) 1 and 2
 

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