(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2019

Subject : Hydrogeology

Year : 2019

HYDROGEOLOGY

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are NINE questions divided under FIVE Sections.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

Out of the remaining EIGHT questions, the candidate has to attempt FOUR, choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E and F.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings.

Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required. Wherever required, graphs/tables are to be drawn on the QCA Booklet itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

SECTION-A
(Compulsory Section)

1. Write short notes on the following in not more than 5 sentences each : 5x8=40 

(a) Hardness of groundwater and its significance 
(b) Darcy's law 
(C) Transmissivity and storage coefficient 
(d) Piper diagram 
(e) Lineament-based exploration of groundwater 
(f) Perennial yield 
(g) Runoff hydrographs 
(h) Diurnal fluctuations in water table 

SECTION B (Attempt any one question)

2. (a) What do you understand by the terms 'specific yield', 'specific retention' and porosity' of an aquifer? Also derive an expression to show their interrelationship.  15 

(b) Explain hydrostatic equilibrium developed along coastal areas, and how  excessive groundwater withdrawal may cause saltwater intrusion and contamination of an aquifer. Draw sketches to illustrate your answer.  15 

(c) in the pump test of an aquifer, the discharge of water coming out of the  pumping well is 5000 m / day. The observation well is placed at a distance of 200 m from the main pumping well. If the intercept of the best fitted line on x-axis (i.e., time for zero drawdown) is 0.50 minute and the change in drawdown per log cycle time is 4.5 m, calculate the transmissivity (T) and  storativity (S) of the aquifer by Jacob's method.  10 

3. (a) Write notes on the following: 5x3=15 

(i) Difference between hydraulic head' and 'hydraulic gradient' 
(ii) Difference among ‘aquifuge', 'aquiclude' and 'aquitard' 
(iii) Cone of depression and safe distance 

(b) (i) What is hydraulic conductivity of an aquifer? Calculate the hydraulic 
conductivity of an aquifer in which the Darcian velocity is 10 cm/day and hydraulic gradient is 0.002. 10  

(ii) Determine the transmissivity of a 10 m thick sandstone whose hydraulic conductivity is 10 cm/day. 

(c) Illustrate the following types of water quality diagrams : 
(i) Stiff diagram 
(ii) Wilcox diagram 

SECTION C (Attempt any one question)

Attempt any one question 

4. (a) Discuss briefly on the problem of fluoride contamination in groundwater giving emphasis on its distribution (Indian scenario) and related health hazards.  15 
(b) Briefly discuss on the different parameters considered for irrigation suitability  of groundwater. Enumerate briefly on each of them giving emphasis on their working formula and suitability range.  15 
(c) How would you differentiate between 'confined' and unconfined' aquifers? Illustrate your views with neat sketches. Write a note on perched aquifer and its significance in water supply schemes.  10 

5. (a) What are springs? Explain the different types of springs with special reference  to hot springs. 
(b) How can isotope hydrology help in groundwater age determination? 
(c) Write notes on the following: 

• (i) Meteoric water and magmatic water 
• (ii) Hydrostratigraphic unit 

SECTION D (Attempt any one question)

Attempt any one question 

6. (a) Describe the geological investigation techniques for groundwater exploration. 15 
(b) Discuss rock resistivity and list its values for common rocks. Explain the field survey method of groundwater prospecting using Wenner configuration. 
(c) What is a pumping test? How is the pumping test data obtained and interpreted? 

7. (a) Explain the design of a tube well. How is the tube well different from a dug well? 
(b) Examine the impact of excessive pumping of groundwater from wells in close distance. 
(c) Comment on the utility of radiation logging in groundwater exploration. 

SECTION E (Attempt any one question)

Attempt any one question 

8. (a) Discuss the impact of mining on groundwater. 
(b) Explain the groundwater problem encountered while tunnelling. 
(c) Discuss the status of sustainable development of groundwater in India. 

9. (a) What is meant by rainwater harvesting? Discuss the current status of rainwater harvesting in India. 
(b) Comment on the global water budgeting including groundwater. 
(c) Write with neat diagrams the impact of influent and effluent streams on the groundwater levels of a region. 

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2019

Subject : Chemistry Paper - III

Year : 2019

CHEMISTRY
Paper - III

ITime Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

SECTION 'A'

1. Answer all of the following questions : 5x8=40 

(a) Rewrite the following statement(s) if you find it/them incorrect : Over the ionic strength range 0-01 M 

• (i) activity coefficients increase with increasing ionic strength; 
• (ii) activity coefficients increase with increasing ionic charge. 

(b) The molarity of C₂₉H₆₀ in winter rainwater is 5-6 nm. Find its concentration in parts per billion (ppb). 

(c) You have been asked to prepare a buffer solution with an alkaline pH by mixing ammonium chloride and aqueous ammonia from the following sets of solutions : 

• (i) 50 ml solutions of 0.001 molar NH₄Cl and 0.003 molar aqueous ammonia 
• (ii) 50 ml solutions of 0.1 molar NH₄Cl and 0-3 molar aqueous ammonia Will both of them work? If not, which one will work efficiently and why? 

(d) During an acid-base titration experiment, a student noticed some drops of acid on the inside of the neck of the conical flask. The student decided to wash the drops into the main solution using distilled water. Briefly explain whether the action will have any consequences on the outcome of the titration. 

(e) In flame photometry, the analysis of analyte is carried out only in an interzonal region of the flame but not in the outer cone or primary combustion zone of the flame. Justify. 

(f) Explain the proximate analysis of coal. 

(g) How do you estimate manganese present in a steel sample volumetrically? 

(h) What is a gradient elution development in chromatography? 

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2019

Subject : Chemistry Paper - II

Year : 2019

CHEMISTRY
Paper - II

ITime Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

SECTION 'A'

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2019

Subject : Chemistry Paper - I

Year : 2019

CHEMISTRY
Paper - I

ITime Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

SECTION 'A'

1. Answer all of the Following: 5x10=50 

1.(a) Complete the following reaction and balance it by ion-electron method : MnO₄ + Fe²⁺ + H⁺--→ 

1.(b) Carbon-14 is radioactive and beta-emitter while carbon-12 is not radioactive. Justify. 

1.(C) Illustrate diagonal relationship with an appropriate example. 

1.(d) Although H₃PO₄ is viscous it exhibits large electrical conductivity. Why?

1.(e) Fe²⁺ is more easily oxidized to Fe³⁺ while Mn²⁺ to Mn³⁺ is not. Why? 

1.(f) Br₂ melts at 7.2°C whereas ICl melts at 272°C. Explain. 

1.(g) The dipole moment of CO is merely 0.12 D although electronegativity difference between C and O is large. Why? 

1.(h) The strength of HF would increase with concentration. Explain. 

1.(i) The electrical conductance of semiconductor increases with temperature unlike those of metals. Why?

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2019

Subject : Geophysics Paper - III

Year : 2019

GEOPHYSICS
Paper-III

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

1. (a) State the process of radioactive decay on geologic source of gamma-ray radiation. 

(b) Discuss radioactive nuclei produced by the neutron flux. 

(c) Compute reflection and transmission coefficients of two-layer crustal model with the following parameters: Density of crustal layer-1 and layer-2 are 2.0g/cm³ and 2-5 g/cm³, respectively. P-wave velocity in layer-1 and layer-2 are 2.5 km/s and 4.0 km/s, respectively. 

(d) Why are free-air gravity anomaly and heat flow across a subducting plate boundary generally found to be low followed by high? Explain it using labelled diagram. 

(e) What do you understand by Dirac delta function? Explain it in terms of testing function. Describe inverse z-transform. Derive the expressions for inverse z-transform using different methods. 

(f) Describe inverse z-transform. Derive the expressions for inverse z-transform using different methods. 

(g) What do you understand by path length and path radiance? Explain path radiance in the light of total radiance reaching the sensor. 

(h) What are the factors affecting designing of a sensor in remote sensing? Describe various sensors available in IRS-1A. 

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2019

Subject : Geophysics Paper - II

Year : 2019

GEOPHYSICS
Paper-II

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

Q1. (a) (i) A Ground-Penetrating Radar (GPR) in monostatic mode recorded a two-way travel time of 0.2985 us over a two-layered medium involving non-conducting dry soil of relative permittivity (Er = 5), overlying water table. Find the depth of water table. (Consider velocity of light in vacuum, c to be 0.3 m/ns) 

(ii) A Magneto-Telluric (MT) sounding over a layered earth medium has yielded an apparent resistivity, P, of 120 2-m at a time period, T of 0.1 s for an electric field amplitude of 10 mV/km. Compute the involved magnetic field amplitude in nT. 
 
(b) (i) State the necessary and sufficient conditions for the origin of gravity and magnetic anomalies separately. 

(ii) On the basis of intensity of magnetic anomalies, distinguish between intra-basement and supra-basement anomalies. Specify their geological applications. 

(c) An electrical sounding experiment using Schlumberger configuration has resulted in identical Vertical Electrical Sounding (VES) curves for the following two geoelectrical sections, A and B. Hence, estimate the thickness of sandwiched bed of geoelectric section B.

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam 2019

Subject : Geophysics Paper - I

Year : 2019

GEOPHYSICS
Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

1.(a) How many half-lives must elapse before the activity of a radioactive isotope decreases to 2% of its initial value? How long is this time for ¹⁴ C (carbon 14 isotope), which has a decay rate of 1.21x10^-4 yr^-1? 

1.(b) The moment of the recent Indonesian earthquake has been estimated to be about 1.0x1023 Nm. Assume that the fault is horizontal, where slip area is 100 km wide and 1300 km long, and the shear modulus u = 3.0x1010 N/m2, calculate the average displacement on the fault. 

1.(c)Discuss about the origin of the geomagnetic field.

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2019 : Geology Paper- III

Year : 2019

GEOLOGY Paper - III

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

Question Paper Specific Instructions

• Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions : 
• There are ELEVEN questions divided under SIX sections. 
• Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all. 
• The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory. 
• Out of the remaining TEN questions, the candidate has to attempt FIVE, choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E and F. 
• The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it. 
• Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings. 
• Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required. They shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself. Wherever required, graphs/tables are to be drawn on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet itself. 
• Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. 
• Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off. 
• Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. 

SECTION-A (Compulsory Section) 

Q1. Write on/Answer each of the following in short with sketches, wherever necessary :  5x10=50 

(a) Graphite deposits of India and the industrial uses of graphite. 

(b) Primary and secondary dispersion halos and their significance in mineral exploration. 

(c) Briefly explain the planning of a gravity survey for mineral exploration emphasising the needful corrections. 

(d) Classification of placer deposits and geographic distribution of placer deposits in India. 

(e) Thermometry of ores using fluid inclusions. 

(f) Supergene sulfide and oxide mineralisation/enrichment with necessary chemical reactions. 

(g) Briefly explain the Barmer-Sanchore basin emphasising the source rock and reservoir rock. 

(h) Explain coal microlithotypes and macerals. 

(i) List any five factors that determine the stability of a tunnel/dam. 

(j) Describe different types of dams. Which type of dam is most widely constructed in India ? 

SECTION—B 

Q2. (a)  What are the elements of National Mineral Policy with a special emphasis on The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Act.  15 

(b)  Discuss in detail the modes of occurrence, lithological, structural controls, origin and distribution of gold deposits of India. 

Q3. (a)  Classify and differentiate between mineral resources and reserves. Elaborate the conditions in which the resources can be converted to reserves. 

(b)  What are the important primary and secondary ore minerals of manganese ? Write an account of classification of manganese deposits based on their host rock association and genesis and their distribution in India.  10 

(c)  Give an account of the ores formed by contact metamorphism/skarn-type deposits with some examples. 10

SECTION-C 

(Attempt any one question) 

Q4. (a) Give a note on the porphyry-type deposits and describe their mineralogical association, wall rock alterations and tectonic framework with neat sketches and examples. 15 
(b). Describe the sources and composition of hydrothermal fluids. Write a note on the classification of hydrothermal ore deposits and their textural features. 15 

Q5. (a) Enumerate suitable geophysical methods for prospecting polymetallic Pb-Zn-Cu sulfide mineralisation with proper justification. 
(b) Write a note on the classification of magmatic ore deposits with special emphasis on various types of mineral deposits that are associated with ultramafic rocks/komatiites.
(c) Discuss the relationship between ore genesis and plate tectonics. Illustrate with some important ore deposits in India with neat sketches.  10 

SECTION—D

(Attempt any one question) 

Q6. (a)  What are the different types of drilling techniques that are used in mineral exploration ? Add a note on the advantages of core drilling.  15 
(b) Explain the terms : Prospecting and Exploration. Following a targeted identification and investigation, outline various stages and schemes of mineral exploration. 
Q7. (a)  Detailed assay results of copper mineralised zone intersected along a borehole are given in the following table. Considering the current cut-off grade of 1.5% Cu, three copper lodes have been identified, separated by two partings. Assuming strike length of 180 m, dip length of 60 m and bulk density of 285 g/cm", calculate the tonnage of the ore body at 1.3% Cu cut-off. 

(b) Discuss the conventional and statistical resource/reserve estimation. Add a note on the merits and demerits of these methods. 
10 (c) Describe various types of sampling along with their objectives. Illustrate how the ore body geometry guides the pattern, interval. 10 

SECTION—E 

(Attempt any one question) 
Q8. (a)  Describe the types of organic material which are precursors for the transformation into oil and gas and explain briefly the transformation process and evolution of various kerogen types. 15 
(b) Give an account of coalification process from biochemical stage to geochemical stage in the formation of different varieties of coal. -  15 

Q9. (a) Briefly discuss proximate and ultimate analysis of coal and add a note on fuel ratio. 10 

(b) Describe in detail the categories of petroliferous basins of India and their hydrocarbon potential. 10

(c) Write a note on the genetic classification of uranium deposits. Give an account of the geological setting, structural control and mineralogical association of uranium deposits of Singhbhum shear zone. 

SECTION-F 

SECTION F

(Attempt any one question) 
Q10. (a) Explain the determination of compressive and shear strength of rocks in the laboratory conditions. Draw Mohr's circle to evaluate the stress analysis.  15 
(b)  What is mass wasting? Discuss the causes of mass movements. Write a note on geological, geomorphological, structural and geotechnical parameters in evaluating landslides. Differentiate between slide, slump, creep and mud flow.  15 

Q11. (a)  Explain the terms Rock Quality Designation and Modified Core Recovery. Add a note on the rock classification system based on RQD. In a drilling operation conducted in a terrain, the total core drilled is 6000 cm, total core recovered is 5300 cm and modified core recovery is 4800 cm. Calculate the Rock Quality Designation and comment on the status of the rock evaluation on the basis of RQD.  10 

(b)  Differentiate between Reservoir Induced Seismicity (RIS) and a natural earthquake. Add a note on seismic zones of India. Give an example of an important RIS affected area in India.  10 

(c) What is the main purpose of testing the soils in terms of geotechnical engineering ? Discuss about soils in terms of their soil density, plastic index and hydraulic conductivity.  10 
 

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2019 : Geology Paper- II

Year : 2019

GEOLOGY Paper - II

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

Question Paper Specific Instructions

• Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions. 
• There are ELEVEN questions divided under SIX Sections. 
• Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all. 
• The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory. 
• Out of the remaining TEN questions, the candidate has to attempt FIVE choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E & F. 
• The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it. Symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings. 
• Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. 
• Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. 
• Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required. 
• Wherever required, graphs / tables are to be drawn on the answer-book itself. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer-book must be clearly struck off. 

SECTION-A 

Write notes on each of the following: 5x10=50 

1.(a) Large Ion Lithophile Element (LILE) and High Field Strength Element (HFSE) 

1.(b) Carbonaceous chondrite 

1.(c) Birefringence and optical retardation 

1.(d) Isomorphism in minerals with examples 

1.(e) Phase rule and its application in phase diagram 

1.(f) Bedding and Lamination 

1.(g) Source of sediments 

1.(h) Metasomatism 

1.(i) Ozone hole in stratosphere 

1.(j) Magnitude of earthquake 

SECTION—B (Mineralogy, Geochemistry and Isotope Geology) 

(Attempt any ONE question) 

2.(a) What are interference colours ? Why anisotropic minerals exhibit interference colours between crossed polars ? Explain with neat sketches.  10 

2.(b)  Discuss the structure, types, composition, physical and optical properties of mica group of minerals.  20 

3.(a) Define Gibb’s free energy (G). Derive an equation showing relationship of G with Temperature (T) and Pressure (P).  10 

3.(b) Discuss briefly geochemical characteristics of Rare Earth Elements (REE). Why REE abundance in a rock is expressed in chondrite normalized diagram ? What is Eu-anomaly?  10 

3.(c) Derive the basic equation of radioactive dating. What is half-life (t12) ?

SECTION-C (Igneous Petrology)

(Attempt any ONE question) 

4.(a)  Discuss the variation in composition of basaltic magma with variation of its mantle source composition and degree of partial melting.  10  

4.(b)  What is Bowen's reaction principle ? State Bowen's reaction series and discuss its role in understanding magmatic differentiation.  10 

4.(c) Is there any relationship between nature of magma and its tectonic setting ? Discuss with suitable examples.  10 

5.(a) Describe 'perthitic' and 'granophyric texture with neat sketches. How do you explain origin of perthitic texture with the help of a suitable phase diagram? 10 

5.(b) What are bases of IUGS classification of plutonic rocks and volcanic rocks? Describe with neat sketch IUGS classification of granitoid rocks. 10 

5.(c) What are carbonatites and alkaline rocks? Why carbonatite is always found in association with alkaline rocks? 10

SECTION—D (Metamorphic Petrology and Processes) 

(Attempt any ONE question) 

6.(a) What are Barrovian zones ? What is the basis for sub-division of these zones ? 10 

6.(b)  Explain the concept of 'Geothermobarometry' in metamorphic rocks. 

6.(c)  Discuss the regional metamorphism of ultramafic rocks in terms of mineral association and P-T conditions (up to 600°C).  10 

7.(a) Describe the characteristics of eclogite facies metamorphism. Add a note on types mineral assemblages of eclogite. 10 

7.(b) Give a brief account on the mineral association and formation conditions of charnockites. Add a note on their occurrence in India. 

7.(c) What are migmatites ? Name the types of migmatites. Discuss the petrographic components of migmatites.  10 

SECTION—E (Sedimentology) 

(Attempt any ONE question) 

8.(a) Write names of different types of tectonic sedimentary basins. Draw a labelled diagram of sedimentary basins of India. Add note on tectonic evolution and sedimentation history of Gondwana basin of India.  20 

8.(b) Describe briefly basic concept of the sequence stratigraphy. 

9.(a) Describe chemical and biogenic sedimentary structures. Add a note on their origin and implications.  20 

9.(b) Discuss the procedure of palaeocurrent analysis in sedimentary rocks.  10 

SECTION-F (Environmental Geology and Natural Hazards) 

(Attempt any ONE question) 

10.(a) Discuss the impact of mineral extraction and processing in terms of water pollution. · Add note on mineral sustainability related to mining. 
 
10.(b) Discuss the application of GI.S. in land use pattern.

11.(a) Explain various aspects of air pollution and its impact on environment. 

11.(b) Briefly discuss the methods of nuclear waste disposal. 

11.(c) What are the common source of groundwater pollution and contamination? 10 

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2019

Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2019 : Geology Paper- I

Year : 2019

GEOLOGY Paper - I

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 200

Question Paper Specific Instructions

• There are ELEVEN questions divided under SIX Sections.
• Candidate has to attempt SIX questions in all. The ONLY question in Section-A is compulsory. Out of the remaining TEN questions, the candidate has to attempt FIVE, choosing ONE from each of the other Sections B, C, D, E and F. 
• The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. 
• Symbols, abbreviations and notations have their usual standard meanings. 
• Neat sketches are to be drawn to illustrate answers, wherever required. 
• Wherever required, graphs/tables are to be drawn on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet itself. 
• Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. 
• Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off. 
• Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. 

SECTION-A 

( Compulsory Section ) 
1. Describe the following in brief with diagrams wherever necessary :  5x10=50 

(a) Measurement of strain from deformed conglomerates 
(b) Ductile shear 
(c)  Image filtering in remote sensing 
(d) Assemblage zone 
(e)  Pandyan Mobile Belt 
(f)  Glossopteris flora 
(g) Upper Siwalik fauna from India 
(h) Chemical denudation 
(i) Continental growth 
6)  Low-velocity zone in the mantle 

SECTION—B

Attempt any one question 

2. (a) Describe with sketches, the drainage pattern associated with faulted and folded regions. Give two examples of anomalous drainage indicative of Neotectonism.  
(b) Describe the landforms produced by glacial and fluvial actions with examples  from India. 

3. (a) Enumerate the salient features of aerial photographs and remote sensing  imagery. 
(b) Illustrate the principle of using remote sensing in mineral exploration. 
(c) Write a note on the Indian satellite Cartosat 2. 

SECTION-C 

Attempt any one question 

4. (a) What is the principle for the construction of Mohr diagram for 2-dimension stress? Illustrate with neat sketches, Mohr diagrams for some representative states of stress.  15 
(b) What are joint sets and joint systems? Briefly discuss the mechanism of  formation of joints.  15 

5. (a)  Illustrate with neat sketches, Ramsay's classification of folded layers. 
(b) What are the major types of strike-slip faults? Enumerate with suitable sketches, characteristics and structures associated with the strike-slip faults.  10 
(c)  Illustrate with neat sketches, the interference patterns that are likely to develop due to superposed deformation.  10 

SECTION—D 

Attempt any one question 

6. (a) Critically evaluate the theory of continental drift. 
(b) How would you distinguish among mid-oceanic ridges, oceanic trenches and mountain chains from gravity anomaly data? 

7. (a) "Plate tectonics did not begin all at once." Justify the statement. 
(b) What are the major types of orogeny? How can these types be explained with the help of plate tectonics? 
(c) Briefly discuss the emergence and evolution of the Himalaya. 

SECTION—E 

Attempt any one question 

8. (a) Give an account of Precambrian stratigraphy of the Singhbhum Craton with reference to stratigraphic succession, lithology and geochronology.  15 
(b) Give the stratigraphic succession of the Vindhyan Supergroup. Comment on  the sedimentation history and the age of the Vindhyan Supergroup.  15 

9. (a) Give the hierarchical classification and definition of lithostratigraphic units.  Discuss the methods of lithostratigraphic correlation.  10 
(b)  Illustrate the principle of radiometric dating of rocks with example from Sm-Nd decay series. Comment on the advantages and disadvantages of the Sm-Nd method of dating. 
(c) Briefly describe the nature of the Deccan Volcanic Province. Comment on the  geodynamics of the Deccan Volcanic Province. 

SECTION-F 

Attempt any one question 

10. (a) Discuss the timing, causes and impact of mass extinction events which led to the disappearance of trilobites and dinosaurs in the earth history.  15 
(b) Elucidate the rationale behind using stable isotopes of oxygen and carbon from  animal shells for reconstructing the palaeoclimate. 

11. (a) Explain with diagrams, the morphology of Ammonoids and add a note on the evolution of their suture pattern. 
(b) Describe the internal structure of Brachiopod shells with suitable diagrams. 
(c) Give an account of the evolution of Equidae. 

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