The Schedule for Main Examination of H.J.S.-2011 shall be as under:-

The Uttarakhand State was carved out from erstwhile State of Uttar Pradesh on 09/11/2000. At the time of the creation of the State, the High Court of Uttarakhand was also established on the same day at Nainital. Since that day the High Court is functioning in an old building situated in Mallital Nainital which was known as old Secretariat. The building of the High Court is a very magnificent and was constructed in 1900 A.D. There is a park in front of the building and Naina Peak, the highest peak in Nainital, in the background, which makes the building more picturesque. In the beginning five Court rooms were constructed but later on more Court rooms have been added. A huge Chief Justice Court Block and a Block of Lawyers’ chambers have also been built up in the year 2007.

The new exam pattern for the civil services exam did nothing to dampen the spirits of young IAS aspirants in Tamil Nadu, 40,000 of whom took their preliminary exams across the state on Sunday. According to many, the new question paper, which was analytical, was easier than the previous pattern that was based on memorising data.

The new Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT) included questions from updated science and technology and demanded logical thinking. While general studies paper-1 asked, “What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices,” the second paper had eight questions that demanded logical thinking: “You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss, who has not informed you about the meeting, is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him/her. What would you do?”

The candidates who appeared for the Civil Services Examinations (Prelims) conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) were pleased with their performance on Sunday. Paper II, the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) introduced for the first time, had questions on English language, mathematical reasoning, analytical ability and interpersonal skills.
T S Arvind, 25, said, “The CSAT paper tested the mental aptitude of the candidates. None of the questions were out of the syllabus. Coaching helped me in the logical reasoning, though the paper was time consuming.” The General Studies paper (Paper I) had too many environmental questions based on current affairs, he said. Navjet Singh, 27, said that the second paper was really good. A lot of candidates thought there was number crunching and had prepared on the lines of GMAT. In Paper II, there were eight decision making questions that carried no negative marking.

UPSC IAS Mains 2011 Law (Paper -1 & 2) Optional Question Paper

Exam Name: IAS Mains

Year: 2011

Subject: Law (Optional)

Paper-I

Section - A

1. Answer the following (each answer should be in about 150 words):— 15×4=60

(a) Constituent power to frame the constitution and the constituent power to amend the constitution have different connotation and scope. Explain.
(b) “The Judiciary by usurping the powers of the other two organs of the Government in certain matter has diluted the theory of separation of powers.” Do you agree? Examine critically?
(c) Do local bodies enjoy autonomy in performing their role in the field of economic development and social justice? Explain.
(d) The Governor of a State holds office during the ‘pleasure’ of the President of India. Can he be removed by the President any time without any reason? Examine in the context of the position of the Governor under the Indian Constitution.

2.

(a) ‘Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions, and it cannot be cribbed, cabined or confined within traditional and doctrinaire limits.’ Explain, how the judiciary has widened the scope of the right to equality by various decision.
(b) Right to life has been extended to a clean human environment by the Courts in India. Discuss the development of law in this regard.30

3.

(a) The decision of the Supreme Court of India in ADM, Jabalpur v.S. Shukla, according to Dr. Upendra Baxi, “made the darkness of emergency completely dark”. Do you think that the Constitution (44th Amendment) Act 1978 removed this darkness and provided for better protection of the Fundamental Rights? Explain.
(b) Examine whether the Election Commission of India has succeeded in performing the two responsibilities entrusted to it under Art. 324 of the Constitution of India? What steps would you suggest to ensure the preparation of correct electoral rolls?

4. Write critical notes on the following:— 20×3=60

(a) Doctrine of Prospective Overruling.
(b) Duties of the Prime Minister regarding furnishing of information to the President.
(c) Secularism.

Section B

5. Answer the following (each answer should be in about 150 words): 15×4=60

(a) One extreme view is that International Law is a system without sanctions. However, it is not quite true that there are no forcible means of compelling a state to comply with International Law.
Comment and state various sanctions for the observance of International Law.
(b) ‘The Universal Declaration of Human Rights is comprehensive and has to some extent affected the content of national laws, being expressly invoked by tribunals, yet it is not a legal instrument and some of its provisions could hardly be said to represent legal rules. Some of its provision either constitute general principles of law or represent element considerations of humanity. Perhaps its greatest significance is that it provides an authoritative guide, produced by the General Assembly, to the interpretation of the provisions in the Charter.’
Comment and discuss the importance of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
(c) The Stockholm Conference of 1972 on the human environment served to identify those areas in which rules of International environment law, acceptable to international community as a whole can be laid down, and as well as those areas in which the formation of environmental rules must encounter insurmountable obstacles. Discuss the principles of international environment law proclaimed in the Stockholm Declaration.
(d) What is international terrorism? Discuss various actions taken by the United Nations to eliminate the causes underlying international terrorism.

6.

(a) “The distinction between ‘dejure/defacto recognition’ and ‘recognition as the dejure and defacto government’ is insubstantial, more especially as the question is one of intention and the legal consequences thereof in the particular case. If there is a distinction it does not seem to matter legally.” Comment and discuss the distinction between the two.
(b) “Vessels on the high seas are subject to no authority except that of the State whose flag they fly. In virtue of the freedom to the sea, that is to say, the absence of any territorial sovereignty upon the high seas, no State may exercise any kind of jurisdiction over foreign vessels upon them.” Give a critical appraisal of this principle in the light of the case law and views of the International Law Commission.

7.

(a) “The principle of State being obliged to “settle their international disputes by peaceful means in such a manner that international peace and security, and justice, are not endangered” is generally bashed aside by the tendencies of the nation-states of being reticence to submit disputes to independent, impartial adjudication, particularly not accepting in advance the compulsory jurisdiction of an independent judicial body.” Explain the statement with reference at least to one such conflict existing in the world and also prepare a module for promoting negotiations among nations, using new opportunities created by globalisation.
(b) “Extradition as a rule is effected by bipartite treaty. There is, therefore, no duty to extradite in the absence of a treaty. Further, the extradition treaties normally relate only to serious crimes and impose the same obligation on both the parties concerned.” Give your opinion on the correctness of this statement with reference to the existing position under the International Law. Also critically examine this practice in the light of ever increasing individual movements for trade and service to suggest necessary modifications in law.

8.

(a) The four Geneva Conventions of 1949 for the protection of war victims cover the wounded and sick and land warfare; the wounded, sic and ship-wrecked in warfare at sea; prisoners of war; and civilians. Discuss these protections.
(b) ‘The United Nations is capable of legal development in accordance with the needs and circumstances. The Uniting for Peace Resolution, 1950 is its example.’ Discuss the validity of this resolution. 30

Paper-II

Section - A

1. Answer the following. (answer to each part must not exceed 150 words). Support your answer with legal provisions and case law. 15×4=60

(a) “The Indian Penal Code gives protection to one who does an act in good faith for the benefit of another.” Discuss.
(b) “The Indian Penal Code extends protection to acts done by misfortune under certain circumstances.” Discuss.
(c) “Tort is concerned with the allocation on prevention of losses which are bound to occur in society.” Discuss.
(d) “Before a person can recover for loss which he suffered from another person’s act, it must be shown that his case falls within the class of actionable wrongs.” Discuss.

2.

(a) “Merely doing certain acts that would bring the Government established by law into hatred or contempt is not the decisive ingredient of Sedition.” Discuss. Also state the view of Law Commission of India about reforms of this provision. 30
(b) ‘A’ with the intention of bringing “Hashish”, a prohibited drug in India, stealthily brought in his bag a cover believing that it contains “hashish” while coming from Bangladesh to India. While trying to sell the same to ‘B’ a dispute regarding its price arose. B grudgingly informed the police who opened the bag. It was found that it was a harmless snuff power and not hashish. Discuss the liability of A. 30

3.

(a) “It would be wrong to perceive nudity and sex as essentially obscene, indecent or immoral. Sex and obscenity are not always synonymous.” In the light of the above statement elaborate the position of obscenity as an offence in India. 30
(b) An army Jawan X who was away from his home for the last two years, requested his senior Y for leave, which Y refused. Annoyed at this, X fired two shots at Y, one shot hitting Y beneath the knee of the right leg as a result of which he fell down. X fired another shot which hit Y at the upper left arm. Y died after then days. Discuss the liability of X.

The Central Information Commission (CIC) today directed the UPSC to declare the individual marks scored by 2,400 candidates who had appeared for the Civil Services Preliminary examinations this year. They had alleged “unfairness” in the selection of successful candidates and had filed RTIs for disclosure of their marks in General Studies and optional subjects. The CIC also directed the UPSC to declare the cut-off marks for each subject within two weeks.

The Commission struck down the UPSC claim that marks constituted its “crucial secrets and intellectual property”. Contrary to the stand taken by the UPSC that it was a “personal matter”, the CIC has held that it is a matter involving “larger public interest”.

The UPSC had refused to divulge the marks and even rejected the appeal on the matter. A full Bench of the CIC thereafter decided on the second appeal.

GENERAL STUDIES
(Paper-I)

• Time Allowed: Two Hours
• Maximum Marks: 200

  PAGE - 1

nstructions:

1. Immediately After The Commencement Of The Examination, You Should Check That This Test Booklet Does Not Have Any Unprinted Or Torn Or Missing Pages Or Items, Etc, If So, Get It Replaced By A Complete Test Booklet.
2. Encolde Clearly The Test Booklet Series A, B, C, Or D At The Case May Be In The Appropriate Place In The Answer Sheet.
3. You have to enter your Roll number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

(1.) Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways :
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a.) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b.) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c.) 1 and 4 only
(d.) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d

(2.) Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
(a.) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b.)When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation
(c.) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
(d.)Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
Ans. d

(3.) What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
(a.) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
(b.) To campaign for. the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
(c.) To facilitate a discussion on India's Independence in the British Parliament
(d.) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
Ans. a

(4.) What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a.) 1 only
(b.) 2 and 3 only
(c.) 1 and 3 only
(d.) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c

(5.) Recently, "oilzapper" was in the news. What is it?
(a.) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b.) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
(c.) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d.) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells
Ans. a

(6.) A married couple adopted a male child, A few years later; twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
(a.) O positive
(b.) A positive
(c.) B positive
(d.) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
Ans. a

(7.) Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?
(a.) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
(b.) The good of individual is contained in the good of all
(c.) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
(d.) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context
Ans. b

(8.) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
(a.) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b.) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c.) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d.) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. a

(9.) A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?
1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm white that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a.) 1 only
(b.) 1 and 2 only
(c.) 2 and 3 only
(d.) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b

(10.) With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?
1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a.) 1 only
(b.) 2 and 3 only
(c.) 1 and 3 only
(d.) 1, 2 and 3

Invites Applications For Recruitment By Selection To The Following Posts

Vacancy Details:

1. (Vacancy no. 11061101511) Three Assistant Soil Survey Officers In Soil and Land Use Survey Of India, Department Of agriculture And Co-operation, Ministry Of agriculture.

2. (Vacancy no.11061102511) One Assistant Director (Weed Science) In The Directorate Of Plant Protection, Quarantine And Storage, Ministry Of agriculture.

3. (Vacancy no.11061103611) Two Chief Engineers Grade-ii In Fishery Survey Of India, Mumbai, Department Of animal Husbandry, Dairying & Fisheries, Ministry Of agriculture.

4. (Vacancy no.11061104611) One Assistant Engineer (Design) In The Fishery Survey Of India, Mumbai, Department Of animal Husbandry, Dairying & Fisheries, Ministry Of Agriculture.

5. (Vacancy no. 11061105611) One Senior Scientific Officer, Grade-i (Gentex) In The Directorate General Of Quality assurance, Department Of Defense Production, Ministry Of Defense.

6. (Vacancy no.11061106611) One Senior Scientific Officer, Grade-i (In Armament Discipline) In The Directorate General Of Quality assurance, Department Of Defense Production, Ministry Of Defense.

7. (Vacancy no.11061107611) One Senior Scientific Officer, Grade-ii (Metallurgy) In Directorate General Of Quality assurance, Department Of Defense Production, Ministry Of Defense.

8. (Vacancy no.11061108611) One Deputy Central Intelligence Officer (Electronic Data Processing) In Intelligence Bureau, Ministry Of Home Affairs.

9. (Vacancyno.11061109411) One Director (Physiology) In The Directorate General Of Factory Advice Service And Labor Institute (Dgfasli), Mumbai, Ministry Of  Labor & Employment.

10. (Vacancy no.11061110411) One Assistant Director (Industrial Psychology) In The Directorate General Of Factory Advice Service And Labor Institute (Dgfasli), Mumbai, Ministry Of Labor And Employment.

11. (Vacancy no.11061111411) One Assistant Editor In The Indian Bureau Of Mines, Ministry Of Mines. The Post Is Unreserved.

12. (Vacancy no. 11061112411) One Chief Librarian-cum-documentation Officer In The Planning Commission.

13. (Vacancy no.11061113611) One Assistant Executive Engineer In The Central Ground Water Board, Ministry Of water Resources.

14. (Vacancy no. 11051114211) Two Physicist (Medical) In Health & Family Welfare Department, Govt. Of  Nct Of Delhi.

15. (Vacancy no. 11061115311) One Principal In Government College Of Art, Chandigarh Administration.

Notes:

Can’t believe you failed to clear the Civil Services prelims? Wish to know your score? Well, the Delhi High Court has granted your wish. Infusing transparency into the civil service selection process, the court on Wednesday ordered Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to reveal marks obtained by candidates appearing in the preliminary exams and also the scoring methodology.

Until now, UPSC had been publishing only the list of candidates who qualified for the main exams. Approximately 40 lakh students sit for the Civil Service preliminary all over the country every year.

A Bench comprising Chief Justice A.P. Shah and Justice S. Muralidhar gave the direction while dismissing an appeal filed by UPSC against an order of the Central Information Commission (CIC) asking it to disclose the marks scored by around 100 candidates in the preliminary exam. The unsuccessful candidates had moved CIC in November 2006 under the Right to Information Act.

2012-2013 Fulbright-Nehru Visiting Lecturer Fellowship for Applicants from India, USA

 United States India Education Foundation funded Fellowship for Indian faculty, researchers and professionals for research in USA,2012-2013

Study Subject(s): Agricultural Sciences; Economics; Education; Energy, Sustainable Development and Climate Change; Environment; International Relations; Management and Leadership Development; Media and Communications with focus on Public Service Broadcasting; Public Administration; Public Health; Science and Technology;Study of India with focus on contemporary issues; and Study of the United States.

Course Level: Fellowship (PhD holder)

Scholarship Provider: United States India Education Foundation

Scholarship can be Taken at: USA

Eligibility:

Half the candidates who had registered themselves skipped the first Civil Services Aptitude Test conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on Sunday. The UPSC has replaced preliminary exams with CSAT from this year to provide a level playing field for all candidates irrespective of their academic background.

The confusion surrounding the pattern of the CSAT is believed to be the reason for the large-scale absenteeism. The UPSC had not clarified the total number or type of questions that would be asked in the exam and many candidates thought this would affect their performance and so preferred to give the exam next year.

Civil Service Prelims 2011 Paper-II (CSAT) Answer key  

Civil Service Prelims 2011 Paper-I (GS) Answer key

Recruitment of Various Posts in SSC

Sub-Inspector in CPOs

Total Posts: 1104

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 in Pay Band 2 with Grade Pay of Rs. 4200

Qualification : Bachelor’s Degree From A Recognised University Or Equivalent

TNPSC Group I (Prelims) Solved Question Papers
Held On 5th June 2011

Civil Services (Prelims) Examination 2011
Form Registration Query

(Only for Offline Applications)

Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2011 at 1155 venues located in 45 Centres throughout the country on 12th June 2011 (Sunday). Admission Certificates to candidates have been dispatched. Letters of rejection to the candidates stating reason(s) of rejection are also being issued. If any applicant has not recived any of the above communication, he/she may contact UPSC facilication counter on Telephone Nos. 011-23385271 and 011-23381125 and 011-23098543 (10.00 A.M. To 5.00 P.M.).

Applicants (both male & female) are invited to submit online application personally during June 08, 2011 to June 29, 2011 in the prescribed online format at http://recruitment.cdacmohali.in for filling up of 50 posts of Assistant Intelligence Officers (in the Rank of ASI) in Intelligence Wing of Punjab Police.

Vacancy Details: