1. In which of the following movements ‘Vande Mataram’ was adotped for the first time as a slogan for agitation?
(A) Revolt of 1857
(B) Partition of Bengal in 1905
(C) Non-cooperation Movement in 1922
(D) Quit India Movement in 1942

2. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?
(A) Agha Khan
(B) AjmaI Khan
(C) Hasan Imam
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

3. Which one of the following is not correct about the Congress Session.of Lucknow, 1916?
(A) Ambika Charan Majumdar was not the president of this session
(B) In this session the reunion between the liberal and the extremist was established
(C) Mahatma was apprised the problems of the peasants Champaran for the first time
(D) None of the above

4. Kanpur conspiracy case was against the leaders of?
(A) Khilafat Movement
(B) Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Communist Movement
(D) Revolutionary Movement

5. In India “Currency Notes issue system” is based on?
(A) Minimum reserve system
(B) Proportional reserve system
(C) Fixed exchange rate system
(D) Full convertibility system

6. ‘Disguised’ unemployment means?
(A) Persons with no jobs
(B) Unemployment among house wives
(C) Unemployment among per sons above 60 years pf age
(D) Employment of more persons in a job which lesser number of persons can perform

7. Which of the following statements are true about the income tax in India?
1. It is a progressive tax,
2. It is a direct tax.
3. It is collected by the Government.
4. It is a proportional tax Select the correct answer from the code given below
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1,2and3only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

R.A.S. Solved Model Practice Test Paper

1. Among the following foods, which is the most appropriate for a desert mammal for the regulation of its water balance ?
(a) Carbohydrate-rich cereals
(b) Oil-rich seeds
(c) Protein-rich pulses
(d) Both carbohydrate and protein-rich foods

2. Consider the following components used in electron transport system that act in a sequential manner:
1. NAD
2. Cytochrome-c
3. Cytochrome-a
4. FAD
What is the correct sequence of the above?
(a) 1—4—2—3
(b) 3-4—2—1
(c)1—2–4—3
(d) 2—1-3-4

3. A person observing prolonged fast will excrete, which one of the following in urine?
(a) Fat
(b) Amino acids
(c) Albumin
(d) Ketone bodies

4. Consider the following statements; in citric acid cycle
1. three hydride ions (hence, six electrons) are transferred to three NAD+ molecules
2. one pair of hydrogen atoms (hence, two electrons) is transferred to one NADP +molecule
3. one pair of hydrogen atoms (hence, two electrons) is transferred to one FAD molecule
4. one NADH molecule is utilized in the process
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)1 and 4
(d)2 and 4

5. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids especially cortisol and cortisone causes
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) adrenogenital syndrome
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) testicular feminization

6.Kidney is involved in the synthesis of
(a) calbindin for calcium absorption
(b) calcitriol for calcium homeostasis
(c) cholecalciferol for bone formation
(d) calcitonin for phosphorus metabolism

7. Which one of the following is correct in ion exchange during
impulse conduction?
(a) Sodium pump stops working
(b) 3 Na+ are pumped in and 2K + pumped out
(c) 3 Na+ are pumped out for every 2K+ pumped in
(d) 1Na+ replaces 1 K+

8. What is the difference between substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation?
(a) Energy released by flow, electrons is utilized in oxidative phosphorylation for the synthesis of ATP but not in
substrate level phosphorylation
(b) ATPs are produced by oxidative phosphorylation but not by substrate level phosphorylation
(c) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs only under non-aerobic condition but not oxidative phosphorylation
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation requires more energy for synthesis of ATP than substrate level phosphorylation

9. During transmission of nerve impulse, the membrane potential inside the cell is
(a) first negative, then positive and back negative
(b) first negative, then positive and remains positive
(c) first positive, then negative and remains negative
(d) first positive, then negative and back positive

10.During phosphogluconate pathway (HMP shunt), the monosaccharides formed along with CO2 are
(a) hexoses
(b) trioses
(c) tetroses
(d) pentoses

11.Long-chain fatty acids penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrane as derivatives of which one of the following?
(a) Carnitine
(b) Coenzyme-A
(c) Sialic acid
(d) Sphingosine

HC notice to UPSC over shortage of prosecutors

Unhappy with the shortage of public prosecutors in the capital, the Delhi high court on Wednesday asked the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to explain why vacancies remain unfilled.

"For every magistrate court there should be one PP. When one prosecutor has to handle more than three courts, how will he manage?'' a bench of justices Dipak Misra and Manmohan observed while issuing notice to UPSC.

The judges said that a "country governed by rule of law can't tolerate apathetic attitude of lack of PPs in courts'' while hearing a case it took up suo moto on delayed trials in the capital.

Earlier, HC had expressed concern at the "woefully inadequate'' working conditions of PP's employed by the government for courts in Delhi and noted that lack of adequate number of trained PPs is the main reason for the increasing pendency of cases and prisoners languishing in jails as undertrials.

On its part, the government had admitted that more than 50 posts of additional PPs are vacant against the sanctioned strength of 120 and no step has been taken to fill the vacancies.

Union Public Service Commission
Combined Medical Services Examination,2010

The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting Interviews/Personality Test for the COMBINED MEDICAL SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2010 from 12th July, 2010 to 28th July, 2010. Summon letters for the P.T./Interview to all the eligible candidates have been issued.

In case, a candidate does not receive the call letter, he/she may immediately contact the Union Public Service Commission on Telephone No. 011- 23387402, 011-23098591 (Extn. 4341) and can send fax messages on FAX No. 011- 23387310 on the working days. He/she may contact UPSC Facilitation Counter near Gate “C” of its campus in person or over Telephone Nos. 011-23381125/011- 23385271/011-23098543 on all working days between 1000 hrs to 1700 hrs.

UPPSC Review Officer/ Assistant Review Officer Examination 2010 Application form available on UPSCPORTAL Store

Request UPPSC Application Forms at upscportal.com. online store.

IMP Note : Please consult your local vendor and Post office before Requesting online. All Application forms are available only on request and this services is applicable to only those who are residing in rural areas or where availability is a problem.

UPSCPORTAL does not intend to make business out of this service. Please Request if it is really required.

Last Date of submission of Application Form: 23-July-2010

The Application Form Envelop contains :

• Information Brochure for Filling OMR Sheet and Other Instructions

• OMR Application Form

• Envelop

1. To pin one's faith-
(a) To be sure of some body's favour (b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one's relatives

2. To play fast and loose
(a) To be undependable
(b) To cheat people . (c) To hurt some body's feelings· (d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument (c) To be busy over trifles
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater- '
(a) Mother's milk
(b) Mother's concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives edu­cation

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody

6. At one's beck and call
(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one's service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one's wit's end-
(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy's territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Four months after Prime Minister Manmohan Singh approved the Union Public Service Commission's proposal to overhaul the Civil Services Examination from 2011, the government is yet to finalise details of the new examination.

The PM’s approval came nearly a decade after the YK Alagh panel on examination reforms submitted its report.

The Central Government's exclusive powers are enumerated in the
(a) Concurrent List
(b) Federal List
(c) State List
(d) Union List
Answer: Union List

Which of the following is regarded as an essential function of the State
(a) To run schools for education
(b) To maintain good roads
(c) To prevent diseases
(d) To provide defence against external attacks
Answer: To provide defence against external attacks

In addition to the powers given in the Union and Concurrent List, the Union Government has the
(a) None of these
(b) Residuary powers
(c) Federal powers
(d) Power to legislate in State List
Answer: Residuary powers

 Which of the following is true in respect to Centre- State financial relations ?
(a) States can claim 100 percent share in excise duty on goods produced in the State.
(b) States cannot levy income - tax.
(c) Amount given by Centre is the only source of income to states
(d) States can by-pass Center while taking foreign loans.
Answer: States cannot levy income - tax.

Which of the following taxes is levied by the State Government only ?
(a) Entertainment Tax
(b) Corporation Tax
(c) Wealth Tax
(d) Income Tax
Answer: Entertainment Tax

 Sarkaria Commission has been appointed by the Government of India to report on
(a) Centre - State relations
(b) Tribal development
(c) Electoral reforms
(d) Inter - State conflicts
Answer: Centre - State relations

 The State Government's responsibility for educational planning is shared by the
(a) Ministry of Human Resources Development
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Planning
(d) Ministry of Programme Implementation
Answer: Ministry of Human Resources Development

 Planning in India derives its objectives from
(a) Directive Principles
(b) None of these
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
Answer: Directive Principles

Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government ?
(a) Both Central and State Governments have co-ordinate status.
(b) Both Central and State Governments derive powers from the Constitution.
(c) The government has two distinct levels, State Government and Central Government.
(d) State Governments are agents of the Central Government.
Answer: Both Central and State Governments have co-ordinate status.

 Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution ?
(a) Taxes on Railway fares and freight
(b) Corporation Tax
(c) Estate Duty
(d) Sales Tax
Answer: Taxes on Railway fares and freight

 Which of the following subjects is included in the Union List ?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Extradition
(c) Gas and gas- works
(d) Marriage and divorce
Answer: Extradition

 The residuary powers mean the
(a) Powers shared between the Union and State Governments
(b) Powers related to country's external affairs
(c) Powers related to country's internal affairs
(d) Powers not included in any of the three Lists.
Answer; Powers not included in any of the three Lists.

Under the Constitutution, the residuary powers vest with the
(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) President
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: Union Government

 Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India ?
(a) Fisheries
(b) Gambling
(c) Agriculture
(d) Insurance
Answer: Insurance

 The Centre - State financial distribution takes place on the recommendation by the
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Sarkaria Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Finance Commission
Answer: Finance Minister

 Grants - in - aid of revenue to the states is recommended by the
(a) National Development Council
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Inter - State Council
(d) Planning Commission
Answer: Finance Commission

 Railways is a subject on the
(a) Concurrent List
(b) Residual List
(c) State List
(d) Union List
Answer: Union List

 Which of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Treasure trove
(b) Population control and family planning
(c) Public health and sanitation
(d) Capitation taxes
Answer: Population control and family planning

 Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by the 42nd amendment of the Constitution ?
(a) Education
(b) Local Self Government
(c) Agriculture
(d) Irrigation
Answer: Education

 Which of the following is contained in the Concurrent List ?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Education
(c) Forests
(d) Police
Answer: Education

Grants-in-aid is provided to the states for
(a) Improving the Centre-State relationship.
(b) Improving the development of rural area.
(c) Reducing the regional imbalance.
(d) Implementing various development programmes and rehabilitation.
Answer: Implementing various development programmes and rehabilitation.

 Who has the Constituional authority to decide tax share of states ?
(a) Union Cabinet

Next year would be Nilesh's first shot at the Civil Services Examination but he doesn't know where to start. The government has decided to replace the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination with the Civil Services Aptitude Test from 2011 but hasn't been able to finalise the details of the new examination paper so far. "There is less than a year to go for the examination… It is not fair… when are we going to prepare for the examination," said the 22-year-old Delhi University graduate. The decision to give the examination a few face lifts was cleared at the instance of the Union Public Service Commission by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh this February.

The PM's approval to UPSC's proposal comes nearly a decade after the YK Alagh panel on examination reforms submitted its report. Over the next few years, UPSC first expressed reservations but later accepted the broad point. The preliminary examination consists of two papers: the first is on general studies and is common to all; candidates can then choose the second paper from a list of 23 subjects.

UPSC wanted to replace the second paper with an aptitude test to grade the cognitive skills of the aspirants rather their ability to memorise. "There is no cause for anxiety since all candidates will be placed at the same level of advantage or disadvantage," said a UPSC official. Nearly 3.8 lakh aspirants apply for the preliminary test each year, but only half of them appear for it.

PRESS NOTE

The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting the Indian Forest Service Examination 2010 at 41 Centres throughout the country commencing on 10th July, 2010 (Saturday). Admission Certificates to the candidates have been dispatched. Letters of rejection to the candidates stating reason(s) for rejection have also been issued. If any applicant has not received any of the above communications, he/she may contact UPSC Facilitation Counter on Telephone Nos. 011-23381125, 011-23385271 and 011-23098543 between 10 A.M to 5 P.M. on all working days. The candidates may also send fax messages on Fax No. 011-23387310.

 Information on venues of the examination is also available at Union Public Service Commission’s Website www.upsc.gov.in. The candidates who have not received the Admission Certificates may download the “Venue Information” from the above mentioned website and use it for appearing in the examination. The candidates intending to appear in the examination using downloaded “Venue Information” are advised to reach the venue of their examination on the day of examination. Such candidates are also advised to carry two photographs, otherwise they may not be allowed to take the examination. They may also carry proof of identity such as Identity Card, Election Identity Card, Driving License etc.

MOBILE PHONES BANNED:-

(a) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action against the concerned candidates including ban from future Examinations/Selections.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.

::Venue Query::

Note : Select your Query Method; ie by Form No / Registration Id / Roll No

Choosing the right optional subjects in the Civil Services Main exam will determine your success. Most often, candidates choose their main area of study as the first optional paper. And since a major part of the syllabus is taken care of while preparing for the Prelims, it’s time to deal with the second optional paper which will consume most of your preparation time.

So how do you decide your second optional paper?

Here are a few parameters that will help you decide.
First, you must be interested in the discipline. Evaluate your aptitude to learn the subject; the choice should not merely see you graze through to the next level. Don’t let the length of the syllabus influence your decision. History and geography are known for their notoriously lengthy content whereas public administration and anthropology have the least topics to learn. The secret does not lie in selecting subjects which are short or lengthy but on how comfortable you are in grasping them.

Here’s a litmus test. Pick up any basic book of the subject and read the first chapter.

• Are you keen to read the next chapter?
• How much do you recall of what you read?
• Are you ready to make notes for the next three hours?

Assess these factors and you will know if this is your second optional.

The next vital step is the availability of resources. Find out how easily study material, guidance and coaching are available. If you have studied the discipline then you will have a fair idea about the syllabus and also the source for books. But if it’s a completely new subject then it’s sensible to speak to a senior who will be able to guide you.

PART – A SYNONYMS

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) : Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

1. ESCALATE
(a) Rise
(b) Diminish
(c) Roll on
(d) Spiral

2. FLIPPANT
(a) Disrespectful
(b) Polite
(c) Serious
(d) Wrong

3. ALACRITY
(a) Cleanliness
(b) Cleverness
(c) Eagerness
(d) Reluctance

4. BLEMISHES
(a) Qualities
(b) Faults
(c) Bruises
(d) Vices

5. INCESSANT
(a) Uncertain
(b) Ceaseless
(c) Unshaken
(d) Successive

6. CRYPTIC
(a) Elaborate
(b) Obscure
(c) A warning
(d) Cautionary

7. CLEMENCY
(a) Harshness
(b) Mercy
(c) Stiffness
(d) Seriousness

8. ABOMINABLE
(a) Disgusting
(b) Lovable
(c) Abusive
(d) Undisciplined

ANTONYMS

Directions. (For the 8 items which follow) : Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words. Select the word that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.

9. SCOWL
(a) Scar
(b) Frown
(c) Pimple
(d) Smile

10. EXONERATE
(a) Absolve
(b) Implicate
(c) Exempt
(d) Entangle

11. ARRAIGN
(a) Punish
(b) Pardon
(c) Summon
(d) Indict

12. IMPUDENCE
(a) Tolerance
(b) Modesty
(c) Patience
(d) Prudence

13. NAIVE
(a) Careless
(b) Actful
(c) Troublesome
(d) Unintelligent

14. ABORTIVE
(a) Futile
(b) Unyielding
(c) Effective
(d) Methodical

15. DAMNATION
(a) Retribution
(b) Condemnation
(c) Resurrection
(d) Salvation

16. CARNAL
(a) Kind
(b) Shallow
(c) Gay
(d) Chaste

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions (For the 7 items which follow) : (i) In this Section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response . You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

17 Respectfully I beg to state that (a) I am suffering from fever (b) for the past fortnight.(c) No error (d)

1.Women20-20 world Championship was Won By
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) India

2. Who is the Chairperson of Identification Authority of India (UIA)?
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Nandan Nilekani
(C) B. Shreedharan
(D) M. N. Buch

3. Who won the 2009 Wimbledon ?
(A) Pete Samptas
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(d) John McEnroe

4. Which country has the largest Rail Network in the World?
(A)India
(B) U. K.
(C)China
(D) U.S.A.

5. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Verrappa Moily
(D) Hansraj Bharadwaj

6. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, ‘President of India’, is celebrated as?
(A)Lawyer’s Day
(B)Teacher’s Day
(C)Children’s Day
(D)Father’s Day

7. Tirupati is in?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP

8. Kanha National Park is situated in which State ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP

9. River Narmada originates from?
(A) Bhedaghat
(B) Amarkantak
(C) Dindori
(D) Allahabad

10. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930
(A) Against atrocities committed on Harijarts
(B) Against imposition of Salt Tax
(C) Against the commencement of Communal Riot
(D) Against prohibition on Indian’s participating in elections

11. Who is the author of “My Experiments with Truth”?
(A)Nehru
(B) Tagore
(C) Gandhi
(D) Jinnah

1. A social institution is?
(a) an established procedure that regulates human behavior
(b) a place where social functions are organized
(c) an organization where social positions are determined
(d) an organization that administers social service

2. Which one of the following is not a social institution?
(a) Kinship
(b) School
(e) Education
(d) Prison

3. Who, among the following, has emphasized the positive functions of conflict in society?
(a) Georg Simmel
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Max Weber
(d) Noam Chomsky

4. Which one of the following is an attribute of culture?
(a) Culture is divinely gifted
(b) Culture is socially constructed
(c) Culture is genetically inherited
(d) Culture is environmentally manipulated

5. Mass culture generally refers to
(a) the symbolic products of a group
(b) artistic and literary creations
(c) the cultural traits of a society -
(d) commercial products of little or no aesthetic value

6. Which one of the following is meant by cultural relativism?
(a) There are universal Relative cultural norms that we must follow
(b) One’s view of social institutions is coloured by his cultural perspective
(c) The function and meaning of a trait are relative to its cultural settings
(d) One believes that one’s own culture is relatively superior to that of others

7. Which one of the following statements correctly- defines ‘Ethnocentrism’? -
(a) Judging other culture with the help of cultural ‘Ideal Type’
(b) Judging other species by comparing with human species
(c) Looking at other cultures with a sense of inferiority
(d) Judging other cultures by comparison with one’s own

8. Who, among the following sociologists, popularized the term ‘Primary group’?
(a) Erving Goffman
(b) C.H. Cooley
(c) David Harvey
(d) G H. Mead

9. Consider the following statements:
Reference group theory has generally been used by scholars to understand the process of
1. social mobility among individuals and groups.
2. competition and conflict among individuals and groups.
3. social interaction and symbolic unity.
4. formation of human agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c)2 and 3
(d)l,2,3 and 4

10. According to Emile Durkheim, ‘‘human agency’ is constrained by
(a) political process
(b) social structure
(c) economic resources
(d) agency of other actors

11. Who among the following, classified religious rites/rituals into positive, negative and piacular?
(a) B. Malinowski
(b) A.R. Radcliffe-Brown
(c) M. Weber
(d) E. Durkheim

12. Which one of the following theories adopts the model of the organism to understand the social system?
(a) Conflict theory
(b) Functionalist theory .
(c) Mode of production theory
(d) Behavioural theory

13. Louis Dumont conceptualized caste in terms of
(a) social differentiation and untouchability
(b) class and unequal power relations
(c) dialectical opposition of ‘pure’ and ‘impure’
(d) functional unity and differentiation

14. Gandhian Satyagraha can be considered as an example of which one of the following Weber’s type of social action?
(a) Instrumental-rational action
(b) Affective action
(c) Value-rational action
(d) Value-neutral action

15. Which one of the following sociologists developed the theory that within the social system roles become institutionalized clusters of normative rights and obligations?.
(a) E. Durkheim
(b) R. Merton
(c) K. Davis
(d) R. Linton

16. A status-set refers to which of the following?
1. The set of positions an individual occupies in a given network of social relations.
2. The set of distinctions an individual eam in his/her life.
3. A set of privileges an officer enjoys in bureaucracy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1 only
(b) l and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)1,2 and 3

17. Which of the following is not the characteristic of the Jajmani System?
(a) Reciprocal relationship
(b) Hereditary
(c) Goods against services
(d) This relationship between the ‘servicing’ and the ‘served’ castes was short term

18. A social norm is:
(a) what everyone adheres to
(b) an evaluation of the state of affairs as good or bad
(c) a belief in something as good or desirable
(d) is not adhered to by everyone but guides the actions of individuals in social interactions.

Are you getting used to the limelight?
(Smiles) Yes! Initially it was a catastrophe trying to cope with the rush of people. But now I am getting used to it!

Does your being from Kashmir help because now people acknowledge the fact that it is a state that has potential?
These are popular perceptions. Whenever popular perceptions break it becomes news. Never has there been a topper from Kashmir so yes, it does significantly lend weight to my selection.

Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Civil Services Examination Academy for minority students & women has announced phase II coaching programme for Mains & Prelims. The programme is scheduled to start in August 2010. The notifications & applications will be available from June 15, 2010. According to Prof. Amina Kishore, Professor In charge, the Academy has successfully completed phase I of coaching for students who appeared in the recently conducted Preliminary Exams.

Union Minister for Law and Justice M Veerappa Moily on Sunday felicitated candidates, who cracked All India Civil Services examination and Karnataka Administrative Service examination, at JSS Training Institute for Competitive Examinations (JSSTICE) here.

He said only a few candidates get selected to the IAS, IFS and IPS postings from Karnataka compared to other south Indian states. He lauded the steps taken by the JSSTICE for providing training for candidates opting of for civil service examination.