Iasguru's blog

(Download) Free E-Book: How to Crack Civil Service Exam

CONTENTS


1. About the Exam
  • Nature of the Exam
  • Choosing the Optional Subjects
  • Coaching
  • General Trend of Marks
  • Exam timetable
  • General Suggestions
  • How should a fresh candidate approach the exam?
2. Examination Scheme
  • Preliminary Examination
  • List of optional subjects for Preliminary Examination
  • Main Examination
  • List of optional subjects for Main Examination
  • General Instructions
  • Interview test
  • Number of Attempts & Age Limit
3. Preliminary Exam
  • Negative Marking
  • How to tackle negative marking?
  • General Studies – Preliminary Exam
  • History
  • Polity
  • Geography
  • Economy
  • Sciences
  • Mental Ability
  • Current affairs
  • General Knowledge
4. Main Examination
  • General Studies – Main Examination
  • History
  • Geography
  • Polity
  • Social Issues
  • India and the world
  • International Affairs
  • Economy
  • Science and Technology
  • Statistics
  • Current Affairs
5. Essay
  • Suggested root topics
  • Suggested Reading
  • Groundwork Preparation
  • Tips
  • Strategy
6. English and Indian Languages
  • English
  • Indian Language

7. Interview

(Download) Answer Format For Indian Polity : IAS Mains 2009

Download : Answer Format For Indian Polity : IAS Mains 2009


 

Courtesy : Paradigm IAS Academy, Pune

(Info) Civil Services Examination: Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests

https://iasexamportal.com/files/upsc.JPG

Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests
 Appendix - IV


1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall

Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality H.B. pencil for making responses on the Answer Sheet, eraser, pencil sharpener and a pen containing blue or black ink. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the Invigilator.

2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall

Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above, e.g., books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s),  etc.

Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted.  Any infringement of these instructions should entail disciplinary action including ban from future examination.

Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item including mobile phones /pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured.

3.  PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS 

THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(I)     There are four alternatives for the answers to every question.  For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii)    If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.

(iii)    If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

4. Unfair means strictly prohibited

No candidates shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description.

5. Conduct in Examination Hall

No candidates should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.

6. Answer Sheet particulars

(i) Write in ink or ball point pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode (in pencil) your booklet series (A, B, C or D, as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the Invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.

(ii) All corrections and changes in writing the roll number must be initialed by the candidates as well as by the Invigilator and countersigned by the Supervisor.

(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.

7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.

8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.

9. Use HB pencil to mark answer

Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and feeling up the answer sheets.  They should use HB pencil only to darken the circles.  For writing in boxes, they should use blue or black pen.  Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully.

10. Method of marking answers

In the "Objective Type" of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as "Item") several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as "Responses") are given. You have to choose one response to each item.

The question paper will be in the Form of Test Booklet. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3 ............ etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response.

(Info) Civil Services Examination: Eligibility Conditions (in brief)

https://iasexamportal.com/files/upsc.JPG

Eligibility Conditions (in brief)
 Appendix - I (Section - III)


(i) Age limits : Prescribed age-limits are 21-30 years as on 1st August, 2009 for all the services/posts  (Upper age limit relaxable for SCs/Sts, OBCs and certain other categories as specified in Para 3(ii) of Notice).

(ii) Educational Qualifications : Degree of a recognised University or equivalent. (Para 3(iii) of Notice).

(iii) No. of permissible attempts : Four (Seven attempts for OBCs and P.H. Candidates belonging to General Category and no limit for SCs/STs (Para 3 (iv) of Notice).

(iii) Fee : Rs. 50/- (Rupees fifty only) (No fee for SCs/STs/Physically disabled only).

Instructions to candidates for filling up the Application Form for the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2009.

Side 1 of Application Form


Column 1 : Examination for which applying

Darken the circle against "CSP", in the box pertaining to Name of examination, write CSP starting from the first box on the left. Also write 2009 in the boxes meant for year of examination. Candidates are advised to ensure that the name of Examination viz. CSP is correctly written by them in the box. Any error in this regard may result in rejection of their application form.

Column 2 : Fee

If you have paid the requisite fee of Rs. 50/- (Rupees fifty only), darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or If you have not paid the fee and are claiming fee remission as SC, ST or Physically disabled, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box.

N.B. : Fee is payable only in the form of Central Recruitment Fee Stamp, as per instructions against Column 12.

Column 3 : (I) Whether Physically Handicapped?

If you are not a physically handicapped person, darken circle 1 for No and write 1 in the box; or If you are a physically handicapped person, darken circle 2 for yes and write 2 in the box.

(II) If yes, indicate category

  • Fill up this Column only if your answer to Column 3(I) is yes.
  • If you are Orthopaedically handicapped, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
  • If you are Blind, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box; or
  • If you are Deaf-Mute, darken circle 3 and write 3 in the box.

Column 4 : Community

  • If you belong to SC, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
  • If you belong to ST, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box; or
  • If you belong to OBC, darken circle 3 and write 3 in the box; or
  • If you belong to General Category (Others), darken circle 4 and write 4 in the box.

Note 1 : Candidates belonging to OBCs but coming in the Creamy Layer and thus not being entitled to OBC reservation should indicate their community as General Category (Others) Code No. 4".

Note 2 : Candidates belonging to neither SC, ST, nor OBC communities should write Code No. 4 (General Category) against the Column for Community and not leave it blank.

Note 3 : No change in the community status indicated by a candidate in his/her application form for the Preliminary Examination will ordinarily be allowed by the Commission at a subsequent stage.

Column 5 : Sex

  • If you are Male, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
  • If you are Female, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box;

Column 6 : Nationality

  • If you are an Indian national, darken circle 1 and write 1 in the box; or
  • If you are not an Indian national, darken circle 2 and write 2 in the box.

Column 7 : Name of the candidate

For filling up this column, first write in the boxes your full name (in English) in capital letters exactly as recorded in your Matriculation/High School/Secondary or equivalent examination certificate. Write a single letter in a box. Leave a box blank between any two parts of the name. Then darken the corresponding circle below each letter. Do not darken a circle below a blank box. Do not overshoot the boxes. Abbreviate name only if necessary. Do not use any prefix such as Shri, Kum., Dr. etc with your name.

Column 8 : Date of Birth

Darken the appropriate circles for the day, month and year of your birth as recorded in your Matriculation/High School/Secondary or equivalent examination certificate. Then write in the boxes using numerals 01 to 31 for day; numerals 01 to 12 for month and the last two digits for the year of birth.

Column 9 : Father’s Name

Write your father’s name (in English) in capital letters. Write a single letter in each box. Leave a box blank between any two parts of the name. Do not use any prefix such as Shri, Dr, etc.

Column 10 : Address

Write your complete mailing address including your name in English capital letters or Hindi within the box provided for the purpose. Also write the PIN Code therein. Write with blue or black ball pen only. Do not write outside the box. Please note that this address will be photocopied as such in all letters to be sent to you and therefore, it should be very clearly and legibly written. If you make any mistake in writing the address, cover the whole box with an exact sized white paper slip and rewrite your address on that.

Column 11 : Photograph

Paste firmly in the space provided your recent photograph of 4 cm. x 5 cm. size (preferably in black & white). Do not staple the photograph. Photograph should neither be signed by you nor it should be got attested.

Column 12 : Space for CRF Stamp

Fee to be paid for the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination is Rs. 50/- (Rupees fifty only). SC/ST and Physically Handicapped candidates are not required to pay any fee. No fee exemption is however available to OBC candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed full fee.

Fee is payable only through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp (Not postage stamps). No other mode of payment is acceptable. Obtain only one single CRF Stamp of Rs. 50/- denomination from the post office and paste it firmly within the box. After pasting the CRF Stamp on the form, get it cancelled from the post office of purchase in the space provided. Do not staple the CRF Stamp.

Side 2 of Application Form


Column 13 : (I) Are you residing in a remote area or abroad

If you are residing in a remote area specified in Para 6 of the Notice of the Examination or abroad, darken circle 1 against Yes and write 1 in the box; or

If you are not residing in a specified remote area/abroad, darken circle 2 against No and write 2 in the box.

N.B. : Candidates residing in a remote area specified in the Notice of the Examination or abroad are entitled to one week’s additional time for submission of application form.

(II) If yes, indicate area code :

Darken the appropriate circles for the area code as given below and then write the same code in the boxes.

AREA CODE FOR REMOTE AREAS AND ABROAD
Area Code Area Code
Assam 01 Jammu & Kashmir 09
Meghalaya 02 Lahaul and Spiti District
and Pangi Sub Division of
Chamba District of
Himachal Pradesh
10
Arunachal Pradesh 03
Mizoram 04
Manipur 05
Nagaland 06 Andaman & Nicobar Islands 11
Tripura 07 Lakshadweep 12
Sikkim 08 Abroad 13

Column 14 : Examination Centre Code

Choose the Examination Centre from the list given below where you wish to appear and its code. Darken the appropriate circles and then write the same code in the boxes. Do not indicate more than one Centre.

(Info) Civil Services Examination: Instructions/Guideline for filling up the Application Form

https://iasexamportal.com/files/upsc.JPG

Instructions/Guideline for filling up the Application Form
 Appendix - II


General Instructions:

1. Candidates must use only the form supplied with the information Brochure purchased from any of the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices listed in This Page. Form should be purchased from designated post offices only and not from any other agency. Candidates must use the form supplied with the Information Brochure only and they should in no case use photocopy/reproduction/unauthorisedly printed copy of the Form. The form will NOT be supplied by the Commission’s office.

2. The application form must be filled in by the candidates in their own handwriting. Since this form will be processed on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the application form. They should use HB pencil only to darken the circles. For writing in the boxes, they should use blue or black pen.

Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while processing the applications on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately. Entries in the boxes are meant for confirmatory purposes and these should also, therefore, be made correctly. There should be no variation between the entries made by the candidate by darkening the circles and those written in the accompanying boxes.  

In case of any variation between the entries made by the Candidates in the boxes and the accompanying circle, the entries in the boxes will be treated as authentic and final.

3. Candidates should ensure that the signatures appended by them in all the places viz. in their application form, Attendance List etc. and in all the correspondence with the Commission, should be identical and there should be

(Info) Civil Services Examination: Scheme of Subjects for the Preliminary & Main Examinations

https://iasexamportal.com/files/upsc.JPG

Scheme of Subjects for the Preliminary & Main Examinations
Appendix - I  (Section - II)


A. Preliminary Examination

The examination will consist of two papers.

List of centres of Examination
  Centre Code Centre Code Centre Code
Agartala 45 Gangtok 42 Panaji ( Goa ) 36
Ahmedabad 01 Hyderabad 10 Patna 15
Aizawl 47 Imphal 44
Paper I General Studies 150 marks
Paper II One subject to be selected from the list of optional subjects set out in Para 2 below 300 marks
Total : 450 marks

2. List of optional subjects for Preliminary Examination.

  • Agriculture
  • Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science
  • Botany
  • Chemistry
  • Civil Engineering
  • Commerce
  • Economics
  • Electrical Engineering
  • Geography
  • Geology
  • Indian History
  • Law
  • Mathematics
  • Mechanical Engineering
  • Medical Science
  • Philosophy
  • Physics
  • Political Science
  • Psychology
  • Public Administration
  • Sociology
  • Statistics
  • Zoology

Note (i) Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions).

(ii) The question papers will be set both in Hindi and English.

(iii) The course content of the syllabi for the optional subjects will be of the degree level. Details of the syllabi are indicated in Part A of Section III.

(iv) Each paper will be of two hours duration. Blind candidates will, however, be allowed an extra time of twenty minutes at each paper.

B. Main Examination

The written examination will consist of the following papers :

Paper I One of the Indian languages to be selected by the candidate from the Languages included in the Eighth Scheduled to the Constitution. 300 marks
Paper II English 300 marks
Paper III Essay 200 marks
Papers IV and V General Studies 300 marks for each paper
Papers VI, VII, VIII and IX Any two subjects to be selected from the list of the optional subjects set out in para 2 below. Each subject will have two papers. 300 marks for each paper

Interview Test will carry 300 marks.

Note (i) The papers on Indian Languages and English will be of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature; the marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.

(ii) The papers on Essay, General Studies and Optional Subjects of only such candidates will be evaluated as attain such minimum standard as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion for the qualifying papers on Indian Language and English.

(iii) The paper-I on Indian Languages will not, however, be compulsory for candidates hailing from the North-Eastern States of Arunachanl Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland and also for candidates hailing from the State of Sikkim.

(iv) For the Language papers, the script to be used by the candidates will be as under :–

(Info) Civil Services Examination: Plan of Examination

https://iasexamportal.com/files/upsc.JPG

Plan of Examination
Appendix - I  (Section - I)


The competitive examination comprises two successive stages :

(i) Civil Services (Preliminary) Examinations (Objective Type) for the selection of candidates for Main Examination; and
(ii) Civil Services (Main) Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various services and posts.

2. The Preliminary Examination will consist of two papers of Objective type (multiple choice questions) and carry a maximum of 450 marks in the subjects set out in subsection (A) of Section II. This examination is meant to serve as a screening test only; the marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination by the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination will not be counted for determining their fi

(GS) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards 2009 Announced

Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards 2009 Announced


Eleven scientist were selected for 2009 Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for science and technology on the occasion of CSIR Foundation Day celebration here today at Vigyan Bhawan. Their names discipline-wise are as under:

Biological Sciences
    1. Dr Amitabh Joshi, Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research, Banglore.
    2. Dr Bhaskar Saha, National Centre for Cell Science, Pune.

Chemical Sciences
    1. Dr Charusita chakravarty, Indian Institute of Technology Delhi, New Delhi.
    2. Dr Narayanaswamy Jayaraman, Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore.

Earth, Atmosphere, Ocean & Planetary Sciences
    1. Dr S K Satheesh, Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore.

Engineering Sciences
    1. Dr Giridhar Madras, Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
    2. Dr Jayant Ramaswamy Haritsa, Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore.

Mathematical Sciences

(Paper) EKT Exam Paper : Engineering Knowledge Indian Airforce Entrance Exam

TECHNICAL BRANCH
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE TEST (EKT)

Note: The model question paper only offers a broad overview and does not purport to represent either the syllabus or the pattern of questions that would appear in the Engineering Knowledge Test

SCHEME AND SYLLABUS: Engineering Knowledge Test is a common test aimed at testing the Basic Engineering knowledge of the candidates applied for Aeronautical Engineering Courses. EKT has two parts, namely

  • Part A - General Engineering: 40 Questions | Duration: 1 Hour
  • Part B - Specialist Paper for each Engineering discipline: 35 Questions

Engineering Knowledge Test is pitched at pre-final to final year engineering level. The test consists of two parts viz General Engineering and Specialist subjects for the two streams of Technical Branches i.e Aeronautical Engineering (Electronics) and Aeronautical Engineering (Mechanical). The specialised papers are in Mechanical Engineering, Aeronautical engineering, Electronics and Communication engineering, Electrical and Instrumentation engineering and Computer Engineering.

The questions are objective type in nature and duration of test is approximately one hour. It is mandatory for the candidates to pass in both General and Specialist papers to qualify for AFSB interview.

Part A: General Engineering

1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is
(A) 2/20
(B) 63/100
(C) 16/20
(D) 63/20

2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is
(A) Zero
(B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity
(D) Non of these

6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its
(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these

7. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of
(A) 1µm
(B) 100 µm
(C) 1mm
(D) 1 Å

8. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted

9. Moving electric charges will interact with
(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these

10. Gamma radiation is most similar to
(A) sound waves (B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons

11. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is
(A) meson
(B) anti proton
(C) positron
(D) muon

12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial pressure of oxygen is close to
(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg

13. In the electrolytic cell
(A) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy

14. The force required to maintain a body at constant speed in free space is equal to
(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it

15. If the length of a spring is halved, the spring constant becomes
(A) half
(B) 1/4th
(C) double
(D) four times

16. The coefficient of static friction depends on
(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the bodies

(Exam Pattern) UBI IT Officers Exam Notification And Exam Pattern

UBI IT Officers Exam Notification And Exam Pattern

UBI IT Officers Exam pattern:
Selection process of UBI IT Officers is not very different from that of a Bank PO exam – it consists of a written test followed by interview. The UBI IT

(Paper) Andhra Bank Special Officers Solved Paper (Held on 16–12–2007) : General Awareness

1. What is the population of India ?
(A) 98 crores
(B) More than 2 billion
(C) More than 1 billion
(D) Less than 96 crores
(E) 96 crores

2. Thermostat is an instrument used to—
(A) measure flow of current
(B) measure intensity of voltage
(C) regulate temperature
(D) regulate velocity of sound
(E) None of these

3. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with—
(A) Football (B) Cricket
(C) Hockey (D) Basketball
(E) Lawn Tennis

4. GNP stands for—
(A) Gross National Product
(B) Group Net Product
(C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Networking Process
(E) None of these

5. ‘Acoustics’ is the science of the study of—
(A) Light (B) Sound
(C) Electricity (D) Magnetism
(E) None of these

6. Noise pollution is measured in the unit called—
(A) micron
(B) nautical miles
(C) ohms
(D) ampere
(E) decibel

7. ‘Heavy Water’ is used in which of the following types of indus-tries ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Nuclear Power
(C) Textile
(D) Coal
(E) None of these

8. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Indomi-table Spirit’?
(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Justice K. G. Balakrishna
(D) Mr. Natwar Singh
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following is not the name of popular IT/Software Company ?
(A) Wipro (B) Mastek
(C) Toyota (D) IBM
(E) Infosys

10. ‘Yen’ is the currency of—
(A) South Korea
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Malaysia
(E) None of these

11. Baichung Bhutia whose name was in news is a well known—
(A) Music Director of Indian films
(B) English author of Indian origin
(C) Journalist
(D) Politician
(E) Sports Personality

12. ‘Richter Scale’ is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves
(B) Intensity of Earthquake
(C) Density of salt in Sea water
(D) Flow of electric current
(E) None of these

13. Which of the following best explains ‘e-governance’?
(A) Improving the functioning of government
(B) Teaching government emp-loyees the basics of computing
(C) Delivery of public services through internet
(D) Framing of cyber-laws of chatting on internet
(E) Convergence of e-mail and video-conferencing

14. CAS is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Legal System Reforms
(B) Piped gas line
(C) Cable T.V.
(D) Mobile phone regulation
(E) None of these

15. Tata Steel recently acquired the Corus, a steel giant situated in—
(A) South Africa
(B) Ukraine
(C) Australia
(D) Italy
(E) Britain

16. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the Organi-zation/Agency working in the field of Space Research ?
(A) ISBN
(B) ISRO
(C) INTELSET
(D) INTACH
(E) None of these

17. ‘Handshaking’ in Networking parlance means—
(A) connecting computers to a hub
(B) distributed Networks
(C) having same operating system on different computers
(D) sending e-mail
(E) None of these

18. VAT stands for—
(A) Value And Tax
(B) Value Added Tax
(C) Virtual Action Tasks
(D) Virtual Assessment Tech-nique
(E) None of these

19. Alzheimer’sdiseaseistheailment of which of the following organs /parts of the human body ?
(A) Kidney (B) Heart
(C) Liver (D) Stomach
(E) Brain

20. Global warming is a matter of concern amongst the nations these days. Which of the follo-wing countries is the largest emitter of greenhouse gases in the World ?
(A) U.S.A. (B) China
(C) India (D) Britain
(E) None of these

21. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates ?
(A) Microsoft Secrets
(B) The Road Ahead
(C) The Elephant Paradigm
(D) e-commerce
(E) None of these

22. Which of the following is the name of the social network service run by the Google on the internet ?
(A) Online Space
(B) Orkut
(C) Net-Space
(D) Wikipedia
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following states is a relatively new addition ?
(A) Goa
(B) Delhi
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Bihar

24. DOT stands for—
(A) Disc Operating Therapy
(B) Department of Telephones
(C) Directorate of Technology
(D) Damage on Time
(E) None of these

25. Which of the following States/ parts of India is completely land locked having no contact with sea ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) North-East
(E) None of these

26. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following servi-ces ?
(A) Telecom (B) Trade
(C) Port (D) Transport
(E) None of these

27. At present for the ATMs in India, the most commonly used net-work communication mode is—
(A) Very Small Aperture Termi-nal (VSAT)
(B) General Packet Radio Ser-vice (GPRS)
(C) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
(D) Dial-in Connection
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following is not a foreign bank operating in India ?
(A) DBS Bank Ltd.
(B) Sonali Bank
(C) J. P. Morgan Chase Bank
(D) Shinhan Bank
(E) All are Foreign Banks

29. Who is the author of the book ‘Future Shock’ ?

(Exam Info) Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Exam, 2009

Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Exam, 2009

The Union Public Service Commission will hold the Central Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination 2009 at 41 Centres throughout the country on October 11, 2009.  Admission Certificates to the candidates have been dispatched. Letters of rejection stating the reason(s) for rejection have also been issued.  If any candidate has not received either the Admission Certificate or rejection letter, he/she may contact UPSC Facilitation Counter in person or on Telephone Nos.011-23385271, 011-23381125 or 011-23098543 during working hours. The candidates may also sent fax messages on Fax No.011-23387310.

Information on venues of Examination in respect of admitted candidates is also available on UPSC website at www.upsc.gov.in. The candidates who have not received the Admission Certificates may download the “Venue Information” from the UPSC website and use it for appearing in the examination.

Courtesy : PIB.NIC.IN

(Paper) Canara Bank Latest HR / Technical Interview Questions

https://iasexamportal.com/files/canara-logo.JPG

Canara Bank Latest Available Placement Question Paper and HR / Technical Interview Questions

Total 25 people on a day were divided into morning and afternoon sessions. Time taken for each candidate was 20- 25 minutes and there were 4 HR panel members .

Q. What do you think about unionism attitude?
Q. Tell the names of all subjects studied in Mca.
Q. 3 favorite subjects; then Qs on each

Topics DBMS, AI, Networks (Think Carefully about these before appearing for the Canara Bank or other Bank Interviews)

Name types of dbms -- Difference between hierarchial and relational structure in dbms?
    Q - what else have you learnt in dbms?
    Q - what is data integrity?
    Q - what have you learnt in AI?
    Q - define artifitial intelligence and neural networks?
    Q - say someting about n/ws?
    Q - how many layers r there in osi model?
    Q - name them?
    Q - which is your favourite layers?
    Ans- Transport layer.

    Q - say something about trans layer?
    Q - what projects have you done?
    Q - write first 10 lines of code of your project & explain them ?
    Q - can you be a team leader inspite of being a fresher?
    Q - can you be a team member?
    Q - what do you want to become - a manager or a leader?
    Q - will you do a job that you dont find interesting but your

(Syllabus) Maharashtra PSC: Urdu (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)

Maharashtra PSC: Urdu (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)

Urdu ( Literature) (Code No : 214) Paper-I
Standard : Degree

Total Marks : 200
Nature of Paper : Conventional Type
Duration : 3 Hours

Note :
1) Answers to this paper must be written in Urdu only.
2) This paper will test the candidate’s abilities to comprehend, to analyse, to interpret, to criticise, to appraise the subject matter related to the topics/sub topics mentioned below.
 

Section – A (Marks : 50)
1) Origin and Development of Urdu Language: Marks : 25
    1) Various theories regarding the Origin of Urdu.
    2) Influence of Marathi on Urdu Language and Literature
    3) Indo-Aryan family of language (old , middle, modern).
    4) Changing status of Urdu in the sub continent in Twentieth Century with reference to :
        a) Linguistic Reorganisation of States Commission, Report.
        b) Gujral Committee, Report.
        c) Sardar Jafri Committee, Report.
       
2) Dakhni Urdu: Marks : 25
    1) Origin and Development of Dakhni Language
    2) Linguistic Characteristics of Dakhni URDU.
    3) Socio-Cultural study of Dakhni Language and Literature.
 

Section - B ( Marks : 50)
3) Study of Selected Literary Genres (Classical & Modern) :
    1) Urdu Masnavi : Definition and Development.
    2) Urdu Ghazal : Definition and Development.
    3) Dastan : Definition and Development.
    4) Short Story : Definition and Development.
    5) Definition of Rubai and its importance.
 

Section - C ( Marks : 50)
4) Study of Literary Movements and Trends :
    1) Difference in Literary movement and trend.
    2) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan’s Aligarh movement

(Syllabus) Maharashtra PSC: Sanskrit (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)

Maharashtra PSC: Sanskrit (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)

Sanskrit (Literature) (Code No : 212) Paper - I
Standard : Degree

Total Marks : 200
Nature of Paper : Conventional Type
Duration : 3 Hours

Note:
1) This paper will test the candidate’s ability to comprehend, to analyse, to interpret, to criticise, to appraise the subject matter related to the topics/sub topics mentioned below.
2) There are/ will be topics/questions carrying at least 30% marks as mentioned in the syllabus/ Question paper, which must be answered in Sanskrit (in Devanagari Script). The remaining questions must be answered either in Sanskrit or in the medium of examination opted by the candidate.
 

Section - A (Marks : 50)
1)
1) Main characteristics of Vedic Sanskrit language.
    2) Prominent features of classical Sanskrit language.
    3) Contribution of Sanskrit to linguistic studies.
    4) Contribution of Sanskrit to the development of Indian languages (particularly Marathi).
    5) Present status of Sanskrit language in modern India.

2) Significant features and usages of grammar, with particular stress on :
    1) Sandhi, Samasa.
    2) Karaka, Kartari and Karmani vacyas

(Note: Questions based on topic nos. 2.01/2.02 must be answered in sanskrit.)
 

Section - B (Marks : 50)
3) .01) History of Sanskrit Poetics
    2) Literary Evaluation of the Ramayana
    3) Literary Evaluation of the Mahabharata
    4) The origin and development of literary genres of :
        a) Mahakavya, Khandakavya, Muktakakavya.
        b) Rupaka (drama)
        c) Katha, Akhyayika, Campu
        d) Modern Sanskrit Literature (Prose and Poetry) and Texts translated into Sanskrit

(Note: Questions based on topic nos. 3.01/3.02/3.03 must be answered in Sanskrit.)
 

Section - C (Marks : 50)
4) Trends of Indian Philosophy :
    1) Mimansa
    2) Vedanta
    3) Nyaya
    4) Vaisesika
    5) Sankhya
    6) Yoga
    7) Bauddha
    8) Jaina
    9) Carvaka

5) Essentials of Indian Culture with stress on :
    1) Purusarthas
    2) Samskaras
    3) Varnasramavyavastha
    4) Concept of Rna
    5) Social Sciences
    6) Arts and fine arts
    7) Science and Technology
 

Section - D (Marks : 50 )
6) Short Essay writing in Sanskrit (as compulsory question) about 250 words.
7) Unseen passage of about 200 words with the questions, to be answered in

(Syllabus) Maharashtra PSC: English (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)

Maharashtra PSC: English (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)

English (Literature) (Code No : 202)
Paper I : Literature in English during 1600 - 1900
Standard : Degree

Total Marks : 200
Nature of Paper : Conventional Type
Duration : 3 Hours

Note :
1) Answers to this paper must be written in English only.
2) This paper will test the candidate’s abilities to comprehend, to analyse, to interpret, to criticise, to appraise the subject matter related to the topics/sub topics mentioned below.
3) Texts for detailed study are listed below. The paper will require a first-hand and critical reading of the texts. The paper will also test candidate’s knowledge related to the theoretical and critical Background as will as appreciation of the texts.

Section - A (Marks : 50 ) DRAMA
1)1. Dramatic Theory :
The Renaissance, Elizabethan Drama, Neo-classicism, Restoration Drama, Drama of Ideas.
   2. Texts : The candidates are expected to have a critical understanding of the following texts in the light of literary theory in general as well as the issues mentioned in Topic no. 1.01 of the paper in particular.
    a) William Shakespeare : Hamlet.
    b) Ben Johnson : Volpone.
    c) William Congreve : The Way of the World.
    d) George Bernard Shaw : Arms and the Man.

Section - B (Marks : 50) POETRY
2).01. Poetic Theory :
Metaphysical Poetry, The Epic and the Mock-epic, The Romantic Movement, Victorian Poetry
   .02. Texts : The candidates are expected to have a critical understanding of the following texts in the light of literary theory in general as well as the issues mentioned in Topic no. 2.01 of the paper in particular.
    a) John Donne: ‘Canonization’, ‘Death be not proud’, ‘Love’s War’, ‘Good Morrow’
    b) Andrew Marvell: ‘To his Coy Mistress’, ‘Eyes and Tears’, ‘Bermudas’, The Garden
    c) John Milton : ‘Paradise Lost’, Book I and II.
    d) William Wordsworth : ‘She dwelt among untrodden ways’, ‘Tintern Abbey’, ‘She was a Phantom of Delight’, ‘Ode on the Intimations of Immortality’.
    e) John Keats : ‘The Eve of Saint Agnes’, ‘La Belle Dame Sans Merci’, ‘Ode on a Grecian Urn’, ‘Ode to a Nightingale’.
    f) Robert Browning: ‘My Last Duchess’, ‘A Grammarian’s Funeral’, ‘Andrea Del Sarto’, ‘The Patriot’.
    g) Alfred Tennyson : ‘The Lotus Eaters’, ‘Ulysses’, ‘Crossing the Bar’, ‘The Lady of Shalott’.

Section - C (Marks : 50 ) NOVEL
3) .01. Theory of the Novel :
The Rise of the middle class, The Rise of the Reading Public, The Rise of the Novel, The Novel and the Romance, The Victorian Novel.

.02 Texts : The candidates are expected to have a critical understanding of the following texts in the light of literary theory in general as well as the issues mentioned in Topic no. 3.01 of the paper in particular.
    a) Henry Fielding : Tom Jones.
    b) Jane Austen : Sense and Sensibility.
    c) Charles Dickens : David Copperfield.
    d) Herman Melville : Moby Dick.

Section – D (Marks : 50 )
The Beginnings of English Studies in India
4) 1) The impact of Colonialism on India – the culture contact and the problem of acculturation.
    2) The Anglicist v/s Orientalist debate. Macaulay’s minute of 1835 on Indian Education. Introduction of English Language and Literature in India

(Syllabus) Maharashtra PSC: Hindi (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)

Maharashtra PSC: Hindi (Literature) : Revised Syllabus for State Services (Main) Examination (Optional)


Note : If you are experiencing difficulties in reading Marathi content, the required fonts may not be getting installed dynamically on your computer. These Fonts are meant for Windows based systems only. Just follow the steps given below to install the fonts manually on your computer.

Click (for e.g) on the DVBW-TTSurekh and DVBW-TTYogesh links given below, one after the other, to download the True Type fonts. Save the font files in a folder on your computer (eg: C:\Temp).


 

Pages

Subscribe to RSS - Iasguru's blog
Language Script
  • Assamese
  • Assamese
  • Bengali
  • Bengali
  • Bodo
  • Devanagari
  • Dogri
  • Devanagari
  • Gujarati
  • Gujarati
  • Hindi
  • Devanagari
  • Kannada
  • Kannada
  • Kashmiri
  • Persian
  • Konkani
  • Devanagari