CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2012-II- Paper II: General English

Paper II : General English

COMPREHENSION

Direction (Qs. 1 to 17): In this section, there are five short passages. Each passage is followed by questions based on the passage. Read each passage and answer the questions that follow:

PASSAGE-I

“Sit down”, the Principal said, but Mr. Tagde continued to stand, gaining courage from his own straight-backed stance, because he was beginning to feel a little afraid now.
The Principal looked unhappy. He disliked being forced to perform this sort of an unpleasant task. “I wish you would consider withdrawing this report’’, he said.
“I am sorry, Sir, I cannot do that’’ Mr. Tagde said. He pleased with his unwavering voice and uncompromising words.
“It will be a very damaging report if put on record’’.
“It is a factual report on very damaging conduct’’.
“You are asking for the boy’s expulsion from school. Don’t you think the punishment is too harsh for a few boyish pranks’’?

1. Mr. Tagde did not sit down because

A. He was angry with the Prinicpal
B. He was in a defiant mood
C. He did not like the student
D. He was in a hurry

2. He would not withdraw the report because

A. He was arrogant and bitter
B. It was an accurate report
C. He wanted to create problems for the Principal
D. He wanted to show his authority

3. The Principal was unhappy because he

a. Did not like to deal with an arrogant person
b. Was angry with Mr. Tagde
c. Could not enforce discipline in school
d. Did not want to expel the boy

PASSAGE-II

It was a bitterly cold high, and even at the far end of the bus the east wind that raved along the street cut like a knife. The bus stopped, the two women and a man got in together and filled the vacant places. The younger woman was dressed in sealskin and carried one of those Pekinese dogs that women in sealskin like to carry in their laps. The conductor came in and took the fares. Then his eye rested with cold malice on the beady-eyed toy dog. I saw trouble brewing. This was the opportunity for which he had been waiting, and he intended to make the most of it.

4. The wind that blew on the night was

A. Mild
B. Pleasant
C. Bitter
D. Sharp

5. The younger was carrying the dog as

A. A necessity
B. A fashion
C. An expression of provocation
D. An escort

6. Which of the following statements best describes the nature of the conductor?

A. He was dutiful
B. He was a law-abiding person
C. He liked dogs
D. He was unfriendly and malicious

7. “It was s bitterly cold night, and even at the far end of the bus the east wind that raved along the street cut like a knife’’. This sentence given us an idea of

A. A lonely night-bus Journey
B. An unbearable cold night
C. The wind at the time that was still and cold
D. The hardship of author’s Journey\

PASSAGE-III

Before an armed robber locked Mary Graves in the sweltering trunk of her car, she dialed an emergency number on her portable telephone and slipped it to her three-year old daughter. Though confused, the little girl saved the day. She told emergency operators that her mother was locked in the truck. Although she didn’t know where she was, she provided some important clues: She could see airplanes and the sky, according to the transcript of the emergency phone call. The operator called Tampa international airport police, who searched the top floor of the airport parking garage where the car was parked. The operator told the girl to honk, enabling the police to locate the car and tree Mrs. Graves.

8. The clues provided by the little girl suggest that the car was parked

A. Outside but adjacent to the airport
B. By the main street of the city
C. At the airport
D. In a parking garage in the side-lane

9. The passage indicates that the girl was

A. Clever and brave
B. Had the maturity of an adult
C. Copy and shy
D. Worried and excited

10. The girl helped the police trace the car by

A. Shouting loudly
B. Making too much din
C. Shrieking frightfully
D. Sounding the horn

11. Through the passage, the writer suggests the importance and utility of

A. Education of little children
B. Parking garages
C. Protable telephones
D. Airports

PASSAGE-IV

For days I trudged from one property-dealer to another, form one “‘to-let’’ notice to another, with the estimated advance money tucked safely in the inner lining of my handbag, but in vain. At one place they needed a couple, at another a young man, ant at another they wished to know my employment status. And I realized that I was a freak called the single woman and the job status being nothing more than a freelance writer with hardly any assignments in hand, only dreams of making it someday. So the dream-house remain bed far away, gradually turning into a fantasy.

12. The author “trudged from one property-dealer to another” means that the another

A. Had to walk a lot of distance
B. Had to do a brisk walk to save the time
C. Visited several property – dealers without any success
D. Acquired a good knowledge about was property –dealers of that area

13. According to the passage, the author was

A. A novelist
B. An independent writer
C. A publisher of Journals
D. An unemployed person

14. Which of the following statements best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?

A. People always let out their houses to well employed persons only
B. People always let out their houses only to couples
C. Single jobless women find it difficult to rent a house
D. Women always dream of a house

PASSAGE-V

Martin had many little tricks highly entertaining to his son. On an evening, returning from the market, he would buy a paper mask, the head of a hissing dragon. He would put it on and knock at the door. On opening the door, the boy would be terrified for a moment, but only for a moment, for he would soon remove it and the two would roll with laughter. Tom would, then, go out with the mask and knock at the door for his father to open. Martin had to act as if he was paralysed with fear.

15. Martin played his little tricks because

A. He was very much interested in them
B. He wanted to terrify his son
C. His son got pleasure from them
D. It was his habit to make tricks

16. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate description of the mask?

A. It is mask looking like a dragon with long tail and covering the whole body of Martin
B. It is a mask looking like the head of a dragon with its tongue hanging out
C. It is a mask looking like an animal with horns, wings and a pair of ferocious eyes emitting fire
D. It is mask looking like the head of a king cobra

17. The father and son rolled with laughter after the

A. Father put on the mask
B. Opening of the door
C. Son saw the mask
D. Father removed the mask

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions (Qs. 18 to 35): Each question in this section has a sentence with three parts labeled A, B and C. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., A or B or C. If you find no error, you answer should be indicated as D.

18. The scientist was seemed (A)/ to be excited (B)/over the result of his experiment. (C)/ No error (D).

19. The student could not answer the teacher (A)/ when he was asked to explain (B)/ why he was so late that day. (C)/ No error. (D).

20. John could not come (A)/ to school (B)/ as he was ill from cold. (C)/ No error (D).

21. Though she has aptitude in Mathematics (A)/ I won’t allow her to take it up as a subject of study for the Master’s degree (B)/ because I know the labour involved will tell upon her health. (C)/ No error (D).

22. I am not familiar with (A)/ all the important places in this town, (B)/ although I have been living here since two years. (C)/ No error (D).

23. If I would be a millionaire, (A)/ I would not be wasting my time (B)/ waiting for a bus. (C)/ No error (D).

24. Until you begin to make a better use of your time, (A)/ I shall not stop (B)/ finding fault in you. (C)/ No error (D).

25. Neither of the two boys (A)/ is sensible (B)/ enough to do this job. (C)/ No error (D).

26. They left (A)/ their luggages (B)/ at the railway station. (C)/ No error (D)

27. You will get (A)/ all the information’s (B)/ if you read this booklet carefully. (C)/ No error (D).

28. She sang (A)/ in very well, (B)/ isn’t it? (C)/ No error (D).

29. He is working (A)/ in a bank in New Delhi (B)/ for the past several months. (C)/ No error (D).

30. There is no question (A)/ of my failing (B)/ in the examination. (C)/ No error (D).\

31. He is going every (A)/ for the wedding (B)/ as she was expected. (C)/ No error (D).

32. He relatives could not explain to us (A)/ why did not she come for the wedding (B)/ as she was expected. (c)/ No error (D).

33. He was prevented to accept the assignment (A)/ because he was a government employee (B)/ and as such barred from accepting such assignments. (C)/ No error (D).

34. If you repeat this mistake, (A)/ I will inform to your father (B)/ and do not blame me then. (C)/ No. error (D).

35. Lieutenant Anand was short and muscular (A)/ with shoulders that bulged impressive (B)/ against his smart uniform. (C)/ No error (D).

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CDS Exam Solved Papers - 2012-II- Paper I: General Knowledge

Paper I : General Knowledge

1. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by using devices through computers. This technology is known as

A. Robotics
B. Simulation
C. Forecasting
D. Computer forensics

2. The variability among living organisms from all sources including terrestrial, marine and other ecosystem and the ecological includes diversity within species, between species of ecosystem refers to

A. Geographical diversity
B. Zoological diversity
C. Ecological diversity
D. Biological diversity

3. Which among the following statement regarding the Gupta dynasty is/are correct?

1. The Kumaramatyas were the most important officers and they were appointed directly by the king in the home province.
2. The village headmen lost importance and land transactions began to be effected without their consent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code :

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

4. Which one among the following is not a function of Mir Bakhshi, the head of the military department as well as of the nobility under Mughal rule”

A. He made recommendation for appointment to Mansabs to the Emperor
B. He collected reports of intelligence and information agencies of the empire and presented them to the Emperor at the court ?
C. He was responsible for all incomes and expenditures, and held control over Khalisa, Jagir and Inam lands
D. He was responsible for the security of foreign travelers on the highways of the empire

5. The first Indian ruler to be shown in images as wearing a dress akin to trousers is

A. Chandragupta
B. Ashoka
C. Kanisha
D. Samudragupta

6. Model towns were created in India in the 1950s with the object of

A. Providing urban planning skills to local governments
B. Creating housing at affordable rates
C. Paving the way for all inclusive growth
D. Providing housing for those displaced during partition and be an example of good town planning

7. Consider the following statements about Sufism:

1. The Sufis were critical of the dogmatic definitions and scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran and Sunna (traditions of the Prophet) adopted by the theologians.
2. The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on the basis of their personal theologians.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

8. In the year 2012, India undertook its largest military exercise since independence. This was named

A. Yudh Abhyas
B. Rudra Akrosh
C. Sudarshan Shakti
D. Shoor Veer

9. INS Vikaramaditya, scheduled for induction into the India Navy soon, is the name given to

A. An aircraft carrier
B. A nuclear submarine
C. An amphibious assault vessel
D. A stealth ship

10. Farkhor Air Base, operated by the India Air Force, is situated in which one among the following countries?

A. Kazakhstan
B. Uzbekistan
C. Afghanistan
D. Tajikistan

11. The ‘Treaty on Integrated Development of Mahakali River’ was signed between India and

A. Pakistan
B. Nepal
C. Bhutan
D. Bangladesh

12. The India Army undertook operation Meghdoot to establish India control over

A. Sir Creek
B. Aksai Chin
C. Siachen Glacier
D. Dress sector

13. The ‘Partnership Council’ was launched in May 2012 to implement the ‘Strategic Partnership Agreement’ signed in the year 2011 between India and

A. United States
B. China
C. Maldives
D. Afghanistan

Direction: The following Seven (7) items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to there items using the code given below:

Code :

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
B. Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.
D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

14. Statement I. India supports the development and use of the Chabahar Port in Iran.

Statement II. India does not subscribe to Western sanction on energy trade with Iran.

15. Statement I. Operation Parakram involved the mobilization of India troops along India’s border with Pakistan.

Statement II. After the year 2001Parliament attacks, India wanted to pressure Pakistan into acting terror groups operating from areas under its control.

16. Statement I. Tsunami is small in open ocean yet may be over 30m high when it reaches a coastline.

Statement II. Tsunamis have long wavelength and they travel across the open ocean at high speed. As they approach shore, the wavelength decreases and the wave height increases.

17. Statement I. All compounds contain more than one element.

Statement II. All compounds are heterogeneous mixtures.

18. Statement I. Pulling a lawn roller is easier than pushing it.

Statement II. Pushing increases the apparent weight and hence the force of friction.

19. Statement I. Comets revolve round the Sun only in long elliptical orbits.

Statement II. A comet develops a tail when it gets close to the Sun:

20. Statement I. The planet Neptune appears blue in colour.

Statement II. The presence of methane gas in the atmosphere of Neptune is responsible for its colour.

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NDA/NA Exam Solved Papers - 2012 - I - Paper II : Mathematics

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NDA/NA Exam Solved Papers - 2012- I - Paper I: General Ability Test (Part-D)

121. Consider the following statements relating to Jain literature:

1. The sacred books of the Jainas are known as Siddhanta or Agama.
2. The language of the earliest Jain texts is eastern dialect of Pali known as Ardha Magadhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

122. Which one among the following was a newspaper founded and edited by Raja Rammohan Roy ?

(a) The Calcutta Gazette
(b) Mirat-ul Akhbar
(c) Harijan
(d) The Bharat Mihir

123. Which one among the following is not produced by sound waves in air?

(a) Polarization
(b) Diffraction
(c) Reflection
(d) Refraction

124. A body attached to a spring balance weighs 10 kg on the Earth. The body attached to the same spring balance is taken to a planet where gravity is half that of the Earth. The balance will read

(a) 20 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 5 kg
(d) 2.5 kg

125. The resistance of a wire is 10W. If it is stretched ten times, the resistance will be

(a) 1 W
(b) 10 W
(c) 100 W
(d) 1000 W

126. If the focal length of the biconvex lens is 25 cm, then the power of the lens will be

(a) + 4 dioptre
(b) – 4 dioptre
(c) + 0.04 dioptre
(d) – 0.04 dioptre

127. A compound slab is composed of two paralled layers of different materials, with thickness 3 cm and 2 cm. The temperatures of the outer faces of the compound slab are maintained at 100°C and 0°C. If conductivities are 0.36 and 0.16 then the temperature of the Junction is:

(a) 40° C
(b) 60° C
(c) 100° C
(d) 50° C

128. The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic field is large when the

(a) number of turns is large
(b) number of turns is less
(c) plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field
(d) area of the coil is small

129. Two metallic wires A and B are of same material and have equal length. If the cross-sectional area of B is double that of A, then which one among the following is the electrical resistance of B ?

(a) Twice that of A
(b) 4 times that of A
(c) that of A
(d) that of A

130. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25cm are placed in contact. The effection power of the combination is:

(a) 45 dioptres
(b) 9 dioptres
(c) dioptres
(d) 6 dioptres

131. The Damuda series of Gondwana system has three stages, namely, Raniganj, Barren’ Rocks and Barakar. The middle stage is called Barren because

(a) it consists of coal and not iron
(b) it consists of iron and not coal
(c) it consists of neither coal nor iron
(d) it is a sedimentary layer consisting of shale and clay

132. The cyclonic storm occurring over the Caribbean Sea is known as

(a) Typhoon
(b) Willy-Willy
(c) Hurricane
(d) Cyclone

133. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
            List- I                                                         List- II
        (Mountain pass)                                            (State)
        (a) Zoji La                                                1. Himachal Pradesh
        (b) Lipulekh                                              2. Sikkim
        (c) Shipki La                                             3. Utturakhand.
        (d) Nathu La                                             4. Jammu and Kashmir

Code :

        A     B     C     D
(a)     2     1      3     4
(b)     2     3      1     4
(c)     4     1      3     2
(d)     4     3      1     2

134. Where do you find the Isle of Youth?

(a) Near Cuba
(b) Near Bahamas
(c) Near Jamaica
(d) Near Saint Lucia

135. For which among the following house appliances, magnet is an essential part?

(a) Calling bell
(b) Fan
(c) Washing machine
(d) All of the above

136. Consider the following statements :

Hypermetropia is a defect of vision in which

1. a person cannot see the distant objects clearly
2. a person cannot see the near objects clearly
3. the near point of the eye gets shifted away from the normal position
4. the far point of the eye gets shifted towards the eye

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

137. To obtain the powerful parallel beams of light from a vehicle’s headlight, one must use

(a) front surface silvered plane mirror
(b) back surface silvered plane mirror
(c) concave mirror
(d) convex mirror

138. Which one among the following is the major constituent of soda lime glass ?

(a) Sodium oxide
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Silica

139. Which among the following about Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement are correct?

1. Refusal to attend Government Durbars and official functions
2. Participation in elections
3. Participation in rallies for the boycott of foreign goods
4. Surrender of titles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only

140. Gandhiji’s call for breaking Salt Laws was in response to the

(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Khilafat Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

141. The Suez Canal, the Strait of Hormuz and the Strait of Gibraltar are important because they

(a) prevent attacks on bordering nations
(b) prohibit the movement of ships carrying nuclear weapons
(c) unite Russian access to warm water points
(d) control access to vital trade routes

142. Which one among the following is the largest exporter of small arms in the world?

(a) Russia
(b) The United States
(c) China
(d) France

143. Which among the following islands in the South China Sea are the source of conflict between’ several countries?

(a) Marshall Islands
(b) Solomon Islands
(c) Kuril Islands
(d) Spratly Islands

144. In recent past, the Indian Navy has deployed its fleet ships to patrol near the Gulf of Aden to

(a) show off its naval might to neighbouring countries
(b) indicate dominant intentions in the Indian Ocean region
(c) carry out anti-piracy role
(d) exercise operational readiness in international water

145. The only operational Naval Base exclusively controlled by the Indian Navy is located at

(a) Puducherry
(b) Okha
(c) Karwar
(d) Kakinada

146. Who among the following led India to their first overseas test victory in cricket?

(a) C.K. Nayadu
(b) M.A.K. Pataudi
(c) Sunil Gavaskar
(d) Bishen Singh Bedi

147. Who among the following was conferred the highest Bangladesh awards the Bangladesli Swadhinata Sammanona in the year 2011?

(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Jyoti Basil
(d) Satyajit Ray

148. Dhanush, a missile inducted into the Indian Navy

(a) is a customized and, naval variant of Prithvi missile
(b) has a range of 700 km
(c) can be launched from an aircraft
(d) cannot carry nuclear warheads

149. India commissioned its first indigenously built stealth warship INS Shivalik and inducted into the Indian Navy recently, thus joining the elite group of countries capable of constructing such vessels. Which among the following other countries are in the elite group ?

1. Russia
2. The United States
3. Germany
4. The United Kingdom

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

150. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The Indian Army is organized into five Regional Commands.
2. The Headquarters of Northern Command is located at Lucknow.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER

121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (b)
131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (d) 134. (a) 135. (d) 136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (b)
141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (d)

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NDA/NA Exam Solved Papers - 2012- I - Paper I: General Ability Test (Part-C)

81. A glass of water does not turn into ice as it reaches 0°c. It is because

(a) water does not solidify at 0°C
(b) a certain amount of heat must be supplied to the glass of water so as to solidify
(c) a certain amount of heat must be taken out from the glass of water so as to solidify
(d) water solidifies at 0 K only

82. The main power supply in India is at 220 V, whereas that in the US is at 110 V. Which one among the following statements in this regard is correct?

(a) A 110 V is safer but more expensive to maintain
(b) 110 V is safer and cheaper to maintain
(c) 110 V leads to lower power loss
(d) 110 V works better at higher latitudes

83. The equatorial rain forest is also known as
(a) Savanna
(b) Campos
(c) Selvas
(d) Lanose

84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

        List-I                                                     List-II
        (Port)                                                (Special feature)
    (a) Kandla                                         1. Deepest land locked protected port
    (b) Kochi                                           2. Located at mouth of lagoon
    (c) Vishakha-patnam                          3. Tidal port
    (d) Kolkata                                        4. Inland riverine port

Code :

       A     B     C     D
(a)    3     1     2      4
(b)    3     2     1      4
(c)    4     1     2      3
(d)    4     2     1      3

85. The Earth’s surface receives maximum energy at 12 noon but the maximum temperature never occurs at 12 noon. State which of the following reasons are correct.

1. Transformation of solar energy into heat requires some time.
2. The loss of energy through long-wave radiations from the Earth’s surface exceeds the energy received from the Sun at 4:00 p.m.
3. Energy received by the Earth from solar radiations continues to exceed the energy lost by outgoing long-wave radiations from the Earth’s surface up to 4:00 pm.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

86. Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without breaking. This flexibility in certain parts, like leaf and stem, can be attributed to the abundance of

(a) parenchyma
(b) collenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma
(d) xylem and phloem

87. Which of the following is not a micronutrient for a plant?

(a) Iron
(b) Magnesium
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Manganese

88. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Ligaments are highly flexible.
2. Ligaments connect muscles and bones,
3. Ligaments contain very little matrix.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

89. Cell membrane is selectively permeable because

(a) it is made up of selected organic molecules
(b) it does not allow transport of some substances from region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration
(c) the movement of organic molecules occurs only at specific concentration
(d) it allows the movement of certain molecules in and out of the cell while the movement of other molecules is prevented

90. The following equation is an example of a redox reaction, in which CI₂ is the oxidising agent and FeBr₃ is the reducing agent:
2FeBr₃(aq) + 3CI₂ (g) = 2FeCl₃ (aq) + 3Br₂(l)
Which one among the following statements is incorrect for this redox reaction?

(a) Oxidizing agents are themselves reduced
(b) Reducing agents gain or appear to gain electrons
(c) Reducing agents are themselves oxidized
(d) Oxidizing agents oxidize other substances.

91. Which one among the following nitrogen compounds has the least percentage of nitrogen by mass?

(a) (NH₄)₃ PO₄
(b) NH₃
(c) NH₄OH
(d) NH₄NO₃

92. Which one among the following is. the correct order of amount of lime (CaO), silica (SiO₂), alumina (Al₂O₃) and ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃) in Portland cement?

(a) CaO > SiO₂ > Al₂O₃ > Fe₂O₃
(b) SiO₂ > CaO > Fe₂O₃ > Al₂O₃
(c) Al₂O₃ > SiO₂ > CaO > Fe₂O₃
(d) Fe₂O₃ > Al₂O₃ > SiO₂ > CaO

93. Which one among the following transitions of electron of hydrogen atom emits radiation of the shortest wavelength?

(a) n = 2 to n = 1
(b) n = 3 to n = 2
(c) n = 4 to n = 3
(d) n = 5 to n = 4

94. Which one among the following is the most appropriate statement with respect to the atomic weight of an element?

(a) The atomic weight of an element is the sum total of the number of protons and neutrons present in the atom of the element
(b) Unlike mass number, the atomic weight of an element can be a fraction
(c) The atomic weight of an element is a whole number
(d) The atomic weight of all the atoms in an element is the same

95. During the discussion on the Demands for Grants, motions can be moved to reduce the amount of a demand. Such a motion is called a ‘cut-motion’. Which of the following categories are classified as ‘cut-motion’?

1. Disapproval of policy cut
2. Economy cut
3. Token cut

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Code :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 onl

96. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The Speaker immediately vacates his/her office whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved.
2. No Member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be liable to any proceeding in any court in respect of ‘anything said or any vote given by him/her in the       legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals of 1942 :

1. Provision was to be made for participation of Indian States in the Constitution-making body.
2. British Government undertook to accept and implement the Constitution.
3. All provinces of British India were to give an undertaking about the acceptance of the Constitution.
4. In the ongoing World War, no resources of British India would be used.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Code :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

98. Which one among the following was not one of the causes of the Third Anglo-Maratha War ?

(a) The Maratha Chiefs, particularly the Peshwa desired to throw off the restrictions imposed on them by the treaties with the English.
(b) The determination of the English to give a finishing blow to the Maratha power
(c) The Pindari designs to seek support from the Marathas to drive the English away from India
(d) The attack of Peshwa Baji Rao on the residency at Khirki

99. William Bentinck attempted to reform Hindu society by suppressing/abolishing social evils. Which one among the following was not included in them?

(a) Sati
(b) Infanticide
(c) Thugi
(d) Slavery

100. Karam is a festival celebrated to worship Karam Devta, the God of power. Which one among the following tribal communities in India traditionally celebrates this festival?

(a) Santhals
(b) Karbi
(c) Meenas
(d) Bhils

101. The terra-cotta ‘plough of the Harappan civilization was found at

(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Banawali
(c) Kalibangan
(d) Lothal

102. Which one among the following works of Mahatma Gandhi provides a critique of modern machine-oriented civilization?

(a) The Story of My Experiments with Truth
(b) Hind Swaraj
(c) Constructive Programme
(d) Anasakti Yoga (Commentary on ‘Gita’)

103. An object is in uniform circular motion on a plane, Suppose that you measure its displacement from the centre along one direction, say, along the x-axis. Which one among the following graphs could represent this displacement (x)?

104. The penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by

(a) increasing the current in the filament
(b) decreasing the potential difference between the cathode and the anode
(c) decreasing the current in the filament
(d) increasing the potential difference between the cathode and the anode

105.

the latent heat of the substance?The graph given above indicates change in temperature (q) when heat (Q) was given to a substance. Which among the following parts of the graph correctly depict

(a) AB and BC
(b) BC and DE
(c) CD and DE
(d) DE and AB

106. When a solid object is immersed in water, there is a loss in its weight. This loss is

(a) equal to the weight of the water displaced
(b) less than the weight of the water displaced
(c) greater than the weight of the water displaced
(d) not related to the weight of the water displaced

107. Body A of mass 2 kg and another body B of mass 4 kg and of same material are kept in the same sunshine for some interval of time. If the rise in temperature is equal for both the bodies, then which one among the following in this regard is correct?

(a) Heat absorbed by B is double because its mass is double
(b) Heat absorbed by A is double because its mass is half
(c) Heat absorbed by both A and B is equal because the quantity of heat absorbed does not depend upon mass
(d) Heat absorbed by B is four times than the heat absorbed by A because the quantity of heat absorbed is proportional to square of the mass

108. For a steel boat floating on a lake, the weight of the water displaced by the boat is

(a) less than the weight of the boat
(b) more than the weight of the boat
(c) equal to the weight of the part of the boat which is below the water level of the lake
(d) equal to the weight of the boat

109. Consider the following coal mines of India:

1. Bokaro 2. Adilabad
3. Raniganj 4. Bishrampur

Select the correct sequence of the above from east to west.

(a) 1-3-4 -2
(b) 3 -1-4 -2
(c) 3 -1-2-4
(d) 1-3 -2-4

110. Which one among the following agricultural crops/groups of crops may be grown in abundant in lowlands and river deltas of fertile alluvial soil where there is high summer temperature and rainfall varies from 180 cm to 250 cm?

(a) Wheat and sugarcane
(b) Cotton
(c) Maize and coarse crops
(d) Rice, jute and tea

111. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the correct order of sequence based on area covered in India beginning from the largest covered area:

1. Moist deciduous
2. Dry deciduous
3. Wet evergreen
4. Semi-evergreen

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
(b) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1
(c) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4
(d) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1

112. Which one among the following is the major reason for low agricultural productivity in dry regions of India?

(a) Constraints of financial resources
(b) Rural indebtedness
(c) Dependence on erratic monsoon
(d) Small size of landholdings

113. Which one among the following groups is referred to as types of precipitation?

(a) Fog, Dew and Rain
(b) Air, Water and Soil
(c) Fog, Water and Rain
(d) Dew, Soil and Rain
114. Which one among the following is the most important source of fish catch in India?

(a) Deep-sea fisheries
(b) Coastal fisheries
(c) Inland natural fisheries
(d) Inland cultural fisheries

115. In which one among the following areas of South-East Asia, there is largest concentration of peasant population?

(a) Areas of intensive shifting cultivation
(b) Highland areas where the climate is cooler and healthier
(c) Cleared lowlands in forest areas
(d) Areas where the grain farming is practised

116. The largest number of temperate cyclones originate mostly over the

(a) Indian Ocean
(b) North Atlantic Ocean
(c) North Pacific Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean

117. Which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a) More than 50% of world’s animal species are found in tropical rain forest
(b) One-third of land surface is arid or semi-arid
(c) Floating plants (phytoplankton) in the ocean produce over half the world’s oxygen
(d) World’s important deserts are located across the equator

118. Which one among the following statements regarding Chinook winds is not correct?

(a) They rise from the Pacific Ocean
(b) After crossing the Rockies, they descend to the east of the mountains
(c) They bring rainfall in the Prairies
(d) These winds are beneficial to wheat cultivation

119. Consider the following statements relating to planning in India:

1. In the year 1938, the National Planning Committee was set up in India under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. The Bombay Plan was prepared by the Indian industrialists.
3. Acharya Kripalani prepared the Gandhian Plan.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

120. Which one among the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935 is not correct?

(a) Provincial Autonomy carne into existence
(b) Bicameral legislatures were provided in six provinces
(c) The principles of communal electorates and weight ages were further extended.
(d) The States were compelled to enter the Federation

ANSWER

81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (a)
101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (d) 105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (d)
111. (a) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (d)

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NDA/NA Exam Solved Papers - 2012- I - Paper I: General Ability Test (Part-B)

Comprehension

Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage.

Passage-I

Even in the most primitive societies, the great majority of people satisfy a large part of their material needs by exchanging goods and services. Very few people indeed can make for themselves everything they need all their food, their clothes, their housing, their tools. Ever since men started living in communities, they have been satisfying their needs by means of specialization and exchange; increasingly each individual has concentrated on what he can do best, and has produced more of the special goods or services in which he has concentrated, than he can consume himself. The surplus he has exchanged with other members of the community, acquiring, in exchange the things he needs that others have produced.

41. According to the passage, the great majority of people can satisfy their needs today by

(a) providing things for themselves
(b) exchanging goods and services
(c) concentrating on what they can do best
(d) individual specialization

42. Exchange of goods becomes possible only when

(a) there is no specialization
(b) goods are produced in surplus
(c) primitive societies become modern
(d) individuals make things for themselves

43. Specialization and exchange began when men started

(a) big industries
(b) concentrating on their work
(c) producing things for individual use
(d) living in communities

44. Exchange of goods and services becomes necessary because

(a) man is a social being
(b) reciprocity is the law of life
(c) trade and commerce are means of progress
(d) we cannot produce everything we need ourselves

Passage-II

What interests many people is the possibility of finding an Earth-like planet, and many science fiction stories have been woven around the possibility of there existing a planet somewhere in the universe which is an exact replica of the Earth. There are too many variable quantities for this to be a possibility worth considering. What is possible, if planetary systems are common as they seem to be, is the existence of planets where the conditions are similar to conditions on the Earth and to which our form of life could rapidly adapt. If life had gained a foothold on such a planet, it is possible that life closely paralleling our own planet could have developed.
What sort of conditions are necessary for life as we know it to develop? First of all of course a suitable planetary body essential. Given this, then two vital conditions must be satisfied. The temperature must be neither too hot nor too cold, since intense heat breaks down organic molecules and severe cold prevents activity from going on. Too much short-wave radiation also upsets living organisms. The other prerequisite is a suitable atmosphere sufficiently dense to give protection from radiation and meteorites and containing oxygen and water vapour in reasonable quantities.

45. This passage suggests that there

(a) cannot be another planet like the Earth
(b) are other planets like the Earth mentioned only in stories
(c) may be other planets like the Earth in this universe
(d) is a planet which is exactly like the Earth

46. The hypothesis about the possibility of planets parallel to the Earth gets its strength from the fact that

(a) the scientists have discovered them
(b) books have been written about them
(c) the planetary system exists
(d) many people have shown interest in it

47. The statement, “If life had gained a foothold on such a planet” means that

(a) if there is life on the planet, it would be like ours
(b) if we go there, we can develop it like this Earth
(c) even if we try, we cannot go and live there
(d) it is impossible for life to develop there

Passage-III

“The doctor’s coming in a minute, Inspector”, said Miss Smith.
“Yes, thank you for phoning, Miss Smith. It was very kind of you ...... the lady’s name is Mrs. West, you say,......”
“Yes, that’s right.”
“And what about Mr. West?”
“Doctor West, Inspector.”
“Oh, I see Well, Doctor West; then. Do you know where he is?”
“Not exactly. Inspector. He never told Mrs. West where he was going. You see, they hated each other.”
“What do you mean?”
“Well. Doctor West thought that Mrs. West was in love with another mail, and everyone knows Doctor West went to see another woman.”

48. The conversation appears to be taking place

(a) in a street where an accident has just occurred
(b) in a hotel where Mrs. West suddenly became ill
(c) in Mrs. West’s house where the police are enquiring into lady’s murder
(d) in Mrs. West’s house where a theft has taken place the night before
49. The questions the Inspector asks are

(a) inquisitive
(b) foolish
(c) disturbing
(d) searching

50. “You see, they hated each other.” “What do you mean?”
The Inspector seems

(a) to know Doctor West’s secret
(b) surprised to get the information
(c) not to have understood Miss Smith
(d) not impressed by Miss Smith’s information

Part B : General Knowledge

Directions (Qs. 51 to 59) : The following nine (09) items consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to’ examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

51. Statement I. In the year 1946, the Council of the Muslim League accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Statement II. The Muslim League proposed to join the Interim Government.

52. Statement I. The blue colour of copper sulphate crystal disappears when it is heated strongly.
Statement II. Due to heating, water of crystalization of crystal is lost.

53. Statement I. After cutting an apple or a banana, the colour of the cut surface becomes brown.
Statement II. Polyphenolic compounds present in fruits get oxidized in air and show colour.

54. Statement I. At high temperature. hyd- rogen can reduce PbO to elemental lead.
Statement II. Hydrogen has great affinity to oxygen.

55. Statement I. Conversion of blue copper sulphate to black cupric oxide on heating is a physical change.
Statement II. A change in which chemical composition does not change is called physical change.

56. Statement I. Water is a high boiling point liquid.
Statement II. Hydrogen bonding in water is responsible for high boiling point of water.

57. Statement I. Convex mirror is used as a driver mirror.
Statement II. Images formed by convex mirror are diminished in size.

58. Statement I. A thermos flask is made of double-walled glass bottles.
Statement II. Metals are good conductors while gas and air are poor conductors of heat.

59. Statement I. Bats can catch their prey in the darkness of night.
Statement II. Bats can produce and also detect ultrasound.

60. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on

(a) 90° E meridian
(b) 82Emeridian
(c) 75° E meridian
(d) 0° meridian

61. Collision-coalescence process of precipitation is applicable to

(a) those clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
(b) those clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
(c) all types of clouds
(d) cumulonimbus clouds

62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:\

63. Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants?

(a) Manganese
(b) Potassium
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Calcium

64. Balanced diet. should have approximately

(a) 1/5 protein, 3/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate
(b) 3/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 1/5 carbohydrate
(c) 1/5 protein, 1/5 fat and 3/5 carbohydrate
(d) 1/2 protein, 1/4 fat and 1/4 carbohydrate

65. Which one among the following statements is correct?

(a) All arteries Carry oxygenated blood
(b) All veins carry oxygenated blood
(c) Except the pulmonary artery, all other arteries carry oxygenated blood
(d) Except the pulmonary vein. all other veins carry oxygenated blood

66. What are the cold-blooded animals?

(a) Animals with blood without hemoglobin
(b) Animals who are not ferocious
(c) Animals whose body temperature remains constant
(d) Animals whose body temperature varies according to the temperature of atmosphere

67. Sickle-cell anaemia is a disease caused due to the abnormality in

(a) white blood cells
(b) red blood cells
(c) thrombocytes
(d) blood plasma composition

68. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in the form of

(a) cellulose and glucose respectively
(b) starch and glycogen respectively
(c) starch and glucose respectively
(d) cellulose and glycogen respectively

69. Which of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction are correct?

1. In oxidation, loss of electron takes place whereas in reduction, gain of electron takes place.
2. In oxidation, gain of electron takes place whereas in reduction, loss of electron takes place.
3. Oxidizing agent decreases the oxidation number but reducing agent increases the oxidation number.
4. Oxidizing agent increases the oxidation number but reducing agent reduces the oxidation number.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

70. Which one among the following is correct regarding 20Ne, 23Na+, 19F–, and 24Mg₂+?

(a) They are isomers of each other
(b) They are isotopes of each other
(c) They are isoelectronic with each other
(d) All of the above

71. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Isotopes : Atoms with same atomic number but different atomic mass
2. Isobars : Atoms with same number of neutrons but different atomic number
3. Isotones : Atoms with same mass number but different atomic number

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 only

72. Sometimes, indigestion is caused by the secretion of too much hydrochloric acid in the stomach. To ease the pain caused, a tablet can be taken that reacts to reduce the amount of acid present. Which one among the following would be inappropriate for a manufacturer to include as a major reactant in the tablet?

(a) CaCO₃
(b) MgCO₃
(c) NaOH
(d) Mg(OH)₂

73. Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s experiment of introducing token currency could not succeed on account of

(a) rejection of token coins by foreign merchants
(b) shortage of copper for minting token coins
(c) large-scale minting of spurious coins
(d) poor quality of token currency

74. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects ill the State List if the

(a) President issues an order authorizing it to do so
(b) Supreme Court gives authority it the Parliament in this regard
(c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its members present and voting, declaring it expedient to legislate on a State matter in the national interest
(d) Prime Minister issues a special order

75. The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court to

(a) an inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case
(b) an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review
(c) an officer to show his/her right to hold a particular office
(d) a public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours

76. Schemes run under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are sponsored

(a) by the Central Government alone
(b) partly by the Central Government and partly by the State Government
(c) by Centre, State and Panchayat bodies together
(d) on public-private partnership basis

77. The World Bank was created immediately after the Second World War. Its activities are focused on the developing countries. Which among the following are the activities or the Bank’?

1. Human development
2. Agriculture and rural development
3. Environmental protection and governance
4. Loans and grants to the member countries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

78. A refracting telescope consists of

(a) one concave mirror and one convex lens
(b) two convex lenses of equal focal length
(c) two concave mirrors of different focal lengths
(d) two convex lenses of unequal focal lengths

79. The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom contains

(a) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
(b) 5 protons and 6 nutrons
(c) 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
(d) 12 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons

80. Two similarly charged bodies are kept 5 cm apart in air. If the second body is shifted away from the first by another 5 cm, their force of repulsion will be

(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) quadrupled
(d) reduced to one-fourth

ANSWER

41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (d)

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