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(Download) CAPF (AC) Exam, 2016 Paper "General Ability and Intelligence"

(Download) CAPF (AC) Exam, 2016 Paper "General Ability and Intelligence"

Exam Name: CAPF (AC)

Year: 2016

Subject: General Ability and Intelligence

1. Which one of the following figures correctly represents the relations between Jupiter, Mars and Planets?

2. Consider the following. statements and conclusions.

Statements: Mohan is a good sportsman. Sportsmen are healthy.

Conclusions

I. All healthy persons are sportsmen.
II. Mohan is healthy.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

3. Which one of the following layers of atmosphere has high concentration of ions'?

(a) Stratosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Thermosphere
(d) Troposphere

4. Which one of the following cities has greater annual range of temperature?

(a) Kuala Lumpur
(b) New Delhi
(c) Shanghai
(d) Ulaanbaatar

5. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List I (Climate type in letter code) List II (Major area)

A. Aw 1. Central California
B. Af 2. India Sub-continent
C. Cs 3. North and South of
D. Am Amazon Forests 4. Western Equatorial Africa

Code

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3

6. Ramsar Convention, to which India is a signatory, is related to conservation and wise use of

(a) wetlands
(b) genetic resources
(c) mines
(d) forest lands

7. Which one of the following rivers flows between Satpura and Vindhya ranges?

(a) Tapi
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Narmada
(d) Mahi

8. Which one of the following is the correct taxonomic hierarchy?

(a) Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Genus-Family-Class Species
(b) Kingdom-Order-Class-Phylum-Family-Genus Species
(c) Kingdom-Class-Order-Phylum-Family-Species Genus
(d) Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus Species

9. The subunits of DNA are known as

(a) Nucleotide
(b) Nucleosome
(c) Nucleoside
(d) Polypeptide

10. The process of using microbes to treat areas of land or sea that have been contaminated by pesticides, oil or solvents is known is

(a) Eutrophication
(b) Nitrification
(c) Ammonification
(d) Bioremediation

11. How is the rate transpiration affected by decreasing humidity and by decreasing light intensity?

Decreasing humidity    Decreasing light intensity

(a) Decreases Decreases
(b) Increases Decreases
(c) Increases Increases
(d) Decreases Increases

12. Vaccination involves

(a) Injecting the body with materials that simulate the body to produce antibodies
(b) injecting the body with materials that stimulate the body to produce antigens
(c) the use of monoclonal antibodies to cure a disease
(d) use of antibiotics to cure diseases

13. Which of the following are examples of carnivorous plants?

(a) Sundew, Venus fly trap, Pitcher plant
(b) Cuscuta, Rafflesia, Mistletoe
(c) Sandalwood, tree Broom rape, Pitcher plant
(d) Cuscuta, Bladderwort, Mistletoe

14. Consider the following

Which one of the following figure will come in the blank space?

15. Consider the following

There are seven places marked as P, Q, R, S, T, U and V as shown in the diagram. The directly connected paths between two places are indicated by line segments joining the two places alongwith the length labelled (in km). Then, the shortest distance between P and U is

(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 13

16. The number of persons reading newspaper is shown in the following Venn diagram (Survey of 50 persons)s.

In a population of 10000, what is the number of the person expected to read at least two newspaper?

(a) 5000
(b) 6000
(c) 6250
(d) 5400

17. A vehicle with mileage 15 km/L contains 2 L of fuel.The vehicle gets some defect as a result of which 5 L of fuel gets wasted per hour, when the engine is on. With what minimum speed, the vehicle has to move to travel 20 km with the existing amount of fuel, if it travels with a uniform speed?

(a) 100 km/h
(b) 120 km/h
(c) 150 km/h
(d) 200 km/h

18. Consider the following statements relating to Sea Salinity.

1. The ocean salinity depends on evaporation and precipitation.
2. Any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity.
3. Major source of sea salinity of terrestrial discharge by rivers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Consider the following statements relating to salt production in India.

1. India is the second largest producer of iodised salt in the world next only to China.
2. Salt mining is carried out in Himachal Pradesh.
3. Gujarat is the leading producer of salt in India.
4. Ground water is the important source of salt in Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

20. Which of the following statements relating to Dharwar geological system are correct?

1. They belong to Archaean geological period.
2. They re metamorphosed sedimentary rocks.
3. They are of great economic importance for its mineral resources.
4. They are found predominantly in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Jharkhand.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

21. Which one of the following is the correct order of formation of geological system in India in terms of their age? (Starting with the oldest)

(a) Dharwars - Aravallis - Vindhyans - Cuddapah
(b) Aravallis - Dharwars - Cuddapah - Vindhyans
(c) Vindhyans - Dharwars - Aravallis - Cuddapah
(d) Cuddapah - Vindhyans - Dharwars - Aravallis

22. A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state is called

(a) Fusion
(b) Sublimation
(c) Diffusion
(d) Emulsion

23. Water at 273 K is less effective in cooling than ice at the same temperature. It is because

(a) water is difficult to handle
(b) water at 273 K has less energy than ice at the same temperature
(c) water at 273 K has more energy than ice at the same temperature
(d) water is not a cooling agent

24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The rate of evaporation depends on temperature
(b) The rate of evaporation does not depend on surface area exposed to the atmosphere but on volume of the liquid
(c) The rate of evaporation depends on humidity of the surroundings
(d) The rate of evaporation depends on the wind speed

25. Which one of the following is not a colloid?

(a) Milk
(b) Mud
(c) Butter
(d) Boric acid

26. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List I List II
(Isotope) (Application)

(a) Carbon 1. Treatment of goitre
(b) Cobalt 2. Calculation of age of the earth
(c) Iodine 3. Treatment of cancer
(d) Uranium 4. Fuel in nuclear reactors

Code

A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 3 1 2

27. A device can write 100 digits in 1 min. It starts writing natural numbers. The device is stopped after running it for half an hour. It is found that the last number it was writing, is incomplete. The number is

(a) 3000
(b) 3001
(c) 1026
(d) 1027

28. A circular coil of radius 1 cm is allowed to roll freely on the periphery over a circular disc of radius 10 cm.If the disc has no movement and the coin completes one revolution rolling on the periphery over the disc and without slipping, then what is the number of times the coin rotated about its centre?

(a) 10
(b) 10.5
(c) 11
(d) 12

29. Which one of the following is different from the remaining three?

(a) Triangle
(b) Square
(c) Circle
(d) Ellipse

30. Which one of the following inequalities is always true for positive real number x, y?

(a) xy > x + y
(b) (x + y) < (x + y)2
(c) x + y < x2 + y2
(d) 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)2 31.

31. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Kolkata port is the only riverine major port of India.
2. The port of Cochin is located one Willington Island.
3. Maharashtra has three major ports.
4. Mundra port is India’s major port in private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

32. Perth located on 118° East longitude, will be celebrating new year event on 1st of January 2017 at 6:00 am. At that time, what would e the time at Los Angeles located on 110° West longitude?

(a) 9 : 12 pm of January 1, 2017
(b) 2 : 48 pm of December 31, 2016
(c) 11 : 40 pm of December 31, 2016
(d) 5 : 28 am of January 1, 2017

33. Which one of the following States has the maximum number of registered e-waste recyclers/ dismantlers?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttar Pradesh

34. Arrange the following substances in their order of increasing hardness.

1. Gypsum
2. Topaz
3. Fluorite
4. Feldspar

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 4-3-2-1
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 1-4-3-2

35. During 2014-15, in which one of the following industrial sectors, the FDI equity inflow was maximum?

(a) Telecommunications
(b) Services (Financial, Banking and Insurance, Nonfinancial/Business, R and D etc.)
(c) Drugs and Pharmaceuticals
(d) Hotel and Tourism

36. Which one of the following is not an industrial corridor as per the policy initiatives?

(a) Amritsar - Kolkata
(b) Delhi - Mumbai
(c) Kolkata - Guwahati
(d) Chennai - Bengaluru

37. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Bleaching powder is prepared by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2]
(b) Bleaching powder acts as a reducing agent in many chemical industries
(c) Bleaching powder is also known as chlorinated lime
(d) Bleaching powder is used for disinfecting drinking water

38. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Graphite is a non-metal
(b) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon
(c) Graphite is a conductor of electricity
(d) Graphite has a tetrahedral structure

39. Consider the following physical quantities. Energy, power, pressure, impulse, temperature, gravitational potential Which of the above is/are the vector quantity/quantities?

(a) Impulse only
(b) Impulse and pressure
(c) Impulse, temperature and pressure
(d) Gravitational potential

40. A piece of stone tied to a string is make to revolve in a circular orbit of radius r with other end ofthe string as teh centre. If the string breaks, the stone will

(a) move away from the centre
(b) move towards the centre
(c) move along a tangent
(d) strop

41. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a) The gravitational force of Earth acting on a body of mass 1 kg is 9.8 Newton
(b) The force acting on an object of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s on a frictionless surface is zero
(c) The SI unit of weight is kg
(d) The momentum of a man having mass 100 kg walking with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s is 200 newton second

42. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Acceleration due to gravity decreases with the increase of attitude
(b) Acceleration due to gravity increases with the increase of depth (assumption Earth to be a sphere of uniform density)
(c) Acceleration due to gravity decreases with the increase of latitude
(d) Acceleration due to to gravity is independent of the mass of the Earth

43. A Barometer kept in an elevator reads 760 mm when the elevator is at rest. When the elevator moves is the upward direction with increasing speed, the reading of the Barometer will be

(a) 760 mm
(b) < 760 mm
(c) < 760 mm
(d) zero

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field is due to the motion of metals like iron and nickel in the core of the Earth
(b) The magnetic field lines of force are widely separated near the poles of a magnet but these lines come closer to one another at other places
(c) If the cross-sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same, the flux density decreases
(d) The magnetic lines of force come closer to one another near the poles of a magnet but they are widely separated at other places.

45. Let a resistor having 4 ohm resistance be connected across the terminals of a 12 volt battery. Then, the charge in coulomb passing through the resistor per second is

(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 0.33

46. Arrange the following varieties of silk in India in their order of decreasing production.

1. Munga
2. Eri
3. Mulberry
4. Taser

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3-2-4-1
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 2-4-1-3
(d) 2-1-4-3

47. Which of the following are the objectives of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission?

1. To provide employment in rural areas.
2. To produce saleable articles.
3. To create self reliance amongst people and building up a strong rural community spirit.

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3

48. Which of the following statements concerning circum pacific belt are correct?

1. It is an active volcanic realm.
2. It is an active seismic realm.
3. It is a divergent plate boundary.
4. It is prone to Tsunami.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) All of these

49. Which of the following statements relating to solar system is/are correct?

1. Venus and Uranus rotate opposite to the direction of rotation of Earth.
2. Venus is the nearest planet to Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. If a place is affected by Tide at 6:00 am Monday,normally at what time the same place will be affected by Ebb?

(a) 6:26 pm Monday
(b) 6:52 am Tuesday
(c) 12:13 pm Monday
(d) 00:26 am Tuesday

51. In the diagram given below, there is a circle, a square and a triangle dividing the region into five disjoint bounded areas. Each of these areas are labelled with number of players belonging to that area. The circle contains cricketers, the square contains football players and the triangle contains hockey players.

Which one of the following is not correct?

(a) Every hockey player plays football
(b) Every cricket player plays either football or hockey
(c) There are some hockey players who play both cricket and football
(d) There are some football players who play neither cricket nor hockey

52. There are two concentric circles. The radii of the two circles are 100 m and 110 m respectively. A wheel of radius 30 cm rolls on the smaller circle and another wheel rolls on the larger circle. After they have completed one revolution, it is found that the two wheels rolled equal number of times on their respective axes. What is the radius of the other wheel?

(a) 31 cm
(b) 32 cm
(c) 33 cm
(d) 34 cm

53. A triangle is formed with vertices (0, 0), (0, 1OO) and (100,100). What is the number of points inside the triangle with integer coordinates?

(a) 5000
(b) 4999
(c) 4851
(d) 4800

54. Which one of the following is the wrong number in the series 6, 14, 30, 64, 126?

(a) 126
(b) 64
(c) 14
(d) 6

55. Given below is a figure of a square transparent sheet with a pattern

Which one the following is correct figure showing how the pattern would appear after folding the above mentioned transparent sheet at the dotted line?

56. In a school, there are three batches of players, who play cricket, football and hockey. An incomplete chart of number of students playing an individual sport belonging to an individual batch is displayed in the following table

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Batch II is empty
(b) Batch I and batch. II do not have equal number of students
(c) Batch I and' batch III can have equal number of students
(d) Batch II and batch III can have equal number of students

57. There are two boxes. Box I contains one white card and two black cards and box II contains one white card and a black card. Two persons P and Q playa game. P picks a card randomly from box 1. If P finds the white card, P wins and the game stops. If P finds the black card, Q draws a card randomly from box II. If Q finds the white card Q wins. The game. Stops whether Q draws the white card or the black card. Which one of the following is correct?

(a) If P loses, Q wins
(b) If Q loses, P wins
(c) Both P and Q may win
(d) Both P and Q may lose

58. Suppose R is the region bounded by the two curves Y = x2 and Y = 2x2-1 as shown in the following diagram

Two distinct lines are drawn such that each of these lines partitions the regions into at least two parts. If 'n' is the total number of regions generated by these lines, then

(a) 'n' can be 4 but not 3
(b) 'n' can be 4 but not 5
(c) 'n' can be 5 but not 6
(d) 'n' can be 6

59. Consider the following sequence: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210 Which one of the following numbers will come next in the sequence?

(a) 240
(b) 290
(c) 336
(d) 504

60. Consider the following figure.

Which one of the following is the number of triangles in the figure given above?

(a) 22
(b) 27
(c) 28
(d) 29

61. Recently French military announced to end 'Operation Sangaris' which was in operation since 2013, in which one of the following nations?

(a) Chand
(b) Central African Republic
(c) South Sudan
(d) Congo

62. Which one of the following cities hosted the Tenth Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organisation during December, 2015?

(a) Geneva
(b) Manila
(c) Helsinki
(d) Nairobi

63. Which one of the following films was awarded the best-children's film in Berlin International Film Festival, 2016?

(a) Ottal
(b) Killa
(c) Dhanak
(d) Hail, Caesar!

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केन्द्रीय सशस्त्र पुलिस बल (सहायक कमांडेंट) के लिये स्टडी किट (CAPF-HINDI)

Study Material for CAPF-AC Exam

(GIST OF YOJANA) नए समाज की बुनियाद पंचायती राज [August] -2018


(GIST OF YOJANA) नए समाज की बुनियाद पंचायती राज [August] -2018


नए समाज की बुनियाद पंचायती राज

देश में संविधान के 73वें संशोधन के जरिए लागू तीन स्तरीय पंचायती राज व्यवस्था अवसरों की समानता और सत्ता के विकेंद्रीकरण के महात्मा गांधी के सपने को अमली जामा पहनाने का ठोस प्रयास है। इसमें सामाजिक, आर्थिक और राजनीतिक समेत हर तरह के भेदभावों को मिटाने तथा विकास कार्यक्रमों को बनाने और उन पर अमल में सभी तबकों की भागीदारी सुनिश्चित करने के लिए समुचित प्रावधान किए गए हैं। लिहाजा यह व्यवस्था अनुसूचित जातियों, अनुसूचित जनजातियों महिलाओ और सा,समाज के हाशिए पर खड़े अन्य सभी समुदायों के सशक्तीकरण में काफी मददगार साबित हो रही हैं। लोकतंत्र को शासन का सबसे अच्छा स्वरूप इसलिए माना जाता है कि इसमें राजनीतिक फैसलों की प्रक्रिया में सभी नागरिक सीधे या परोक्ष तौर पर शामिल रहते हैं। लेकिन आजादी के समय भारतीय समाज जाति, धर्म, भाषा, क्षेत्र, 1 संस्कृति, परंपरा और रीति-रिवाज के आधार | पर बरी तरह बंटा हुआ था। समूची व्यवस्था को गिनती के रसूखदार लोगों ने अपनी मुट्ठी में कैद कर रखा था। शिक्षा, राजनीतिक चेतना और धन के अभाव में कमजोर तबकों के लोग सियासत से लगभग पूरी तरह अलग थे। इन तबकों में से जो कुछेक लोग अपने हकों के लिए सामने आते उन्हें ऊंची जातियों और संपन्न वर्गों के जुल्मों का सामना करना पड़ता था। हमारे नेताओं को मालूम था कि इस तरह के भेदभाव के माहौल में एक मजबूत देश का निर्माण नहीं किया जा सकता। एक जीवंत लोकतंत्र के लिए समाज में बदलाव जरूरी था और देश के संविधान को इस दिशा में पहला मजबूत कदम माना जा सकता है।

संविधान के खंड नौ को अनुसूचित नजाति इलाकों में लागू करने के लिए चायत (अनुसूचित क्षेत्रों में विस्तार) कानून से 1996 में लागू किया गया। इस कानून के ताबिक पांचवीं अनुसूची के अनुसूचित क्षेत्रों पंचायती राज संस्थाओं में 50 प्रतिशत सीटें अनुसूचित जनजातियों के लिए आरक्षित की गईं। इसमें व्यवस्था की गई कि तीनों स्तरों पर पंचायती राज संस्था का प्रमुख अनुसूचित जनजाति का होगा। इसके अलावा अनुसूचित क्षेत्रों में पंचायत के बारे में हर कानून स्थानीय समुदाय की परंपराओं, सामाजिक और धार्मिक प्रथाओं तथा पारंपरिक प्रबंधन प्रणालियों के अनुरूप बनाया जाएगा। | भारत अब भी गांवों का देश है जहां हर 10 में से सात नागरिक ग्रामीण इलाकों में ही रहते हैं। संविधान के 73वें संशोधन का ग्रामीण भारत में सकारात्मक असर साफ देखा जा सकता है। ज्यादातर राज्यों में पंचायत के चुनाव नियमित तौर पर हो रहे हैं जिनसे ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों के शक्ति संतुलन में बदलाव आया है। ढाई लाख से ज्यादा ग्राम पंचायतों, 6000 पंचायत समितियों और 500 जिला परिषदों के गठन से देश में लोकतांत्रिक विकेंद्रीकरण का विस्तार हुआ है।

भारतीय लोक प्रशासन संस्थान के 2013-14 के आंकड़ों के अनुसार हर पांच साल पर 31.5 लाख से ज्यादा जनप्रतिनिधि पंचायतों के स्तर पर चुने जा रहे हैं। इनमें से 13.5 लाख से अधिक महिलाएं तथा लगभग नौ लाख अनुसूचित जातियों और अनुसूचित जनजातियों के सदस्य हैं। पंचायतों में 43 प्रतिशत महिलाओं तथा 15 प्रतिशत अनुसूचित जातियों और 19-28 प्रतिशत अनुसूचित जनजातियों के प्रतिनिधियों के निर्वाचन को एक तरह से लोकतांत्रिक क्रांति ही माना जा सकता है।

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Current Public Administration Magazine (AUGUST 2018)


Sample Material of Current Public Administration Magazine


1. Social Administration

(GIST OF YOJANA) दिव्यांगजनों के सामाजिक सशक्तीकरण का सूत्र [August] -2018


(GIST OF YOJANA) दिव्यांगजनों के सामाजिक सशक्तीकरण का सूत्र [August] -2018


दिव्यांगजनों के सामाजिक सशक्तीकरण का सूत्र

दिव्यांग भारत के सबसे बड़े अल्पसंख्यक समूहों में से एक हैं। उन्हें लंबे समय से उपेक्षा, अभाव, अलगाव और बहिष्कार झेलना पड़ा है। भारत में दिव्यांग लोग अब भी उत्पीडित और हाशिए पर हैं और उन्हें बेहतर गुणवत्ता वाला जीवन और पूर्ण नागरिकता से जुड़े अवसर भी नहीं मुहैया कराए गए। दरअसल, उनको लेकर समाज का दकियानूसी और पूर्वग्रह भरा रवैया रहा है, जिसके तहत दिव्यांगों को हीन, अक्षम, अपर्याप्त और परिवारिक संसाधनों और समाज पर बोझ माना जाता है। 2011 की जनगणना के मुताबिक, भारत में दिव्यांगों की कुल संख्या 2 करोड़ 68 लाख 14 हजार हैं, जो कुल आबादी का 2.21 फीसदी हैं। दिव्यांगों में सबसे ज्यादा संख्या चलने-फिरने में लाचार लोगों (54.37 लाख) की है। इसके बाद सुनने में अक्षम (50.73 लाख) और नेत्रहीन लोगों (50.33 लाख) की संख्या है।

दिव्यांगों के सामाजिक सशक्तीकरण के लिए सरकारी पहल

दिव्यांगों के कल्याण और सशक्तीकरण के मकसद के तहत नीतिगत मुद्दों पर फोकस और गतिविधियों पर जोर देने की खातिर 12 मई 2012 को सामाजिक न्याय और अधिकारिता मंत्रालय से हटाकर अलग दिव्यांग सशक्तीकरण विभाग बनाया गया। इस विभाग का मुख्य मकसद सामाजिक सशक्तिरण समेत विभिन्न पहलुओं पर फिर से काम करना है।

दिव्यांगों को उपकरण खरीद फिटिंग के लिए सहायता

इस योजना के तहत पिछले तीन साल में (2014-2017) के दौरान मदद के तौर पर 43098 करोड़ रुपए के ग्राट का इस्तेमाल किया गया। इससे देशभर के 5,625 कैपों के जरिये दिव्यांग श्रेणी के 7.03 लाख लोगों को फायदा हुआ। पहली बार अंतरराष्ट्रीय दिव्यांग दिवस, 2014 के मौके पर एडीआईपी योजना के तहत कर्णावर्त तंत्रिका प्रत्यारोपण (कॉक्लीयर इंप्लांट) को शुरू किया गया और इसे देशभर के 172 अस्पतालों से जोड़ा गया। इस दौरान इस तरह की सर्जरी के तकरीबन 794 मामलों को अंजाम दिया गया (एडीआईपी के 667 और सीएसआर के तहत 127 मामलों को) और तमाम मामलों को ऑपरेशन के बाद पुनर्वास की प्रक्रिया में बढ़ाया जा रहा है। एडीआईपी योजना के तहत विभाग गंभीर अक्षमता के शिकार दिव्यागों को 37,000 रुपए की कीमत वाला मोटर से लैस ट्राईसाइकिल सब्सिडी के जरिये 25,000 रुपए में देता है। बाकी 12,000 रुपए का इंतजाम एमपी लैड/एमएलए फंड/ राज्य सरकार के सहयोग/खुद लाभार्थी) द्वारा किया जाता है। ऐसे में 3,639 लाभार्थियों को पिछले 3 साल में मोटरसाइकिल मिली। लिहाजा, ऐसी सहायता/उपकरणों से दिव्यांगों को ज्यादा स्वायत्तता और गतिशीलता हासिल करने में मदद मिलती है और इससे सामाजिक भागीदारी और समग्रता की राह बनती है।

मिशनरी अंदाज में तकनीक विकास परियोजनाएं

दिव्यांगों के लिए तकनीक के इस्तेमाल - के जरिये उपयुक्त और किफायती मदद और उपकरण मुहैया कराने, रोजगार के मौके बढ़ाने और समाज में उन्हें एकीकृत करने के मकसद से 1990-91 में इस योजना की शुरुआत की गई थी। इस योजना के तहत शोध और विकास से संबंधित उपयुक्त परियोजनाओं की पहचान की जाती है और मदद व उपकरण विकसित करने के लिए फंड मुहैया कराए जाते हैं। इस योजना | को आईआईटी, अन्य शैक्षणिक संस्थानों, शोध एजेंसियों और स्वैच्छिक संगठनों के जरिये लागू किया जाता है। इसके लिए। 100 फीसदी वित्तीय सहायता मुहैया कराई जाती है। चार तकनीक सलाहकार समूह परियोजनाओं के चयन की निगरानी करते हैं और अलग-अलग चरणों में इसकी प्रगति का भी जायजा लिया जाता है। संबंधित तकनीकी सलाहकार समूह द्वारा सिफारिश की गई। सभी परियोजनाओं को सामाजिक न्याय और अधिकारिता मंत्रालय के सचिव की अगुवाई वाली उच्चस्तरीय कमेटी के सामने पेश किया जाता है।

दिव्यांगों के लिए माध्यमिक स्तर पर समावेशी शिक्षा (आईईडीएसएस)

इस योजना के तहत 14 साल या । उससे ऊपर के दिव्यांग बच्चों को सरकारी, । स्थानीय संस्था से जुड़े या सरकारी सहायता प्राप्त स्कूलों में नौवीं से बारहवीं कक्षा तक पढ़ाई के लिए मदद मुहैया कराई जाती है। इस योजना के जरिये प्राथमिक स्कूलों से माध्यमिक स्कूलों में जाने वाले दिव्यांग बच्चों की पहचान की जाती है और उन्हें उनकी अक्षमता की खातिर मदद व उपकरण, पठन सामग्री, आने-जाने की सुविधा, छात्रावास की सुविधाएं, छात्रवृत्ति, किताबें, मददगार तकनीक | आदि उपलब्ध कराए जाते हैं। दिव्यांग छात्रों को उच्च शिक्षा पूरा करने के लिए भी कई तरह की छात्रवृत्ति मिलती है। इस तरह की समावेशी शिक्षा दिव्यांगों को बाकी सामान्य बच्चों के साथ पढ़ाई का इंतजाम सुनिश्चित करती है और इस तरह से समावेशन का मार्ग प्रशस्त होता है।

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(Download) CAPF (AC) Exam, 2013 Paper - "General Ability & Intelligence"


(Download) CAPF (AC) Exam, 2013 Paper - "General Ability & Intelligence"


Exam Name: CAPF (AC)

Year: 2013

Subject: General Ability & Intelligence

1. The Chipko Movement

1. was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees
2. raised the question of ecological and economic exploitation
3. is a movement against alcoholism as its broadened agenda
4. demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. The Parliament of India may form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by unifying any territory to a part of any State. Which of the following procedures is/are true in this regard?

1. By a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process
2. On the recommendation of the President, who usually has to refer the bill to the legislature of the State(s) which is/are going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill
3. On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

3. A bill introduced in the Parliament, in order to become an Act, has to have which of the following procedures to be followed?

1. It is to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. The President has to give his/her assent.
3. The Prime Minister has to sign it after the ratification by the Parliament.
4. The Supreme Court has to approve and declare it to be within the jurisdiction of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only

4. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. Offices connected with a religious or denominated institution may be reserved for members professing the particular religion to which the institution relates.
2. The State may reserve any post or appointment in favour of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under that State.
3. No citizen shall, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or any of them, be ineligible for any office under the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

5. Consider the following statements:

1. While the Fundamental Rights constitute limitations on State action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to do certain things and to achieve certain goals by their actions.
2. The Directive Principles, however, require to be implemented by legislations and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive Principle, neither the State nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal rights under the colour of getting a Directive.
3. The Directive Principles are enforceable in the courts and create justiciable rights in favour of the individual.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 only

6. Consider the following statements

1. It shall be the, endeavour of every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in mother tongue at the primary state of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
2. The- Constitution enjoins the Union of India to provide and promote the spread of Hindi language and to develop it, so that it, may serve as a medium of expression of, all the elements of the composite culture of India.

Which of the ·statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and the expenditure relating to his/her office.
2. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People.
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

8. Which of the following are the privileges of the House of the People collectively?

1. The right to' publish debates and proceedings and the right to restrain publication by others.
2. The right to exclude others to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime.
3. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges.
4. What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however can be inquired into in a court of law.

Select the correct answer-using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(e) 1 and 2
(d) All of these

9. A bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it contains only provisions dealing with

1. the imposition, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. the regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
2. the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
4. the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(e) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

10. Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker of the House of the People is/are correct?

1. The Speaker's conduct in regulating the procedure of maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdiction of any court.
2. Besides presiding over his/her own House, the Speaker possesses certain powers like presiding over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament".
3. While a resolution for his/her removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall preside but shall have no right to speak and shall have no right to vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

11. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he

1. holds' any office of profit under the Government of. India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law.
2. is of unsound mind and stands, so declared by a competent court.
3. Remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

12. Consider the following statements regarding termination of sitting of a House

1. Only the House of the People is subject to dissolution
2. The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
3. The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House, of the People and the Council: of 'States belongs' to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively.
4. The Parliament cannot be dissolved as it is a permanent chamber.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4

13. Consider the following statements

1. A person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers.
2. Anyone can be appointed as a member of the Council of Ministers for a maximum period of 3 years.
3. A person shall not be less than 25 years of age in order to become a minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

14. The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed

1. to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union.
2. members of the defence forces
3. officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court in India.

Select-the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) only 2
(d) 2 and 3

15. The following are some of the items of expenditure of the Central Government in India.

1. Interest payments
2. Major subsidies
3. Pensions
4. Loans and advances

Which of the above is/are included in non-plan revenue expenditure?

(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

16. If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at the concept of

(a) primary deficit
(b) net fiscal deficit
(c) budgetary deficit
(d) effective revenue deficit

17. Which one among the following items has maximum weight in wholesale price index in India?

(a) Primary article
(b) Fuel and power
(c) Manufactured product
(d) Food item

18. Which among the following agencies disbursed maximum credit to tile agricultural sector in India between 2006-0J-and 2011-12?

(a) Cooperative banks
(b) Regional rural banks
(c) Commercial banks
(d) Moneylenders

19. Consider the following statements

1. Repo Rate is the interest rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks for short period.
2. Reverse Repo Rate is the interest rate which RBI pays to commercial banks on short-term deposits.
3. Gap between Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate has been declining in India in the recent past.

Which of 'the statements above is/are not correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 2 and 3

20. The rate of inflation in India is measured generally in respect of movement of

(a) consumer price index
(b) wholesale price index
(c) cost of living index for agricultural labour
(d) money supply

21. Privatization includes

(a) sale of public' enterprises to private sector
(b) disinvestment of public enterprise equity
(c) participation of private sector in management in public sector enterprises.
(d) All of the above

22. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the' convertibility of Indian rupee?

(a) It is convertible on capital account
(b) It is convertible on' current account
(c) It is convertible both on current and capital account
(d) None of the above

23. The Government of India refers to the absolute poverty line in terms of

(a) household savings
(b) household consumption
(c) household investment
(d) household income.

24. In the current' pricing policy, the price of diesel in India consists of

(a) Fuel component + Customs duty + Excise duty + Sales VAT + Dealer's commission .
(b) Fuel component + Excise duty + Sales VAT +Dealer's commission
(c) Fuel component + Customs duty + Sales VAT +Dealer's commission
(d) Fuel component + Customs duty + Excise duty on Dealer's commission

25. Which one among the following is not a Mars rover?

(a) Sojourner
(b) Opportunity
(c) Curiosity
(d) Apollo

26. A circle is drawn inside square of length 4 units as shown in the figure given above. What is the area of the shaded portion?

(a) 16 - 4 π
(b) 16 -π
(c) 4 - π
(d) 2 - 2π

27. If the ratio of X to Y is ¾ and the ratio of Y to Z is 12/13 , then the value of X to Z is

(a) 13/3
(b) 1/3
(c) 4/13
(d) 9/13

28. The sum of the base and altitude of a triangle is 30 cm.What is the maximum possible area of such-a triangle?

(a) 100 cm2
(b) 110 cm2
(c) 112.5 cm2
(d) 120 cm2

29. If 9 mangoes cost as much as 5 oranges, 5 oranges as much as 3 apples, 4 apples as much as 9 pineapples and if 3 pineapples cost Rs. 48. What will a mango cost?

(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 27

30. In the diagram (not to scale) given above, the value of x is:

(a) 51
(b) 360/7
(c) 440/7
(d) 347/7

31. A campus poll covering 300 undergraduate students was conducted in order to study the, students' attitude.towards a proposed change in the rules for hostel accommodation, The students were required to respond as 'support', 'neutral' or 'oppose' with regard to the issue; .The poll outcome was presented as a pie chart as given above The numbers for 'support', 'neutral' and 'oppose' are respectively

(a) 150, 90, 60
(b) 120, 100, 80
(c) 80, 100, 120
(d) 60, 90, 150

32. The following tables show the expenditure (in percentage) of two families A and B

Which one among the following statements is true?

(a) Family spends as much on miscellaneous as family B spends on entertainment
(b) The food expense of family B is equal to the total expense of family A
(c) Families A and B spend equally on food.
(d) Families A and B spend equally on entertainment

33. Which one among the following diagrams illustrates relationship among animals, cows and horses?

34. Through how many degrees does the hour hand in a clock move as the time changes from 3h and 12 min to 6h?

(a) 105
(b) 99
(c) 90
(d) 84

35. As shown in the above diagram, a person starts from the centre O of a circular path AB walks along the line indicated by arrows and returns to the same point. If the radius OA = OB = 100 m, what is the total distance walked to the nearest metres?

(a) 703
(b) 723
(c) 743
(d) 823

36. If 5 person can weave 160 mats in 8 days, how many mats will 8 person weave in 6 days?

(a) 200
(b) 192
(c) 190
(d) 180

37. Two cars are moving in the same direction with a speed of 45 km/h and a distance of 10 km separates then. If a car coming from the opposite direction meets these two cars at an interval of 6 min, its speed would be

(a) 45 km/h
(b) 55 km/h
(c) 65 km/h
(d) 75 km/h

38. Which one among the following figures will come next in the series given below?

39. Which one among the following boxes is similar to the box formed from the given sheed paper (X)?

40. In a class, 40 students passed in Mathematics, 50% of the students passed in English, 5% of the students failed in Mathematics and English and 25% of the students passed in both the subjects. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed in English to that in Mathematics?

(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 5 : 7
(d) 10 : 9

41. The least integer whose multiplication with 588 leads to a perfect square is

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 7

42. The fifth term of the alphabet sereis BCYX, EFVU,HISR, KLPO, ? is

(a) NOML
(b) NOLM
(c) ONML
(d) ONLM

43. By selling an article at Rs. 270, a man los 10%. If he would sell it at Rs. 360, his gain per cent is

(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 22

44. In a certain code, ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘$@2*©’ and ‘YIELD’ written in that code?

(a) 4*2%
(b) 4@2%
(c) %42@
(d) %4@2

45. If A is coded as 1, B as 3, C as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word ‘FAZED’ if the numerical value of ‘CABLE’ is 41?

(a) 81
(b) 80
(c) 79
(d) 77

46. Natural gas is a mixture of gases and contains mainly

(a) methane and higher hydrocarbons
(b) butane and isobutene
(c) Only methane
(d) methane, hydrogen .and carbon monoxide

47. Diamond is a polymorph of graphite. Both contain carbon atoms, but, they have extremely different properties because of the condition' in which they' are formed. Diamond is obtained after applying

(a) very high pressure and low temperature
(b) very low pressure and high temperature
(c) very low pressure and low temperature
(d) very 'high pressure and high temperature

48. The three primary soil micro-nutrients are

(a) carbon, oxygen and water
(b) copper, cadmium and carbon
(c) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(d) boron, zinc and magnesium

49. Diamond Ring God's Eye and Baily's Beads are the parts of which one among the following natural phenomena?

(a) Solar eclipse
(b) Aurora
(c) Lightning
(d) Solar storm

50. Turing Machine' serves as

(a) a machine to identify explosives
(b) an indicator to inform about forest fire
(c) an instrument for finding out gravitational constant
(d) a theoretical computing machine to act as an ideal model for mathematical calculation

51. Consider the following statements

1. The Fifth Summit of BRICS'(2013) was held in Durban.
2. Dr. Manmohan Singh became the only head of States or head of Government 'to attend all BRICS Summits held so far.
3. The theme of Fifth Summit of BRICS was "BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Development, Integration and Industrialization".

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) All of these

52. The logo of which of the following famous organizations is a Giant Panda?

(a) World Wildlife Fund or World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) .
(b) International Union for Conservation of 'Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
(c) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
(d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

53. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of TV display technologies?

(a) CRT, Plasma, LED
(b) CRT, LED, Plasma
(c) LED, CRT, Plasma
(d) Plasma, LED, CRT

54. Consider the following statements

1. Employment growth in India in the second half of the first decade of 21st century was relatively modest
2. There' was 'lower labour' force participation rate across' all ages during the period.

Which of the statements given. above is/are correct?.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

55. Which one among the following sectors in India' has the highest share of employment?

(a) Agriculture and allied activities
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Construction
(d) Tertiary sector

56. The Human Development" 'Report, 2013 (UNDP) does not focus on

(a) sustaining development momentum
(b) peace and security
(c) confronting environmental pressure
(d) managing demographic change

57. In order to provide pensions to workers of the unorganised sector, which one among the following schemes has been launched by the Government?

(a) Swabhiman
(b) Swavalamban
(c) Swadhar
(d) Aadhaar

58. Which one among the following is the latest nation to join the World Trade Organization (as on March. 2013)?

(a) North Korea
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Tajikistan

59. The 27th Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration was conferred on

(a) Ela Bhatt
(b) GuIzar
(c) Mohan Dharia
(d) AR Rahman

60. Who among the following won the Men's Singles All England Badminton Championship held in Birmingham, England in 2013?

(a) Lee Chong Wei
(b) Chen Long
(c) Chen Jin
(d) Lin Dan

61. The following are some important sources of tax revenue for the Union Government in India

1. Corporation tax
2. Customs
3. Union excise duties
4. Service tax

Arrange the aforesaid sources of revenue in ascending order as per the Budget Estimates for 2013-14

(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 2-1-3-4
(d) 4-3-2-1

62. Which of the following statements about the scheme 'Roshni' launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in June, 2013 is/are correct?

1. The scheme is supposed to provide training and employment to youth in the age group of 10 to 35 years.
2. 50% of the beneficiaries of the scheme will be women
3. It is a cent per cent Central Government funded scheme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these

63. In February, 2013 the International Court of "Arbitration at the Hague ruled in favour of India's position on' the diversion of Kishanganga water setting aside the objections raised by

(a) Pakistan
(b) China
(c) Nepal
(d) Bangladesh

64. Consider the following statements about NEOSS at launched by PSLV in February, 2013

1. It is the only space telescope' dedicated to searching for asteroids that might have a threat to the Earth.
2. It was designed and developed by ISRO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

65. The Government of India on 12th June, 2013 enhanced the limit of foreign investments in government securities by 5 billion US dollar. In this regard, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) It was done in order to increase inflow of overseas capital.
(b) It will strengthen the value of rupee.
(c) The foreign institutional investors registered to SEBI are only eligible for investment in the enhanced limit of 5 billion US dollar.
(d) The investment can be made in all categories of investments across the board.

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केन्द्रीय सशस्त्र पुलिस बल (सहायक कमांडेंट) के लिये स्टडी किट (CAPF-HINDI)

Study Material for CAPF-AC Exam

(e-Book) UPSC CAPF (AC) Previous Year Exam Papers

(GIST OF YOJANA) उद्यमिता विकास से कमजोर और वंचितों का सशक्तीकरण [August] -2018


(GIST OF YOJANA) उद्यमिता विकास से कमजोर और वंचितों का सशक्तीकरण [August] -2018


उद्यमिता विकास से कमजोर और वंचितों का सशक्तीकरण

एक विकासशील अर्थव्यवस्था को अपने कार्यक्रमों और अभियानों में समावेशी होने | की जरूरत होती है, ताकि समाज के सभी तबके को सशक्त बनाया जा सके। पिछले 7 दशकों में भारत ने हर वर्ग के लिए आर्थिक सशक्तीकरण के मौके मुहैया कराने के लिए रणनीतिक तौर पर दखल दिया है। इसके बावजूद समाज के कमजोर वर्गों के उत्थान की खातिर कदम उठाने के लिए काफी गुंजाइश बची हुई है। इस वर्ग के पास सामाजिक और आर्थिक सीढ़ी पर आगे की तरफ बढ़ने के लिए सामाजिक पूंजी की कमी है। अल्पसंख्यक समुदाय के लोग, दिव्यांग और महिलाओं को हमारे समाज में भेद-भाव की बीमारी की वजह से कई मौकों पर अलगाव का सामना करना पड़ता है। हमारी आबादी के दिव्यांग तबके को भी कभी-कभी रहन-सहन में खराब स्थितियों का सामना करना पड़ता है। अलग-अलग सामाजिक समूहों के बीच विषमता जैसी स्थितियां लगातार बढ़ रही हैं।

अगर इस आबादी का कमजोर तबका लिंग और दिव्यांगता के लिहाज से टुकड़ों में बांटा जाता है, तो इस तरह के आंकड़े परेशान करने वाले हैं। उदारीकरण और आर्थिक प्रगति के कई साल बीत जाने के बाद भी संसाधनों और अवसरों की एक समान उपलब्धता और समावेशी विकास का लक्ष्य अब तक पूरा नहीं किया जा सका है।

अनुकूल सामाजिक माहौल

नीति आयोग के लिए 'प्रथम' की तरफ से किए गए अध्ययन में शामिल होने वाले अर्द्ध-शहरी और ग्रामीण इलाको के तक़रीबन 70 फीसदी प्रतिनिधियों ने अपने शहरी समकक्षों के उलट ‘स्व-रोजगार' और उद्यमी बनने की बात कही (द इंडियन एक्सप्रेस 2016)। अध्ययन के नतीजे इस तथ्य की तसदीक करते हैं कि देश के युवा (खास तौर पर ग्रामीण इलाकों में) गरीबी और बेरोजगारी की चुनौती से निपटने की खातिर उद्यमिता के लिए तैयार हो रहे हैं। भारत उत्साह और साहस से लैस युवाओं का देश है। अगर हम युवाओं के जनसांख्यिकी स्वरूप को देखें, तो इनमें से ज्यादातर ग्रामीण इलाकों के वंचित समुदायों से आते हैं, जो संसाधनों का अभाव वाले माहौल में रहते हैं। हालांकि, इन लोगों के अंदर उद्यमिता के लक्षण हैं, जिन्हें सफल उद्यमी बनाने के लिए प्रशिक्षण दिया जा सकता है। नए उत्पाद का आविष्कार, नए समाधान और महत्वपूर्ण खोज के जरिए जटिल सामाजिक समस्याओं को सुलझाने जैसी बातें इन युवाओं को आकर्षित करती हैं। वे समाज में बदलाव का प्रतिनिधि बनने की हसरत रखते हैं। इसके तहत उन्हें नए व्यापार के तौर पर अपने सोच को आगे बढ़ाने के लिए भरोसेमंद समर्थक प्रक्रिया के साथ सही सलाह की जरूरत होती है। ताकि वे अपनी सोच को सफल व्यापार में तब्दील कर सके।

‘द ग्लोबल आंत्रप्रेन्योरिशिप मॉनिटर' रिपोर्ट 2016-17 में बताया गया है कि भारत में तकरीबन 44

फीसदी वयस्क को लगता है। कि व्यापार शुरू करने के लिए उनके पास अच्छे मौके हैं, जबकि 44 फीसदी का मानना है कि उनके पास व्यापार शुरू करने की क्षमता है। इसी तरह, एम्वे उद्यमिता इंडिया रिपोर्ट 2015 में बताया गया कि सर्वे में शामिल 30 फीसदी प्रतिनिधियों ने अपना व्यापार शुरू करने की योजना का जिक्र किया। इस अध्ययन में 21 राज्यों के अलग-अलग आय समूहों, अलग-अलग शैक्षणिक पृष्ठभूमि के पुरुष-महिला दोनों को शामिल किया गया। यहां जिन दो अध्ययनों का जिक्र किया गया है, उनके नतीजों से यह निष्कर्ष निकाला जा सकता है कि उद्यमिता का भविष्य बेहतर है, क्योंकि समाज में इसको लेकर धारणा तेजी से बदली है। यह देश में उद्यमिता के विकास का शुभ संकेत है।

चुनौतियां और अवसर

हाशिए पर मौजूद लोगों में शिक्षा और कौशल की कमी उनकी राह में बड़ी बाधा | है। इसके परिणामस्वरूप उनके पास काम | और जिम्मेदारियों को अंजाम देने को लेकर आत्मविश्वास की कमी होती है। खास तौर | पर महिलाओं में इस तरह के आत्मविश्वास | की कमी को देखा जा सकता है। उद्यमिता को लेकर प्रेरणा और प्रशिक्षण के साथ कौशल विकास के जरिए इन कमियों को दूर किया जा सकता है। युवाओं के बीच आत्मविश्वास पैदा करने और उनका उत्साह बढ़ाने में कार्यशाला और सेमिनार सेशन जांचा-परखा उपाय साबित हुए हैं।
इस दिशा में रणनीतिक नियोजन के जरिए समाज के वंचित तबकों को स्वरोजगार से जुड़े अवसरों के लिए तैयार किया जा सकता है। रणनीतिक नियोजन के तहत उद्यमिता से जुड़े प्रशिक्षण, सलाह-निर्देशन पर फोकस किया जाना चाहिए।

वित्तीय साधनों की कमी, जोखिम का डर और संबंधित काम के बारे में जानकारी का अभाव जैसी वजहें लोगों को अपना उद्यम खड़ा करने से रोकती हैं। जमीनी स्तर पर हुए अध्ययनों की मानें तो कच्चे माल की आपूर्ति में बाधा, पर्याप्त पूंजी और बाजार ढांचा की कमी आदि ग्रामीण उद्यमी के लिए प्रमुख बाधा की तरह हैं। साथ ही, शिक्षा की कमी के कारण भी ग्रामीण उद्यमियों को विभिन्न सुविधाओं के बारे में जानकारी नहीं मिल पाती है और उनके पास काबिलियत का अभाव होता है (सक्सेना, 2012, पेज 24)। लिहाजा, वे अक्सर खुद को स्वरोजगार के काम में प्रवेश करने से दूर रखते हैं और दिहाड़ी मजदूर की तरह काम करते रहते हैं।

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(Download) CAPF (AC) Exam, 2012 Paper - "General Studies, Essay & Comprehension"


(Download) CAPF (AC) Exam, 2012 Paper - "General Studies, Essay & Comprehension"


Exam Name: CAPF (AC)

Year: 2012

Subject: General Studies, Essay & Comprehension

1. Write an essay on any ONE of the four topics given below in about 800 words : 80

(A) Emergence of regional parties and its effect on the federal structure of India.
(B) Population stabilization—India's critical need.
(C) Migration from neighbouring countries to India and its socio-economic impact.
(D) The role of technology in coping with challenges to internal security.

2. Attempt a précis of each of the following passages in your own words, reducing it to about a third of its present length and assigning a short appropriate title. The précis must be written only on the special precis sheet(s) provided :

(A) The financial expert's office was under a banyan tree : his office furniture an old tin box. From the first pages of Mr Narayan's novel The Financial Expert we are back in the town of Malgudi with which for nearly twenty years we have been as familiar as with our own birthplace. We know, like the streets of childhood, Market Road, the snuff stalls, the vendors of toothpaste, Lawley Extension with its superior villas, the Regal Haircutting Saloon, the river, the railway. We expect at any moment to see the Bachelor of Arts waving a long farewell to a friend from the platform, small Swami wrapped in his adventurous dreams coming down Market Road, Mr Sampath at the door of his dubious film studio. It is through their friendly offices that we have been able to meet these new—and rather doubtful—characters : Margayya, the financial expert himself, who graduates from the banyan tree to publishing, and back to more elaborate and more crooked banking (but how innocent is all his crookedness); Dr. Pal, 'journalist, correspondent and author'; and Margayya's son Balu whose progress from charming childhood to spoilt frustrated manhood is perhaps the saddest episode Mr Narayan has written.

All Mr Narayan's comedies have had this undertone of sadness. Their gentle irony and absence of condemnation remind us how difficult comedy is in the West today— arce, savage, boisterous, satirical, is easy, but comedy needs a strong framework of social convention with which the author sympathizes but which he does not share. Miss Compton-Burnett is forced to place her stories in the Edwardian or Victorian past; Mr Henry Green substitutes elaborate conventions of his own for our social vacancies, so that his characters move in the kind of dance we learnt at kindergarten—'one step forward, one step to the right, twirl on the right toe'. But the life of Malgudi—never ruffled by politics—proceeds in exactly the same way as it has done for centuries, and the juxtaposition of the age-old convention and the modern character provides much of the comedy. The astrologer is still called in to examine the horoscopes for a marriage, but now if you pay him enough he will fix them the way you want : the financial expert sits under his banyan tree opposite the new Central Co-operative Land Mortgage Bank. To push away a tumbler of milk is to insult a goddess; the caste of a great-grandfather is still of great importance, Margayya, astute about mortgages, consumed by the modern desire for wealth and motorcars, yet consults the priest of the Goddess Lakshmi and finds himself seeking a red lotus to pound up in the milk drawn from a smoke-coloured cow (the forty days of prayer have results : he becomes the owner of a pornographic manuscript called first Bed Life or the Science of Marital Happiness but afterwards, through the caution of the printer, Domestic Harmony). Margayya—the sad ambitious absurd financial expert—is perhaps the most engaging of all Mr Narayan's characters. In his ambitions for his boy, his huge dreams, his unintended villainies and his small vanities, his domestic tenderness, he has the hidden poetry and the unrecognized pathos we so often find in Chekov's characters who on the last page vanish into life.

(B) In the last decades of the twentieth century, the end of the Cold War, the collapse of the Soviet Union, the transitions to democracy  in scores of  countries, plus the significant expansion of international trade, investment, transportation, and communication, usually labeled globalization, profoundly changed America's external environment and had at least three major consequences for American identity. First, the collapse of the Soviet Union and of communism left America not only with no enemy, but also for the first time in its history without any clear "other" against which to define itself. For over two centuries the liberal, democratic principles of the American Creed had been a core component of American identity. American and European observers had often referred to this creedal component as the essence of "American exceptionalism." Now, however, exceptionalism was becoming universalism, as democracy became more and more accepted  around the world, at least in theory, as the only legitimate form of government. No other secular ideology existed to challenge democracy as fascism and communism had in the twentieth century.

Second, the extensive international involvements of American business, academic, professional, media, nonprofit, and political elites lowered the salience of national identity for those elites, who now increasingly defined themselves, their interests, and their identities in terms of transnational and global institutions, networks, and causes. As we have seen, some American elites tended to attribute greater salience to subnational identities than did the American public. Many of these same elites also assigned greater salience to transnational identities than did the public, which remained highly nationalistic.

Third, the decline in the relevance of ideology increased the importance of culture as a source of identity. The collective counterpart to the growing number of individuals with dual identities, dual loyalties, and dual citizenships was the growing number and importance of diasporas. Diasporas are cultural communities cutting across the boundaries of two or more states, one of which is viewed as the homeland country of that community. Immigrant ethnic groups promoting their interests within American society have been a reality since the mid-nineteenth century. Immigrants now, however, can much more easily maintain ties, interactions, and communications with people in their origin country and thus see themselves as members of a diaspora. In addition, homeland governments now view their diasporas as key sources of financial and other support and as sources of influence on host country  governments. Hence they promote the expansion, mobilization, and institutionalization of their diasporas. The absence of an other until 2001, the spread of democracy, the denationalization of elites, and the rise of diasporas all blur the distinction between national and transnational identities.

3. Study the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage :

(A) The power of the State is only limited internally by the fear of rebellion and externally by the fear of defeat in war. Subject to these restrictions, it is absolute. In practice, it can seize men's property through taxation, determine the law of marriage and inheritance, punish the expression of opinions which it dislikes, put men to death for wishing the region they inhabit to belong to a different State, and order all able-bodied males to risk their lives in battle whenever it considers war desirable. On many matters disagreement with the purposes and opinions of the State is criminal. Probably the freest States in the world, before the war, were America and England; yet in America no immigrant may land until he has professed disbelief  in anarchism and polygamy, while in England men were sent to prison in recent years for expressing disagreement with the Christian religion or agreement with the teaching of Christ. In time of war, all criticism of the external policy of the State is criminal.

Certain objects having appeared desirable to the majority, or to the effective holders of power, those who do not consider these objects desirable are exposed to pains and penalties not unlike those suffered by heretics in the past. The extent of the tyranny thus exercised is concealed by its very success : few men consider it worth while to incur a persecution which is almost certain to be thorough and effective.

Universal military service is perhaps the extreme example of the power of the State, and the supreme illustration of the difference between its attitude to its own citizens and its attitude to the citizens of other States. The State punishes, with impartial rigour, both those who kill their compatriots and those who refuse to kill foreigners. On the whole, the latter is considered the graver crime. The phenomenon of war is familiar, and men fail to realize its strangeness; to those who stand inside the cycle of instincts which lead to war it all seems natural and reasonable. But to those who stand outside the strangeness of it grows with familiarity. It is amazing that the vast majority of men should tolerate a system which compels them to submit to all the horrors of the battlefield at any moment when their Government commands them to do so.

A French artist, indifferent to politics, attentive only to his painting, suddenly finds himself called upon to shoot Germans, who, his friends assure him, are a disgrace to the human race. A German musician, equally unknowing, is called upon to shoot the perfidious Frenchman. Why cannot the two men declare a mutual neutrality ? Why not leave war to those who like it and bring it on ? Yet if the two men declared a mutual neutrality they would be shot by their compatriots. To avoid this fate they try to shoot each other. If the world loses the artist, not the musician, Germany rejoices; if the world loses the musician, not the artist, France rejoices. No one remembers the loss to civilization, which is equal whichever is killed.

(i) What does the author mean when he saysthat the power of the State is absolute, subject to certain restrictions ?
(ii) What examples of America and England does the author cite to indicate the power of the State ?
(iii) Explain the term 'graver crime' used in the second paragraph.
(iv) What are the citizens supposed to do when their government asks them to participate in war ?
(v) Explain the term 'mutual neutrality' used in the second paragraph.

(B) It is several years now since we reached the reduction ad absurdum of our examination system.

The leakage of question papers and the consequent postponement of examinations, are the least disturbing of the reports in this regard that the newspapers publish. At Fatehgarh, some time ago, the superintendent and ten invigilators at an examination withdrew from their duties in protest against 'inadequate security arrangements.' Earlier, a mixed crowd of students and outsiders had invaded the examination centre on the very first day of the examination, and adopted a threatening attitude when their attempts to pass on prepared answers to the candidates were thwarted. A day or two later a crowd climbed the roof of the examination hall and indulged in the most unspeakable acts of wretchedness. Many candidates were caught cheating. The news agency added that 'the administration appeared to be reluctant to handle the situation firmly as sons of some prominent citizens were said to be involved in these malpractices.'

Our examinations, instead of bringing out the best in students, seem to bring out the worst. Everyone is agreed that the system should be reformed. But if one may indulge in a piece of levity on so grim a theme, the situation is rather like what Oscar Wilde said about the weather, namely, that everyone complains about it and no one does anything about it.

The pace of reform is so unhurried as to be imperceptible. Meanwhile, examinations on the mass scale have at best become feats of organization by the Registrar's office, and their academic value as tests of proficiency has become negligible. The only skills that they bring out are the ingenious ways which candidates employ for cheating. In the High School and Intermediate examinations of Uttar Pradesh, about 4,000 cases of the use of 'unfair means' are detected every year. A minister of education, while deploring this, pointed out, however, that considering the four hundred thousand that take the examinations, the proportion of such cases cannot be considered large !

Reforms have no chance of success if they are based, as at present, on a wholly wrong view of the malady. The two most commonly recommended reforms, namely 'internal assessment' and 'objective tests', although they often carry the blessings of the same experts, proceed from two opposite views in regard to the validity of the old-fashioned type of examinations. Internal assessment is based on the recognition that if a teacher is good enough to teach, he is also good enough to examine his students. Objective tests, on the other hand, are intended to eliminate the chancy and subjective element in the older methods of academic evaluation. If the objective tests are really objective, it should make no difference whether their source is internal or external. In fact they eliminate the personal judgement of the teacher, and their logical evolution is towards the machine-scored tests of the Educational Testing Service at Princeton. These tests, like other examinations, are useful if we are clear in our minds as to what we are testing. An academic examination should ordinarily be expected to test the student's judgment, his powers of expression and his memory— n that order. The trouble with our present examinations is that with the passage of time, this order has been reversed, and the student's judgment is now left out of account altogether. We have now reached a stage where the annual external examination, on which so much depends, seems to the student a big gamble. The evils of a final external examination at he end of a course have been exaggerated. Since the American way of internal assessment and the piling up of credits is what finds favour with reformers today, it would perhaps be wise to have a look at what the British educator has to say about his own system.

It is wrong to suppose that we have to choose between internal assessment and external examinations. We should have both. The former will ensure that the student applies himself to his studies throughout the year, and the latter will have the advantages that Harrison talks of. It would however be a mistake to add internal assessment scores to the external; this may tempt institutions to inflate the internal scores. The Education Commission suggests giving the two separately in the student's record. To the extent that institutions establish a name for reliability, their internal grades may protect a student from mishaps in the external examination. The internal grades will also give the student greater confidence and eliminate the tensions that are partly responsible for those mishaps. As for what happens in many examination centres, from rowdyism to murder, the cure is not examination reform, but firm handling of wrongdoers. Now that the hooligans have discovered that they can get away with anything, an improvement in the reliability of examinations will not induce them to desist. Education had better conserve its energies for matters purely educational, leaving it to the law to deal with crime.

(i) What is the significance of Oscar Wilde's complaint about the weather ?
(ii) What are the advantages recognized in the Internal assessment and Objective test respectively ?
(iii) What is the order of priority ordinarily expected of an academic examination to test the students ?
(iv) What is the cure, recommended in the passage, other than the examination reforms ?
(v) (a) Specify the words from the passage meaning : condemning, distorted
(b) Use the following words/phrases in your own sentences : imperceptible, get away with

4. (A) Develop counter-arguments to the following statements in about 75 words each :

(i) MI in retail in India is a bane for a small trader.
(ii) Control of social media is an anti-democratic proposition.

(B) Write a report in about 250 words on ONE of the following :

(i) As a correspondent of a national newspaper, write a report on the impasse in the 2012 Monsoon Session of the Indian Parliament.
(ii) Draft a report suggesting measures to encourage Water Harvesting in India.

(C) Do as directed :

(a) (i) He was very tired. He did not go out for a walk. (Combine using `too....to')
(ii) As soon as the Chief guest arrived, the programme started. (Rewrite the sentence starting with `No sooner')
(iii) Had I known you were not coming • (Complete the sentence)
(iv) It is very humid. It is better to wear cottons. (Combine these sentences starting with `Considering')
(v) The mason is building the wall. (Change the voice)
(vi) Why couldn't you complete the work in time ? (Change the voice)
(vii) I admire her. I cannot agree with everything she does. (Combine the sentences using 'Much')
(viii) The reason why she is absent today is because her husband is ill. (Correct the sentence)
(ix) "Climb the mountain, cross the river and attack the enemy," said the Commanding Officer to the soldiers. (Change the narration)
(x) The teacher said to Rakesh, "What time will the train arrive ?" (Change the narration)

(b) Use the following phrasal verbs in sentences of your own so as to bring out their correct meaning :

put up with
fall out
make out
deal in
call on

(c) Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions in the following sentences :

(i) The railway track runs_ the river and the road.
(ii) Since Raju was_ the influence of bad company, his parents were greatly perturbed.
(iii) While walking_ the small door, she hurt her head.
(iv) Nobody dies_ a bad cold.
(v) Dr. Pandit is an authority_ Mathematics.

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Study Material for UPSC Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandant) (CAPF-AC) Exam

केन्द्रीय सशस्त्र पुलिस बल (सहायक कमांडेंट) के लिये स्टडी किट (CAPF-HINDI)

Study Material for CAPF-AC Exam

(e-Book) UPSC CAPF (AC) Previous Year Exam Papers

(Paper) Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) (60th-62nd) (Pre.) Exam Paper - 2017

(Paper) Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) (60th-62nd) (Pre.) Exam Paper - 2017

1) Who was the leader of revolutionaries in Bihar during the Revolt of 1857?

a) Namdar Khan
b) BabuKunwar Singh
c) Birsa Munda
d) Shankar Shah
e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans. BabuKunwar Singh

2) Birsa was captured, while asleep, on :

a) 1 February, 1900
b) 2 February, 1900
c) 3 February, 1900
d) 4 February , 1900
e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: e

3) “The Muslims , if contented and satisfied, would become the greatest bulwark of British power in India”. Who wrote it ?

a) Herbert Risley
b) Lord Lytton
c) W.W.Hunter
d) H.N.Brailsford
e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: W.W.Hunter

4) “In my belief , Congress is to tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” Who wrote it?

a) Lord Lytton
b) Lord Dufferin
c) Lord Curzon
d) Lord Minto
e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: Lord Curzon

5) Who drew Mahatma Ganghi’s attention towards the exploitation of the peasants by the European Indigo planters?

a) Baba Ram Chandra
b) Raja Kumar Shukla
c) Swami SahajanandaSaraswati
d) Sri Krishna Sinha
e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans.Raja Kumar Shukla

बिहार लोक सेवा आयोग प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा के लिए अध्ययन सामग्री

Study Kit for Bihar Public Service Commission Preliminary Examination

(GIST OF YOJANA) उच्च शिक्षा से सामाजिक बदलाव [August] -2018


(GIST OF YOJANA) उच्च शिक्षा से सामाजिक बदलाव [August] -2018


उच्च शिक्षा से सामाजिक बदलाव

इस 'सामाजिक तथ्य के बारे में ज्यादातर लोगों को पता है। कि कुछ जातियां और जनजाति अन्य जातियों और जनजातियों की तुलना में ज्यादा सुविधासंपन्न हैं। इसी तर्क के लिहाज से कहा जाए तो कुछ अन्य जातियां और जनजातियां अन्य वर्गों के मुकाबले ज्यादा वंचित और गरीब हैं। इस सामाजिक तथ्य को ध्यान में रखते हुए संविधान ने अपेक्षाकृत कम साधनों वाले और वंचित समूहों (अनुसूचित जाति के लिए उनके पारंपरिक दर्जे पर आधारित उनकी संरचनात्मक कमियों के कारण और भौगोलिक अलगाव की वजह से अनुसूचित जनजाति के लिए) के लिए विशेष सुरक्षा और सकारात्मक उपायों का प्रावधान किया है। मसलन इन समुदायों से भेदभाव और अत्याचार के खिलाफ कानून बनाए गए हैं और इसके तहत छूआछूत (अनुसूचित जाति के मामले में) के चलन पर पाबंदी और जमीन और रिहायश के अधिकारों की सुरक्षा (अनुसूचित जनजाति के लिए), शिक्षा और रोजगार में छात्रवृत्ति और आरक्षण का प्रावधान (अनुसूचित जाति/ अनुसूचित जनजाति दोनों के लिए) जैसे कदम उठाए गए हैं। और हाल में अनुसूचित जाति और अनुसूचित जनजाति दोनों समुदाय के लोगों की बेहतरी के लिए केंद्र और राज्य सरकारों के बजट के तहत सरकार । के विभिन्न विभागों में उप योजना बनाई। गई है। दरअसल, उप योजना के प्रावधानों के कारण पिछले दशक में अनुसूचित जाति और अनुसूचित जनजाति के बीच उद्यमी और व्यापारिक वर्ग तैयार होने का मार्ग प्रशस्त हुआ।

‘नव' व्यापारिक वर्ग के एक छोटे से हिस्से के तौर पर उभरने की बढ़ती महत्वाकांक्षा से पहले देश में अनुसूचित जाति और अनुसूचित जनजाति के बीच 'नई' पढ़ी लिखी मध्य वर्ग की पीढ़ी का उभार देखने को मिला। इस बाबत अध्ययनों में कठोर सामाजिक ढांचे के भीतर बदलाव लाने में शिक्षा और रोजगार को लेकर सकारात्मक नीतियों की भूमिका को लेकर काफी कुछ कहा गया है। बेशक, यह दावा किया जा सकता है कि उच्च शिक्षा और सरकारी नौकरियों में आरक्षण का प्रावधान भारत में आजादी के बाद अनुसूचित जाति और अनुसूचित जनजाति के बीच 'नया' मध्य वर्ग तैयार करने का मुख्य साधन है। उच्च शिक्षा और सरकारी नौकरियों में सख्ती से आरक्षण लागू किए जाने से पहली पीढ़ी के ज्यादा से ज्यादा अनुसूचित जाति/अनुसूचित जनजाति छात्रों को सामाजिक बदलाव संबधी बाधा पार करने के लिए प्रेरणा मिली और इस तरह से उनका सामाजिक, आर्थिक और राजनीतिक - तमाम मोर्चे पर सशक्तीकरण हुआ।

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा (Combo) Study Kit

UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1 स्टडी किट

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