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 (Answer Key) UPSC Indian Statistical Service Examination-2017

 (Answer Key) UPSC Indian Statistical Service Examination-2017

 

Exam Name: Indian Statistical Service Examination

Year: 2017

Subjects:

  • Statistics-I
  • Statistics-II

Click Here to Download Statistics-I Answer Key

Click Here to Download Statistics-II Answer Key

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Courtesy:ISSE

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Statistics


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Statistics


STATISTICS
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) Ten percent of a certain population suffer from a serious disease. Two independent tests are given to a person suspected of the disease. Each test gives a correct diagnosis 90% of the time. Find the probability that the person really suffers from the disease, given that,

(i) both tests are positive
(ii) only one test is positive.

(b) Let X be a continuous random variable with the probability density function

Find the cumulative distribution function and the probability density function of Y = x2.

(c) Let {Xn} be a sequence of independent and identically distributed random variables with common probability function

Check whether {X} obeys the (it) strong law of large numbers and (i) weak law of large numbers.

(d) Let x1, x2,..., Xn be n observations, each independently uniformly distributed between 0-1/2 and 0+1/2 Find a general form of maximum likelihood estimator (MLE) of 0. Verify that

are both MLEs, where Y1 = Min Xi and Yn, = Max Xi.

(e) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn, be a random sample from uniform population over (O, 0) and let M = Max (X1, X2, ..., Xn). Show that M is a biased but consistent estimator of 0.

Q2. (a) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn be independently and identically distributed observations from a distribution with probability density function f0(x). If Y = g(X1, X2, ..., Xn) is an unbiased estimate of 8, then

Use this inequality to show that the sample mean is a uniformly minimum variance unbiased estimator of mean of a Poisson distribution.

(b) State and prove Chebyshev's inequality. Hence or otherwise, prove that (i) P[X<l/2]< 4/l and (ii) P[X >2l] <1/l. if X is any positive random variable having both mean and variance equal to l.
(c) In a Community of (a + b) potential voters, a are for abortion and b(b<a) are against it. Suppose that a vote is taken to determine the will of the majority with regard to legalizing abortion. If n(n <b) random persons of these (a + b) potential voters do not vote, what is the probability that those against abortion will win?

Q3. (a) X1 is the time that a customer takes from getting on line at a service desk in a bank to completion of service and X2 is the time to wait in line before reaching the service desk (X1>X2). The joint probability density function of (X1, X2) is given by

Let Y1 = X1 + X2 and Y2 = X1-X2. Find the joint probability density function of Y1 and Y2. Are Y1 and Y2, independently distributed? Give reason.

(b) Let X1, X2, X3 and X4 be independent and identically distributed random variables each having probability density function

Find the cumulative distribution function and probability density function of Y = Min (X1, X2, X3, X4).

(c) Using Kolmogorov-Smirnov test, determine whether the sample data given below come from an exponential distribution with mean 4. The observations in the sample are

0.7, 5.5, 5.7, 4.3, 0.8, 1.1, 5.1, 4.9, 2.0, 3.9, 5.3, 4.2, 5.2, 5.8, 6.0 (Given, D13, 0.05 = 0.361, D14, 0.05 = 0.349, D15, 0.05 = 0.338)

Q4. (a) Let X1, X2,.., Xn be a random sample from a distribution with probability density function
f(x) = qxq-1, 0< x <1, q >0
Find the maximum likelihood estimator (MLE) and minimum variance unbiased estimator (MVUE) of q.

(b) If the random variable X follows normal distribution N(m, 1), then find the Y = 1-0(X)/0(x), where 0 and o denote the cumulative distribution function and probability density function respectively of N(0, 1), the standard normal distribution.
(c) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn be a random sample from a normal population with mean u and variance 25. For a sample size of n=16, find the uniformly most powerful (UMP) test for testing the simple null hypothesis Ho : u = 5 against the composite alternative hypotheses (i) H1: u >5 and (ii) H1: u <5.

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4, are four independent variables with E (Y1) = E (Y3) = q1, +q3 +q4, E (Y2) = E (Y4) = q1-q2 and V(Yi) = q2 (for i = 1, 2, 3, 4). Verify whether q1+q3 and q2,+q3 + q4 are estimable. If so, obtain their BLUEs. Also obtain the variances of the BLUES.

(b) Let X = [X1, X2, X3] have trivariate normal distribution N3 (m, S), where


Show that (X2-X1)2 + (X3-X2)2 degrees of freedom.

(c)

(d) An investigator selects 10 one-acre plots by simple random sampling and counts the number of trees (y) on each plot. She also has aerial photographs of the plantation from which she can estimate the number of trees (x) on each plot of the entire plantation. Hence, she knows sym mx = 19.7 and since the two counts are approximately proportional through the origin, she uses a ratio estimate to estimate my. The data yield the following:

N = 1000 (plantation size), n = 10 (taken by SRS)
yi = The actual count of trees in one-acre plots, i = 1, 2, ..., 10
xi = The aerial estimate for each plot
y = 22.10, x = 20.80

(e) Explain the concept of balanced incomplete block design (BIBD). What are the conditions for existence of a BIBD? If V = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7), then form a number of blocks, each of order 3, such that each pair of elements in V is contained in exactly one block.

Q6. (a) Obtain first canonical correlation and its associated canonical variable pair for the following correlation matrix :

(b)

(c) Distinguish between a factorial experiment and a number of single-factor experiments. What is meant by confounding in a factorial experiment? Why is confounding preferred even at the cost of loss of information on the confounded effects?

Q7. (a) Explain the method of systematic sampling and give its merits and demerits. How do you estimate the sampling variance of the estimate of the population total? Show how systematic sampling is a particular case of cluster sampling.
(b) Suppose n1 = 11 and n2 = 12 observations are made on two random vectors X1 and X2 which are assumed to have bivariate normal distribution with a common covariance matrix S, but possibly different mean vectors m1, and m2. The sample mean vectors and pooled covariance matrix are

Obtain Mahalanobis sample distance D2 and Fisher's linear discriminant function. Assign the observation X0 = (0, 1) to either population p1 or p2.

(c) Let y1 = b1-b2 +e1, y2 = b3 +e2 and y3 = b1 +b2 +e3, where e1, e2, and e3 are N (0,0). Obtain best linear unbiased estimator (BLUE) of (2b1 -b2). Is this linear parametric function testable?

Q8. (a) Three sides of an equilateral triangle were measured by 5 persons with the following results :

Is there any significant difference between (i) measurements by the persons and (ii) the sides of the triangle?

(b)

(c) Derive the expression for the variance of Horvitz-Thompson estimator (HTE) of population total. Point out the difficulty faced in estimating it. Find Yates-Grundy variance estimator.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Zoology


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Zoology


ZOOLOGY
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. Answer the following in about 150 words each :

(a) Differentiate between major and minor phyla. Describe the salient features of any one minor phylum.
(b) Some fishes can breathe air. Elaborate.
(c) Explain the types of metamorphosis in insects and their hormonal regulation.
(d) Give general features and examples of egg-laying mammals and pouched mammals.
(e) Discuss the origin of Tetrapods.

Q2. (a) Give an account of larval forms in Crustacea with examples and diagrams. Also write a note on the significance of larvae.
(b) Give the structure of cnidoblast, the defensive organ in Cnidaria. Also, describe its mechanism of action.
(c) What are Bilateria ? Explain the theories of origin of Bilateria.

Q3. (a) Give an elaborate account of various flight adaptations in birds.
(b) Explain various types of dentition in mammals.
(c) Describe the roles of three eye layers in vision in humans.

Q4. (a) Give an account of evolution of aortic arches in reptiles, birds and mammals.
(b) Discuss respiration in Mollusca indicating suitable examples.
(c) Explain primitive, degenerate and advanced characters of Branchiostoma. Comment on its systematic position.

SECTION-B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words each :

(a) Describe FISH : Principle, Procedure and Applications'.
(b) What are Ecotones ? Are wetlands ecotones ? Justify.
(c) Discuss Thermal Pollution and its preventive measures.
(d) How is 'Composite Carp Culture advantageous over 'Traditional Carp Culture' ?
(e) Explain the role of chemical signals in alarm spreading.

Q6. (a) Mention the advantages of social living. Describe different types of social hierarchies in primates.
(b) Discuss the concept and importance of genetic counselling and gene therapy.
(c) Write about phase contrast and fluorescence microscopy with notes on their principles and applications in Zoology.

Q7. (a) What is meant by biostatistics ? Explain the role of correlation, regression and ANOVA in data analysis in Zoology.
(b) Elaborate the term 'Ecosystem' and explain its structural components with examples. Comment on Trophic Dynamics concept.
(c) Explain the principle, types and applications of ultracentrifuge.

Q8. (a) Discuss environmental degradation with regards to inland water resources. Suggest measures to restore the water quality of our rivers, lakes and reservoirs.
(b) What is meant by Biodiversity ? Explain Protected Area Networking w.r.t. their establishment, monitoring and management.
(c) Explain adaptations of animals inhabiting fast flowing waters.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Psychology


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Psychology


PSYCHOLOGY
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. Answer each the following questions in about 150 words :

(a) Describe how you used psychology to solve a social problem.
(b) Distinguish between negative reinforcement and punishment. Do you think punishment is an effective way to modify behaviour ?
(c) In a study, the number of students intake in a college correlated very highly with violence. Explain the research finding.
(d) Do you think subliminal messages can actually lead to significant changes in attitudes or behaviour ? Cite research evidence.
(e) Psychology is the scientific study of behaviour. Evaluate.

Q2.(a) Why do we forget ? Differentiate between anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
(b) How can you use 'Focus Group Discussion' to promote use of toilets in rural areas ?
(c) How would you apply Operant Conditioning technique for toilet training to a 3-year-old boy ?

Q3.(a) Whatever we are, it is because of Genes. Discuss.
(b) Which research design would you apply to prove that a particular method of teaching yields best results ? Describe.
(c) How are we able to perceive the world in three dimensions when our eyes are capable of sensing only two-dimensional images ?

Q4. (a) Evaluate "interview" as a method of data collection.
(b) Explain the role of meaningfulness and emotional arousal in encoding. Discuss the implications of encoding specificity principle.
(c) Explain the differences in information processing at various levels of memory. In what way is recall affected by initial processing of information ?

SECTION-B

Q5. Answer each of the following questions in about 150 words :

(a) Creative people usually have high IQ scores but those with highest IQ scores are not necessarily the most creative people. Explain.
(b) Critically evaluate Noam Chomsky's theory of transformational grammar.
(c) Drug-addiction is just a maladaptive behaviour. Like other behaviour, it can be easily changed. Discuss.
(d) What is paradoxical in REM sleep? How active is a person during different stages of sleep ?
(e) Explain different types of reasoning processes used in problem solving with their strengths and limitations.

Q6. (a) According to Gardner's theory, there is no one kind of general intelligence for ranking individuals. Explain.
(b) A young person helped a visually impaired woman to cross the road. He explained his action saying that he has positive attitude towards such persons. Did his attitude determine his behaviour or the behaviour determine his attitude. Explain.
(c) Explain the importance of Critical Periods in language development. In what ways are bilingualism and cognitive development related ?

Q7. (a) Which needs should one be high on to be a successful entrepreneur ? Explain on the basis of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
(b) Can we do justice to measuring personality by projective and objective tests? Discuss.
(c) Why do some people behave aggressively towards those who defy social norms ? How can such aggressive behaviours be changed ?

Q8. (a) Can we determine a person's academic performance based only on IQ score ? Explain.
(b) How do we explain self-defeating behaviour of a person from the Humanistic perspective ?
(c) People emphasize the personal traits more than the situational factors. Evaluate the statement.

DOWNLOAD 10 YEARS UPSC MAINS PSYCHOLOGY OPTIONAL PAPERS PDF

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Printed Study Material for IAS Mains General Studies

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Political Science And International Relations


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Political Science And International Relations


Political Science And International Relations
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. Comment on the following in about 150 words each :

(a) According to Sri Aurobindo, Swaraj is a necessary condition for India to accomplish its destined goal
(b) Neo-liberal perspective of State
(c) Post-modernism
(d) Eco-feminism
(e) Hobbesian notion of Political Obligation

Q2. (a) Rawls' theory of justice is both contractual and distributive. Examine.
(b) Everywhere, inequality is a cause of revolution - Aristotle. Comment.
(c) Define Socialism. Discuss the salient features of Fabian Socialism.

Q3. (a) What do you understand by Multiculturalism ? Discuss Bhikhu Parekh's views on Multiculturalism.
(b) Deliberative democracy does not have its salience without participation and participatory democracy does not have its credence without deliberations. Comment.
(c) Differentiate between Freedom and Liberty. Discuss Marx's notion of freedom.

Q4: (a) Political democracy could not last unless social democracy lay at its base - B.R. Ambedkar. Comment.
(b) Write a brief note on The End of History debate.
(c) What do you understand by the notion of Statecraft ? Discuss the theory of statecraft as given by Kautilya.

SECTION-B

Q5. Comment on the following in about 150 words each:

(a) The success of Mahatma Gandhi lay in transforming both political and non-political movements into a unified nationalist movement.
(b) Right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life.
(c) Indian federation has moved from cooperative federation to competitive federation.
(d) State subvention/funding may be an effective instrument in strengthening electoral democracy in India.
(e) In the post-liberalization era, Indian politics is moving from ascriptive politics to developmental politics.

Q6. (a) Differentiate parliamentary supremacy from parliamentary sovereignty. Would you consider the Indian Parliament as a Sovereign Parliament ? Examine.
(b) Has the 73rd Constitutional Amendment empowered women in panchayats in India ? Discuss.
(c) Religion is still an important factor in Indian politics. Discuss.

Q7. (a) India has moved from ‘one-party dominant system' to 'one-party led coalition'. Discuss.
(b) How is the President of India elected ? Outline the salient characteristics of the electoral college of the Indian President.
(c) Examine the role of the National Commission for Minorities in preserving, promoting and protecting the rights of minorities in India.

Q8. (a) Judiciary has acquired the role of both, a legislature and an executive in recent years. Examine with suitable examples.
(b) What do you understand by Green Revolution ? Do you think that a Second Green Revolution is needed to adequately address the agrarian challenges in contemporary India ? Examine.
(c) Differentiate Moderate Nationalism from Extremist/Militant Nationalism in terms of their objectives and means.

Click Here to Download Full Political Science And International Relations Paper I

Click Here to Download Full Political Science And International Relations Paper II

Printed Study Material for IAS Mains General Studies

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Physics

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Physics

PHYSICS
(PAPER-I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) Express angular momentum in terms of kinetic, potential and total energy of a satellite of mass m in a circular orbit of radius r.
(b) Describe Michelson-Morley experiment and show how the negative results obtained from this experiment were interpreted.
(c) Sunlight is reflected from a calm lake. The reflected light is 100% polarized at a certain instant. What is the angle between the sun and horizon?
(d) Explain with proper example the interferences due to 'division of wavefront and division of amplitude'.
(e) Find the velocity of sound in a gas in which two waves of wavelengths 1.00 m and 1.01 m produce 10 beats in 3 seconds.

Q2. (a) Define moment of inertia and explain its physical significance. Calculate the moment of inertia of an annular ring about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane.
(b) A diatomic molecule can be considered to be made up of two masses m1 and m2 separated by a fixed distance r. Derive a formula for the distance of centre of mass, C1 from mass m1. Also show that the moment of inertia about an axis through C and perpendicular to r is mr2, where m = m1m2 / m1 + m2.
(c) State and explain Stokes' law. A drop of water of radius 0.01 m is falling through a medium whose density is 1.21 kg/m3 and h =1.8x10-5 N-s/m2. Find the terminal velocity of the drop of water.

Q3. (a) What is multiple-beam interference? Discuss the advantages of multiple-beam interferometry over two-beam interferometry. Explain the fringes formed by Fabry-Perot interferometer.
(b) Show that the areas of all the half-period zones are nearly the same. Find the radius of 1st half-period zone in a zone plate whose focal length is 50 cm and the wavelength of the incident light is 500 nm.
(c) A plane-polarized light passes through a double-refracting crystal of thickness 40 mm and emerges out as circularly polarized. If the birefringence of the crystal is 0.00004, then find the wavelength of the incident light.
(d) Obtain the system matrix for a thin lens placed in air and made of material of refractive index 1.5 having radius of curvature 50 cm each. Also find its focal length.

Q4. (a) A ball moving with a speed of 9 m/s strikes an identical stationary ball such that after the collision the direction of each ball makes an angle 30° with the original line of motion. Find the speed of the balls after the collision. Is the kinetic energy conserved in this collision?
(b) Prove that x2 + y2 + z2 = c2t2 is invariant under Lorentz transformation.
(c) How is laser light different from ordinary light? Discuss the working principle of ruby laser. What role do chromium ions play in this process?
(d) Explain the principle of operation of optical fibre. What are the different losses that take place in optical fibre?

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Discuss the principle of 'artificial dielectric'. Where do you find its use?
(b) How large an inductance needs to be connected in series with a 120 V, 60 W lightbulb if it is to operate normally when the combination is connected across a 240 V, 60 Hz supply?
(c) A charge q = 2 mC is placed at a =10 cm from an infinite grounded conducting plane sheet. Find the (i) total charge induced on the sheet, (ii) force on the charge q and (iii) total work required to remove the charge slowly to an infinite distance from the plane.
(d) 1 litre of hydrogen at 127 °C and 106 dynes/cm2 pressure expands isothermally until its volume is doubled and then expands adiabatically until its volume is redoubled. Calculate the resulting pressure. (g = 1.42)
(e) Using the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law, show that there cannot be any negative absolute temperature.

Q6. (a) When a person carrying something metallic walks through the doorway of a metal detector, it emits a sound. Explain the reason behind it. A 200 W resistor and a 15 mF capacitor are connected in series to 220 V, 50 Hz a.c. supply. Calculate the current in the circuit and the r.m.s. voltage across the resistor and the capacitor. Is the algebraic sum of these voltages more than the supply voltage? If yes, resolve the paradox.
(b) (i) Write down Stefan-Boltzmann law of radiation and derive it from Planck's law of radiation.
(ii) An aluminium foil of relative emittance 0.1 is placed between two concentric spheres (assumed perfectly black) at temperatures 300 K and 200 K respectively. Find the temperature of the foil once the steady state is reached.
(c) Write down the electromagnetic wave equations in non-conducting dielectric medium. Hence show that the velocity of wave propagation is given by n = Ö1/em, where the symbols have their usual meanings.
(d) A current i(t) = (2e-t -e-2t) mA charges up a 120 nF capacitor for a period of 2 seconds. If the final voltage across the capacitor is 15 V, what was the initial voltage across it?

Q7. (a) (i) Why does a soap bubble expand upon electrification?
(ii) A sphere of radius R contains a charge +Q and a charge -Q distributed uniformly in the upper and lower hemispheres respectively. Show that the dipole moment of charge distribution is 3/4 QRk, where k is directed along the polar axis of the spherical coordinate system.
(b) (i) Discuss briefly the features of 'guard rings'.
(ii) The plates of a capacitor are square-shaped, each of side l. The plates are inclined at an angle a to each other. The smallest distance between the plates is a. Calculate the capacitance when a is small.
(c) Write down the physical significance of Maxwell's equations and explain the concept of displacement current by using a proper example.
(d) Derive Clausius-Clapeyron equation. How does it explain the effect of pressure on melting point of solids and boiling point of liquids?

Q8. (a) Write and explain the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution. Using this distribution, find the expressions for the most probable speed, mean speed and root-mean-square speed.
(b) Calculate the critical temperature for helium, given the values for critical constants, a = 6.15x10-5, b =9.95x10-4, where the unit of pressure is atm and the sample is kept at NTP.
(c) A reversible engine converts 1/6 of the heat input into work. When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62 °C, its efficiency is doubled. Find the temperatures of source and sink.
(d) Explain Bose-Einstein distribution and obtain the same from the grand canonical ensemble.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mechanical Engineering


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mechanical Engineering


MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
(Paper - 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Pleasc read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated. Diagrams/figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) A beam AB of length 2 m, hinged at A and supported at B by a cord which passes over two frictionless pulleys (P, Q), carries a 50 kN load as shown in Fig. 1(a). Determine the distance x, where 100 kN load is located on the beam, if the beam is to remain in equilibrium in horizontal position. Also determine the reaction at the hinged end.

(b) A state of plane stress is shown in Fig. 1(b).
Determine the following:

(i) Principal stresses
(ii) Principal planes
(iii) Maximum shear stress

(c) A thin spherical vessel of 1000 mm diameter and 2 mm thickness is subjected to an internal pressure of 4 MPa. The Young's modulus and Poisson's ratio are 200 GPa and 0-3 respectively. Find the following :

(i) Hoop stress fit
(ii) Change in volume of the vessel

(d) A steam engine develops 300 kW power at 9.5 rad/s. The coefficient of fluctuation of energy is found to be 0.1 and fluctuation of speed is kept within +0.5% of mean speed. Find the mass of the flywheel required if the radius of gyration is 2m.
(e) A machine of mass 8 kg is supported on springs having combined stiffness of 5.4 N/m. A dashpot is attached to this stern that exerts a force of 40, when the mass has a velocity of 1 m/s. Determine the following:

(i) Critical damping coefficient
(ii) Damping factor
(iii) Logarithmic decrement
(iv) Ratio of two consecutive amplitudes

Q2. (a) A simply supported beam of rectangular section is 200 mm wide and 300mm deep. It supports a uniformly distributed load of 6 KN/m Over an effective span of 4 m as shown in Fig. 2 (a). Calculate the magnitude and direction of the principal stresses at a point located at 0.50 m from the left support and 50 mm above the neutral axis.

(b) Compare the permissible diameter of a steel circular shaft, subjected to torsion, according to the following thcorics of failure. Assume Poisson's ratio to be 0.3 :

(i) Maximum stress theory
(ii) Maximum shear stress theory
(iii) Maximum strain thcory

(c) Fig. 2(c) shows three fat blocks positioned on the 30° incline. A force P parallel to the incline is applied to the middle block. The movement of the upper block is prevented by attaching to a fixed support by a wire. The coefficient of static friction for each of the three pairs of mating surfaces is shown in the figure. Determine the maximum value which P may have before any slipping takes place.

Q3. (a) A solid aluminum shaft 1 m long and 50 mm diameter is to be replaced by a tubular steel shaft of the length and the same outside diameter (i.e., 50 mm) such that each of the two shafts could have the same angle of twist per unit tensional moment over the total length. What must the inner diameter of the tubular steel shaft be? The modulus of rigidity of steel is three times that of aluminum.
(b) A compound epicycle gear is shown in Fig. 3(b). friar A, Dared I are free to rotate on axis P. Compound gears B and Rotate together on axis Q at the end of arm P. All the gears have equal pitch. The number of external teeth on cars A, B and Gars 18, 45 and 21 respectively. Gears D and are annular gears. Gear A rotates at 100 r.p.m. in counter-clockwise direction and gear D rotates at 450 r.p.m, clockwise. Find the speed and direction of arm F and gear E.

(c) For a eutectoid steel, draw and label continuous cooling transformation (CCT) diagram. Explain normalizing and hardening heat treatment with regard to phase transformation using relevant cooling curves on CCT diagram.

Q4. (a) Four masses A, B, C and D are attached to a shaft and revolve in the same plane. The tresses are 13 kg, 10 kg, 18 kg and 15 kg respectively and their radii pouf rotator are 40mm, 50mm, 60mm and 30mm respectively. The angular position of mass B, C and D arc60o 135o 270o from the mass A. Find the magnitude and position of balancing mass at a radius of 100mm.
(b) Draw the stress-strain diagram for mild steel and describe the salient points of the curve.
(c) A Porter governor having all arms of 240 mm length is pivoted on the axis of rotation. Each ball has a mass of 5 kg and the load on the sleeve is 18 kg. The ball path is 150 mm when the sleeve begins to rise and 200 mm at the maximum speed. Find the following:

(i) Range of speed
(ii) Coefficient of sensitiveness, if the friction at the sleeve is equivalent to a forces of 10 N.

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Electrochemical machining of 400 mm2 surface of iron is performed using supply voltage of 15 V and tool-workpiece gap of 0.3 mm. Considering gap resistance for the flow of current through electrolyte to be 0.0015W ,calculate the frietal removal rate, MRR (m3/s).
The relevant data for iron are the following:

Valency = 2
Atomic weight = 55.85
Density = 7860 kg/m3
Faraday's constant = 96540 coulombs

(b) An annealed copper plate of 300 mm width and 20 mm thickness is rolled to 16 mm thickness in one pass. Considering radius of the roller as 400 mm, rotational speed of 80 r.p.m. and average flow stress during rolling as 400 MP3, calculate the true strairi and rolling force (kN).
(c) The machining of steel is carried out using two types of cutting tool, i.e., tool A and tool B. Data/technical parameters related with tools are given below in the table, which tool will you prefer for 200 minutes of tool life and why?

(d) Describe the philosophy of lean management including waste and value stream with regard to manufacturing.
(e) The demand for an item is 500 units and 600 units for July and August respectively. Considering forecast for July as 300 units, determine the forecast for September using exponential smoothing method. Assume value of a as 0.3.

Q6. (a) For orthogonal turning using a cutting tool having a rake angle of 5o, the following data is given :

Chip-thickness ratio = 0.5
Rake angle = 5o
Main cutting force = 1600 N
Thrust force = 1300 N

Calculate the shear planc angle, friction force (N), normal force (N) and coefficient of friction at chip-tool interface.

(b) Two aluminum plates are welded using tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding process with the help of welding current 150 A, arc voltage 12 V and arc travel speed 2 mm/s. Considering heat transfer efficiency of TIG welding process as 90% and heat required for melting unit column of metal (AI) as 15J/mm3, calculate the melting efficiency of the process if the cross-sectional area of the weld joint is 20mm2
(c) Explain the principle of abrasive waterjet machining using suitable schematic. Write the advantages and applications of abrasive waterjet machining.

Q7. (a) The following limits are specified to give a clearance fit between a shaft and a hole in a limit system :

Calculate the following:

(i) Basic size
(ii) Shaft and hole tolerances
(iii) Shaft and hole limits
(iv) Maximum and minimum clearances

(b) Lathe machine operations take 40 min to produce a product. If the efficiency of the lathe machine is 80% and rejection is 20%, then determine the number of lathe machines required for producing 800 pieces per week. Assume 52 weeks per year and 48 hours per week as working hours available.
(c) A manufacturing company is producing an item for which the following information is given :

Selling price per unit = 20
Variable cost per unit = 10
Fixed cost = 2,00,000

However due to changing market condition, variable cost incrcased by 20% and fixed cost increased by 10%. If the breakdown quantity is maintained, then what will be the revised selling price?

Q8. (a) Monthly consumption of an item is 350 units and price per unit is 15. Inventory carrying cost is 20 percent and ordering cost is 40 per order; lead time pf 1 month stock. Assuming ROL system, calculate the following:

(i) Reorder quantity
(ii) Reordering level
(iii) Minimum level
(iv) Maximum level
(v) Average inventory

(b) A car manufacturer performs final inspection before shipping to the dealers. The final inspection involves testing and inspection of car with regard to number of parameters. There is a possibility that a car may fail to satisfy various parameters (which can be termed as defects). Periodically ten (10) cars were taken randomly for testing and inspection. Data obtained after inspection and testing of each car with regard to number of defects is given below. Determine the control limits for C chart and comment :

(c) Describe different types of control systems possible for CNC operations along with respective applications using suitable schematic.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Medical Science


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Medical Science


MEDICAL SCIENCE
(Paper: I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. Coloured pencils may be used for the purpose.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-answer Booklet must be clearly stuck off.

SECTION A

Q1. (a) Write in short about Embalming.
(b) Describe microscopically, the cellular components of lungs. Add a note on fetal distress syndrome.
(c) Describe the developmental component and nerve supply of the tongue.
(d) Describe the functions of spinocerebellum.
(e) Tabulate the findings of various biochemical tests in blood and urine of patients of pre-hepatic, hepatic and post-hepatic jaundice.

Q2. (a) Describe how iron is absorbed, transported and stored in our body. Give the different tests done to assess status of iron in the body.
(b) (i) Enumerate the sites for formation of erythrocytes in the embryo, foetus and adults.
(ii) Describe the characteristic changes in the cytoplasm and nucleus during erythropoiesis.

(c) (i) Describe in detail about hepatic spaces in relation to peritoneal reflection. Add a note on its applied importance.
(ii) Describe blood supply of brain stem and add a note on its applied importance.

Q3. (a) (i) Describe the functions of basal ganglia in voluntary actions.
(ii) Compare the functions of basal ganglia with primary cortex.

(b) Describe the gross anatomy, innervation and applied importance of the urinary bladder. Add a note on autonomous bladder.
(c) Discuss the principle of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technology and outline the steps involved. Write its clinical application.

Q4. (a) (i) Describe the shoulder joint under the following headings:

I. Movement
II. Blood Supply
III. Ligaments

(ii) Give the anatomic basis of black eye.

(b) (i) Show the sucking reflex through a diagram. Describe positive and negative feedback actions of estrogen.
(ii) Describe baroreceptor reflex mechanism in the regulation of blood Pressure.

(c) Justify the statement Vitamin D is a hormone'. Describe the synthesis, mechanism of action and physiological functions of vitamin D.

SECTION B

Q5. (a) Define neoplasm. List five differences between benign and malignant neoplasm.
(b) Explain the challenges in epidemiology and control measures in malaria. Discuss its laboratory diagnosis.
(c) Discuss acute paracetamol poisoning emphasizing on mechanism of toxicity and its treatment.
(d) Describe the gross and microscopic appearance of post-primary tuberculosis of lung.
(e) How will you assess that the injury is "Grievous Hurt' as per Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code ? Illustrate with examples.

Q6. (a) (i) Describe the gross and microscopic features of acute proliferative glomerulonephritis.
(ii) Describe in brief the etiopathogenesis of squamous cell carcinoma of cervix.

(b) Describe the mechanism of action of sulfonamides. Also describe which methods bacteria employ to develop resistance to it.
(c) (i) What are the factors responsible for invasive candida infection. Briefly describe the laboratory diagnosis of bloodstream candida infection.
(ii) Name opportunistic fungal (two) and parasitic (two) agents causing infections in an HIV patient. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them.

Q7. (a) A 16-year-old girl has been brought for medical examination to the hospital by the police with alleged history of rape. How will the medical officer proceed to examine her ? Describe the possible findings. What are the specimens preserved to establish the alleged crime?
(b) Discuss the clinical features, management and post-mortem findings in a case of cyanide poisoning.
(c) Explain the reasons for the following:

(i) Beta blockers should not be given with Verapamil.
(ii) Folinic Acid is administered along with Methotrexate.
(iii) Thiazides are useful in nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus.

Q8. (a) (i) Discuss the pathogenesis of enteric fever. What are the different mechanisms by which salmonella acquires antimicrobial Tesistance
(ii) Define immunological tolerance and discuss its role in autoimmunity, with one example.

(b) A 40-year-old chronic alcoholic male presents himself with ascites, splenomegaly, jaundice and hematomesis.

(i) What is the likely disease in the liver ?
(ii) What is the reason for hematemesis?
(iii) Describe the gross and microscopic features of the liver in this case.

(c) Discuss briefly the mechanism of action, uses and side effects of the following :

(i) Griseofulvin
(ii) Sulfonylurea
(iii) Gentamicin

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mathematics


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mathematics


MATHEMATICS
(Paper - 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) Let A = (2 2 / 1 3) find a non-singular matrix P such that P-1 AP is a diagonal martix.
(b) Show that the similar matrices have the same characteristic polynominal.
(c) Intergrate the function F(x,y) = xy (x2 + y2) over the domain R: {-3<x2-y2<3, 1<xy<4}.
(d) Find the equation of the tangent pane at point (1,1,1) to the conicoid 3x2-y2 = 2z
(e) Find the shortest distance between the skew lines:
x-3/3 = 8-y/1 = z-3/1 and x+3/-3 = y+7/2 = z-6/4.

Q2. (a) Find the volume of the solid above the xy-plane and directly below the portion of the elliptic paraboloid x2 + y2/4 = z which is cut off by the plane z=9.
(b) A palne passes through a fixed point (a,b,c) and cut the axis at the points A, B, C respectively. Find the locus of the centre of the sphere which passes through the origin O and A,B,C.
(c) Show that the plane 2x-2y+z+12 = 0 touches the sphere
x2+y2+z2-2x-4y+2z-3 = 0 find the point of contact.
(d) Suppose U and W are distint four dimensional subspaces of a vector space V, where dim V = 6. Find the possible dimensions of subspace U^W.

Q3. (a)

(b) Prove that distinct non-zero eigenvectors of a matrix are linearly independent.

(c)

(d) Find the locus of the point of intersection of three mutually perpendicular tangent planes to ax2 + by2 + cz2 = 1.

Q4. (a) Reduce the following equation to the standard form and hence determine the nature of the conicoid : x2+y2+z2-yz-zx-xy-3x-6y-9z+21 = 0
(b) Consider the following system of equation in x,y,z:

x+2y+2z = 1
x+ay+3z = 3
x+11y+az = b.

(i) For which value of a does the system have a unique solution?
(ii) For which pair of value (a,b) does the system have more than one solution?

(c)

(d)

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Find the differential equation representing all the circles in the x-y plane.
(b) Support that the streamlines, of the fluid flow are given by a family of curves xy=c. Find the equipotential lines, that is, the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves representing the streamlines.
(c) A fixed wire is in the shape of the cardiod r = a (1 + cosq), the initial line being the downward vertical. A small ring of mass m can slide on the wire and is attached to the point r = 0 of the cardiod by an elastic string of natural length a and modulus of elasticity 4 mg. The string is released from rest when the string is horizontal. Show by using the laws of conservation of energy that aq2(1 + cosq)-g cosq (1 - cosq) = 0, g being the acceleration due to gravity.
(d) For what values of the constants a, b and c the vector V = (x +y+az) + (bx +2-z) + (-3+ Cy+2z) k is irrotational. Find the divergence in cylindrical coordinates of this vector with these values.
(e) The position vector of a moving point at time t is r = sinti+cos 2tj+ (t2 +2y) k. Find the components of acceleration ā in the directions parallel to the velocity vector ū and perpendicular to the plane of r and ū at time t= 0.

Q6. (a) (i) Solve the following simultaneous linear differential equation:
(D+1)y = z+ex and (D+1)z = y+ex where y and z are functions of independent variable x and D = d/dx.
(ii) If the growth rate of the population of bacteria at any time t is proportional to the amount present at that time and population doubles in one week, then how much bacterias can be expected after 4 weeks?

(b) (i) Consider the differential equation xy p2 - (x2 +y2-1) p +xy = 0 where p=d/dx Substituting u=x2 and v = y2 reduce the equation to Clairaut's form in terms of u, v and p' = dv/du. Hence, or otherwise solve the equation.
(ii) Solve the following initial value differential equations :
20y" +4y' +y = 0, y(0) = 3.2 and y' (0) = 0.

(c) A uniform solid hemisphere rests on a rough plane inclined to the horizon at an angle f with its curved surface touching the plane. Find the greatest admissible value of the inclination f for equilibrium. If f be less than this value, is the equilibrium stable ?

Q7. (a) Find the curvature vector and its magnitude at any point r = (q) of the curve r= (a cosq, a sinq, aq). Show that the locus of the feet of the perpendicular from the origin to the tangent is a curve that completely lies on the hyperboloid x2 + y2 - z2 = a2.
(b) (i) Solve the differential equation:

(ii) Solve the Following differential equation using method of variation of parameters:

(c) A particle is free to move on a smooth vertical circular wire of radius a. At time t = 0 it is projected along the circle from its lowest point A with velocity just sufficient to carry it to the highest point B. Find the time I at which the reaction between the particle and the wire is zero.

Q8. (a)

(b)

(c)

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Printed Study Material for IAS Mains General Studies

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Management


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Management


MANAGEMENT
(Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (RCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:

(a) Discuss the contributions of Fayol in the development of management thought.
(b) Explain the concept of Perception and state the factors which have a bearing on the perceptual process of an individual.
(c) Explain five ways of employee empowerment in modern smart governmental organisations.
(d) Discuss contingent and transformational leadership styles with suitable examples from government and private sectors.
(e) What is Job Satisfaction ? What is its relationship with employees' intention to stay, productivity, absenteeism, turnover and accidents ? Answer in the context of Knowledge Based Organisations.

Q2. (a) Define Conflict. What are Intrapersonal and Interpersonal conflicts ? How can these be resolved ? Give examples.
(b) What is the relationship between entrepreneurship and innovation ? Discuss different types of innovations.
(c) Organisational Behaviour is of multidisciplinary nature. Name 10 disciplines including emerging disciplines which contributed to make organisational behaviour. Give one example for each of the disciplines.

Q3. (a) What is Motivation? How can Maslow's Hierarchy theory be used to motivate employees in an organisation ? Explain.
(b) Explain the components of the technology enabled HRIS and feedback mechanism in an organisation. Do they lead to increased motivation and morale ? Substantiate.
(c) What are the potential sources and consequences of stress in the organisational context ? How can we deal with them?

Q4. (a) Explain the challenges of Human Resource Planning in the context of demographic and technological changes.
(b) "A business organisation's sole responsibility is to further the interest of its owners within the boundaries of legal framework and business organisations cannot be charged with social responsibilities.” Do you agree with the statement ? Explain.
(c) What is organisational culture ? How can organisational culture be built ? Explain.

SECTION - B

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:

(a) Define Job Costing and Process Costing. In what ways is Job Costing different from Process Costing ?
(b) Explain the importance of Management Accounting in financial decisions.
(c) "The success of a company depends on its well-planned capital structure.” Examine.
(d) Explain the Miller-Orr model of cash management. How is this model helpful in determination of appropriate cash balance ?
(e) Market segmentation is a compromise between efficiency and effectiveness. Critically evaluate this statement.

Q6. (a) Define Standard Cost and Standard Costing. How is Standard Costing useful in the effective control over the cost ?
(b) Why is customer retention important in the current marketing environment ? Explain the strategies that could be adopted to retain customers for a long period of time.
(c) Explain the operating cycle concept of working capital. How is a close study of operating cycle helpful in the management of working capital ? Explain.

Q7. (a) "Equity capital and Retained earnings provide cost-free capital.” Do you agree with this statement ? Explain the methods for determining their costs.
(b) Define funds from operations. How is it computed ? Explain with example.
(c) Positioning is done in the consumer's mind and not of product. Explain its relevance in the context of a competitive market.

Q8. (a) What is the purpose of reconciling Cost and Financial Accounts ? Explain the causes of difference between costing profits and financial profits.
(b) The consumer does not take buying decisions randomly. Explain the various steps of the consumer decision-making process.
(c) "Leverage serves as a tool which cuts both ways. On one hand it increases the risk and on the other it provides an opportunity to increase return on investment.” Critically examine this statement.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geology


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geology


GEOLOGY
(Paper - 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer(QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Diagrams/sketches, wherever required, may be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

Q1. Write notes on the following in approximately 150 words each :

(a) Seismic hazard zones of India.
(b) Origin of Karst topography.
(c) Digital image processing.
(d) Morphological classification of rock cleavage.
(e) Fault zone rocks

Q2.(a) Discuss different types of plate boundaries and enumerate their characteristic features.
(b) Compare the geomorphological and geological features of peninsular and extrapeninsular regions of India.
(c) What are joints ? Discuss the types of joints developed during folding.

Q3. (a) What are river terraces ? Discuss their geological significance.
(b) How would you differentiate between a fault and an unconformity in the field ?
(c) Giving suitable examples discuss the strategies which may be adopted to control river water pollution.

Q4.(a) Discuss the recent advances and achievements of Indian Space Programme.
(b) Explain, how the geometry of minor folds are helpful in deciphering the geometry of regional folds in an area.
(c) Discuss the advantages and limitations of remote sensing studies with respect to conventional geological field work.

SECTION - B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words :

(a) Discuss the environment and modes of fossilization.
(b) Discuss the tectonic sub-divisions of Himalaya.
(c) Water bearing characteristics of rocks.
(d) Concept of rainwater harvesting.
(e) Lower Gondwana flora and its significance.

Q6. How would you differentiate between in-situ' and ‘derived fossils ?
(b) Geological considerations for construction of tunnels in deformed geological terrain.
(c) Give a stratigraphic account of Vindhyan Supergroup. Comment upon the life during Vindhyan times.

Q7.(a) Write short notes on the following:

(i) Muth Quartzites
(ii) Lameta Formation
(iii) Tipam Formation

(b) Describe the significance of microfossils in petroleum exploration.
(c) Discuss the geological considerations for selection of a dam site in Himalayan terrain.

Q8.(a) What do you understand by groundwater recharge ? Describe various methods used in this process.
(b) Give an account of evolutionary trends in Equidae.
(c) Give a geological account of Deccan volcanic province.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geography


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geography


GEOGRAPHY
Paper - I

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary.

These shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION A

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

(a) Write a note on pseudovolcanic features.
(b) Distinguish between low energy coasts and coral coasts.
(c) Discuss the impacts of ocean currents on air mass behaviour.
(d) Describe the characteristics of biological deserts.
(e) Explain the concept of micro carbon sink and its relevance.

Q2. (a) Discuss the forces which govern the air movement on the Earth's surface.
(b) “The knowledge of slope analysis has limited field application in the slope management.” Explain.
(c) Describe the configuration of the Pacific Ocean floor.

Q3. (a) "Climate change is a reality.” Explain with suitable examples.
(b) Distinguish between the characteristics of Chernozem and Sierozem Soils.
(c) Give a classification of plants based on the amount of water requirement.

Q4. (a) Discuss the concept of Periglacial cycle as propounded by Peltier.
(b) "Climate, slope gradient and rock structure influence the avulsion of channels.” Explain.
(c) Discuss the Perception, Attitude, Value and Emotion (PAVE) Theory of environmental management.

SECTION B

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

(a) Explain the concept of Time-Geography.
(b) “Whittlesey's agricultural regions are relevant even today.” Discuss.
(c) Write an explanatory note on geographical systems.
(d) “The traditional cultural identities are at loss with the growth of global connectivity.” Explain.
(e) Give an account on sustainable development and its components.

Q6. (a) Discuss the contemporary paradigms of Geography.
(b) "The intensity of energy crisis varies regionally.” Explain.
(c) Examine the causes and consequences of forced migration of population in the present context.

Q7. (a) Discuss the applicability of Christaller's Central Place Theory.
(b) “There are considerable demographic similarities between West European nations and Japan.” Explain.
(c) Define the quality of life and explain its parameters with adequate examples.

Q8. (a) "The Heartland Theory is gaining importance once again". Comment.
(b) Examine the role of small towns in the regional development process.
(c) Explain the concept of social capital in relation to India.

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Electrical Engineering


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Electrical Engineering


ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
(PAPER-I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary and indicate the same clearly.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

1. (a) For the circuit shown in Fig. 1(a), find the current through 5 2 resistor by using Thevenin's theorem and verify the same by using superposition theorem.


(b) A continuous time signal X(t) is shown in Fig. 1(b). Sketch and label each of the following signals :

(i) x(t) u(2-t)
(ii) x(t) d(t-7/2)

(c) Show that for a distortionless transmission line, the attenuation constant a. does not depend on frequency, whereas the phase constant b depends linearly on it.
(d) For thie circuit given in Fig- 1(d)

(i) draw the input and output waveforms;
(ii) find the average value of the output voltage waveform.
Assume that the diode in the circuit is ideal.

(e) A 15-hp, 220-V, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 6-pole, Y-connected induction Instrar has the following parameters per phase :

r1 = 0.128 W, r2 = 0.0935 W, (x1 + x2) = 0.496 W, re = 183 W, xf = 8 W

The rotational losses are equal to the stator core losses (hysteresis and eddy-current). For a slip of 3%, find the line current and power factor.

2. (a) For the Boolean function

F (W, X, Y, Z) = [0, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 13)

(i) find all the prime implicants;
(ii) give minimal representation;
(iii) find minimal two-level realization using NAND gates only.

(b) (i) What is meant by an infinite transmission line? Also, explain the term 'electrical length' of a transmission line. In what units is it measured?
(ii) Determine the electrical length of a 20 m long transmission line operating at 1 MHz, if u = 0.7c on the line. Take c = 3 x 108 m/s.

(c) Discuss the properties of a probability density function. What additional features a normal distribution has?

3. (a) The following test data were taken on a 30-kVA, 2400/240V, 50-Hz, single-phase transformer :

Open-circuit test : V = 2400V, I = 0.3 A, P = 230 W
Short-circuit test : V = 70V, I = 18.8 A, P = 1050 W

Determine the primary voltage, real and reactive power input, and efficiency, when a current of 12.5 A at 240 V is drawn from the low-voltage side by a load of 0.8 p.f. lagging.

(b) A three-phase uncontrolled diode rectifier supplies a constant load current of 10 A and its supply voltage is 400 , V 1ine-to-line. Determine the following performance measures :

(i) Average output voltage
(ii) Supply r.m.s. current
(iii) Supply fundamental r.m.s. Current
(iv) Supply 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th harmonic r.m.s. current
(v) Supply current displacement factor
(vi) Supply power factor
(vii) AC power (supply power)
(vii) Dc power (load power)

(c) Consider the R-L-C circuit showri in Fig. 3(c), wherein

4. (a) Explain and differentiate between the single sideband (SSB) modulation and double sideband suppressed carrier (DSB-SC) modulation Show the DSB-SC modulated waveform for any chosen base band signal waveform and spectrum of the base band and the DSB-SC modulated wave,
(b) Find the Laplace transform of the function f(t) = u (sin 2t).
(c) Find the average voltage at the point Vo, in the circuit given in Fig. 4(c) :

SECTION - B

5. (a) Prove that AB + BC + AC = AB + BC.
(b) An industrial consumer is operating a 1 kW induction motor at a lagging power factor of 0.8 and at a source voltage of 200V, r.m.s. In order to reduce expenditure on power consumption, he wishes to raise the power factor to 0.95 lagging by connecting a circuit element in parallel with the load. Indicate the type of the circuit element (inductive or capacitive) and find the value if the operating frequency is 50 Hz.
(c) (i) Explain the operation of Boost converter with voltage and current waveforms across the Boost inductor. Assume continuous conduction.
(ii) Derive its output voltage equation in terms of duty cycle and input voltage.

(d) An amplitude modulated signal, viewed on an oscilloscope, has a crest voltage of 44 V peak-to-peak. The bottom (or trough) point of the wave measures 6V peak-to-peak. Find the modulation factor, percentage modulation and peak-to-peak un-modulated carrier voltage.
(e) Obtain z-parameters of a two-port network in terms of its ABCD Parameters.

6. (a) Find the value of average current flow through the load resistor for the circuit given in Fig. 6(a).
(b) Find the value of r.m.s. current drawn from the source.

(b) Determine the transfer function and there from the impulse response of the causal linear time invariant system described by the difference equation

y[n] - 1/4 y[n-1] - 3/8 y[n-2] = -x [n] + 2x [n-1]

(c) (i) Draw the circuit diagram of Wien bridge oscillator using OP-AMP.
(ii) Find the value of R to get a sustained oscillation of 1115 Hz. Assume that the value of the capacitor is 0.1 uF.

7. (a) The electric field and magnetic field in free space are given by


Express these fields in phasor form and determine the constants Ho, and bsuch that these fields satisfy Maxwell's equations. The permeability and permittivity of the free space are 4px 10-7 H/m and 8.854 x 10-12 F/m. respectively.
(b) Find the state transition diagram and rcalization using J-K flip-flops to count Mod 7 in the following sequence :

000, 001, 011, 100, 101, 111

(c) A 230-V, 10-hp DC series motor draw a line current of 36 A, when delivering rated power at its rated speed of 1200 r.p.m. The armature circuit resistance is 0.2W and the series field winding resistance is 0.1W. The magnetization curve may be considered linear.

(i) Find the speed of this motor when it draws a line current of 20 A.
(ii) What is the developed torque at the new condition?

8. (a) A 400-V, 3-phase balanced source is connected to an unbalanced D-connected load of impredance Zab = 10+ 45oW, Zca = 10 - 0oW and Zca = 10 - 45oW.Determine the line currents (in phasor form), total active (real) and reactive power.
(b) (i) Draw the circuit diagram of a bandpass filter using OP-AMP. Its parameters are fL = 300 Hz, fH = 2 kHz arad passband gain is 4.
(ii) Calculate thie value of Q, Assume that the capacitor value is 0.01 uF.

(c) Differentiate between stationary and non-stationary random processes. Give the properties of the first- and second-order distribution function of stationary random processes.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Economics

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Economics

ECONOMICS
(Paper I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximuml Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one W

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Graphs/illustrations, wherever required, may be drawn/given in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION A

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words :

1. (a)  Derive the expansion path for a firm operating with the Cobb-Douglas Production Function.

1. (b) “Under monopolistic competition a firm enjoys monopoly power without enjoying monopoly profit.” - Explain.

1. (c) Show that in the complete Keynesian model only fiscal policy is effective during a period of depression.

1.(d)  Explain the difference between the assumptions of New Classical and the New Keynesian approaches in managing individuals and markets.

1.(e) Show that full employment is the logical conclusion of the Classical macro model.

2.(a)  optimality conditions are necessary but not sufficient conditions for social welfare maximisation.” Comment.

2. (b) Discuss briefly the circumstances where fiscal expansion leads to full crowding out.

2. (c)  Explain how the equilibrium employment and real wage would change in a typically classical model if, in the event of increase in supply of labour, money wage becomes rigid.

3. (a) How Chamberlin uses planned sales curve to explain equilibrium of a firm and group when the entry of firms is permitted ?

3. (b) Demonetisation is expected to result in' a fall in the ratio of currency to deposit. Using the money multiplier theory explain its possible impact on supply of money.

3. (c)  Why do you expect a high correlation between the money supply and aggregate expenditure ? Does this resolve the monetarist-fiscalist debate ?

4. (a) What is financial repression ? Mention some of its consequences.

4.(b)  Transaction demand for money is not always interest rate inelastic." Discuss. 15 

4.(c)  Explain the Keynesian and classical extreme monetary assumptions for showing their effects on the slope of the LM curve.

SECTION 'B'

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

5. (a) Distinguish between effective and differential tax incidence.

5.(b) Write a short note on gravity model of trade.

5.(c)  Determine optimum tariff of a country with the help of offer curve.

5.(d)  What is solow-residual ? What are its implications ?

5.(e)  What are the implications of trade in higher education under GATS for India ?

6.(a)  "The consumption and production effects of a tariff for a commodity depend on the elasticities of demand and supply respectively.” Discuss.

6. (b) "Monetary Contraction is a better option than devaluation to improve balance of payments position of a developing economy under fixed exchange rate system.” Discuss.

6. (c)  Do you agree with the view that the honeymoon with free trade under W.T.O. is at an end ? Give reasons for your answer.

7. (a)  Petroleum is sold in the world market and priced in US dollars. RISCO in India must import petroleum to use it in its manufacturing. How are its profit affected when Indian rupee depreciates against the US dollar ?

7 (b)  State and discuss Arrow Impossibility theorem. How does Sen modify it for social welfare maximisation ?

7. (c) Show that Cobb-Douglas Production Function exhibits both Hicks and Harrod neutral technical progress.

8. (a) "In view of economic uncertainties, Hirschman approach to economic development makes more sense.” 'Discuss.

8. (b) "The trade-off between environment and development remains unresolved.” Comment in view of the United States exiting from Paris Climate Agreement.

8. (c)  Discuss the problem of intergenerational inequity arising out of internal public debt.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Commerce & Accountancy

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Commerce & Accountancy

COMMERCE AND ACCOUNTANCY
(Paper - I)

Time Allowed: Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has also attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question /part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-c471-Armer Booklet bust be clearly struck off

SECTION A

Q1. Answer the following in about 150 words each :

(a) State the provisions of Indian Accounting Standards regarding Foreign Exchange Transactions,
(b) Distinguish between Internal Reconstruction and External Reconstruction of Companies.
(c) Define Responsibility Centre”. Explain its various types.
(d) Write a note on 'Service Tax'.
(e) "Verification of Advances is an important function of an auditor of a Bank", Explain.

Q2. (a) The Balance Sheets of Rakesh Ltd. and Lokesh Ltd. as at 31.12.2013 were as follows:

Rakesh Ltd. took over and absorbed Lokesh Ltd. as on 1.7.2014. No balance sheet of Lokesh Ltd. was prepared on the date of takeover, but the following information is made available to you:

(i) In the six months ended 30.6.2014 Lokesh Lud. made a net profit of 60,000 after providing for depreciation at 10% per annum on fixed assets.
(ii) Rakesh Ltd. during that period made a net profit of  1,45,000 after providing for depreciation at 10% per annum on the fixed assets.
(iii) Both the companies had distributed dividends of 10% on 1.4.2014.
(iv) Goodwill of Lokesh Ltd. on the date of takeover was estimated at 25,000 and it was agreed that the stocks of Lokesh Ltd. would be appreciated by 15,000 on the date of takeover.
(v) Rakesh Ltd. to issue shares to Lokesh Ltd. on the basis of the intrinsic value of the shares on the date of takcover.

Prepare the Balance Sheet of Rakosh Ltd, after absorption.

(b) How is Differential Cost Analysis helpful in decision-making ?
(c) "Residential status has its effect on computation of taxable income under the Income Tax Act, 1961." Discuss.

Q3. (a) A company manufacturing two products furnishes the following data for year :

The annual overheads are as under:

Volume Related activities costs - 5,50,000
Set-up related costs - 8,20,000
Purchased related costs - 6,18,000

You are required to calculate the cost per unit of each product ‘A’ and B* based on
(i) Traditional method of charging overheads
(ii) Activity based costing method

(b) Discuss the provisions of Indian Accounting Standards on Accounting for Depreciation.
(c) Mr. 'X' owns two house properties, 'A' and 'B'. Property 'A' is used by him for his own residential purpose, whereas property 'B' is let out to a tenant for a monthly rent of 15,000 throughout the financial year 2016 - 17. The other particulars in respect of the properties are as under:

The following further information is available :

(i) Out of interest of 3 1,20,000 on home loan taken for construction of property 'B', an amount of 30,000 was outstanding payable as at 31.3.2017
(ii) Mr. x was employed by ABC Ltd. on a monthly salary of 750,000 plus monthly travelling allowance of 10,000.
(iii) He donated during the year * 1,50,000 to a charitable trust approved under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
(iv) He spent 7,500 for his health check-up during the year.

You are required to compute Total Taxable Income of Mr. 'X' for the Assessment Year 2017 - 18.

Q4. (a) A bank has received an application from a customer for a loan. You have to investigate on behalf of the bank the accounts of the customer. Highlight those points you would like to concentrate upon.
(b) Define 'Normal Wastage', 'Abnormal Wastage' and 'Abnormal Effectiveness'. State how these are treated in Process Costing.
(c) Mr. 'A' inherited a residential house from his father in January 2015. His father had bought the said house in the year 1979 at a cost of 370,000. Mr. 'A' sold the house in June 2016 for a sale consideration of 17,00,000 and the registered valuer has valued the said house at * 1,00,000 as at 1.4.1981. The Cost Inflation Index (CII) is as under:

Financial Year CII
1981 - 82       100
2015-16         1000
2016-17         1200

You are required to compute the income from capital gains for the Assessment Year 2017 - 18. Also suggest the actions, if any, that may be taken by Mr. 'A' to avoid tax on capital gains.

SECTION B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words each;

(a) "Profit maximisation is the goal of Financial Management." Critically examine.
(b) Discuss the Risk-Return Trade-off in financial decisions.
(c) Distinguish between Money Market and Capital Market.
(d) Discuss the various methods of deciding exchange ratio in merger of companies.
(e) State the valuation formula put forward by James Walter. Also explain the logic behind it.

Q6. (a) A company sells 2600 units of 'Mixer' at र2,000 cash, annually. The details of cost per unit are as follows:

Raw and Packing Materials  800
Direct Wages                      400
Overhead Expenses            400

Overhead expenses include 2-60 lakhs on depreciation. Production is evenly maintained over the year, on a weekly basis. All sales are on credit. Materials are introduced at the beginning of the process. The following additional information is also available:

Raw Material and Packing Materials in stock - 4 weeks
Work-in-Progress (Material 100%, Labour overhead 50) - 1 week
Finished Goods - 1 week
Credit Allowed to Debtors - 6 week
Credit Allowed by Suppliers - 4 week
(Cash balance to the maintained is 60,000, Calculate the Net Working Capital Requirements of the company.

(b) Discuss the role of SEBI in regulating the Capital Market.
(c) Define Capital Rationing. Explain the factors leading to Capital Rationing and also state the situations of Capital Rationing.

Q7. (a) The following information is related to "Alpha Co. Ltd.' for the year tended 31.3.2018:

Equity Share Capital ( 10 each) - 50 lakhs
12% Bonds of 1,000 each - 37 lakhs
Sales - 54 lakhs
Fixed Cost (excluding interest) - 6.96 lakhs
Financial Leverage - 1.49
Profit Volume Ratio - 27.55%
Income Tax Applicable - 40%

You are required to calculate

(i) Operating Leverage
(ii) Combined Leverage
(iii) Earning Per Share

(b) Explain the techniques used by the Credit Manager in monitoring the status and the composition of Accounts Receivables.
(c) What is Commercial Paper ? Explain its significance and the pre-conditions for the issue of Commercial Paper.

Q8.

(a)


      

The following additional information is available:

(i) During the financial year 2014 - 15, the company issued equity shares at par.
(ii) Debentures were redeemed on 1.4.2014 at a premium of 10%.
(iii) Some investments were sold at a profit of 75,000 and the profit was credited to General Reserve Account.
(iv) During the year, an old machine costing 23,50,000 was sold for 6,25,000. Its written down value was 8,00,000. Depreciation is to be provided on plant and machinery at 20% on the opening balance.
(vi) There was no purchase or sale of land and building,
(vii) Provision for tax made during the year was 4,50,000.

You are required to prepare a Cash Flow Statement for the year ended 31.3.2015

(b) Define 'Optimum Capital Structure. Discuss the major considerations in the Optimum Capital Structure planning of a firm.
(c) Explain the significance of the following Accounting Ratios :

(i) Debt-Equity Ratio
(ii) Acid Test Ratio
(iii) Inventory Turnover Ratio
(iv) Operating Profit Ratio
(v) Current Ratio

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Printed Study Material for IAS Mains General Studies

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Civil Engineering


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Civil Engineering


CIVIL ENGINEERING
(Paper 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Question Nos.

1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (OCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated.

Diagrams/Figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Questioncum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION "A"

1.(a) A vertical isosceles triangular gate with its vertex up has a base width of 2 m and a height of 1.5 m. If the vertex of gate is 1 m below the free water surface, find the total pressure force and the position of centre of pressure.
(b) What are the advantages of High Strength Friction Grip bolts ? How the load is transferred in High Strength Friction Grip bolts ? Explain with sketches.
(c) An undisturbed soil at a borrow pit has a water content 12 per Cent, void ratio 0.55 and specific gravity of solids 2.62. The soil from the borrow pit is to be used for the construction of an embankment. The specifications for the embankment require a dry density of 17.5 kN/m3 with a water content of 18-5 per cent. Calculate the quantity of water in litres which is required to be added to the borrow pit soil per m3 of finished embankment.

(d) A lever is loaded as shown in the above figure.

(i) Calculate the moment of force at Point A.
(ii) Calculate the amount of horizontal force to be applied at B to produce the same amount of moment of force as calculated above.
(iii) Calculate smallest amount of force to be applied at B, to produce the same amount of moment of force as calculated in part (1).
(iv) Calculate the distance of point on lever, where 1:20 kN vertical force to be applied to produce same amount of moment of force as calculated in part (i).

Calculate bending moment and shear force and plot their variation for the frame shown in the above figure.

2.(a) A 0.3 m diameter pipe carries water at a velocity of 24.4 m/s. At points A and B, the pressures were measured 361 kPa and 288 kPa respectively. The elevations of points
A and B were as 30.5m and 33.5m respectively. Find the loss of head between A and B.
2.(b) A light weight building stands over a 10 m thick stratum of sand. Beneath the sand stratum a clay layer of 5 m thick exists. The clay layer is underlain by a rock stratum. The water table lies at a depth of 1-0 m below ground surface and the sand above the water table is saturated with capillary rise. The sand has a void ratio of 0.75 and sp. g. 2.65. During dry season, water is pumped out from the sand stratum till the water table is lowered by 4.0 m and sand above water table becomes dry. Calculate the number of days when the building settles by 25 mm. Ignore settlement during pumping operation. Take properties of clay : Void ratio = 0-60, Sp. gr. = 2.70, Liquid limit = 40%, Coefficient of consolidation = 6x10-3 cm2/s.
2. (c) Details of a dog-legged stair for a building is shown in the above figure. The floor to floor height is 30 m. The live load may be taken as 2.5 kN/m thickness of the stair slab is 150 Tim. The rise and tread are 150 mm and 250 mm respectively. Design and detail the typical flight. Use M-25 of concrete and Fe-500 grade of steel. Use limit state method.

3. (a) In a consolidated drained triaxial test (CD test) a specimen of saturated sand failed under a deviator stress of 220 kPa when the cell pressure was 100 kPa. Determine the shear strength parameters, the shear strength and the maximum shear stress.
(b) An oil of dynamic viscosity 1-5 poise and relative density 0-9 flows through a 3 cm diameter vertical pipe. Two pressure gauges are fixed 20 m apart. The gauge A fixed at the top records 200 kPa and gauge B fixed at the bottom records 500 kPa. Find the direction of flow and the rate of flow.
(c) Calculate the vertical displacement of joint B of plane truss given in the above figure by unit load method. All members of truss have constant cross-sectional area and sattle material (Constalit A & E).

4. (a) The above figure shows a two-layered backfill behind a 9.0 m high retaining wall with a smooth vertical back. Draw the total active earth pressure distribution diagram and find the point of application of the resultant earth pressure.

(b) Two moving loads, 300 kN cach and spaced 40 m apart, cross a 20-0 m long simply supported girder from left to right as shown above. Calculate the absolute maximum bending moment due to these moving loads.

(c) A square hollow section is connected to the flange of ISMB 600 as shown in the above figure. The bracket is subjected to symmetrical vertical and horizontal load of each 50 kN. The size of SHS is 150x150x6 mm. Find the weld size required for the connection.

SECTION "B"

5. (a) A 1:50 scale spill-way model has discharge of 1:25 m/s. What is the corresponding prototype discharge ? If a flood phenomenon takes 12 hours to occur in the prototype, how long should it take in the model ?
(b) The design mix proportion of Cement: Fine agg. : Coarse agg. : Water for a concrete mix of grade M-25 at Saturated Surface Dry (SSD) condition is l: 1:2:24 : (0-4 (by weight). Find out the revised mix proportion due to change of material characteristics (Fine and Coarse agg.) for raining day before casting at site.
Given : (i) Sp. gravity of Fine and Coarse agg. = 2.6 and 2.65 respectively.
(ii) Surface moisture (%) on Fine and Coarse agg. = 2.5 and 1.5 respectively.
How the durability factor is taken up during concrete mix design as per I.S. code?
(c) A foundation trench is to be excavated for a large project in a site. The soil investigation report shows the following details :

It is observed that an open excavation is stable up to 5.75 m depth with the existing water table. The excavation is to be made up to 8-5 m depth for which water table is to be lowered. What are the initial and final depths of water table ?

(d) Two bars of 50 mm dia are connected as shown in the above figure. Find the maximum load P that can be applied. E = 2x10-5 MPa.
(e) Calculate the maximum shear stress in a hollow circular shaft having 300 mm external diameter and 150 mm internal diameter. This shaft is subjected to a twisting moment of 4 kN-m. If modultus of Rigidity G = 82 GN/m, calculate the twist for a length of 20 times the external diameter of shaft.

6. (a) Three beam members are connected at the joint B as shown in the above figure. Joint B is subjected to a clockwise moment of 100 KN-m. Calculate the moment at A, C and D by Moment Distribution Method. All beam elements have constant cross-sectional area and materials. (Constant I and E)

(b)

(c) A horizontal rectangular channel 4 m wide carries a discharge of 16 m/s. Determine whether a jump may occur at an initial depth of 0:5 m or not. Determine the sequent depth to this initial depth. Also find the energy loss in this jump.

7. (a) A Pelton wheel turbine develops 5520 KW power under a head of 240 m at an overall efficiency of 80%. The turbine is running at a speed of 200 r.p,m. Find the unit discharge, unit power and unit speed assuming peripheral coefficient as 0:46. If the head on the same turbine falls during summer season to 150 m, find the discharge, power and speed for this head.
(b) An anchored sheetpile founded in a cohesive soil is to retain a sandy backfill as shown in the above figure. Calculate the depth of embedment of the sheet pile and the pull in the anchor.

(c) Calculate maximum bending stress and shear stress at the fixed end of a cantilever beam as shown in the above figure. Also sketch the variations of bending stress and shear stress at fixed end. Beam has a uniform thickness of 50 mm. Beam has a depth of 200 mm at free end and 300 mm at fixed end.

8. (a) A cantilever retaining wall is to be constructed to retain earth embankment 3.1 m high above ground level. The unit weight of earth is 19 kN/m' and its angle of repose is 35o. Dimensions of the wall are shown in the above figure and the wall is safe against all stability check. Design the stem of the wall using M-25 and Fe500. Detail the reinforcement in stein also. Use Limit State Method. Given :

(b) Air flows over a flat plate 1 m long at a velocity of 6 m/sec. Determine

(i) the boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate,
(ii) shear stress at the middle of the plate,
(iii) total drag per unit length on both sides of the plate. Take mass density of air p = 1.226 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity of air V = 0-15x10-4 m2/sec.

(c)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Chemistry


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Chemistry


CHEMISTRY
(Paper I)

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum Marrls : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.

Coordinate diagrams, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION “A”

1. (a) What is resonance energy? What are the conditions which permit structures to have resonance ? Discuss resonance taking the example of CO23-  ion.
(b) For an ideal gas, the distribution law of molecular speed is,

where,
dNc = Number molecules within the speed range c and (c + dc).
N = Total number of molecules.
m = Molecular mass.
T = Temperature in Kelvin scale,
Derive the expression of most probable speed of this gaseous system.

(c) Define Joule-Thomson coefficient (mJT). What is its unit in SI system ? Show that

(d) (i) Four-phase sulphur system (in equilibrium) is impossible. Explain.
(ii) In open container, on heating, solid sulphur melts, but solid iodine sublimes. Explain.
1.(e) Write down the Debye-Hückel limiting equation with symbolic significances and their units. Calculate mean ionic activity co-efficient of 0.1 M NaCl (aq) solution at 25°C. The value of Debye-Huickel constant (A) is 0.51 mol-12 L1/2

2.(a) (i) What is the dimension of viscosity co-efficient ? What is its unit in SI system ? The temperature effect on viscosity co-efficient of ideal gas is positive. Explain.
(ii) Define Boyle temperature of non-ideal gas. Obtain its expression for van der Waals' gas.
(b) Find the change in surface area and energy when two identical mercury droplets of diameter 2 mm merged isothermally to one drop. Given that surface tension of mercury is 490 dyne cm at experimental temperature.
(c) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the disproportion reaction :

3.(a) At constant pressure, the temperature of a fixed amount of hot tea in a cup decreases spontaneously to room temperature. What will be the sign of (I) DH and (II) DG of this process ? Give reason(s) in support of your answer.
(ii) DG (J mol-1) for an electrochemical reaction, as a function of temperature, T (K) is given by DG = a + bT+ cT2 where a, b and c are constants and independent of T.

(I) What are the units of a, b and c? and
(II) Find the expressions of DS and DH as a function of T.

(b) What is its unit in SI system ? Is it intensive property ? Answer with justification. What factors influence its value ?
(c) Polonium crystallizes in the cubic system. Using X-ray of wavelength 0.154 nm, first order Bragg reflections occur at sind values 0.225, 0.316 and 0:388 from (100), (110) and (111) planes respectively. Determine the class (SC or BCC or FCC) of the cubic crystal and edge length (a) of unit cell.

4.(a) (i) For a particle in one-dimensional box of length a calculate the probability of its locating between zero and a/2.
(ii) Write the complete wave function for 1s-orbital and deduce its shape.
(b) Explain the paramagnetism of NO with its molecular orbital diagram.
(c) Using valence bond theory justify the presence of two lone electron pairs in XeF4.

SECTION 'B'

5.(a) For zero-order reaction, write down the Arrhenius equation, indicating name of the symbols and their units in SI system. What is high temperature limiting value of rate constant ?
(b) What is ISC (Inter System Crossing) for an excited molecule in singlet state ? Answer using Jablonski diagram.
(c) At constant pressure and temperature, adsorption of a gas on solid surface occurs spontaneously. For this natural process, what will be the signs of (i) DG, (ii) DS and (iii) DH ? Give reason(s) in support of your answer.
(d) Explain the following properties of Ferrocene :

(i) Easy electrophilic substitution of its Cp ring.
(ii) Oxidation is difficult in comparison to that of cobaltocene.

(e) “Magnetic moment of Lanthanide (III) ions is generally different from the value predicted by spin state.” Explain.

6. (a) (i) What are the characteristics, essential for catalysis with specific reference to surface catalysis ?
(ii) Define activation energy, Ea of a chemical reaction. A gas-phase reaction completes 25% in 30 min at 27°C and in 10 min at 37°C. Determine the Ea in SI unit.
(b) Using a particular wavelength of light, a solution of a substance (molar mass 294 g mol-1) transmits 80% of incident light. Determine the concentration of the solution in mol L-1. Given that optical path length of the spectrophotometer tube is 1.0 cm and absorptivity of the substance is 2.0 L g-1 cm-1.
(c) In aqueous solution, at 298 K, the mobility of NH+4 ion is 7.62 x 10-8 m2 s-1 V-1 Calculate its (i) molar conductivity; (ii) velocity if 15.0 V is applied across the electrodes of 25.0 cm apart. Calculate the transport numbers of the ions in CH3COONH4 (aq) solution if the mobility of CH3COO- ion is 4.24 x 10-8 m2 s-1 V-1 under same condition.

7.(a) (i) Write Vaska's catalyst with structure and show its oxidative addition with HCl and oxygen.
(ii) How is K4[Fe(CN)6] is converted into sodium nitroprusside ? Write reaction of S2-ion with sodium nitroprusside.
(b) Define prosthetic group in cytochromes. How do they differ from haemoglobin ? What is their main function ?
(c) What are silicones ? How are they obtained ? Discuss the important properties and applications of organosilicon polymers.

8. (a) (i) What is meant by EAN rule applied to the complexes ? Apply the concept of EAN rule on the following two complexes [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(CN)6]3- and draw your conclusion about the validity of the rule.
(ii) Explain crystal field theory. How does it differ from valence bond theory? How does this theory account for the fact that [CoF6]3- is paramagnetic while [Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic though both are octahedral.

(b) "High oxidation states are more common in early actinides than lanthanides but the +2 oxidation state for americium and nobelium are more stable relative to those of other actinides. Explain.
(c) Define phosphazenes with formulae for ring and chain types. Write two examples of substitution reactions of cyclophosphazenes.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Animal Husbandry And Veterinary Science


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Animal Husbandry And Veterinary Science


ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
(Paper - I)

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum Marks : 250
  • QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Questioncum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION "A"

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:

1. (a) How energy retention in animal body is measured by Carbon-Nitrogen balance study? How it differs from that of comparative slaughter method ?
1. (b) Give a diagrammatic representation of heart in relation to cardiac cycle.
1. (c) Discuss in brief about the various systems of expressing the energy value of feeds and energy requirements in swine.
1. (d) Write the general functions of blood in animal body.
1. (e) Describe the semen collection procedure in sheep and cattle.

2. (a) Write in brief on the following:

(i) Feeding of lambs for mutton production.
(ii) Feeding schedule of calves from birth to 3 months age.
(iii) Mucosal block theory of Iron absorption.
(iv) Role of Vitamin A in vision.

2. (b) Differentiate between the following:

(i) Basal metabolism and Fasting metabolism.
(ii) Curled-toe-paralysis and polyneuritis.
(iii) Grass staggers and Blind staggers.
(iv) Net protein utilization and net protein value.
(v) Flushing and steaming-up.

2. (c) What are the common sources of calcium and phosphorus ? How high intake of calcium affects the utilization of other minerals ? Explain, how 'Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism develops in animals.

3. (a) Discuss the role of endocrine glands along with their secretory hormones for cell growth.
3. (b) Discuss the process of udder development during first parturition to second parturition in buffaloes.
3. (c) Give the diagrammatic representation of reproductive system of a bull.
3. (d) What is ‘pre-natal and post-natal growth'? Discuss the various factors influencing the post-natal growth in animals.

4. (a) What points will you consider while formulating a ration for a dairy buffalo ? A farmer gives 20 kg green maize (25% DM, 1-2% DCP and 16% TDN), 5 kg wheat straw (90% DM, 0% DCP and 40% TDN) and 4 kg concentrate mixture (90% DM, 14% DCP and 68% TDN) daily to a lactating buffalo weighing 450 kg and yielding 10 kg milk with 7% fat during her first lactation. The maintenance requirement is 280 g DCP and 3-4 kg TDN, whereas the requirement for 1 kg milk production is 63 g DCP and 460 g TDN. Indicate the deficiency or excess of nutrients in terms of DCP and TDN.
4. (b) Describe the mechanism of regulation of blood clotting and fibrinolysis by vascular endothelium.
4. (c) Explain, how will you ameliorate the problem of infertility in cattle and buffaloes under field conditions.

SECTION "B"

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

5. (a) Importance of gene mutations in farm animals.
5. (b) Production of transgenic animals.
5. (c) Importance of colostrum feeding and management of new born calf.
5. (d) Plan for supply of green fodder throughout the year in an organized dairy farm.
5. (e) Advantages and disadvantages of individual contact method of extension.

6. (a) What are two general environments in which the genes express themselves ? Discuss in detail the effects of some specific environmental factors on gene expression.
6. (b) How will you assess that a quantitative trait is affected by additive or non-additive gene action or both ? Discuss the methods of selection for simultaneous improvement of multi-traits.
6. (c) How the genetic constitution of a population can be described ? Discuss the possible causes responsible for the change in genetic properties of a population.

7. (a) A farmer wants to start a dairy farm with 100 lactating crossbred cows. Suggest a plan with respect to capital, land, dairy equipments and feeding and breeding management practices.
7. (b) What are the common natural calamities encountered by animal owners in India ? How will you manage to feed the animals during scarcity conditions ?
7. (c) What do you understand by good managemental practices? How will you develop a practical and economic rations for commercial broiler production ?

8. (a) What is the basis of computing inbreeding coefficient by coancestry ? Describe the basic coancestry formulae used in estimating the inbreeding coefficient of an individual.
8. (b) What is herd recording ? Explain the purpose and types of records to be maintained in an organized livestock farm.
8. (c) Discuss the cattle and sheep developmental programme for improving the economic status of farmers.

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