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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Management


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Management


MANAGEMENT
(Paper - I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (RCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:

(a) Discuss the contributions of Fayol in the development of management thought.
(b) Explain the concept of Perception and state the factors which have a bearing on the perceptual process of an individual.
(c) Explain five ways of employee empowerment in modern smart governmental organisations.
(d) Discuss contingent and transformational leadership styles with suitable examples from government and private sectors.
(e) What is Job Satisfaction ? What is its relationship with employees' intention to stay, productivity, absenteeism, turnover and accidents ? Answer in the context of Knowledge Based Organisations.

Q2. (a) Define Conflict. What are Intrapersonal and Interpersonal conflicts ? How can these be resolved ? Give examples.
(b) What is the relationship between entrepreneurship and innovation ? Discuss different types of innovations.
(c) Organisational Behaviour is of multidisciplinary nature. Name 10 disciplines including emerging disciplines which contributed to make organisational behaviour. Give one example for each of the disciplines.

Q3. (a) What is Motivation? How can Maslow's Hierarchy theory be used to motivate employees in an organisation ? Explain.
(b) Explain the components of the technology enabled HRIS and feedback mechanism in an organisation. Do they lead to increased motivation and morale ? Substantiate.
(c) What are the potential sources and consequences of stress in the organisational context ? How can we deal with them?

Q4. (a) Explain the challenges of Human Resource Planning in the context of demographic and technological changes.
(b) "A business organisation's sole responsibility is to further the interest of its owners within the boundaries of legal framework and business organisations cannot be charged with social responsibilities.” Do you agree with the statement ? Explain.
(c) What is organisational culture ? How can organisational culture be built ? Explain.

SECTION - B

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:

(a) Define Job Costing and Process Costing. In what ways is Job Costing different from Process Costing ?
(b) Explain the importance of Management Accounting in financial decisions.
(c) "The success of a company depends on its well-planned capital structure.” Examine.
(d) Explain the Miller-Orr model of cash management. How is this model helpful in determination of appropriate cash balance ?
(e) Market segmentation is a compromise between efficiency and effectiveness. Critically evaluate this statement.

Q6. (a) Define Standard Cost and Standard Costing. How is Standard Costing useful in the effective control over the cost ?
(b) Why is customer retention important in the current marketing environment ? Explain the strategies that could be adopted to retain customers for a long period of time.
(c) Explain the operating cycle concept of working capital. How is a close study of operating cycle helpful in the management of working capital ? Explain.

Q7. (a) "Equity capital and Retained earnings provide cost-free capital.” Do you agree with this statement ? Explain the methods for determining their costs.
(b) Define funds from operations. How is it computed ? Explain with example.
(c) Positioning is done in the consumer's mind and not of product. Explain its relevance in the context of a competitive market.

Q8. (a) What is the purpose of reconciling Cost and Financial Accounts ? Explain the causes of difference between costing profits and financial profits.
(b) The consumer does not take buying decisions randomly. Explain the various steps of the consumer decision-making process.
(c) "Leverage serves as a tool which cuts both ways. On one hand it increases the risk and on the other it provides an opportunity to increase return on investment.” Critically examine this statement.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geology


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geology


GEOLOGY
(Paper - 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer(QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to. Diagrams/sketches, wherever required, may be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the answer book must be clearly struck off.

SECTION - A

Q1. Write notes on the following in approximately 150 words each :

(a) Seismic hazard zones of India.
(b) Origin of Karst topography.
(c) Digital image processing.
(d) Morphological classification of rock cleavage.
(e) Fault zone rocks

Q2.(a) Discuss different types of plate boundaries and enumerate their characteristic features.
(b) Compare the geomorphological and geological features of peninsular and extrapeninsular regions of India.
(c) What are joints ? Discuss the types of joints developed during folding.

Q3. (a) What are river terraces ? Discuss their geological significance.
(b) How would you differentiate between a fault and an unconformity in the field ?
(c) Giving suitable examples discuss the strategies which may be adopted to control river water pollution.

Q4.(a) Discuss the recent advances and achievements of Indian Space Programme.
(b) Explain, how the geometry of minor folds are helpful in deciphering the geometry of regional folds in an area.
(c) Discuss the advantages and limitations of remote sensing studies with respect to conventional geological field work.

SECTION - B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words :

(a) Discuss the environment and modes of fossilization.
(b) Discuss the tectonic sub-divisions of Himalaya.
(c) Water bearing characteristics of rocks.
(d) Concept of rainwater harvesting.
(e) Lower Gondwana flora and its significance.

Q6. How would you differentiate between in-situ' and ‘derived fossils ?
(b) Geological considerations for construction of tunnels in deformed geological terrain.
(c) Give a stratigraphic account of Vindhyan Supergroup. Comment upon the life during Vindhyan times.

Q7.(a) Write short notes on the following:

(i) Muth Quartzites
(ii) Lameta Formation
(iii) Tipam Formation

(b) Describe the significance of microfossils in petroleum exploration.
(c) Discuss the geological considerations for selection of a dam site in Himalayan terrain.

Q8.(a) What do you understand by groundwater recharge ? Describe various methods used in this process.
(b) Give an account of evolutionary trends in Equidae.
(c) Give a geological account of Deccan volcanic province.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geography


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Geography


GEOGRAPHY
Paper - I

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches/maps and diagrams, wherever considered necessary.

These shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION A

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

(a) Write a note on pseudovolcanic features.
(b) Distinguish between low energy coasts and coral coasts.
(c) Discuss the impacts of ocean currents on air mass behaviour.
(d) Describe the characteristics of biological deserts.
(e) Explain the concept of micro carbon sink and its relevance.

Q2. (a) Discuss the forces which govern the air movement on the Earth's surface.
(b) “The knowledge of slope analysis has limited field application in the slope management.” Explain.
(c) Describe the configuration of the Pacific Ocean floor.

Q3. (a) "Climate change is a reality.” Explain with suitable examples.
(b) Distinguish between the characteristics of Chernozem and Sierozem Soils.
(c) Give a classification of plants based on the amount of water requirement.

Q4. (a) Discuss the concept of Periglacial cycle as propounded by Peltier.
(b) "Climate, slope gradient and rock structure influence the avulsion of channels.” Explain.
(c) Discuss the Perception, Attitude, Value and Emotion (PAVE) Theory of environmental management.

SECTION B

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

(a) Explain the concept of Time-Geography.
(b) “Whittlesey's agricultural regions are relevant even today.” Discuss.
(c) Write an explanatory note on geographical systems.
(d) “The traditional cultural identities are at loss with the growth of global connectivity.” Explain.
(e) Give an account on sustainable development and its components.

Q6. (a) Discuss the contemporary paradigms of Geography.
(b) "The intensity of energy crisis varies regionally.” Explain.
(c) Examine the causes and consequences of forced migration of population in the present context.

Q7. (a) Discuss the applicability of Christaller's Central Place Theory.
(b) “There are considerable demographic similarities between West European nations and Japan.” Explain.
(c) Define the quality of life and explain its parameters with adequate examples.

Q8. (a) "The Heartland Theory is gaining importance once again". Comment.
(b) Examine the role of small towns in the regional development process.
(c) Explain the concept of social capital in relation to India.

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Electrical Engineering


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Electrical Engineering


ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
(PAPER-I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary and indicate the same clearly.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

1. (a) For the circuit shown in Fig. 1(a), find the current through 5 2 resistor by using Thevenin's theorem and verify the same by using superposition theorem.


(b) A continuous time signal X(t) is shown in Fig. 1(b). Sketch and label each of the following signals :

(i) x(t) u(2-t)
(ii) x(t) d(t-7/2)

(c) Show that for a distortionless transmission line, the attenuation constant a. does not depend on frequency, whereas the phase constant b depends linearly on it.
(d) For thie circuit given in Fig- 1(d)

(i) draw the input and output waveforms;
(ii) find the average value of the output voltage waveform.
Assume that the diode in the circuit is ideal.

(e) A 15-hp, 220-V, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 6-pole, Y-connected induction Instrar has the following parameters per phase :

r1 = 0.128 W, r2 = 0.0935 W, (x1 + x2) = 0.496 W, re = 183 W, xf = 8 W

The rotational losses are equal to the stator core losses (hysteresis and eddy-current). For a slip of 3%, find the line current and power factor.

2. (a) For the Boolean function

F (W, X, Y, Z) = [0, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 13)

(i) find all the prime implicants;
(ii) give minimal representation;
(iii) find minimal two-level realization using NAND gates only.

(b) (i) What is meant by an infinite transmission line? Also, explain the term 'electrical length' of a transmission line. In what units is it measured?
(ii) Determine the electrical length of a 20 m long transmission line operating at 1 MHz, if u = 0.7c on the line. Take c = 3 x 108 m/s.

(c) Discuss the properties of a probability density function. What additional features a normal distribution has?

3. (a) The following test data were taken on a 30-kVA, 2400/240V, 50-Hz, single-phase transformer :

Open-circuit test : V = 2400V, I = 0.3 A, P = 230 W
Short-circuit test : V = 70V, I = 18.8 A, P = 1050 W

Determine the primary voltage, real and reactive power input, and efficiency, when a current of 12.5 A at 240 V is drawn from the low-voltage side by a load of 0.8 p.f. lagging.

(b) A three-phase uncontrolled diode rectifier supplies a constant load current of 10 A and its supply voltage is 400 , V 1ine-to-line. Determine the following performance measures :

(i) Average output voltage
(ii) Supply r.m.s. current
(iii) Supply fundamental r.m.s. Current
(iv) Supply 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th harmonic r.m.s. current
(v) Supply current displacement factor
(vi) Supply power factor
(vii) AC power (supply power)
(vii) Dc power (load power)

(c) Consider the R-L-C circuit showri in Fig. 3(c), wherein

4. (a) Explain and differentiate between the single sideband (SSB) modulation and double sideband suppressed carrier (DSB-SC) modulation Show the DSB-SC modulated waveform for any chosen base band signal waveform and spectrum of the base band and the DSB-SC modulated wave,
(b) Find the Laplace transform of the function f(t) = u (sin 2t).
(c) Find the average voltage at the point Vo, in the circuit given in Fig. 4(c) :

SECTION - B

5. (a) Prove that AB + BC + AC = AB + BC.
(b) An industrial consumer is operating a 1 kW induction motor at a lagging power factor of 0.8 and at a source voltage of 200V, r.m.s. In order to reduce expenditure on power consumption, he wishes to raise the power factor to 0.95 lagging by connecting a circuit element in parallel with the load. Indicate the type of the circuit element (inductive or capacitive) and find the value if the operating frequency is 50 Hz.
(c) (i) Explain the operation of Boost converter with voltage and current waveforms across the Boost inductor. Assume continuous conduction.
(ii) Derive its output voltage equation in terms of duty cycle and input voltage.

(d) An amplitude modulated signal, viewed on an oscilloscope, has a crest voltage of 44 V peak-to-peak. The bottom (or trough) point of the wave measures 6V peak-to-peak. Find the modulation factor, percentage modulation and peak-to-peak un-modulated carrier voltage.
(e) Obtain z-parameters of a two-port network in terms of its ABCD Parameters.

6. (a) Find the value of average current flow through the load resistor for the circuit given in Fig. 6(a).
(b) Find the value of r.m.s. current drawn from the source.

(b) Determine the transfer function and there from the impulse response of the causal linear time invariant system described by the difference equation

y[n] - 1/4 y[n-1] - 3/8 y[n-2] = -x [n] + 2x [n-1]

(c) (i) Draw the circuit diagram of Wien bridge oscillator using OP-AMP.
(ii) Find the value of R to get a sustained oscillation of 1115 Hz. Assume that the value of the capacitor is 0.1 uF.

7. (a) The electric field and magnetic field in free space are given by


Express these fields in phasor form and determine the constants Ho, and bsuch that these fields satisfy Maxwell's equations. The permeability and permittivity of the free space are 4px 10-7 H/m and 8.854 x 10-12 F/m. respectively.
(b) Find the state transition diagram and rcalization using J-K flip-flops to count Mod 7 in the following sequence :

000, 001, 011, 100, 101, 111

(c) A 230-V, 10-hp DC series motor draw a line current of 36 A, when delivering rated power at its rated speed of 1200 r.p.m. The armature circuit resistance is 0.2W and the series field winding resistance is 0.1W. The magnetization curve may be considered linear.

(i) Find the speed of this motor when it draws a line current of 20 A.
(ii) What is the developed torque at the new condition?

8. (a) A 400-V, 3-phase balanced source is connected to an unbalanced D-connected load of impredance Zab = 10+ 45oW, Zca = 10 - 0oW and Zca = 10 - 45oW.Determine the line currents (in phasor form), total active (real) and reactive power.
(b) (i) Draw the circuit diagram of a bandpass filter using OP-AMP. Its parameters are fL = 300 Hz, fH = 2 kHz arad passband gain is 4.
(ii) Calculate thie value of Q, Assume that the capacitor value is 0.01 uF.

(c) Differentiate between stationary and non-stationary random processes. Give the properties of the first- and second-order distribution function of stationary random processes.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Economics

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Economics

ECONOMICS
(Paper I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximuml Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one W

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Graphs/illustrations, wherever required, may be drawn/given in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION A

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words :

1. (a)  Derive the expansion path for a firm operating with the Cobb-Douglas Production Function.

1. (b) “Under monopolistic competition a firm enjoys monopoly power without enjoying monopoly profit.” - Explain.

1. (c) Show that in the complete Keynesian model only fiscal policy is effective during a period of depression.

1.(d)  Explain the difference between the assumptions of New Classical and the New Keynesian approaches in managing individuals and markets.

1.(e) Show that full employment is the logical conclusion of the Classical macro model.

2.(a)  optimality conditions are necessary but not sufficient conditions for social welfare maximisation.” Comment.

2. (b) Discuss briefly the circumstances where fiscal expansion leads to full crowding out.

2. (c)  Explain how the equilibrium employment and real wage would change in a typically classical model if, in the event of increase in supply of labour, money wage becomes rigid.

3. (a) How Chamberlin uses planned sales curve to explain equilibrium of a firm and group when the entry of firms is permitted ?

3. (b) Demonetisation is expected to result in' a fall in the ratio of currency to deposit. Using the money multiplier theory explain its possible impact on supply of money.

3. (c)  Why do you expect a high correlation between the money supply and aggregate expenditure ? Does this resolve the monetarist-fiscalist debate ?

4. (a) What is financial repression ? Mention some of its consequences.

4.(b)  Transaction demand for money is not always interest rate inelastic." Discuss. 15 

4.(c)  Explain the Keynesian and classical extreme monetary assumptions for showing their effects on the slope of the LM curve.

SECTION 'B'

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

5. (a) Distinguish between effective and differential tax incidence.

5.(b) Write a short note on gravity model of trade.

5.(c)  Determine optimum tariff of a country with the help of offer curve.

5.(d)  What is solow-residual ? What are its implications ?

5.(e)  What are the implications of trade in higher education under GATS for India ?

6.(a)  "The consumption and production effects of a tariff for a commodity depend on the elasticities of demand and supply respectively.” Discuss.

6. (b) "Monetary Contraction is a better option than devaluation to improve balance of payments position of a developing economy under fixed exchange rate system.” Discuss.

6. (c)  Do you agree with the view that the honeymoon with free trade under W.T.O. is at an end ? Give reasons for your answer.

7. (a)  Petroleum is sold in the world market and priced in US dollars. RISCO in India must import petroleum to use it in its manufacturing. How are its profit affected when Indian rupee depreciates against the US dollar ?

7 (b)  State and discuss Arrow Impossibility theorem. How does Sen modify it for social welfare maximisation ?

7. (c) Show that Cobb-Douglas Production Function exhibits both Hicks and Harrod neutral technical progress.

8. (a) "In view of economic uncertainties, Hirschman approach to economic development makes more sense.” 'Discuss.

8. (b) "The trade-off between environment and development remains unresolved.” Comment in view of the United States exiting from Paris Climate Agreement.

8. (c)  Discuss the problem of intergenerational inequity arising out of internal public debt.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Commerce & Accountancy

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Commerce & Accountancy

COMMERCE AND ACCOUNTANCY
(Paper - I)

Time Allowed: Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has also attempt FIVE questions in all. Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question /part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-c471-Armer Booklet bust be clearly struck off

SECTION A

Q1. Answer the following in about 150 words each :

(a) State the provisions of Indian Accounting Standards regarding Foreign Exchange Transactions,
(b) Distinguish between Internal Reconstruction and External Reconstruction of Companies.
(c) Define Responsibility Centre”. Explain its various types.
(d) Write a note on 'Service Tax'.
(e) "Verification of Advances is an important function of an auditor of a Bank", Explain.

Q2. (a) The Balance Sheets of Rakesh Ltd. and Lokesh Ltd. as at 31.12.2013 were as follows:

Rakesh Ltd. took over and absorbed Lokesh Ltd. as on 1.7.2014. No balance sheet of Lokesh Ltd. was prepared on the date of takeover, but the following information is made available to you:

(i) In the six months ended 30.6.2014 Lokesh Lud. made a net profit of 60,000 after providing for depreciation at 10% per annum on fixed assets.
(ii) Rakesh Ltd. during that period made a net profit of  1,45,000 after providing for depreciation at 10% per annum on the fixed assets.
(iii) Both the companies had distributed dividends of 10% on 1.4.2014.
(iv) Goodwill of Lokesh Ltd. on the date of takeover was estimated at 25,000 and it was agreed that the stocks of Lokesh Ltd. would be appreciated by 15,000 on the date of takeover.
(v) Rakesh Ltd. to issue shares to Lokesh Ltd. on the basis of the intrinsic value of the shares on the date of takcover.

Prepare the Balance Sheet of Rakosh Ltd, after absorption.

(b) How is Differential Cost Analysis helpful in decision-making ?
(c) "Residential status has its effect on computation of taxable income under the Income Tax Act, 1961." Discuss.

Q3. (a) A company manufacturing two products furnishes the following data for year :

The annual overheads are as under:

Volume Related activities costs - 5,50,000
Set-up related costs - 8,20,000
Purchased related costs - 6,18,000

You are required to calculate the cost per unit of each product ‘A’ and B* based on
(i) Traditional method of charging overheads
(ii) Activity based costing method

(b) Discuss the provisions of Indian Accounting Standards on Accounting for Depreciation.
(c) Mr. 'X' owns two house properties, 'A' and 'B'. Property 'A' is used by him for his own residential purpose, whereas property 'B' is let out to a tenant for a monthly rent of 15,000 throughout the financial year 2016 - 17. The other particulars in respect of the properties are as under:

The following further information is available :

(i) Out of interest of 3 1,20,000 on home loan taken for construction of property 'B', an amount of 30,000 was outstanding payable as at 31.3.2017
(ii) Mr. x was employed by ABC Ltd. on a monthly salary of 750,000 plus monthly travelling allowance of 10,000.
(iii) He donated during the year * 1,50,000 to a charitable trust approved under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
(iv) He spent 7,500 for his health check-up during the year.

You are required to compute Total Taxable Income of Mr. 'X' for the Assessment Year 2017 - 18.

Q4. (a) A bank has received an application from a customer for a loan. You have to investigate on behalf of the bank the accounts of the customer. Highlight those points you would like to concentrate upon.
(b) Define 'Normal Wastage', 'Abnormal Wastage' and 'Abnormal Effectiveness'. State how these are treated in Process Costing.
(c) Mr. 'A' inherited a residential house from his father in January 2015. His father had bought the said house in the year 1979 at a cost of 370,000. Mr. 'A' sold the house in June 2016 for a sale consideration of 17,00,000 and the registered valuer has valued the said house at * 1,00,000 as at 1.4.1981. The Cost Inflation Index (CII) is as under:

Financial Year CII
1981 - 82       100
2015-16         1000
2016-17         1200

You are required to compute the income from capital gains for the Assessment Year 2017 - 18. Also suggest the actions, if any, that may be taken by Mr. 'A' to avoid tax on capital gains.

SECTION B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words each;

(a) "Profit maximisation is the goal of Financial Management." Critically examine.
(b) Discuss the Risk-Return Trade-off in financial decisions.
(c) Distinguish between Money Market and Capital Market.
(d) Discuss the various methods of deciding exchange ratio in merger of companies.
(e) State the valuation formula put forward by James Walter. Also explain the logic behind it.

Q6. (a) A company sells 2600 units of 'Mixer' at र2,000 cash, annually. The details of cost per unit are as follows:

Raw and Packing Materials  800
Direct Wages                      400
Overhead Expenses            400

Overhead expenses include 2-60 lakhs on depreciation. Production is evenly maintained over the year, on a weekly basis. All sales are on credit. Materials are introduced at the beginning of the process. The following additional information is also available:

Raw Material and Packing Materials in stock - 4 weeks
Work-in-Progress (Material 100%, Labour overhead 50) - 1 week
Finished Goods - 1 week
Credit Allowed to Debtors - 6 week
Credit Allowed by Suppliers - 4 week
(Cash balance to the maintained is 60,000, Calculate the Net Working Capital Requirements of the company.

(b) Discuss the role of SEBI in regulating the Capital Market.
(c) Define Capital Rationing. Explain the factors leading to Capital Rationing and also state the situations of Capital Rationing.

Q7. (a) The following information is related to "Alpha Co. Ltd.' for the year tended 31.3.2018:

Equity Share Capital ( 10 each) - 50 lakhs
12% Bonds of 1,000 each - 37 lakhs
Sales - 54 lakhs
Fixed Cost (excluding interest) - 6.96 lakhs
Financial Leverage - 1.49
Profit Volume Ratio - 27.55%
Income Tax Applicable - 40%

You are required to calculate

(i) Operating Leverage
(ii) Combined Leverage
(iii) Earning Per Share

(b) Explain the techniques used by the Credit Manager in monitoring the status and the composition of Accounts Receivables.
(c) What is Commercial Paper ? Explain its significance and the pre-conditions for the issue of Commercial Paper.

Q8.

(a)


      

The following additional information is available:

(i) During the financial year 2014 - 15, the company issued equity shares at par.
(ii) Debentures were redeemed on 1.4.2014 at a premium of 10%.
(iii) Some investments were sold at a profit of 75,000 and the profit was credited to General Reserve Account.
(iv) During the year, an old machine costing 23,50,000 was sold for 6,25,000. Its written down value was 8,00,000. Depreciation is to be provided on plant and machinery at 20% on the opening balance.
(vi) There was no purchase or sale of land and building,
(vii) Provision for tax made during the year was 4,50,000.

You are required to prepare a Cash Flow Statement for the year ended 31.3.2015

(b) Define 'Optimum Capital Structure. Discuss the major considerations in the Optimum Capital Structure planning of a firm.
(c) Explain the significance of the following Accounting Ratios :

(i) Debt-Equity Ratio
(ii) Acid Test Ratio
(iii) Inventory Turnover Ratio
(iv) Operating Profit Ratio
(v) Current Ratio

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Printed Study Material for IAS Mains General Studies

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Civil Engineering


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Civil Engineering


CIVIL ENGINEERING
(Paper 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Question Nos.

1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (OCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated.

Diagrams/Figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Questioncum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION "A"

1.(a) A vertical isosceles triangular gate with its vertex up has a base width of 2 m and a height of 1.5 m. If the vertex of gate is 1 m below the free water surface, find the total pressure force and the position of centre of pressure.
(b) What are the advantages of High Strength Friction Grip bolts ? How the load is transferred in High Strength Friction Grip bolts ? Explain with sketches.
(c) An undisturbed soil at a borrow pit has a water content 12 per Cent, void ratio 0.55 and specific gravity of solids 2.62. The soil from the borrow pit is to be used for the construction of an embankment. The specifications for the embankment require a dry density of 17.5 kN/m3 with a water content of 18-5 per cent. Calculate the quantity of water in litres which is required to be added to the borrow pit soil per m3 of finished embankment.

(d) A lever is loaded as shown in the above figure.

(i) Calculate the moment of force at Point A.
(ii) Calculate the amount of horizontal force to be applied at B to produce the same amount of moment of force as calculated above.
(iii) Calculate smallest amount of force to be applied at B, to produce the same amount of moment of force as calculated in part (1).
(iv) Calculate the distance of point on lever, where 1:20 kN vertical force to be applied to produce same amount of moment of force as calculated in part (i).

Calculate bending moment and shear force and plot their variation for the frame shown in the above figure.

2.(a) A 0.3 m diameter pipe carries water at a velocity of 24.4 m/s. At points A and B, the pressures were measured 361 kPa and 288 kPa respectively. The elevations of points
A and B were as 30.5m and 33.5m respectively. Find the loss of head between A and B.
2.(b) A light weight building stands over a 10 m thick stratum of sand. Beneath the sand stratum a clay layer of 5 m thick exists. The clay layer is underlain by a rock stratum. The water table lies at a depth of 1-0 m below ground surface and the sand above the water table is saturated with capillary rise. The sand has a void ratio of 0.75 and sp. g. 2.65. During dry season, water is pumped out from the sand stratum till the water table is lowered by 4.0 m and sand above water table becomes dry. Calculate the number of days when the building settles by 25 mm. Ignore settlement during pumping operation. Take properties of clay : Void ratio = 0-60, Sp. gr. = 2.70, Liquid limit = 40%, Coefficient of consolidation = 6x10-3 cm2/s.
2. (c) Details of a dog-legged stair for a building is shown in the above figure. The floor to floor height is 30 m. The live load may be taken as 2.5 kN/m thickness of the stair slab is 150 Tim. The rise and tread are 150 mm and 250 mm respectively. Design and detail the typical flight. Use M-25 of concrete and Fe-500 grade of steel. Use limit state method.

3. (a) In a consolidated drained triaxial test (CD test) a specimen of saturated sand failed under a deviator stress of 220 kPa when the cell pressure was 100 kPa. Determine the shear strength parameters, the shear strength and the maximum shear stress.
(b) An oil of dynamic viscosity 1-5 poise and relative density 0-9 flows through a 3 cm diameter vertical pipe. Two pressure gauges are fixed 20 m apart. The gauge A fixed at the top records 200 kPa and gauge B fixed at the bottom records 500 kPa. Find the direction of flow and the rate of flow.
(c) Calculate the vertical displacement of joint B of plane truss given in the above figure by unit load method. All members of truss have constant cross-sectional area and sattle material (Constalit A & E).

4. (a) The above figure shows a two-layered backfill behind a 9.0 m high retaining wall with a smooth vertical back. Draw the total active earth pressure distribution diagram and find the point of application of the resultant earth pressure.

(b) Two moving loads, 300 kN cach and spaced 40 m apart, cross a 20-0 m long simply supported girder from left to right as shown above. Calculate the absolute maximum bending moment due to these moving loads.

(c) A square hollow section is connected to the flange of ISMB 600 as shown in the above figure. The bracket is subjected to symmetrical vertical and horizontal load of each 50 kN. The size of SHS is 150x150x6 mm. Find the weld size required for the connection.

SECTION "B"

5. (a) A 1:50 scale spill-way model has discharge of 1:25 m/s. What is the corresponding prototype discharge ? If a flood phenomenon takes 12 hours to occur in the prototype, how long should it take in the model ?
(b) The design mix proportion of Cement: Fine agg. : Coarse agg. : Water for a concrete mix of grade M-25 at Saturated Surface Dry (SSD) condition is l: 1:2:24 : (0-4 (by weight). Find out the revised mix proportion due to change of material characteristics (Fine and Coarse agg.) for raining day before casting at site.
Given : (i) Sp. gravity of Fine and Coarse agg. = 2.6 and 2.65 respectively.
(ii) Surface moisture (%) on Fine and Coarse agg. = 2.5 and 1.5 respectively.
How the durability factor is taken up during concrete mix design as per I.S. code?
(c) A foundation trench is to be excavated for a large project in a site. The soil investigation report shows the following details :

It is observed that an open excavation is stable up to 5.75 m depth with the existing water table. The excavation is to be made up to 8-5 m depth for which water table is to be lowered. What are the initial and final depths of water table ?

(d) Two bars of 50 mm dia are connected as shown in the above figure. Find the maximum load P that can be applied. E = 2x10-5 MPa.
(e) Calculate the maximum shear stress in a hollow circular shaft having 300 mm external diameter and 150 mm internal diameter. This shaft is subjected to a twisting moment of 4 kN-m. If modultus of Rigidity G = 82 GN/m, calculate the twist for a length of 20 times the external diameter of shaft.

6. (a) Three beam members are connected at the joint B as shown in the above figure. Joint B is subjected to a clockwise moment of 100 KN-m. Calculate the moment at A, C and D by Moment Distribution Method. All beam elements have constant cross-sectional area and materials. (Constant I and E)

(b)

(c) A horizontal rectangular channel 4 m wide carries a discharge of 16 m/s. Determine whether a jump may occur at an initial depth of 0:5 m or not. Determine the sequent depth to this initial depth. Also find the energy loss in this jump.

7. (a) A Pelton wheel turbine develops 5520 KW power under a head of 240 m at an overall efficiency of 80%. The turbine is running at a speed of 200 r.p,m. Find the unit discharge, unit power and unit speed assuming peripheral coefficient as 0:46. If the head on the same turbine falls during summer season to 150 m, find the discharge, power and speed for this head.
(b) An anchored sheetpile founded in a cohesive soil is to retain a sandy backfill as shown in the above figure. Calculate the depth of embedment of the sheet pile and the pull in the anchor.

(c) Calculate maximum bending stress and shear stress at the fixed end of a cantilever beam as shown in the above figure. Also sketch the variations of bending stress and shear stress at fixed end. Beam has a uniform thickness of 50 mm. Beam has a depth of 200 mm at free end and 300 mm at fixed end.

8. (a) A cantilever retaining wall is to be constructed to retain earth embankment 3.1 m high above ground level. The unit weight of earth is 19 kN/m' and its angle of repose is 35o. Dimensions of the wall are shown in the above figure and the wall is safe against all stability check. Design the stem of the wall using M-25 and Fe500. Detail the reinforcement in stein also. Use Limit State Method. Given :

(b) Air flows over a flat plate 1 m long at a velocity of 6 m/sec. Determine

(i) the boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate,
(ii) shear stress at the middle of the plate,
(iii) total drag per unit length on both sides of the plate. Take mass density of air p = 1.226 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity of air V = 0-15x10-4 m2/sec.

(c)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Chemistry


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Chemistry


CHEMISTRY
(Paper I)

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum Marrls : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.

Coordinate diagrams, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION “A”

1. (a) What is resonance energy? What are the conditions which permit structures to have resonance ? Discuss resonance taking the example of CO23-  ion.
(b) For an ideal gas, the distribution law of molecular speed is,

where,
dNc = Number molecules within the speed range c and (c + dc).
N = Total number of molecules.
m = Molecular mass.
T = Temperature in Kelvin scale,
Derive the expression of most probable speed of this gaseous system.

(c) Define Joule-Thomson coefficient (mJT). What is its unit in SI system ? Show that

(d) (i) Four-phase sulphur system (in equilibrium) is impossible. Explain.
(ii) In open container, on heating, solid sulphur melts, but solid iodine sublimes. Explain.
1.(e) Write down the Debye-Hückel limiting equation with symbolic significances and their units. Calculate mean ionic activity co-efficient of 0.1 M NaCl (aq) solution at 25°C. The value of Debye-Huickel constant (A) is 0.51 mol-12 L1/2

2.(a) (i) What is the dimension of viscosity co-efficient ? What is its unit in SI system ? The temperature effect on viscosity co-efficient of ideal gas is positive. Explain.
(ii) Define Boyle temperature of non-ideal gas. Obtain its expression for van der Waals' gas.
(b) Find the change in surface area and energy when two identical mercury droplets of diameter 2 mm merged isothermally to one drop. Given that surface tension of mercury is 490 dyne cm at experimental temperature.
(c) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the disproportion reaction :

3.(a) At constant pressure, the temperature of a fixed amount of hot tea in a cup decreases spontaneously to room temperature. What will be the sign of (I) DH and (II) DG of this process ? Give reason(s) in support of your answer.
(ii) DG (J mol-1) for an electrochemical reaction, as a function of temperature, T (K) is given by DG = a + bT+ cT2 where a, b and c are constants and independent of T.

(I) What are the units of a, b and c? and
(II) Find the expressions of DS and DH as a function of T.

(b) What is its unit in SI system ? Is it intensive property ? Answer with justification. What factors influence its value ?
(c) Polonium crystallizes in the cubic system. Using X-ray of wavelength 0.154 nm, first order Bragg reflections occur at sind values 0.225, 0.316 and 0:388 from (100), (110) and (111) planes respectively. Determine the class (SC or BCC or FCC) of the cubic crystal and edge length (a) of unit cell.

4.(a) (i) For a particle in one-dimensional box of length a calculate the probability of its locating between zero and a/2.
(ii) Write the complete wave function for 1s-orbital and deduce its shape.
(b) Explain the paramagnetism of NO with its molecular orbital diagram.
(c) Using valence bond theory justify the presence of two lone electron pairs in XeF4.

SECTION 'B'

5.(a) For zero-order reaction, write down the Arrhenius equation, indicating name of the symbols and their units in SI system. What is high temperature limiting value of rate constant ?
(b) What is ISC (Inter System Crossing) for an excited molecule in singlet state ? Answer using Jablonski diagram.
(c) At constant pressure and temperature, adsorption of a gas on solid surface occurs spontaneously. For this natural process, what will be the signs of (i) DG, (ii) DS and (iii) DH ? Give reason(s) in support of your answer.
(d) Explain the following properties of Ferrocene :

(i) Easy electrophilic substitution of its Cp ring.
(ii) Oxidation is difficult in comparison to that of cobaltocene.

(e) “Magnetic moment of Lanthanide (III) ions is generally different from the value predicted by spin state.” Explain.

6. (a) (i) What are the characteristics, essential for catalysis with specific reference to surface catalysis ?
(ii) Define activation energy, Ea of a chemical reaction. A gas-phase reaction completes 25% in 30 min at 27°C and in 10 min at 37°C. Determine the Ea in SI unit.
(b) Using a particular wavelength of light, a solution of a substance (molar mass 294 g mol-1) transmits 80% of incident light. Determine the concentration of the solution in mol L-1. Given that optical path length of the spectrophotometer tube is 1.0 cm and absorptivity of the substance is 2.0 L g-1 cm-1.
(c) In aqueous solution, at 298 K, the mobility of NH+4 ion is 7.62 x 10-8 m2 s-1 V-1 Calculate its (i) molar conductivity; (ii) velocity if 15.0 V is applied across the electrodes of 25.0 cm apart. Calculate the transport numbers of the ions in CH3COONH4 (aq) solution if the mobility of CH3COO- ion is 4.24 x 10-8 m2 s-1 V-1 under same condition.

7.(a) (i) Write Vaska's catalyst with structure and show its oxidative addition with HCl and oxygen.
(ii) How is K4[Fe(CN)6] is converted into sodium nitroprusside ? Write reaction of S2-ion with sodium nitroprusside.
(b) Define prosthetic group in cytochromes. How do they differ from haemoglobin ? What is their main function ?
(c) What are silicones ? How are they obtained ? Discuss the important properties and applications of organosilicon polymers.

8. (a) (i) What is meant by EAN rule applied to the complexes ? Apply the concept of EAN rule on the following two complexes [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(CN)6]3- and draw your conclusion about the validity of the rule.
(ii) Explain crystal field theory. How does it differ from valence bond theory? How does this theory account for the fact that [CoF6]3- is paramagnetic while [Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic though both are octahedral.

(b) "High oxidation states are more common in early actinides than lanthanides but the +2 oxidation state for americium and nobelium are more stable relative to those of other actinides. Explain.
(c) Define phosphazenes with formulae for ring and chain types. Write two examples of substitution reactions of cyclophosphazenes.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Animal Husbandry And Veterinary Science


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Animal Husbandry And Veterinary Science


ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND VETERINARY SCIENCE
(Paper - I)

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours
  • Maximum Marks : 250
  • QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Questioncum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION "A"

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each:

1. (a) How energy retention in animal body is measured by Carbon-Nitrogen balance study? How it differs from that of comparative slaughter method ?
1. (b) Give a diagrammatic representation of heart in relation to cardiac cycle.
1. (c) Discuss in brief about the various systems of expressing the energy value of feeds and energy requirements in swine.
1. (d) Write the general functions of blood in animal body.
1. (e) Describe the semen collection procedure in sheep and cattle.

2. (a) Write in brief on the following:

(i) Feeding of lambs for mutton production.
(ii) Feeding schedule of calves from birth to 3 months age.
(iii) Mucosal block theory of Iron absorption.
(iv) Role of Vitamin A in vision.

2. (b) Differentiate between the following:

(i) Basal metabolism and Fasting metabolism.
(ii) Curled-toe-paralysis and polyneuritis.
(iii) Grass staggers and Blind staggers.
(iv) Net protein utilization and net protein value.
(v) Flushing and steaming-up.

2. (c) What are the common sources of calcium and phosphorus ? How high intake of calcium affects the utilization of other minerals ? Explain, how 'Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism develops in animals.

3. (a) Discuss the role of endocrine glands along with their secretory hormones for cell growth.
3. (b) Discuss the process of udder development during first parturition to second parturition in buffaloes.
3. (c) Give the diagrammatic representation of reproductive system of a bull.
3. (d) What is ‘pre-natal and post-natal growth'? Discuss the various factors influencing the post-natal growth in animals.

4. (a) What points will you consider while formulating a ration for a dairy buffalo ? A farmer gives 20 kg green maize (25% DM, 1-2% DCP and 16% TDN), 5 kg wheat straw (90% DM, 0% DCP and 40% TDN) and 4 kg concentrate mixture (90% DM, 14% DCP and 68% TDN) daily to a lactating buffalo weighing 450 kg and yielding 10 kg milk with 7% fat during her first lactation. The maintenance requirement is 280 g DCP and 3-4 kg TDN, whereas the requirement for 1 kg milk production is 63 g DCP and 460 g TDN. Indicate the deficiency or excess of nutrients in terms of DCP and TDN.
4. (b) Describe the mechanism of regulation of blood clotting and fibrinolysis by vascular endothelium.
4. (c) Explain, how will you ameliorate the problem of infertility in cattle and buffaloes under field conditions.

SECTION "B"

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :

5. (a) Importance of gene mutations in farm animals.
5. (b) Production of transgenic animals.
5. (c) Importance of colostrum feeding and management of new born calf.
5. (d) Plan for supply of green fodder throughout the year in an organized dairy farm.
5. (e) Advantages and disadvantages of individual contact method of extension.

6. (a) What are two general environments in which the genes express themselves ? Discuss in detail the effects of some specific environmental factors on gene expression.
6. (b) How will you assess that a quantitative trait is affected by additive or non-additive gene action or both ? Discuss the methods of selection for simultaneous improvement of multi-traits.
6. (c) How the genetic constitution of a population can be described ? Discuss the possible causes responsible for the change in genetic properties of a population.

7. (a) A farmer wants to start a dairy farm with 100 lactating crossbred cows. Suggest a plan with respect to capital, land, dairy equipments and feeding and breeding management practices.
7. (b) What are the common natural calamities encountered by animal owners in India ? How will you manage to feed the animals during scarcity conditions ?
7. (c) What do you understand by good managemental practices? How will you develop a practical and economic rations for commercial broiler production ?

8. (a) What is the basis of computing inbreeding coefficient by coancestry ? Describe the basic coancestry formulae used in estimating the inbreeding coefficient of an individual.
8. (b) What is herd recording ? Explain the purpose and types of records to be maintained in an organized livestock farm.
8. (c) Discuss the cattle and sheep developmental programme for improving the economic status of farmers.

(Syllabus) MP PSC  State Engineering Service :Preliminary & Main Exam

(Syllabus) MP PSC  State Engineering Service :Preliminary & Main Exam

PAPER-I

1. Structural Analysis

Determinate and Indeterminate Structures, Degrees of Freedom. Static and Kinematic indeterminacy, Principle of Superposition, Virtual Work, Energy theorem, Deflection of Trusses, Redundant Frames.Analysis of Determinate and Indeterminate Arches, their influence lines.Rolling loads, influence lines for Determinate Beams and Pin-jointed Frames. Mullar Breslau's Principle and influence lines for Indeterminate Beams and Frames.

Slope Deflection, Moment Distribution and Kani's methods. Column Analogy, Energy Methods for analysis of indeterminate beams and frames. approximate methods for analysis of Rigid Frames.Matrix Methods of analysis, Stiffness and Flexibility Matrices of Beams. Frames & Trusses, Elements of Plastic analysis.

2. Structral Design

(1) Steel Design

Factors of Safety and Load Factors.

Rivetted and Welded connections of Members, Design of Tension, Compression and Flexural members, built-up beams and Plate Girder Slab and Guesseted Bases for Columns, Design of Roaf Trusses. Purling and Coverings, Structural Steel tubes and their connections Industrial and Multi- Storyed Buildings Water tank and supporting tower's design. Plastic Design of Continuous Beams
& Frames.

(2) R.C. Design

Working Stress and Limit State methods for design of Rectangular, T and L Beams, Slabs and Columns.Isola.ted and Combined footings, Raft Foundations.Overhead, Resting on ground and Underground Water Tanks. Design of Bunkers and Silos.Methods and Systems of Prestressing, Anchorages. Losses in Prestress, Design of Prestressed Concrete Beams.

3 Construction Planning and Management

Detailed estimates, specifications, analysis and rates of various works in civil engineering.

Construction activity , work break down structures , scheduling through CPM and PERT analysis, cost optimization through network construction, Float times, Bar charts , Project control and super- vision, cost reduction measures,

Cost analysis and resource allocation.

Fundamentals of engineering economics • methods of appraisal. present work, annual costs , benefit cost analysis, Types of tenders and contract conditions.

4. Environmenal Engineering

Water Demand - Per capita Demand, Population Estimation methods
 

Click Here To Download Full Syllabus

Study Kit for Madhya Pradesh PSC Pre Exam

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