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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2005 (PART -5)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2005 (PART -5)

 

101. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?

(a) Steel > Mercury > Gold (b) Gold > Mercury > Steel

(c) Steel > Gold > Mercury (d) Gold > Steel > mercury

 

102. Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an outstanding

player?

(a) Table tennis (b) Hockey

(c) Football (d) Basketball

 

103. 2 Men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats are vacant. One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?

(a) 15 (b) 36

(c) 48 (d) 60

 

104. Consider the following statements :

1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.

2. There are 390 Article in the Constitution of India in all.

3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelth schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendments) Acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

105. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constitution Assembly?

(a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

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106. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Southern Air Command

(b) Eastern Naval Command

(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School

(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School

Thiruvananthapuram

Visakhapatnam

Jabalpur

Lucknow

 

107. Which one of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Publication

1. Sportstar

2. Business-world

3. The Week

4. Reader’s Digest

 

Group

The Hindu publication group

ABP group

Malayala Manorama publication

group

Indian Express publication group

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

 

08. Which one of the following pairs are correctly matched? Enterprise Industrial Group

1. VSNL Bharti Group

2. Mundra Special Economic Zone Ltd Adani Group

3. CMC Ltd Tata Group

4. IPCL Reliance Group

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 , 3 and 4

 

109. In which country is Bandung, where the Conference of African and Asian nations was held which led to establishing Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), situated?

(a) Thailand (b) Egypt

(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines

 

110. Match items in the List-I (Businesswoman) with List-II (Company) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

(A) Zia Mody

(B) Anuradha J. Desai

(C) Villoo Morawala Patell

(D) Meena Kausik

 

List II

1. Venkateshwara Hatcheries

2. AZB & Partners

3. Quantum Market Research

4. AvesthaGengraine

Technology

5. Biocon India


A B C D

(a) 4 1 5 3

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 4 3 5 1

(d) 2 1 4 3

 

111. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical are to be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball in one square only). In how many different ways can this be done?

(a) 27 (b) 36

(c) 54 (d) 81

 

112. There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row such that B never sits anywhere ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?

(a) 60 (b) 72

(c) 120 (d) None of the above

 

113. For which one of the following items, is Tirupur well-known as a huge exporter to many parts of the world?

(a) Gems and Jewellery

(b) Leather goods

(c) Knitted garments

(d) Handicrafts

 

114. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

Project

(a) Integrated Steel Plant at

Jaipur (Orrisa)

(b) Power Plant at Jamnagar

(Gujarat)

(c) Nabinagar Power Plant

(Bihar)

(d) Kayamkulom Power Plant

(Kerala)

 

Company

Steel Authority of India

Essar Power

Indian Railways

National Thermal

Power Corporation

 

115. Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s water
crisis, What does virtual water (VW) imply?

(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.

(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service.

(c) Volume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting.

(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control.

 

116. Consider the following statements : concerning the Indian Railways :

1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.

2. ‘Indrail pass’ - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sportspersons who have represented India in any game/sport.

3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world’s oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only (b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 (d) None

 

117. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indian’s there are 110 men who are not judges; 160 are men judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no foreign judges. How many Indian women attended the meeting?

(a) 35 (b) 45

(c) 55 (d) 60

 

118. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.

(i) A has 3 items more than C

(ii) D has 2 items less than B

(iii) E has 6 items less than F

(iv) C has 2 items more than E

(v) F has 3 items more than D

Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?

(a) 41 (b) 47

(c) 53 (d) 58

 

119. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box?

(a) 1/2 (b) 1/5

(c) 2/9 (d) 2/11

 

120. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible value of n ?

(a) 196 (b) 216

(c) 256 (d) 296

 

121. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its one face and ‘T’ engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a table and each one or them has ‘H’ face as the upper face.

In one attempt, exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What is the minimum total number of attempts in which the ‘T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?

(a) 4 (b) 7

(c) 8 (d) Not possible

 

122. Which one of the following states border Uttar Pradesh?

1. Punjab

2. Rajasthan

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

 

123. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?

(a) Pretoria (b) Durban

(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town

 

124. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

British Prime minister

(a) John Major

(b) James Callaghan

(c) Harold Wilson

(d) Margaret Thatcher

 

Political Party

Conservative Party

Labour Party

Conservative Party

Conservative Party

 

125. Match items in the List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Location)

(A)Kakinada

(B)Dundigal

(C)Margao

(D)Bhadrachalam

 

List II (Known For/In News for)

1. Skybus Metro rail test-run

2. TIC paper board Unit

3. Bio-diesel plant

4. Indian Air Force Academy


A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 2 4 1 3

(d) 3 1 4 2

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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2005 (PART -4)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2005 (PART -4) 

76. Consider the following statements :

1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.

2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.

3. Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

77. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?

(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon

(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge

 

78. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St- Helens located?

(a) Chile (b) Japan

(c) Philippines (d) United States of America

 

79. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region

(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats

(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura.

(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys.

 

80. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of Which one of the following ?

(a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project

(c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project

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81. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting from the north and going towards the south?

(a) Nallamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills - Anaimalai Hills

(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Nallamalai Hills

(c) Nallamalai Hills Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Anaimalai Hills

(d) Anaimalai Hills - Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills

 

82. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai

(c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi

 

Directions : The following 7 (seven) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)' You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but r is true

 

83. Assertion (A) : The same face of the Moon is always presented to the Earth.

 

Reason (R) : The Moon rotates about its own axis in 23½ days which is about the same time that it takes to orbit the Earth.

 

84. Assertion (A) : Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable.

 

Reason (R) : Venus has extremely high level of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.

 

85. Assertion (A) : All the proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only.

 

Reason (R) : The protein-digesting enzymes from pancreas are released into small intestine.

 

86. Assertion (A) : Amoeba reproduces by fission.

 

Reason (R) : All unicellular organisms reproduce by asexual methods.

 

87. Assertion (A): Wind patterns are clockwise in the northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the southern hemisphere.

 

Reason (R) : The directions of wind patterns in the northern and the southern hemisphere are governed by the Coriolis Effect.

 

88. Assertion (A) : The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum Gas is methane.

 

Reason(R) : Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.

 

89. Assertion (A) : The person with diabetes insipidus feels thirsty.

 

Reason (R) : A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin.

 

90. Consider the following statements :

1. Vigyan Rail is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.

2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.

3. EDUSAT, the ISRO’s educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) None

 

91. Consider the following statements :

1. Liquid Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.

2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.

3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Directions (For the next FOUR items) : Based on the information given below, answer the four items which follow it :

Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krishnan have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies in one of the cities given above.Further, it is given that:

(i) Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam.

(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.

(iii) Economic college is in Bhopal.

(iv) Inder’s hometown is cuttack.

(v) Krishnan is studing in Delhi.

(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College4 is in his hometown Ahmedabad.

(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.

Based on the information given above answer the next four items:

 

92. Which is Krishnan’s hometown?

(a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack

(c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined

 

93. Which College is situated in Inder’s hometown?

(a) Commerce (b) Medical

(c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical

 

94. Who studies in Bhopal?

(a) Gopal (b) Harsh

(c) Gopal or Inder (d) Inder or Harsh

 

95. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct combination of Person-Hometown-Place of Study?

(a) Gopal - Ernakulam -Delhi (b) Jai - Ahmedabad - Ernakulam

(c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam (d) Harsh - Bhopal - Delhi

 

96. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?

(a) 200/11 % (b) 100/11%

(c) 100/9 % (d) 200/9%

 

97. On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?

(a) 14 (b) 48

(c) 96 (d) 108

 

98. Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and them comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?

(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres

(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres

 

99. A big rectangular plot of area 4320 m2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus.
What are the dimensions of the original plot?

(a) 160 m ´ 27 m (b) 240 m ´ 18 m

(c) 120 m ´ 36 m (d) 135 m ´ 32 m

 

100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list :

List I (Atomic Power Plants) List II ( State )

/ Heavy Water Plants

(A)Thal 1. Andhra Pradesh

(B)Manuguru 2. Gujarata

(C)Kakrapar 3. Maharastra

(D)Kaiga 4. Maha

5. Karnataka


A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 5

(b) 3 5 2 1

(c) 2 5 4 1

(d) 3 1 2 5

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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -5)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -5)

101 The magazine on politics is

(a) Edited by Ila

(b) Edited by Gurbaksh

(c) Published by Dev Publishers

(d) Published by Charan Publishers

 

102 Match List I (Distinguished Ladies) with List II (Area of work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 

List I

(A) Jhumpa Lahiri

(B) Sunita Narain

(C) Naina Lal Kidwai

(D) Ravina Raj Kohli

 

List II

 

1. Science and environment

2. Novel-writing

3. Film industry

4. Banking

5. Television media

A B C D

(a) 4 5 3 1

(b) 2 1 4 5

(c) 4 1 3 5

(d) 2 5 4 1

 

103 Which one of the following does not border Panama?

 

(a) Costa Rica (b) Pacific Ocean

(c) Colombia (d) Venezuela

 

104 A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field 400 m × 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 1 and 2.30 p.m.?

 

(a) Not even once (b) Once

(c) Twice (d) Thrice

 

105 Match List I (Beaches in India) with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

 

List I

(A) Gopnath Beach

(B) Lawsons Bay Beach

(C) Devbagh Beach

(D) Sinquerim Beach

 

List II

 

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Gujarat

4. Goa

5. Karnataka

A B C D

(a) 5 4 2 1

(b) 3 1 5 4

(c) 5 1 2 4

(d) 3 4 5 1

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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -4)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -4)

51 Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

(a) Russia (b) Estonia

(c) Lithuania (d) Poland

 

52 Consider the following statements :

 

1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India

2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of Nationa Development Council.

3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a). 1 and 2 b). 2 and 3

c). 2 only d). 3 only

 

53 Match List I (Minerals) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer

 

List I

(A) Coal

(B) Copper

(C) Manganese

(D) Lignite

 

List II

 

1. Giridih

2. Jayamkondam

3. Alwar

4. Dharwar

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 2 4 3 1

 

54 Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?

 

(a) Agra - Mumbai (b) Chennai - Thane

(c) Kolkata - Hajira (d) Pune - Machilipatnam

 

55 Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National importance (by an Act of Parliament)

 

1. Dakshna Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai

2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali

3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institutes for Medical Services and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram

4. Lakshmibai National Institutes of Physical Education, Gwalior Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

56 Consider the following statements :

 

1. Banking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris

Which of these statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

 

57 With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

 

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament, before it can be enacted into law

(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation

(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

 

58 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

 

List I (Sea)

(A) Black Sea

(B) Red Sea

(C) Yellow Sea

(D) Caspian Sea

 

List II (Country)

 

1. Bulgaria

2. China

3. Eritrea

4. Kazakhstan

A B C D

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -1)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -1)

1. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements :

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.

2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.

3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of Parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements :

1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and starged the Saluva dynasty.

2. Vira Narasmiha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.

4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3. Consider the following statements :

Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the

1. abolition of diarchy in the Governor's provinces

2. power of the Governors to veto Legislative action and to Legislative on their own

3. abolition of the principle of communal representation

Which of these statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements :

1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta.

2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the president ship of Dadabhai Naoroji.

3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.

Which of these statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

5. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(a) The Constitution Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India.

(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.

(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2014

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2014

Ancient History

1. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs: Famous shrine Location

1. Tabo monastery : Spiti Valley and temple complex
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang : Zanskar Valley temple, Nako
3. Alchi temple : Ladakh complex

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga

3. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Modern History

4. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

(a) The First World War when Indian  troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended
(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) The Partition of India is 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

5. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

(a) Attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
(b) Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
(d) Decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2013

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2013

Ancient History

1. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism.

2. Consider the following Bhakti Saints :

1. Dadu Dayal
2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

3. Consider the following historical places :

1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

4. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school :

1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self- knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while vihara is the hall axial to it
(d) There is no material difference between the two

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6. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

(a) The extinction of the flame of desire
(b) The complete annihilation of self
(c) A state of bliss and rest
(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension

7. Which of the following characterizes / characterize the people of Indus Civilization?

1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement / statements using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above is correct

8. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:

1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

10. The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following Statements is/are correct?

1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Medieval History

11. Annie Besant was

1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2. The founder of the Theosophical Society
3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement / statements using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

(a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth.

13. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because

(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

14. Quit India Movement was launched in response to

(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan

Modern History

15. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

(a) Directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) Elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) Selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

16. Consider the following Statements: Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) only
(b) and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

17. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for

(a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d) writing off all peasant debts

Indian Geography

18. Consider the following pairs :

Tribe                       State

1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
4. Bonda                : Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. Consider the following pairs :

National Park                  River flowing  through the Park

1. Corbett National Park         Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park      Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park  Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

20. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) only
(b) and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Posts of Foreman (Chemical) in Ministry of Defence

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Posts of Foreman (Chemical) in Ministry of Defence

1. Which one of the following is an example of amphoteric oxide?

(a) CO2
(b) Na2O
(c) MgO
(d) Al2O3

2. Which one of the following material is used for control rods in Uranium reactors?
(a) Boron Steel
(b) Antimony
(c) Carbon Steel
(d) Titanium

3. What is the frequency of the radiation with a wavelength of 10.6 um,produced by CO2(g) laser?
(a) 2.38 × 10−13 HZ
(b) 2.83 × 10−13 HZ
(c) 2.83 × 1013 HZ
(d) 2.38 × 1013 HZ

4. What is the concentration of a solution of cane sugar (C12H22O11) which is isotonic with a solution containing 9.0 g of urea CO(NH2)?
(a) 34.2 g/l
(b) 51.3 g/l
(c) 25.6 g/l
(d) 17.1 g/l

5. A hydrocarbon contains 86 % carbon, 448 ml of the hydrocarbon weighs 1.68 g of STP. Then the hydrocarbon is
(a) ALKENE
(b) ALKENE
(c) ALKENE
(d) ARENE

6. When a solution of a metal salt is treated with ammonia solution, a white precipitate is formed which is insoluble in excess of ammonia. When same solution is treated with NaOH, a white precipitate is formed which dissolves in excess of NaOH. The cation is
(a) Ag+
(b) Hg2+
(c) Pb2+
(d) Cr3+

7. What is the solubility product of lead iodide at 25° C? Its solubility at that temperature is 0.7 g/l, atomic weight of Pb = 207.2 and = 127. 
(a) 6.75 × 10−9
(b) 13.5 × 10−9
(c) 27.0 × 10−9
(d) 30.0 × 10−9

8. The diameter measured under various trials for a wire using a microscope were 0.205 um, 0.209 um and 0.198 um . If the known diameter is 2.00 × 10−7 m, the percentage of error for an average measurement is
(a) 1.8 %
(b) 3.5 %
(c) 2.4 %
(d) 2.0 %

9. Which one of following is the correct sequence in decreasing order of the dielectric constants?
(a) Sulfuric acid > water > ethanol > decane
(b) Water >sulfuric acid > ethanol > decane
(c) Water >sulfuric acid > decane > ethanol
(d) Sulfuric acid > ethanol > water > decane

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Senior Scientific Assistants (Computer) in DGAQA, Ministry of Defence

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Senior Scientific Assistants (Computer) in DGAQA, Ministry of Defence

1. Consider the following statements:
1. A mouse listener can keep other mouse listeners from receiving a mouse event by invoking the consume ( ) method on Mouse Event Object
2. To enable events for a component, one must first invoke enable Events ( ) with the appropriate flags
 Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. When an exception is thrown but not caught in a particular scope, the method-call stack is ‘unwound’, and an attempt is made to catch the exception in the next outer try block. This process is called
(a) Rethrowing Exception
(b) Stack Unwinding
(c) Stack Unwounding
(d) Stack Tracing 

3. Consider the following tables:

City
a
b
c
City Language
a Hindi
b English
c Hindi
a punjabi
b Hindi

 The result of the division LANGUAGES / CITY in relational algebra is:
 (a) A table containing first three rows of LANGUAGES
 (b) A table with a single column LANGUAGE and a single row “Hindi”
 (c) A table with two columns CITY and LANGUAGE and a single row = “aa”, “Hindi”
 (d) A table having the first, third and fifth rows of LANGUAGES 

4. Consider the following statements:
In DRMBS, the second normal form(s) is/are:
1. A composite attributes is converted to individual attributes
2. Non key attributes are functional dependent on key attributes
3. The non key attributes functionally dependent on not a part of key attributes
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. In a relation (table) if a non key attribute is fully functionally dependent on composite key, then the relation (table) is in:
(a) DKNF (Domain Key Normal Form)
(b) BCNF (Boyce - Codd Normal Form)
(c) Fourth Normal Form
(d) Third Normal Form

6. Consider the following relational Schema for a library database:
Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, Publisher, Year, Price) Collection (Title, Author, Catalog_no)
With the following functional dependencies:
 1. Title, Author → Catalog_no
 2. Catalog_no →Title, Author, Publisher, Year
 3. Publisher, Title, Year→ Price
Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both the schema which one of the following statements is correct?
 (a) Both book and collection are in BCNF only
 (b) Both book and collection are in 3 NF only
 (c) Book is in 2 NF and collection is in 3 NF
 (d) Both book and collection are in 2 NF only

7. The simple object model that is frequently used for database applications and which is easier to understand and use than OLE DB is:
 (a) ADO
(b) ASP
(c) XML
(d) ODBC

8. Which one of the following CPU scheduling algorithms suffers from starvation?
(a) Round Robin
(b) FCFS (First Come First Serve)
(c) SJF (Shortest Job First)
(d) Multilevel Queues

9. An operating system uses swapping. A running process encounters the need to wait for an event. The correct sequence of states for the process to re-enter its running stage is:
(a) Blocked → Blocked - Ready → Blocked - suspended → Ready →Running
(b) Blocked - suspended → Blocked - Ready → Blocked → Ready →Running
(c) Ready → Running → Blocked → Ready→ Running
(d) Blocked→ Blocked-suspended → Blocked-Ready → Ready →Running

10. What is the maximum possible disk space for a cluster size of 2 kbyts for a MS-DOS disk system?
(a) 128 mbyts
(b) 512 mbyts
(c) 512 mbyts
(d) 128 mbyts
 
11. Consider the following consistency semantics:
1. Writes to an open file by a user are visible immediately to other users that have this file open.
2. Once a file is closed, the changes made to it are visible only in sessions starting later. Already open instances of the file do not reflect these changes.
3. A file has a single image that interleaves all accesses regardless of their origin.
Which of the above are used in UNIX file system?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 2 and 3 only

12. If a host broadcasts a frame that includes a source and destination hardware address, and its purpose is to assign ???????? addresses to itself, which protocol at the Network layer does the host use?
(a) RARP
(b) ARPA
(c) ICMP
(d) TCP

13. What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a class B network address?
 (a) 1 – 126
(b) 1 – 127
(c) 128 – 190
(d) 128 – 191

14. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and E-MAIL respectively are
(a) TCP,UDP,UDP and TCP
(b) TCP,UDP,TCP and UDP
(c) UDP,TCP,UDP and TCP
(d) UDP,TCP,TCP and UDP

15. In a LAN network every system is identified by
(a) Name
(b) MAC Address
(c) IP Address
(d) Serial number given by manufacturer

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Senior Scientific Officer Grade-II (Metallurgy) in Ministry of Defence

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Senior Scientific Officer Grade-II (Metallurgy) in Ministry of Defence

1. The equilibrium in multi-component systems has not been derived, to avoid:
(a) Elaboration and complexity
(b) Simplicity
(c) Elaboration
(d) Mathematical equation

2. Quasi chemical theory helps to understand:
(a) The qualitative behaviour of solution
(b) The qualitative behaviour of solvent
(c) The qualitative behaviour of solute
(d) The chemical reaction

3. The Gibbs-Duhem equation is very useful to:
(a) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution when that of the other component is known
(b) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution when that of the other component is not known
(c) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution and is very easy
(d) Measure the activity accurately 

4. What is the entropy change for the reaction as below at 298 KK?
fe2o3 + 3C = 2 Fe + 3 CO
Given the standard values of entropies at 298 K for the following elements/compounds:

Fe2O3 21.4 cal/mole
C

49.5 cal/mole

Fe

32.63 cal/mole

CO

47.3 cal/mole


(a) 27.16 cal/mole
(b) 47.3 cal/mole
(c) 30.82 cal/mole
(d) 37.26 cal/mole

5. The free energy of the reaction: < CaCO3 > = < CaO > +{CO2} is,
 ∆ G0 = +40250 − 34.4 T Cal/g mol
What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will occur?
(a) 789°C
(b) 879°C
(c) 897°C
(d) 910°C

6. Fractography is evaluated by:
(a) X-ray Diffraction
(b) X-ray Fluorescence Spectroscopy
(c) Scanning Electron Microscopy
(d) Transmission Electron Microscopy

7. X-ray Diffraction technique is used to determine:
(a) Grain size of cold-worked material
(b) Inclusion content in steel
(c) Microstructure of metal
(d) Curie temperature of magnetic material

8. In solid solution strengthening, which mechanism is relatively insensitive to temperature?
(a) Stacking - fault interaction
(b) Elastic interaction
(c) Electrical interaction
(d) Short-range order interaction

9. Which of the following is a sessile dislocation?
(a) Shockley partial dislocation
(b) Frank partial dislocation
(c) Edge dislocation
(d) Screw dislocation

10. In ductile metals, the Bauschinger effect causes lowering of:
(a) Tensile stress
(b) Fracture stress
(c) Elastic Modulus
(d) Yield stress

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Additional Assistant Director (Safety) (Mechanical)

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Additional Assistant Director (Safety) (Mechanical)

1. A fan consumes 20 W of electric power and discharges air from a ventilated room at 0.25 kg/s. The maximum air outlet velocity is nearly
(a) 4.7 m/s
(b) 8.7 m/s
(c) 10.2 m/s
(d) 12.7 m/s

2. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) A machine which violates Clausius statement will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(b) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank statement will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(c) A machine which violates the second law of thermodynamics will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(d) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank statement will violate the Clausius statement

3. 150 Kj of heat is transferred from a heat source of 527°C to a heat sink at 127°C . If the ambient temperature is 47°C , the loss of available energy during the process will be
(a) 40 Kj
(b) 50 Kj
(c) 60 Kj
(d) 70 Kj

4. Which one of the following is correct in the context of change of entropy of a system undergoing a reversible adiabatic process?
(a) Positive for expansion process and negative for compression process
(b) Positive for compression process and negative for expansion process
(c) Negative for both the processes
(d) Positive for both the processes

5. Consider the following devices:
1. Internal combustion engine working on Otto cycle
2. Internal combustion engine working on Diesel cycle
3. Gas turbines
4. Steam turbines
In which of the above devices, the equation dQ=dU+Pdv  is not applicable?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
 
6. Consider the following statements with reference to gas turbine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases thermal efficiency
2. Reheating decreases thermal efficiency
3. Cycle efficiency increases when the maximum temperature of the cycle is increased
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

7. For the same pressure ratio during compression, compressing in two-stage compressor with perfect inter-cooling instead of a single-stage compressor is characterized by:
1. Increase in volumetric efficiency
2. Decrease in work input
3. Decrease in discharge temperature
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. What is the compression ratio of a 4-stroke engine whose capacity is 245 cc,clearance volume is 27.2 cc and diameter of bore is 10 % higher than stroke?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12

9. Thorium breeder reactors are more promising for India essentially because
(a) They develop more power
(b) The technology thereof is simple
(c) Thorium deposits are abundantly available in the country
(d) These can be easily designed

10. If Nusselt number is 4000 with corresponding Reynolds and Prandtl numbers as 40 and 20 respectively, the relevant Stanton number will be
(a) 40
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5

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