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(Download) UPPSC: General Studies (In English) Exam Paper: 2011

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Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission

UPPSC General Studies Exam Paper

Max. Marks: 150
Time: 2 Hours
Medium: English

 

What after UPSC Prelims Exam?

What after UPSC Prelims Exam?

  • The prelims just got over. Many of you might have been left in a state of shock and many of you must have had a firm faith of clearing the first step of the 3 stepped ladder.  The UPSC once again proved to be as unpredictable as tornado with pre exam questions ranging from NSSO’s data to the longitudinal information of the 4 major cities of India. The pay of percentages in the NK Singh panel’s report to the number of kilometer squares of the IRNSS.
  • Well the article is not about making guesses on upsc cutoff or the discussions on the answers of the questions to which almost every coaching has given a different answer. It is about suggestion of remaining consistent and persistent.  It’s easier said than done you might argue but what is the alternative. You must have calculated the risk at the time of making an investment of your time and money in UPSC.
  • All of you must be categorizing yourself into three kind of people at the first outset : Those of you who must have already started preparing for upsc mains considering that you’ll qualify based on preliminary analysis of the marks you’re expecting. Some of you might not  have had a great day and you must be well satisfied that you’ll not make it this time and Some of you might be finding yourself in “cat on the wall” like situation. It is these category of people who’ll be facing indecisiveness and a feeling of regret or angst.
  • For people who’re quite well situated that you’ll not make it this time , This is the time when you’re ought to analyse what went wrong. The reasons may vary from the time devoted to studies to the lack of fundamental knowledge, from sources you read to the newspapers you referred for current affairs. The reason might also include lack of practice of mock tests and making decision on well calculated risk at the number of attempts ought to be made. It is the time to analyze and then work out a plan on correcting the mistakes.
  • For those who’re facing “Cat on a wall” situation based on assumption of the probable cutoff and expected score , It is high time to realize that to nothing will surely won’t bring anything but to act might bring you something. There are ample precedents and I’m including my own example here of how I wasted around 40 doing nothing and supposing that I won’t clear based on the marks calculated from the answer keys of major institutes but UPSC had a different story and it made a difference of around 7 marks from what I calculated using the coaching keys and the cutoff too dropped by 11 points so all worked in my favour but nothing could have brought those 40 days back in which I did nothing. I could have well revised my optional in those days. Even if you don’t clear in worst case you won’t regret and you’ll have a lead of more than 40 days for the next mains and prelims which is a huge boost.
  • Many of you must have prepared well for prelims but the subjects often ignored in the earlier stages are Ethics, World history, Essay writing , Optional paper 1 and 2 which are not part of prelims syllabus. These are time consuming and they require in depth study and writing practice which if not done overshadows the entire gain in GS Mains 1,2 and 3 papers. The lead in these subjects provides one with the competitive advantage.
  • The summary of the entire writing is therefore to suggest that “being paralised by indecision is worse than making the wrong decision , you can surely grow if you trust your inner voice”.

Best of Luck!

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(Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (II) 2018

(Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (II) 2018

Post Detail :

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to  satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. 

  • National Defence Academy : 339 (208 for Army, 39 for Navy  and 92 for Air Force)
  • Naval Academy : 44 (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)

Total : 383 

Education Qualification: 

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University.
(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and 
Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University. 

Age :

Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd January, 2000 and not later than 1st January, 2003 are eligible. 

Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2018 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV. 

Fees  :

Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India or by using Visa/MasterCard/Rupay Credit/Debit Card. 

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION:

Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks
Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600
Total 900
SSB Test/Interview : 900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.
3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.
6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall. 

Pay Scale:

Low - up to Rs. 9000/-pm
Middle - Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm
High - Above 18000/-pm 

How to Apply :   

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website. 

Important Date :

Starting Date- 06-Jun-2018

Last Date – 07-Jul-2018

Click Here To Download Official Notification

Click Here To Apply Online

Study Material for UPSC National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam

(Date Sheet) UPSC IAS EXAM Calendar 2019

(Date Sheet) UPSC IAS EXAM Calendar 2019

S. No.

Name of Examination

Date  of

Notification

Last Date for

receipt of

Applications

Date  of

commencement of Exam

Duration of Exam

1

Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2019

26.09.2018

22.10.2018

06.01.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

2

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

20.01.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

3

C.D.S. Examination (I), 2019

31.10.2018

26.11.2018

03.02.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

4

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

24.02.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

5

CISF AC(EXE) LDCE-2019

05.12.2018

31.12.2018

03.03.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

6

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

10.03.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

7

N.D.A. & N.A.  Examination (I), 2019

09.01.2019

04.02.2019

21.04.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

8

Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2019

 

19.02.2019

 

18.03.2019

 

02.06.2019 (SUNDAY)

 

1 DAY

 

9

Indian Forest Service (Preliminary) Examination, 2019 through CS(P)  Examination 2019

10

I.E.S./I.S.S.  Examination, 2019

20.03.2019

16.04.2019

28.06.2019 (FRIDAY)

3 DAYS

11

Combined Geo-Scientist and Geologist   Examination, 2019

20.03.2019

16.04.2019

28.06.2019 (FRIDAY)

3 DAYS

12

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

07.07.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

13

Engineering Services (Main) Examination, 2019

 

 

30.06.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

14

Combined Medical  Services  Examination, 2019

10.04.2019

06.05.2019

21.07.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

15

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

11.08.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

16

Central Armed Police Forces (ACs)  Examination, 2019

24.04.2019

20.05.2019

18.08.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

17

C.D.S.  Examination (II), 2019

12.06.2019

08.07.2019

08.09.2019

(SUNDAY)

1 DAY

18

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

15.09.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

19

Civil Services (Main)  Examination, 2019

 

 

20.09.2019 (FRIDAY)

5 DAYS

20

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

20.10.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

21

N.D.A. & N.A.  Examination (II), 2019

07.08.2019

03.09.2019

17.11.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

22

Reserved for UPSC RT/ Examination

 

 

24.11.2019 (SUNDAY)

1 DAY

23

Indian Forest Service (Main)  Examination, 2019

 

 

01.12.2019 (SUNDAY)

10 DAYS

24

S.O./Steno (GD-B/GD-I)  LDCE

18.09.2019

10.10.2019

14.12.2019 (SATURDAY)

2 DAYS

Note: The dates of notification, commencement and duration of Examinations/ RTs are liable to alteration, if the circumstances so warrant.

Click Here for Official Date Sheet

(VIDEO) India-Pak Ceasefire - Rajya Sabha TV Big Picture Debate

(VIDEO) India-Pak Ceasefire - Rajya Sabha TV Big Picture Debate

Topic of Discussion: India-Pak Ceasefire - Rajya Sabha TV Big Picture Debate
Expert Panel Name : Vivek Katju, Former Ambassador Lt. Gen. Vinod Bhatia (Retd.), Former Director General of Military Operations Sushant Sareen, Strategic Affairs Analyst, Frank Rausan Pereira (Anchor)

Courtesy: Rajya Sabha TV

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 Free E-Book: Disaster Management In India by Ministry of Home Affairs

   

 Free E-Book: Disaster Management In India by Ministry of Home Affairs

Table of Contents :

  • I Introduction

(ANSWER KEYS) UPSC 2017 Exam General Studies Paper (SET-C)

 

UPSC Exam Papers

ANSWER KEYS of UPSC Prelims Exam 2017

General Studies-1 (GS) Paper (SET-D) 

Test Booklet Series: D

1. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

(a) Kakinada
(b) Motupalli
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
(d) Nelluru

Answer : B

2. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institure (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : A

3. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following staements

1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B

4. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer : C

5. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs.4,00,000 crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : D

6. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an

(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

Answer : B

7. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contented.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

Answer : C

8. Consider the following statements

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer : B

9. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer : C

10. Withe reference to the role of UNHabitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer : B

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UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1 स्टडी किट

सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए ऑनलाइन कोचिंग (पेपर - 1)

(Download) UPPSC: General Hindi (Mains) Compulsory Question Paper - 2013

(Download) UPPSC: General Hindi (Mains) Compulsory Question Paper - 2013

State: Uttar Pradesh (UPPSC)

Subject: General Hindi

(Answer Key's) UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Exam Paper - 2016 (Paper - 1) "held on 07-08-2016" (Booklet Series- D)

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(Answer Key's) UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Exam Paper - 2016 (Paper - 1) "held on 07-08-2016" (Booklet - D)

Exam Name: IAS (Pre.)

Subject: General Studies (GS) Paper -1

Year: 2016

Test Booklet Series: D

1. With reference to ‘stand up india scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer . c

2. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapers, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities
3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. b

3. Which of the following is/are tributary tributaries of Brahmaputra?

1. Dibang 
2. Kameng
3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. d

4. The term 'Core Banking Solutions' is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

1. It is a networking of a bank's branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts. 
2. It is an effort to increase RBI's control over commercial banks through computerization.
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer . a

5. Consider the following pairs :

Terms sometimes                Their origin 
seen in the news

1. Annex—I Countries   :      Cartagena Protocol 
2. Certified Emissions Reductions :   Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism : Kyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer . c

6. In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term transcriptome', sometimes seen in the news, refers to

(a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing 
(b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism 
(c) the description of the mechanism of gene expression 
(d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells

Answer . b

7. 'Mission Indradhanush' launched by the Government of India pertains to

(a) immunization of children and pregnant women 
(b) construction of smart cities across the country
(c) India's  own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space 
(d) New Educational Policy

Answer . a

8. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of 'Green India Mission' of the Government of India?

1. Incorporating environment al benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the `green accounting'
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer . c

9. With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatoy to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011?

1. List of ingredients including additives
2. Nutrition information
3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer . c

10. 'Project Loon', sometimes seen in the news, is related to 

(a) waste management technology
(b) wireless communication technology
(c) solar power production technology
(d) water conservation technology

Answer . b

 

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(Answer Keys) UPSC IAS (Pre.) CSAT Exam Paper - 2016 (Paper - 2) "held on 07-08-2016" (Booklet Series: A)

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(Answer Key's) UPSC IAS (Pre.) CSAT Exam Paper - 2016 (Paper - 2)

"held on 07-08-2016" (Booklet Series: A)

Exam Name: IAS (Pre.)

Subject: CSAT Paper -2

Year: 2016

Test Booklet Series: A

Passage-1

Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the ---Central-Vigilance Commission-and-Comptroller and Auditor—General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to Society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.

Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should he defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.

1. According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration?

1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities 
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services 
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services 
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 4 only 
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer .c

2. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :


1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society 
2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Earlier UPSC had notified that CSAT would not be considered in deciding the ranking and cut-off and it would be qualifying in nature.

Answer .d

3. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?


(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving
(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership
(c) The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services 
(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services

Answer .d

4. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?

(a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
(c) Judicial review of executive decisions 
(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process

Answer .d


Passage-2

In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; rights and duties cannot remain formal abstraction. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as  a personal virtue, this  solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice. 

5. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions 
2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god 
3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice

Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer . a

6. Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?

(a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions 
(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue 
(c) Balance between and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society 
(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god

Answer .c

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7. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was: 

(a) Apple 
(b) Pineapple 
(c) Grapes 
(d) Oranges

Answer . d

8. Consider the following statements.

1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country
2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate
3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate
4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country

Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?

(a) The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration
(b) The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only
(c) The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only
(d) The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate

Answer .d

9. A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?

(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south 
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north

Answer . b

10. Consider the following statement:

"We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking".

Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?

(a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking
(b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities
(c) We go for trekking and not for picnic
(d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking

Answer .d

11. There were 50 faculty member comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party is was discovered that no members knew music. The conclusion is that:

(a) the party comprised male faculty members only
(b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music
(c) the party comprised both male and female faculty members
(d) nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party

Answer .a

12. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.

(i) C is seated next to A 
(ii) A is seated two seats from D 
(iii) B is not seated next to A

On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true?

1. D is seated next to B
2. E is seated next to A
3. D and C are separated by two seats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only 
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3

Answer . b

13. There are five hobby clubs in a college —photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days? 
(a) 5
(b) 18
(c) 10
(d) 3

Answer .d

14. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are:

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 2 
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 and 3

Answer . c

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

15. Who is the doctor?
(a) T 
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) R

Answer . a

16. Who is the artist?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T

Answer . c

17. Who is the spouse of R?

(a) P
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) S

Answer . b

18. Who is the lawyer?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

Answer . b

19. Who of the following is definitely a man?

(a) P
(b) S
(s) Q
(d) None of the above

Answer . c

20. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed? 
(a) 18
(b) 19 
(c) 20
(d) 22

Answer . c

Directions for the following 5 (five) items : Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.

Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 — 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 — 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century. 

Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.

21. What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation?
1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass 
2. Biomass production competes with food production 
3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer . d

22. Which of the following can lead to food security problem?

1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation 
2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage 
3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer .b

23. In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel?

1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050
2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources 
3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer .b

24. With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been mad :

1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions 
2. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer .a

Passage-2

We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.

25. Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution
(b) Monocropping vast fields with high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution
(c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions
(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run

Answer .d

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(डाउनलोड)  सातवीं  कक्षा के लिए एनसीईआरटी बुक :संस्कृत (रुचिरा )


(डाउनलोड)  सातवीं  कक्षा के लिए एनसीईआरटी बुक :संस्कृत (रुचिरा )


कक्षा (Class) - सातवीं  (7th)

विषय (Subject) - संस्कृत (Sanskrit)

किताब का नाम (Book Name): रुचिरा  (Ruchira)

विषय - सूची

पुरोवाक्

भूमिका

प्रथमः पाठः

  • सुभाषितानि

द्वितीयः पाठः

  • दुर्बुद्धिः विनश्यति

तृतीयः पाठः

  • स्वावलम्बनम् ।

चतुर्थः पाठः

  • हास्यबालकविसम्मेलनम् (अव्ययप्रयोगः)

पञ्चमः पाठः

  • पण्डिता रमाबाई

षष्ठः पाठः

  • सदाचारः

सप्तमः पाठः

  • सङ्कल्पः सिद्धिदायकः (धातुप्रयोगः)

अष्टमः पाठः

  • त्रिवर्णः ध्वजः

नवमः पाठः

  • विमानयानं रचयाम

दशमः पाठः

  • विश्वबन्धुत्वम् (कारकविभक्तिः उपपदविभक्तिश्च)

एकादशः पाठः

  • समवायो हि दुर्जयः

द्वादशः पाठः

  • विद्याधनम् ।

त्रयोदशः पाठः

  • अमृतं संस्कृतम् (इकारान्तस्त्रीलिङ्गः)

चतुर्दशः पाठः

  • अनारिकायाः जिज्ञासा (ऋकारान्तपुँल्लिङ्गः)

पञ्चदशः पाठः

  • लालनगीतम्।

परिशिष्टम्

  • वर्णविचारः, कारकम्, शब्दरूपाणि धातुरूपाणि च

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(Final Result) UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2017

(Final Result) UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2017

The following are the lists, in order of merit of 192 (103+69+20) candidates who have qualified on the basis of the results of the Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2017 conducted by the Union Public Service Commission in  November, 2017 and SSB interviews held by the Services Selection Board of the Ministry of Defence for admission to the 145th Course of Indian Military Academy, Dehradun; Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala and Air Force Academy, Hyderabad (Pre-Flying) Training Course i.e. No. 204 F(P) Course.

There are some common candidates in the three lists for various courses.

The number of vacancies, as intimated by the Government is 100 for Indian Military Academy [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ certificates (Army Wing) holders], 45 for Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala Executive (General Service) [including 06 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders (Naval Wing)] and 32 for Air Force Academy, Hyderabad.

The Commission had recommended 3701, 2248 and 914 as qualified in the written test for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy respectively.  The number of candidates finally qualified are those after SSB test conducted by Army Head Quarters.

The results of Medical examination have not been taken into account in preparing these lists.

Verification of date of birth and educational qualifications of these candidates is still under process by the Army Headquarters.  The candidature of all these candidates is, therefore, Provisional on this score.  Candidates are requested to forward their certificates, in original, in support of Date of Birth/Educational qualification etc. claimed by them, along with Photostat attested copies thereof to Army Headquarters /Naval Headquarters /Air Headquarters, as per their first choice.

In case, there is any change of address, the candidates are advised to promptly intimate directly to the Army Headquarters /Naval Headquarters /Air Headquarters.

These results will also be available on the UPSC website at http://www.upsc.gov.in.  However, marks of the candidates will be available on the website after declaration of final result of Officers’ Training Academy (OTA) for Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2017.

For any further information, the candidates may contact Facilitation Counter near Gate ‘C’ of the Commission’s Office, either in person or on telephone Nos.011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 between 10:00 hours and 17:00 hours on any working day.

Click Here for Official Result CDS Exam-II

Study Material for UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (CDS)

Sr.No Roll No. Name
INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY    
1 0835719 VIVEK THARKOTI
2 0700749 DEBASIS SARANGI
3 0209914 ASHISH RAI
4 3509263 MANISH RANA
5 0843756 PRABHAV RAJVANSHI
6 0856625 REGATTE SAI KIRAN REDDY
7 0508698 PARANJAPE ASHWIN MILIND
8 1901273 JVM SRIKRISHNA MANIKANTA PANI
9 0801142 ABHIJEET SHIVAM
10 1902173 ASHIK KRISHNA KUMAR
11 0820545 ASHISH KATARIA
12 0100428 RAJANI KRUTIN VINODKUMAR
13 0817213 VISHAL KUMAR CHAUHAN
14 0848685 VIPUL DAGAR
15 0855632 VARUN PRATAP
16 0862428 PAWAN SINGH BISHT
17 3500626 KARAN VINAYAK
18 3518616 VINEET KUMAR
19 0844612 AMAN SIDDHU
20 0853778 SAMARTH SHUKLA
21 1112980 ROHIT KULSHRESHTHA
22 1401707 SHIVAM SHARMA
23 1900726 AKASH JAYAN
24 0507835 VASAVADA SHIVAM DAXESH
25 1003118 S V VARUN KUMAR
26 1110551 SHUBHAM MATHUR
27 1001330 YANGALASETTY SAI CHARAN
28 1006492 SHUBHAM KUMAR SINGH
29 0805244 SAI SHUBHAM
30 1200770 RAVINDER KATANIA
31 0104597 ANSHUMAN SAWANT
32 3509217 VISHWAS GIRDHAR
33 1203436 CHANDRA SHEKHAR
34 0866606 ANIL KUMAR
35 3901645 NITISHKUMAR HARIPRASAD PATHAK
36 0807821 GOURAV SANGWAN
37 2402144 V ARAVIND
38 3512825 MRIGANK SONI
39 0858514 ABHINAV TYAGI
40 0501487 PATIL HARSHARAJ SUNIL
41 2607972 SHUBHAM BHATT
42 0510735 TANAY ATUL KUMTHEKAR
43 3500795 CHETANYA KAUSHAL
44 0840856 BHUPENDER KUMAR
45 0809851 PRANAV VEER VIKRAM SINGH
46 1402200 TUSHAR SINGH PANWAR
47 2617005 ABHINAV SHARMA
48 3511325 UDAY PRATAP SINGH MANHAS
49 0504038 PRANAV GOPAL YEOLE
50 0861826 SHIRISH KUMAR BARNWAL
51 2610305 ABHISHEK SHUKLA
52 3517732 ANIMESH AGNIHOTRI
53 0827205 ANKUSH
54 1404917 B N V ABHISHIKTH
55 2400780 SOORAJ T S
56 1110226 VISHAL YADAV
57 1410275 AKSHAYA KUMAR PANJWANI
58 4102897 PUSHKAL KUMAR KASHYAP
59 0302274 AKASH A L
60 1003157 G V P PRATHYUSH
61 0101555 VIKRANT DAHIYA
62 1110954 DEEPAK SHARMA
63 4100693 KARAMJEET SINGH BAKSHI
64 3509411 SHAURYA RAJPUT
65 0502364 SHIVAM SHARMA
66 0501683 DIPTANSHU SHARMA
67 0848238 AAYUSH AHLAWAT
68 1102193 SIDDHARTH SHARMA
69 0812543 KARTIKEY MISHRA
70 0864298 KUMAR GAURAV
71 0500374 BICHKAR SHUBHAM SANTOSH
72 5401317 ARJUN SINGH
73 0500089 SHREYASH S HANCHINAL
74 3507190 VINEET SHARMA
75 0823927 KARAN PRATAP SINGH
76 0515556 ABHIJEET
77 1411027 ATUL KUMAR
78 1702750 MADHVINDER SINGH PARMAR
79 0511044 AMIT RATHOD
80 0506316 BRAJESH KUMAR
81 3505213 AMIT VERMA
82 1405989 ASHISH SHARMA
83 0514539 KRISHADITYA SINGH KANWAR
84 0510639 MOHIT GANJOO
85 0511924 JERRYLL JOHN NINAN
86 2605299 SWARNIM MISHRA
87 1114684 NAVEEN KUMAR
88 0803080 AMIT BHARDWAJ
89 0828449 LALIT KUMAR
90 0401664 AYUSH KAUSHIK
91 0501529 ANKIT LATHWAL
92 0808879 SAURABH MALIK
93 1201691 VENKATESH R
94 0510407 MAHESH KUMAR RAJPUT
95 1108613 ARUN SINGH SHEKHAWAT
96 0845342 HARSHWARDHAN KOTHARI
97 0509193 GURAV OMKAR ANANT
98 0836643 SHIKHAR CHOUDHARY
99 0813688 SHRESHTH BHARDWAJ
100 3513105 PARIKSHIT SALARIA
101 0207368 GAURAV SINGH
102 0307508 SANTOSH KUMAR THOTA
103 2605514 RAJAT SHAHI
INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY    
1 0700749 DEBASIS SARANGI
2 0209914 ASHISH RAI
3 3509263 MANISH RANA
4 0856625 REGATTE SAI KIRAN REDDY
5 0508698 PARANJAPE ASHWIN MILIND
6 1901273 JVM SRIKRISHNA MANIKANTA PANI
7 1902173 ASHIK KRISHNA KUMAR
8 0820545 ASHISH KATARIA
9 0100428 RAJANI KRUTIN VINODKUMAR
10 0853778 SAMARTH SHUKLA
11 1900726 AKASH JAYAN
12 1003118 S V VARUN KUMAR
13 1110551 SHUBHAM MATHUR
14 1001330 YANGALASETTY SAI CHARAN
15 3509217 VISHWAS GIRDHAR
16 1203436 CHANDRA SHEKHAR
17 3901645 NITISHKUMAR HARIPRASAD PATHAK
18 0807821 GOURAV SANGWAN
19 2402144 V ARAVIND
20 0858514 ABHINAV TYAGI
21 1402200 TUSHAR SINGH PANWAR
22 0504038 PRANAV GOPAL YEOLE
23 2610305 ABHISHEK SHUKLA
24 1404917 B N V ABHISHIKTH
25 1110226 VISHAL YADAV
26 4102897 PUSHKAL KUMAR KASHYAP
27 0302274 AKASH A L
28 1003157 G V P PRATHYUSH
29 4100693 KARAMJEET SINGH BAKSHI
30 3509411 SHAURYA RAJPUT
31 0502364 SHIVAM SHARMA
32 0501683 DIPTANSHU SHARMA
33 1102193 SIDDHARTH SHARMA
34 0812543 KARTIKEY MISHRA
35 0864298 KUMAR GAURAV
36 0500089 SHREYASH S HANCHINAL
37 0823927 KARAN PRATAP SINGH
38 0102388 MICKYKUMAR SINGH
39 0805304 PRASHANT SHARMA
40 0515556 ABHIJEET
41 1411027 ATUL KUMAR
42 2402639 GEORGE T JOSEPH
43 1702750 MADHVINDER SINGH PARMAR
44 0857579 VIVEK KUMAR SINGH
45 0506316 BRAJESH KUMAR
46 0510639 MOHIT GANJOO
47 0511924 JERRYLL JOHN NINAN
48 1114684 NAVEEN KUMAR
49 0803080 AMIT BHARDWAJ
50 0401664 AYUSH KAUSHIK 
51 0501529 ANKIT LATHWAL
52 1201691 VENKATESH R
53 0510407 MAHESH KUMAR RAJPUT
54 0845342 HARSHWARDHAN KOTHARI
55 0509193 GURAV OMKAR ANANT
56 1205916 PRAVEEN SINGH
57 0836643 SHIKHAR CHOUDHARY
58 0813688 SHRESHTH BHARDWAJ
59 0307508 SANTOSH KUMAR THOTA
60 1407098 VIVEKI RAI
61 0816696 RAHUL SHARMA
62 0300434 YOGESH
63 0500428 ASHISH KUMAR SINGH
64 0504275 SARODE AASHISH KANTILAL
65 0702578 BIMAL RANJAN BEHERA
66 3401638 NAVVIVEK SINGH THAKUR
67 0602534 AMAN SHARMA
68 1107700 AKANSH SRIVASTAVA
69 0829911 ABHISHEK KUMAR
AIR FORCE ACADEMY    
1 700749 DEBASIS SARANGI
2 209914 ASHISH RAI
3 856625 REGATTE SAI KIRAN REDDY
4 508698 PARANJAPE ASHWIN MILIND
5 1902173 ASHIK KRISHNA KUMAR
6 820545 ASHISH KATARIA
7 100428 RAJANI KRUTIN VINODKUMAR
8 853778 SAMARTH SHUKLA
9 1112980 ROHIT KULSHRESHTHA
10 1203436 CHANDRA SHEKHAR
11 2402144 V ARAVIND
12 2617005 ABHINAV SHARMA
13 861826 SHIRISH KUMAR BARNWAL
14 2610305 ABHISHEK SHUKLA
15 1404917 B N V ABHISHIKTH
16 1110226 VISHAL YADAV
17 4102897 PUSHKAL KUMAR KASHYAP
18 1003157 G V P PRATHYUSH
19 8642980 KUMAR GAURAV
20 5003740 BICHKAR SHUBHAM SANTOSH

Click Here for Official Result CDS Exam-II

Study Material for UPSC Combined Defence Services Examination (CDS)

Courtesy: UPSC

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