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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Assistant Public Prosecutors in CBI

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Assistant Public Prosecutors in CBI

1.Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, to the exclusion of any other Court, does NOT include any dispute:
(a) between Government of India and one or more States.
(b) between Government of India and any State or States on the one hand and one or more other States on the other.
(c) in relation to election of President of India.
(d) between Government of India and civil servants as to constitutional validity of service rule.

2.In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of National Awards like Bharat Ratna holding that these awards do not amount to ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India
(b) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
(c) D K Basu v. State of West Bengal
(d) J P Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh

3.Which of the following Fundamental Rights can NOT be suspended when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?
(a) Article 19 and Article 21
(b) Article 32 and Article 226
(c) Article 20 and Article 21
(d) Article 19 and Article 20

4.In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court, while recognizing the Muslim Women’s right to maintenance for the first time, observed, “A uniform civil code will help the cause of national integration by removing disparate loyalties to laws which have conflicting ideologies”?
(a) Shamim Ara v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(b) Danial Latifi v. Union of India
(c) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(d) K Zunaideen v. Ameena Begum

5.Doctrine of Eclipse, pertaining to Fundamental Rights, has originated from which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 13 

6.The power of the Supreme Court of India to punish for contempt of itself is traceable to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 128
(c) Article 129
(d) Article 131

7.Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy under the Constitution of India?
(a) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(b) Equal Justice and free legal aid
(c) To value and preserve the rich heritage of India’s composite culture
(d) To provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years

8.Which constitutional amendment is relevant to the goods and services tax?
(a) Constitution (99th Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (100th Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (101st Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act

9.Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The State of Andhra Pradesh enjoys special status under the Constitution of India in matters relating to education and therefore its power to prescribe residential requirement for candidates appearing in super specialty examination is constitutionally valid
(b) The Supreme Court of India has no power to transfer a case pending in a Court within the State of Jammu and Kashmir to any Court outside that State
(c) The Parliament cannot empower any Court in the State of Jammu and Kashmir to exercise the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court to enforce the fundamental rights by issuing writ, orders or directions
(d) The provisions of article 371D of the Constitution of India have overriding effect over any other provision of the Constitution

10.Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Goods and Services Tax Council Article 279A
(b) Taxes on sale of petroleum crude List I of Seventh Schedule
(c) Duties of excise on petroleum crude produced in India List II of Seventh Schedule
(d) Duties of excise on tobacco produced in India List III of Seventh Schedule

11.Article 246A of the Constitution of India:
1. contains a non-obstante clause thereby overrides Article 254.
2. confers exclusive power on the Parliament with respect to taxes on goods and services in the course of inter-state trade and commerce.
3. the legislature of a State has been given power to make laws for taxes on all goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

12.The Doctrine of Double Jeopardy is enshrined under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 20(2)
(c) Article 20(1)
(d) Article 22(1)

13.In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the Right to Privacy is a part of Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
(a) K S Puttaswamy case
(b) M P Sharma case
(c) Binoy Viswam case
(d) Karak Singh case

14.For making reservation in promotion in public employment under Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which of the following are the essential requirements?
1. Backwardness
2. Inadequate representation
3. Maintenance of efficiency in service
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15.In which one of the following matters the Supreme Court CANNOT issue directions to the Governments?
(a) For protecting children from drug abuse
(b) For collecting necessary quantifiable data of SC/ST candidates in civil services for giving them reservations in promotions
(c) For protecting good samaritans who wish to help victims of road accidents
(d) For banning sale of liquor on national and state highways

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Junior Time Scale Grade of Central Labour Service consisting of the posts of ALC - AWC - AD (Central)

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Junior Time Scale Grade of Central Labour Service 

consisting of the posts of ALC - AWC - AD (Central)

1.Consider the following Commissions / Committees:
1. First National Commission on Labour
2. Labour Investigation Committee
3. Royal Commission on Labour
4. National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector Which one of the following is the correct chronology of the above, in ascending order, in terms of their submission of reports?
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 3-4-2-1

2.Family planning became an integral part of labour welfare as per the International Labour
Organization Resolution passed in the year:
(a) 1917
(b) 1927
(c) 1937
(d) 1947

3.Which of the following is / are NOT correct approach with respect to welfare services undertaken by organizations in the commercial and public organizations?
1. As welfare is provided by the State to all , hence duplication by other organizations is undesirable
2. Welfare services may be provided for matters concerning employees which may not be immediately connected with their jobs, though connected with their place of work
3. Welfare services will include special services for retired employees
4. Child care facilities may be provided on a collective basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

4.Which one among the following is the earliest labour law in India?
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act
(b) Trade Unions Act
(c) Employee’s Compensation Act
(d) Factories Act

5.Which one of the following theories of labour welfare is also called efficiency theory?
(a) Functional theory
(b) Public relations theory
(c) Religious theory
(d) Philanthropic theory

6.Which of the following statements with respect to housing is / are NOT correct?
1. It is a basic requirement for living life with dignity
2. According to the Revised Integrated Housing Scheme 2016 for workers, central assistance for a new house may be released in twelve equal installments
3. House Listing and Housing Census data of 2011 is provided by the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

7.Which of the following benefits can be combined under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Sickness benefit and maternity benefit
(b) Sickness benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(c) Maternity benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(d) Maternity benefit and medical benefit

8.Which one of the following is the total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee having two or more than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
(a) Twenty six weeks
(b) Fourteen weeks
(c) Twelve weeks
(d) Sixteen weeks

9.What is the share of women representatives in the Advisory Committee to be constituted under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) One half of the total members
(b) One third of the total members
(c) One fourth of the total members
(d) Three fourth of the total members

10.The International Labour Organization’s Convention No 102 on ‘Minimum Standards of Social Security’ was adopted in the year:
(a) 1948
(b) 1953
(c) 1952
(d) 1950

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Labour Enforcement Officers (Central)

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Labour Enforcement Officers (Central)

1.Consider the following Commissions / Committees:
1. First National Commission on Labour
2. Labour Investigation Committee
3. Royal Commission on Labour
4. National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of the above, in ascending order, in termsof their submission of reports?
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 3-4-2-1

2.Family planning became an integral part of labour welfare as per the International Labour Organization Resolution passed in the year:
(a) 1917
(b) 1927
(c) 1937
(d) 1947

3.Which of the following is / are NOT correct approach with respect to welfare services undertaken by organizations in the commercial and public organizations?
1. As welfare is provided by the State to all , hence duplication by other organizations is undesirable
2. Welfare services may be provided for matters concerning employees which may not be immediately connected with their jobs, though connected with their place of work
3. Welfare services will include special services for retired employees
4. Child care facilities may be provided on a collective basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

4.Which one among the following is the earliest labour law in India?
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act
(b) Trade Unions Act
(c) Employee’s Compensation Act
(d) Factories Act

5.Which one of the following theories of labour welfare is also called efficiency theory?
(a) Functional theory
(b) Public relations theory
(c) Religious theory
(d) Philanthropic theory

6.Which of the following statements with respect to housing is / are NOT correct?
1. It is a basic requirement for living life with dignity
2. According to the Revised Integrated Housing Scheme 2016 for workers, central assistance for a new house may be released in twelve equal installments
3. House Listing and Housing Census data of 2011 is provided by the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

7.Which of the following benefits can be combined under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Sickness benefit and maternity benefit
(b) Sickness benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(c) Maternity benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(d) Maternity benefit and medical benefit

8.Which one of the following is the total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee having two or more than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
(a) Twenty six weeks
(b) Fourteen weeks
(c) Twelve weeks
(d) Sixteen weeks

9.What is the share of women representatives in the Advisory Committee to be constituted under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) One half of the total members
(b) One third of the total members
(c) One fourth of the total members
(d) Three fourth of the total members

10.The International Labour Organization’s Convention No 102 on ‘Minimum Standards of Social Security’ was adopted in the year:
(a) 1948
(b) 1953
(c) 1952
(d) 1950

11.In case of permanent total disablement, which one of the following is the minimum compensation to be paid under the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923?
(a) Rs. 1,60,000
(b) Rs. 1,40,000
(c) Rs. 1,20,000
(d) Rs. 1,00,000

12.Which of the following statements with regard to Section 1 of the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948, is / are NOT correct?
1. The Act shall apply to all factories including factories belonging to the Government
2. The Act shall not apply to a factory under the control of the Government whose employees are in receipt of benefits substantially inferior to the benefits under this Act
3. The Act extends to the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir
4. The applicability of the Act in an establishment ceases if the number of persons employed therein falls below the limit specified under the Act Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Mining, Mechanical & Drilling Engineering

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Mining, Mechanical & Drilling Engineering

1. Throttling curve in a centrifugal pump running at constant speed represents the relationship between:
(a) Power and flow rate
(b) Efficiency and flow rate
(c) Head and flow rate
(d) Efficiency and net suction positive head

2. Consider the following statements regarding the stability of bodies in a fluid medium:
1. The stability of a submerged body requires that the centre of gravity lies below the centre of buoyancy
2. To improve the stability of a floating body by increasing the bottom width and reducing the draft
3. For stability of a floating body, the metacentre should be above the centre of buoyancy but below the centre of gravity
Which of the above statements are correct?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 2 and 3 only 

3. How does the angle of attack effect lift and drag?
(a) Increasing the angle of attack can decrease the lift, but it also increases drag so that less thrust required
(b) Increasing the angle of attack can increase the lift, but it also increases drag so that less thrust required
(c) Increasing the angle of attack can increase the lift, but it also increases drag so that more thrust required
(d) Increasing the angle of attack can decrease the lift, but it also increases drag so that more thrust required

4. A stone weighs 392.4 N in air and 196.2 N when fully submerged in water. The volume of the stone is:
(a) 1 × 104 cm3
(b) 2 × 104 cm3
(c) 3 × 104 cm3
(d) 4 × 104 cm3

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Medical Officer - (Homoeopathy)

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Medical Officer - (Homoeopathy)

1.Pernicious anaemia is:
(a) Microcytic normochromic
(b) Microcytic hypochromic
(c) Macrocytic normochromic
(d) Macrocytic hypochromic

2.Blackwater fever is a complication of infection with:
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plamodium malaraia
(d) All of these

3.Which one of the following is correct in respect of Raynaud’s disease?
(a) Women are affected five times more often than men
(b) Fingers are involved more frequently than toes
(c) Most patients experience only mild or infrequent episodes
(d) Results of physical examination are often entirely normal

4.The clinical variety of psoriasis which is most common in children and young adults is:
(a) Palmoplentar psoriasis
(b) Plaque-type psoriasis
(c) Guttate psoriasis
(d) Pustular psoriasis

5.Aschoff’s nodules are seen in:
(a) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
(b) Libman sacks endocarditis
(c) Rheumatic carditis
(d) Non-bacterial endocarditis

6.All are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis EXCEPT:
(a) Malignancy
(b) Pregnancy and postpartum
(c) Age less than 60 years
(d) High dose oestrogen oral contraceptive pill

7.A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmentation and hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:
(a) Haemochromatosis
(b) Tumor lung
(c) Wilson’s disease
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis

8.Hypoglycaemia is a recognised feature of all EXCEPT:
(a) Uremia
(b) Acromegaly
(c) Addisons disease
(d) Hepatocellular failure

9.Which one of the following is NOT a feature of multiple myeloma?
(a) Hypercalcemia
(b) Hyperviscosity
(c) Anaemia
(d) Elevated alkaline phosphatase

10.Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies EXCEPT:
(a) Hodgkin’s disease
(b) Non Hodgkins lymphoma
(c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(d) Multiple myeloma

11.The diagnostic test with best sensitivity and specificity to diagnose chronic pancreatitis is:
(a) Abdominal CT scan
(b) Abdominal radiograph
(c) Abdominal ultrasound
(d) Secretion test

12.Radiographic ‘string sign’ is a feature of:
(a) Diverticular disease
(b) Ulcerative colitis
(c) Crohn’s disease
(d) Acute Intestinal obstruction

13.A booming ‘pistol-shot’ sound heard over the formal arteries is found in:
(a) Mitral stenosis
(b) Mitral regurgitation
(c) Aortic regurgitation
(d) Aortic stenosis

14.Detection of which autoantibody is considered as the best screening test for SLE?
(a) Anti-dsDNA
(b) Anti-Ro
(c) Antinuclear antibody
(d) Anti-RNP

15.All are radiographic features of Osteoarthritis EXCEPT:
(a) Narrowed joint space
(b) Osteophytes
(c) Subchondral bone sclerosis
(d) Subchondral bone osteopenia

16.The hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
(a) Microaneurysms
(b) Haemorrhage
(c) Cotton-wool spots
(d) Neovascularisation

17.In cholinergic urticaria the pruritic wheals develop after exposure to:
(a) Hot bath
(b) Cold bath
(c) Pressure
(d) Wheat protein

18.The ‘tram tracks’ sign on X ray is found in patients of:
(a) Bronchial asthma
(b) Bronchiectasis
(c) Chronic bronchitis
(d) Silicosis

19.Neurologic symptoms produced by an elevation of the body’s core temperature are featuresof:
(a) Systemic sclerosis
(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c) Systematic lupus erythematosus
(d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

20.Pel-Ebstein fever is seen in:
(a) Burkitt’s lymphoma
(b) Mantle cell lymphoma
(c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(d) Follicular lymphoma

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(Answer Key) Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination-2017 (Civil Engineering)

 (Answer Key) Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination-2017

(Civil Engineering)

Exam Name: Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination

Year: 2017

Subjects:

  • (Civil Engineering)

Click Here to Download Civil Engineering Answer Key

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Courtesy:ISSE

 (Answer Key) UPSC Indian Statistical Service Examination-2017

 (Answer Key) UPSC Indian Statistical Service Examination-2017

 

Exam Name: Indian Statistical Service Examination

Year: 2017

Subjects:

  • Statistics-I
  • Statistics-II

Click Here to Download Statistics-I Answer Key

Click Here to Download Statistics-II Answer Key

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Courtesy:ISSE

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Statistics


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Statistics


STATISTICS
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) Ten percent of a certain population suffer from a serious disease. Two independent tests are given to a person suspected of the disease. Each test gives a correct diagnosis 90% of the time. Find the probability that the person really suffers from the disease, given that,

(i) both tests are positive
(ii) only one test is positive.

(b) Let X be a continuous random variable with the probability density function

Find the cumulative distribution function and the probability density function of Y = x2.

(c) Let {Xn} be a sequence of independent and identically distributed random variables with common probability function

Check whether {X} obeys the (it) strong law of large numbers and (i) weak law of large numbers.

(d) Let x1, x2,..., Xn be n observations, each independently uniformly distributed between 0-1/2 and 0+1/2 Find a general form of maximum likelihood estimator (MLE) of 0. Verify that

are both MLEs, where Y1 = Min Xi and Yn, = Max Xi.

(e) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn, be a random sample from uniform population over (O, 0) and let M = Max (X1, X2, ..., Xn). Show that M is a biased but consistent estimator of 0.

Q2. (a) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn be independently and identically distributed observations from a distribution with probability density function f0(x). If Y = g(X1, X2, ..., Xn) is an unbiased estimate of 8, then

Use this inequality to show that the sample mean is a uniformly minimum variance unbiased estimator of mean of a Poisson distribution.

(b) State and prove Chebyshev's inequality. Hence or otherwise, prove that (i) P[X<l/2]< 4/l and (ii) P[X >2l] <1/l. if X is any positive random variable having both mean and variance equal to l.
(c) In a Community of (a + b) potential voters, a are for abortion and b(b<a) are against it. Suppose that a vote is taken to determine the will of the majority with regard to legalizing abortion. If n(n <b) random persons of these (a + b) potential voters do not vote, what is the probability that those against abortion will win?

Q3. (a) X1 is the time that a customer takes from getting on line at a service desk in a bank to completion of service and X2 is the time to wait in line before reaching the service desk (X1>X2). The joint probability density function of (X1, X2) is given by

Let Y1 = X1 + X2 and Y2 = X1-X2. Find the joint probability density function of Y1 and Y2. Are Y1 and Y2, independently distributed? Give reason.

(b) Let X1, X2, X3 and X4 be independent and identically distributed random variables each having probability density function

Find the cumulative distribution function and probability density function of Y = Min (X1, X2, X3, X4).

(c) Using Kolmogorov-Smirnov test, determine whether the sample data given below come from an exponential distribution with mean 4. The observations in the sample are

0.7, 5.5, 5.7, 4.3, 0.8, 1.1, 5.1, 4.9, 2.0, 3.9, 5.3, 4.2, 5.2, 5.8, 6.0 (Given, D13, 0.05 = 0.361, D14, 0.05 = 0.349, D15, 0.05 = 0.338)

Q4. (a) Let X1, X2,.., Xn be a random sample from a distribution with probability density function
f(x) = qxq-1, 0< x <1, q >0
Find the maximum likelihood estimator (MLE) and minimum variance unbiased estimator (MVUE) of q.

(b) If the random variable X follows normal distribution N(m, 1), then find the Y = 1-0(X)/0(x), where 0 and o denote the cumulative distribution function and probability density function respectively of N(0, 1), the standard normal distribution.
(c) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn be a random sample from a normal population with mean u and variance 25. For a sample size of n=16, find the uniformly most powerful (UMP) test for testing the simple null hypothesis Ho : u = 5 against the composite alternative hypotheses (i) H1: u >5 and (ii) H1: u <5.

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4, are four independent variables with E (Y1) = E (Y3) = q1, +q3 +q4, E (Y2) = E (Y4) = q1-q2 and V(Yi) = q2 (for i = 1, 2, 3, 4). Verify whether q1+q3 and q2,+q3 + q4 are estimable. If so, obtain their BLUEs. Also obtain the variances of the BLUES.

(b) Let X = [X1, X2, X3] have trivariate normal distribution N3 (m, S), where


Show that (X2-X1)2 + (X3-X2)2 degrees of freedom.

(c)

(d) An investigator selects 10 one-acre plots by simple random sampling and counts the number of trees (y) on each plot. She also has aerial photographs of the plantation from which she can estimate the number of trees (x) on each plot of the entire plantation. Hence, she knows sym mx = 19.7 and since the two counts are approximately proportional through the origin, she uses a ratio estimate to estimate my. The data yield the following:

N = 1000 (plantation size), n = 10 (taken by SRS)
yi = The actual count of trees in one-acre plots, i = 1, 2, ..., 10
xi = The aerial estimate for each plot
y = 22.10, x = 20.80

(e) Explain the concept of balanced incomplete block design (BIBD). What are the conditions for existence of a BIBD? If V = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7), then form a number of blocks, each of order 3, such that each pair of elements in V is contained in exactly one block.

Q6. (a) Obtain first canonical correlation and its associated canonical variable pair for the following correlation matrix :

(b)

(c) Distinguish between a factorial experiment and a number of single-factor experiments. What is meant by confounding in a factorial experiment? Why is confounding preferred even at the cost of loss of information on the confounded effects?

Q7. (a) Explain the method of systematic sampling and give its merits and demerits. How do you estimate the sampling variance of the estimate of the population total? Show how systematic sampling is a particular case of cluster sampling.
(b) Suppose n1 = 11 and n2 = 12 observations are made on two random vectors X1 and X2 which are assumed to have bivariate normal distribution with a common covariance matrix S, but possibly different mean vectors m1, and m2. The sample mean vectors and pooled covariance matrix are

Obtain Mahalanobis sample distance D2 and Fisher's linear discriminant function. Assign the observation X0 = (0, 1) to either population p1 or p2.

(c) Let y1 = b1-b2 +e1, y2 = b3 +e2 and y3 = b1 +b2 +e3, where e1, e2, and e3 are N (0,0). Obtain best linear unbiased estimator (BLUE) of (2b1 -b2). Is this linear parametric function testable?

Q8. (a) Three sides of an equilateral triangle were measured by 5 persons with the following results :

Is there any significant difference between (i) measurements by the persons and (ii) the sides of the triangle?

(b)

(c) Derive the expression for the variance of Horvitz-Thompson estimator (HTE) of population total. Point out the difficulty faced in estimating it. Find Yates-Grundy variance estimator.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Zoology


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Zoology


ZOOLOGY
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. Answer the following in about 150 words each :

(a) Differentiate between major and minor phyla. Describe the salient features of any one minor phylum.
(b) Some fishes can breathe air. Elaborate.
(c) Explain the types of metamorphosis in insects and their hormonal regulation.
(d) Give general features and examples of egg-laying mammals and pouched mammals.
(e) Discuss the origin of Tetrapods.

Q2. (a) Give an account of larval forms in Crustacea with examples and diagrams. Also write a note on the significance of larvae.
(b) Give the structure of cnidoblast, the defensive organ in Cnidaria. Also, describe its mechanism of action.
(c) What are Bilateria ? Explain the theories of origin of Bilateria.

Q3. (a) Give an elaborate account of various flight adaptations in birds.
(b) Explain various types of dentition in mammals.
(c) Describe the roles of three eye layers in vision in humans.

Q4. (a) Give an account of evolution of aortic arches in reptiles, birds and mammals.
(b) Discuss respiration in Mollusca indicating suitable examples.
(c) Explain primitive, degenerate and advanced characters of Branchiostoma. Comment on its systematic position.

SECTION-B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words each :

(a) Describe FISH : Principle, Procedure and Applications'.
(b) What are Ecotones ? Are wetlands ecotones ? Justify.
(c) Discuss Thermal Pollution and its preventive measures.
(d) How is 'Composite Carp Culture advantageous over 'Traditional Carp Culture' ?
(e) Explain the role of chemical signals in alarm spreading.

Q6. (a) Mention the advantages of social living. Describe different types of social hierarchies in primates.
(b) Discuss the concept and importance of genetic counselling and gene therapy.
(c) Write about phase contrast and fluorescence microscopy with notes on their principles and applications in Zoology.

Q7. (a) What is meant by biostatistics ? Explain the role of correlation, regression and ANOVA in data analysis in Zoology.
(b) Elaborate the term 'Ecosystem' and explain its structural components with examples. Comment on Trophic Dynamics concept.
(c) Explain the principle, types and applications of ultracentrifuge.

Q8. (a) Discuss environmental degradation with regards to inland water resources. Suggest measures to restore the water quality of our rivers, lakes and reservoirs.
(b) What is meant by Biodiversity ? Explain Protected Area Networking w.r.t. their establishment, monitoring and management.
(c) Explain adaptations of animals inhabiting fast flowing waters.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Psychology


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Psychology


PSYCHOLOGY
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. Answer each the following questions in about 150 words :

(a) Describe how you used psychology to solve a social problem.
(b) Distinguish between negative reinforcement and punishment. Do you think punishment is an effective way to modify behaviour ?
(c) In a study, the number of students intake in a college correlated very highly with violence. Explain the research finding.
(d) Do you think subliminal messages can actually lead to significant changes in attitudes or behaviour ? Cite research evidence.
(e) Psychology is the scientific study of behaviour. Evaluate.

Q2.(a) Why do we forget ? Differentiate between anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
(b) How can you use 'Focus Group Discussion' to promote use of toilets in rural areas ?
(c) How would you apply Operant Conditioning technique for toilet training to a 3-year-old boy ?

Q3.(a) Whatever we are, it is because of Genes. Discuss.
(b) Which research design would you apply to prove that a particular method of teaching yields best results ? Describe.
(c) How are we able to perceive the world in three dimensions when our eyes are capable of sensing only two-dimensional images ?

Q4. (a) Evaluate "interview" as a method of data collection.
(b) Explain the role of meaningfulness and emotional arousal in encoding. Discuss the implications of encoding specificity principle.
(c) Explain the differences in information processing at various levels of memory. In what way is recall affected by initial processing of information ?

SECTION-B

Q5. Answer each of the following questions in about 150 words :

(a) Creative people usually have high IQ scores but those with highest IQ scores are not necessarily the most creative people. Explain.
(b) Critically evaluate Noam Chomsky's theory of transformational grammar.
(c) Drug-addiction is just a maladaptive behaviour. Like other behaviour, it can be easily changed. Discuss.
(d) What is paradoxical in REM sleep? How active is a person during different stages of sleep ?
(e) Explain different types of reasoning processes used in problem solving with their strengths and limitations.

Q6. (a) According to Gardner's theory, there is no one kind of general intelligence for ranking individuals. Explain.
(b) A young person helped a visually impaired woman to cross the road. He explained his action saying that he has positive attitude towards such persons. Did his attitude determine his behaviour or the behaviour determine his attitude. Explain.
(c) Explain the importance of Critical Periods in language development. In what ways are bilingualism and cognitive development related ?

Q7. (a) Which needs should one be high on to be a successful entrepreneur ? Explain on the basis of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
(b) Can we do justice to measuring personality by projective and objective tests? Discuss.
(c) Why do some people behave aggressively towards those who defy social norms ? How can such aggressive behaviours be changed ?

Q8. (a) Can we determine a person's academic performance based only on IQ score ? Explain.
(b) How do we explain self-defeating behaviour of a person from the Humanistic perspective ?
(c) People emphasize the personal traits more than the situational factors. Evaluate the statement.

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Printed Study Material for IAS Mains General Studies

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Political Science And International Relations


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Political Science And International Relations


Political Science And International Relations
Paper - 1

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. Comment on the following in about 150 words each :

(a) According to Sri Aurobindo, Swaraj is a necessary condition for India to accomplish its destined goal
(b) Neo-liberal perspective of State
(c) Post-modernism
(d) Eco-feminism
(e) Hobbesian notion of Political Obligation

Q2. (a) Rawls' theory of justice is both contractual and distributive. Examine.
(b) Everywhere, inequality is a cause of revolution - Aristotle. Comment.
(c) Define Socialism. Discuss the salient features of Fabian Socialism.

Q3. (a) What do you understand by Multiculturalism ? Discuss Bhikhu Parekh's views on Multiculturalism.
(b) Deliberative democracy does not have its salience without participation and participatory democracy does not have its credence without deliberations. Comment.
(c) Differentiate between Freedom and Liberty. Discuss Marx's notion of freedom.

Q4: (a) Political democracy could not last unless social democracy lay at its base - B.R. Ambedkar. Comment.
(b) Write a brief note on The End of History debate.
(c) What do you understand by the notion of Statecraft ? Discuss the theory of statecraft as given by Kautilya.

SECTION-B

Q5. Comment on the following in about 150 words each:

(a) The success of Mahatma Gandhi lay in transforming both political and non-political movements into a unified nationalist movement.
(b) Right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life.
(c) Indian federation has moved from cooperative federation to competitive federation.
(d) State subvention/funding may be an effective instrument in strengthening electoral democracy in India.
(e) In the post-liberalization era, Indian politics is moving from ascriptive politics to developmental politics.

Q6. (a) Differentiate parliamentary supremacy from parliamentary sovereignty. Would you consider the Indian Parliament as a Sovereign Parliament ? Examine.
(b) Has the 73rd Constitutional Amendment empowered women in panchayats in India ? Discuss.
(c) Religion is still an important factor in Indian politics. Discuss.

Q7. (a) India has moved from ‘one-party dominant system' to 'one-party led coalition'. Discuss.
(b) How is the President of India elected ? Outline the salient characteristics of the electoral college of the Indian President.
(c) Examine the role of the National Commission for Minorities in preserving, promoting and protecting the rights of minorities in India.

Q8. (a) Judiciary has acquired the role of both, a legislature and an executive in recent years. Examine with suitable examples.
(b) What do you understand by Green Revolution ? Do you think that a Second Green Revolution is needed to adequately address the agrarian challenges in contemporary India ? Examine.
(c) Differentiate Moderate Nationalism from Extremist/Militant Nationalism in terms of their objectives and means.

Click Here to Download Full Political Science And International Relations Paper I

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Printed Study Material for IAS Mains General Studies

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Physics

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Physics

PHYSICS
(PAPER-I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) Express angular momentum in terms of kinetic, potential and total energy of a satellite of mass m in a circular orbit of radius r.
(b) Describe Michelson-Morley experiment and show how the negative results obtained from this experiment were interpreted.
(c) Sunlight is reflected from a calm lake. The reflected light is 100% polarized at a certain instant. What is the angle between the sun and horizon?
(d) Explain with proper example the interferences due to 'division of wavefront and division of amplitude'.
(e) Find the velocity of sound in a gas in which two waves of wavelengths 1.00 m and 1.01 m produce 10 beats in 3 seconds.

Q2. (a) Define moment of inertia and explain its physical significance. Calculate the moment of inertia of an annular ring about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane.
(b) A diatomic molecule can be considered to be made up of two masses m1 and m2 separated by a fixed distance r. Derive a formula for the distance of centre of mass, C1 from mass m1. Also show that the moment of inertia about an axis through C and perpendicular to r is mr2, where m = m1m2 / m1 + m2.
(c) State and explain Stokes' law. A drop of water of radius 0.01 m is falling through a medium whose density is 1.21 kg/m3 and h =1.8x10-5 N-s/m2. Find the terminal velocity of the drop of water.

Q3. (a) What is multiple-beam interference? Discuss the advantages of multiple-beam interferometry over two-beam interferometry. Explain the fringes formed by Fabry-Perot interferometer.
(b) Show that the areas of all the half-period zones are nearly the same. Find the radius of 1st half-period zone in a zone plate whose focal length is 50 cm and the wavelength of the incident light is 500 nm.
(c) A plane-polarized light passes through a double-refracting crystal of thickness 40 mm and emerges out as circularly polarized. If the birefringence of the crystal is 0.00004, then find the wavelength of the incident light.
(d) Obtain the system matrix for a thin lens placed in air and made of material of refractive index 1.5 having radius of curvature 50 cm each. Also find its focal length.

Q4. (a) A ball moving with a speed of 9 m/s strikes an identical stationary ball such that after the collision the direction of each ball makes an angle 30° with the original line of motion. Find the speed of the balls after the collision. Is the kinetic energy conserved in this collision?
(b) Prove that x2 + y2 + z2 = c2t2 is invariant under Lorentz transformation.
(c) How is laser light different from ordinary light? Discuss the working principle of ruby laser. What role do chromium ions play in this process?
(d) Explain the principle of operation of optical fibre. What are the different losses that take place in optical fibre?

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Discuss the principle of 'artificial dielectric'. Where do you find its use?
(b) How large an inductance needs to be connected in series with a 120 V, 60 W lightbulb if it is to operate normally when the combination is connected across a 240 V, 60 Hz supply?
(c) A charge q = 2 mC is placed at a =10 cm from an infinite grounded conducting plane sheet. Find the (i) total charge induced on the sheet, (ii) force on the charge q and (iii) total work required to remove the charge slowly to an infinite distance from the plane.
(d) 1 litre of hydrogen at 127 °C and 106 dynes/cm2 pressure expands isothermally until its volume is doubled and then expands adiabatically until its volume is redoubled. Calculate the resulting pressure. (g = 1.42)
(e) Using the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law, show that there cannot be any negative absolute temperature.

Q6. (a) When a person carrying something metallic walks through the doorway of a metal detector, it emits a sound. Explain the reason behind it. A 200 W resistor and a 15 mF capacitor are connected in series to 220 V, 50 Hz a.c. supply. Calculate the current in the circuit and the r.m.s. voltage across the resistor and the capacitor. Is the algebraic sum of these voltages more than the supply voltage? If yes, resolve the paradox.
(b) (i) Write down Stefan-Boltzmann law of radiation and derive it from Planck's law of radiation.
(ii) An aluminium foil of relative emittance 0.1 is placed between two concentric spheres (assumed perfectly black) at temperatures 300 K and 200 K respectively. Find the temperature of the foil once the steady state is reached.
(c) Write down the electromagnetic wave equations in non-conducting dielectric medium. Hence show that the velocity of wave propagation is given by n = Ö1/em, where the symbols have their usual meanings.
(d) A current i(t) = (2e-t -e-2t) mA charges up a 120 nF capacitor for a period of 2 seconds. If the final voltage across the capacitor is 15 V, what was the initial voltage across it?

Q7. (a) (i) Why does a soap bubble expand upon electrification?
(ii) A sphere of radius R contains a charge +Q and a charge -Q distributed uniformly in the upper and lower hemispheres respectively. Show that the dipole moment of charge distribution is 3/4 QRk, where k is directed along the polar axis of the spherical coordinate system.
(b) (i) Discuss briefly the features of 'guard rings'.
(ii) The plates of a capacitor are square-shaped, each of side l. The plates are inclined at an angle a to each other. The smallest distance between the plates is a. Calculate the capacitance when a is small.
(c) Write down the physical significance of Maxwell's equations and explain the concept of displacement current by using a proper example.
(d) Derive Clausius-Clapeyron equation. How does it explain the effect of pressure on melting point of solids and boiling point of liquids?

Q8. (a) Write and explain the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution. Using this distribution, find the expressions for the most probable speed, mean speed and root-mean-square speed.
(b) Calculate the critical temperature for helium, given the values for critical constants, a = 6.15x10-5, b =9.95x10-4, where the unit of pressure is atm and the sample is kept at NTP.
(c) A reversible engine converts 1/6 of the heat input into work. When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62 °C, its efficiency is doubled. Find the temperatures of source and sink.
(d) Explain Bose-Einstein distribution and obtain the same from the grand canonical ensemble.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mechanical Engineering


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mechanical Engineering


MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
(Paper - 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Pleasc read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated. Diagrams/figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) A beam AB of length 2 m, hinged at A and supported at B by a cord which passes over two frictionless pulleys (P, Q), carries a 50 kN load as shown in Fig. 1(a). Determine the distance x, where 100 kN load is located on the beam, if the beam is to remain in equilibrium in horizontal position. Also determine the reaction at the hinged end.

(b) A state of plane stress is shown in Fig. 1(b).
Determine the following:

(i) Principal stresses
(ii) Principal planes
(iii) Maximum shear stress

(c) A thin spherical vessel of 1000 mm diameter and 2 mm thickness is subjected to an internal pressure of 4 MPa. The Young's modulus and Poisson's ratio are 200 GPa and 0-3 respectively. Find the following :

(i) Hoop stress fit
(ii) Change in volume of the vessel

(d) A steam engine develops 300 kW power at 9.5 rad/s. The coefficient of fluctuation of energy is found to be 0.1 and fluctuation of speed is kept within +0.5% of mean speed. Find the mass of the flywheel required if the radius of gyration is 2m.
(e) A machine of mass 8 kg is supported on springs having combined stiffness of 5.4 N/m. A dashpot is attached to this stern that exerts a force of 40, when the mass has a velocity of 1 m/s. Determine the following:

(i) Critical damping coefficient
(ii) Damping factor
(iii) Logarithmic decrement
(iv) Ratio of two consecutive amplitudes

Q2. (a) A simply supported beam of rectangular section is 200 mm wide and 300mm deep. It supports a uniformly distributed load of 6 KN/m Over an effective span of 4 m as shown in Fig. 2 (a). Calculate the magnitude and direction of the principal stresses at a point located at 0.50 m from the left support and 50 mm above the neutral axis.

(b) Compare the permissible diameter of a steel circular shaft, subjected to torsion, according to the following thcorics of failure. Assume Poisson's ratio to be 0.3 :

(i) Maximum stress theory
(ii) Maximum shear stress theory
(iii) Maximum strain thcory

(c) Fig. 2(c) shows three fat blocks positioned on the 30° incline. A force P parallel to the incline is applied to the middle block. The movement of the upper block is prevented by attaching to a fixed support by a wire. The coefficient of static friction for each of the three pairs of mating surfaces is shown in the figure. Determine the maximum value which P may have before any slipping takes place.

Q3. (a) A solid aluminum shaft 1 m long and 50 mm diameter is to be replaced by a tubular steel shaft of the length and the same outside diameter (i.e., 50 mm) such that each of the two shafts could have the same angle of twist per unit tensional moment over the total length. What must the inner diameter of the tubular steel shaft be? The modulus of rigidity of steel is three times that of aluminum.
(b) A compound epicycle gear is shown in Fig. 3(b). friar A, Dared I are free to rotate on axis P. Compound gears B and Rotate together on axis Q at the end of arm P. All the gears have equal pitch. The number of external teeth on cars A, B and Gars 18, 45 and 21 respectively. Gears D and are annular gears. Gear A rotates at 100 r.p.m. in counter-clockwise direction and gear D rotates at 450 r.p.m, clockwise. Find the speed and direction of arm F and gear E.

(c) For a eutectoid steel, draw and label continuous cooling transformation (CCT) diagram. Explain normalizing and hardening heat treatment with regard to phase transformation using relevant cooling curves on CCT diagram.

Q4. (a) Four masses A, B, C and D are attached to a shaft and revolve in the same plane. The tresses are 13 kg, 10 kg, 18 kg and 15 kg respectively and their radii pouf rotator are 40mm, 50mm, 60mm and 30mm respectively. The angular position of mass B, C and D arc60o 135o 270o from the mass A. Find the magnitude and position of balancing mass at a radius of 100mm.
(b) Draw the stress-strain diagram for mild steel and describe the salient points of the curve.
(c) A Porter governor having all arms of 240 mm length is pivoted on the axis of rotation. Each ball has a mass of 5 kg and the load on the sleeve is 18 kg. The ball path is 150 mm when the sleeve begins to rise and 200 mm at the maximum speed. Find the following:

(i) Range of speed
(ii) Coefficient of sensitiveness, if the friction at the sleeve is equivalent to a forces of 10 N.

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Electrochemical machining of 400 mm2 surface of iron is performed using supply voltage of 15 V and tool-workpiece gap of 0.3 mm. Considering gap resistance for the flow of current through electrolyte to be 0.0015W ,calculate the frietal removal rate, MRR (m3/s).
The relevant data for iron are the following:

Valency = 2
Atomic weight = 55.85
Density = 7860 kg/m3
Faraday's constant = 96540 coulombs

(b) An annealed copper plate of 300 mm width and 20 mm thickness is rolled to 16 mm thickness in one pass. Considering radius of the roller as 400 mm, rotational speed of 80 r.p.m. and average flow stress during rolling as 400 MP3, calculate the true strairi and rolling force (kN).
(c) The machining of steel is carried out using two types of cutting tool, i.e., tool A and tool B. Data/technical parameters related with tools are given below in the table, which tool will you prefer for 200 minutes of tool life and why?

(d) Describe the philosophy of lean management including waste and value stream with regard to manufacturing.
(e) The demand for an item is 500 units and 600 units for July and August respectively. Considering forecast for July as 300 units, determine the forecast for September using exponential smoothing method. Assume value of a as 0.3.

Q6. (a) For orthogonal turning using a cutting tool having a rake angle of 5o, the following data is given :

Chip-thickness ratio = 0.5
Rake angle = 5o
Main cutting force = 1600 N
Thrust force = 1300 N

Calculate the shear planc angle, friction force (N), normal force (N) and coefficient of friction at chip-tool interface.

(b) Two aluminum plates are welded using tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding process with the help of welding current 150 A, arc voltage 12 V and arc travel speed 2 mm/s. Considering heat transfer efficiency of TIG welding process as 90% and heat required for melting unit column of metal (AI) as 15J/mm3, calculate the melting efficiency of the process if the cross-sectional area of the weld joint is 20mm2
(c) Explain the principle of abrasive waterjet machining using suitable schematic. Write the advantages and applications of abrasive waterjet machining.

Q7. (a) The following limits are specified to give a clearance fit between a shaft and a hole in a limit system :

Calculate the following:

(i) Basic size
(ii) Shaft and hole tolerances
(iii) Shaft and hole limits
(iv) Maximum and minimum clearances

(b) Lathe machine operations take 40 min to produce a product. If the efficiency of the lathe machine is 80% and rejection is 20%, then determine the number of lathe machines required for producing 800 pieces per week. Assume 52 weeks per year and 48 hours per week as working hours available.
(c) A manufacturing company is producing an item for which the following information is given :

Selling price per unit = 20
Variable cost per unit = 10
Fixed cost = 2,00,000

However due to changing market condition, variable cost incrcased by 20% and fixed cost increased by 10%. If the breakdown quantity is maintained, then what will be the revised selling price?

Q8. (a) Monthly consumption of an item is 350 units and price per unit is 15. Inventory carrying cost is 20 percent and ordering cost is 40 per order; lead time pf 1 month stock. Assuming ROL system, calculate the following:

(i) Reorder quantity
(ii) Reordering level
(iii) Minimum level
(iv) Maximum level
(v) Average inventory

(b) A car manufacturer performs final inspection before shipping to the dealers. The final inspection involves testing and inspection of car with regard to number of parameters. There is a possibility that a car may fail to satisfy various parameters (which can be termed as defects). Periodically ten (10) cars were taken randomly for testing and inspection. Data obtained after inspection and testing of each car with regard to number of defects is given below. Determine the control limits for C chart and comment :

(c) Describe different types of control systems possible for CNC operations along with respective applications using suitable schematic.

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Medical Science


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Medical Science


MEDICAL SCIENCE
(Paper: I)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

Question Paper Specific Instructions

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO SECTIONS and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches and diagrams, wherever considered necessary. Coloured pencils may be used for the purpose.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-answer Booklet must be clearly stuck off.

SECTION A

Q1. (a) Write in short about Embalming.
(b) Describe microscopically, the cellular components of lungs. Add a note on fetal distress syndrome.
(c) Describe the developmental component and nerve supply of the tongue.
(d) Describe the functions of spinocerebellum.
(e) Tabulate the findings of various biochemical tests in blood and urine of patients of pre-hepatic, hepatic and post-hepatic jaundice.

Q2. (a) Describe how iron is absorbed, transported and stored in our body. Give the different tests done to assess status of iron in the body.
(b) (i) Enumerate the sites for formation of erythrocytes in the embryo, foetus and adults.
(ii) Describe the characteristic changes in the cytoplasm and nucleus during erythropoiesis.

(c) (i) Describe in detail about hepatic spaces in relation to peritoneal reflection. Add a note on its applied importance.
(ii) Describe blood supply of brain stem and add a note on its applied importance.

Q3. (a) (i) Describe the functions of basal ganglia in voluntary actions.
(ii) Compare the functions of basal ganglia with primary cortex.

(b) Describe the gross anatomy, innervation and applied importance of the urinary bladder. Add a note on autonomous bladder.
(c) Discuss the principle of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technology and outline the steps involved. Write its clinical application.

Q4. (a) (i) Describe the shoulder joint under the following headings:

I. Movement
II. Blood Supply
III. Ligaments

(ii) Give the anatomic basis of black eye.

(b) (i) Show the sucking reflex through a diagram. Describe positive and negative feedback actions of estrogen.
(ii) Describe baroreceptor reflex mechanism in the regulation of blood Pressure.

(c) Justify the statement Vitamin D is a hormone'. Describe the synthesis, mechanism of action and physiological functions of vitamin D.

SECTION B

Q5. (a) Define neoplasm. List five differences between benign and malignant neoplasm.
(b) Explain the challenges in epidemiology and control measures in malaria. Discuss its laboratory diagnosis.
(c) Discuss acute paracetamol poisoning emphasizing on mechanism of toxicity and its treatment.
(d) Describe the gross and microscopic appearance of post-primary tuberculosis of lung.
(e) How will you assess that the injury is "Grievous Hurt' as per Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code ? Illustrate with examples.

Q6. (a) (i) Describe the gross and microscopic features of acute proliferative glomerulonephritis.
(ii) Describe in brief the etiopathogenesis of squamous cell carcinoma of cervix.

(b) Describe the mechanism of action of sulfonamides. Also describe which methods bacteria employ to develop resistance to it.
(c) (i) What are the factors responsible for invasive candida infection. Briefly describe the laboratory diagnosis of bloodstream candida infection.
(ii) Name opportunistic fungal (two) and parasitic (two) agents causing infections in an HIV patient. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them.

Q7. (a) A 16-year-old girl has been brought for medical examination to the hospital by the police with alleged history of rape. How will the medical officer proceed to examine her ? Describe the possible findings. What are the specimens preserved to establish the alleged crime?
(b) Discuss the clinical features, management and post-mortem findings in a case of cyanide poisoning.
(c) Explain the reasons for the following:

(i) Beta blockers should not be given with Verapamil.
(ii) Folinic Acid is administered along with Methotrexate.
(iii) Thiazides are useful in nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus.

Q8. (a) (i) Discuss the pathogenesis of enteric fever. What are the different mechanisms by which salmonella acquires antimicrobial Tesistance
(ii) Define immunological tolerance and discuss its role in autoimmunity, with one example.

(b) A 40-year-old chronic alcoholic male presents himself with ascites, splenomegaly, jaundice and hematomesis.

(i) What is the likely disease in the liver ?
(ii) What is the reason for hematemesis?
(iii) Describe the gross and microscopic features of the liver in this case.

(c) Discuss briefly the mechanism of action, uses and side effects of the following :

(i) Griseofulvin
(ii) Sulfonylurea
(iii) Gentamicin

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mathematics


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Mathematics


MATHEMATICS
(Paper - 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)

There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Unless and otherwise indicated, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off

SECTION-A

Q1. (a) Let A = (2 2 / 1 3) find a non-singular matrix P such that P-1 AP is a diagonal martix.
(b) Show that the similar matrices have the same characteristic polynominal.
(c) Intergrate the function F(x,y) = xy (x2 + y2) over the domain R: {-3<x2-y2<3, 1<xy<4}.
(d) Find the equation of the tangent pane at point (1,1,1) to the conicoid 3x2-y2 = 2z
(e) Find the shortest distance between the skew lines:
x-3/3 = 8-y/1 = z-3/1 and x+3/-3 = y+7/2 = z-6/4.

Q2. (a) Find the volume of the solid above the xy-plane and directly below the portion of the elliptic paraboloid x2 + y2/4 = z which is cut off by the plane z=9.
(b) A palne passes through a fixed point (a,b,c) and cut the axis at the points A, B, C respectively. Find the locus of the centre of the sphere which passes through the origin O and A,B,C.
(c) Show that the plane 2x-2y+z+12 = 0 touches the sphere
x2+y2+z2-2x-4y+2z-3 = 0 find the point of contact.
(d) Suppose U and W are distint four dimensional subspaces of a vector space V, where dim V = 6. Find the possible dimensions of subspace U^W.

Q3. (a)

(b) Prove that distinct non-zero eigenvectors of a matrix are linearly independent.

(c)

(d) Find the locus of the point of intersection of three mutually perpendicular tangent planes to ax2 + by2 + cz2 = 1.

Q4. (a) Reduce the following equation to the standard form and hence determine the nature of the conicoid : x2+y2+z2-yz-zx-xy-3x-6y-9z+21 = 0
(b) Consider the following system of equation in x,y,z:

x+2y+2z = 1
x+ay+3z = 3
x+11y+az = b.

(i) For which value of a does the system have a unique solution?
(ii) For which pair of value (a,b) does the system have more than one solution?

(c)

(d)

SECTION-B

Q5. (a) Find the differential equation representing all the circles in the x-y plane.
(b) Support that the streamlines, of the fluid flow are given by a family of curves xy=c. Find the equipotential lines, that is, the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves representing the streamlines.
(c) A fixed wire is in the shape of the cardiod r = a (1 + cosq), the initial line being the downward vertical. A small ring of mass m can slide on the wire and is attached to the point r = 0 of the cardiod by an elastic string of natural length a and modulus of elasticity 4 mg. The string is released from rest when the string is horizontal. Show by using the laws of conservation of energy that aq2(1 + cosq)-g cosq (1 - cosq) = 0, g being the acceleration due to gravity.
(d) For what values of the constants a, b and c the vector V = (x +y+az) + (bx +2-z) + (-3+ Cy+2z) k is irrotational. Find the divergence in cylindrical coordinates of this vector with these values.
(e) The position vector of a moving point at time t is r = sinti+cos 2tj+ (t2 +2y) k. Find the components of acceleration ā in the directions parallel to the velocity vector ū and perpendicular to the plane of r and ū at time t= 0.

Q6. (a) (i) Solve the following simultaneous linear differential equation:
(D+1)y = z+ex and (D+1)z = y+ex where y and z are functions of independent variable x and D = d/dx.
(ii) If the growth rate of the population of bacteria at any time t is proportional to the amount present at that time and population doubles in one week, then how much bacterias can be expected after 4 weeks?

(b) (i) Consider the differential equation xy p2 - (x2 +y2-1) p +xy = 0 where p=d/dx Substituting u=x2 and v = y2 reduce the equation to Clairaut's form in terms of u, v and p' = dv/du. Hence, or otherwise solve the equation.
(ii) Solve the following initial value differential equations :
20y" +4y' +y = 0, y(0) = 3.2 and y' (0) = 0.

(c) A uniform solid hemisphere rests on a rough plane inclined to the horizon at an angle f with its curved surface touching the plane. Find the greatest admissible value of the inclination f for equilibrium. If f be less than this value, is the equilibrium stable ?

Q7. (a) Find the curvature vector and its magnitude at any point r = (q) of the curve r= (a cosq, a sinq, aq). Show that the locus of the feet of the perpendicular from the origin to the tangent is a curve that completely lies on the hyperboloid x2 + y2 - z2 = a2.
(b) (i) Solve the differential equation:

(ii) Solve the Following differential equation using method of variation of parameters:

(c) A particle is free to move on a smooth vertical circular wire of radius a. At time t = 0 it is projected along the circle from its lowest point A with velocity just sufficient to carry it to the highest point B. Find the time I at which the reaction between the particle and the wire is zero.

Q8. (a)

(b)

(c)

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