(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Civil Engineering

CIVIL ENGINEERING
(Paper 1)

Time Allowed : Three Hours

Maximum Marks : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all. Question Nos.

1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, any THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (OCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated.

Diagrams/Figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Questioncum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION "A"

1.(a) A vertical isosceles triangular gate with its vertex up has a base width of 2 m and a height of 1.5 m. If the vertex of gate is 1 m below the free water surface, find the total pressure force and the position of centre of pressure.
(b) What are the advantages of High Strength Friction Grip bolts ? How the load is transferred in High Strength Friction Grip bolts ? Explain with sketches.
(c) An undisturbed soil at a borrow pit has a water content 12 per Cent, void ratio 0.55 and specific gravity of solids 2.62. The soil from the borrow pit is to be used for the construction of an embankment. The specifications for the embankment require a dry density of 17.5 kN/m³ with a water content of 18-5 per cent. Calculate the quantity of water in litres which is required to be added to the borrow pit soil per m³ of finished embankment.

(d) A lever is loaded as shown in the above figure.

(i) Calculate the moment of force at Point A.
(ii) Calculate the amount of horizontal force to be applied at B to produce the same amount of moment of force as calculated above.
(iii) Calculate smallest amount of force to be applied at B, to produce the same amount of moment of force as calculated in part (1).
(iv) Calculate the distance of point on lever, where 1:20 kN vertical force to be applied to produce same amount of moment of force as calculated in part (i).

Calculate bending moment and shear force and plot their variation for the frame shown in the above figure.

2.(a) A 0.3 m diameter pipe carries water at a velocity of 24.4 m/s. At points A and B, the pressures were measured 361 kPa and 288 kPa respectively. The elevations of points
A and B were as 30.5m and 33.5m respectively. Find the loss of head between A and B.
2.(b) A light weight building stands over a 10 m thick stratum of sand. Beneath the sand stratum a clay layer of 5 m thick exists. The clay layer is underlain by a rock stratum. The water table lies at a depth of 1-0 m below ground surface and the sand above the water table is saturated with capillary rise. The sand has a void ratio of 0.75 and sp. g. 2.65. During dry season, water is pumped out from the sand stratum till the water table is lowered by 4.0 m and sand above water table becomes dry. Calculate the number of days when the building settles by 25 mm. Ignore settlement during pumping operation. Take properties of clay : Void ratio = 0-60, Sp. gr. = 2.70, Liquid limit = 40%, Coefficient of consolidation = 6x10^-3 cm²/s.
2. (c) Details of a dog-legged stair for a building is shown in the above figure. The floor to floor height is 30 m. The live load may be taken as 2.5 kN/m thickness of the stair slab is 150 Tim. The rise and tread are 150 mm and 250 mm respectively. Design and detail the typical flight. Use M-25 of concrete and Fe-500 grade of steel. Use limit state method.

3. (a) In a consolidated drained triaxial test (CD test) a specimen of saturated sand failed under a deviator stress of 220 kPa when the cell pressure was 100 kPa. Determine the shear strength parameters, the shear strength and the maximum shear stress.
(b) An oil of dynamic viscosity 1-5 poise and relative density 0-9 flows through a 3 cm diameter vertical pipe. Two pressure gauges are fixed 20 m apart. The gauge A fixed at the top records 200 kPa and gauge B fixed at the bottom records 500 kPa. Find the direction of flow and the rate of flow.
(c) Calculate the vertical displacement of joint B of plane truss given in the above figure by unit load method. All members of truss have constant cross-sectional area and sattle material (Constalit A & E).

4. (a) The above figure shows a two-layered backfill behind a 9.0 m high retaining wall with a smooth vertical back. Draw the total active earth pressure distribution diagram and find the point of application of the resultant earth pressure.

(b) Two moving loads, 300 kN cach and spaced 40 m apart, cross a 20-0 m long simply supported girder from left to right as shown above. Calculate the absolute maximum bending moment due to these moving loads.

(c) A square hollow section is connected to the flange of ISMB 600 as shown in the above figure. The bracket is subjected to symmetrical vertical and horizontal load of each 50 kN. The size of SHS is 150x150x6 mm. Find the weld size required for the connection.

SECTION "B"

5. (a) A 1:50 scale spill-way model has discharge of 1:25 m/s. What is the corresponding prototype discharge ? If a flood phenomenon takes 12 hours to occur in the prototype, how long should it take in the model ?
(b) The design mix proportion of Cement: Fine agg. : Coarse agg. : Water for a concrete mix of grade M-25 at Saturated Surface Dry (SSD) condition is l: 1:2:24 : (0-4 (by weight). Find out the revised mix proportion due to change of material characteristics (Fine and Coarse agg.) for raining day before casting at site.
Given : (i) Sp. gravity of Fine and Coarse agg. = 2.6 and 2.65 respectively.
(ii) Surface moisture (%) on Fine and Coarse agg. = 2.5 and 1.5 respectively.
How the durability factor is taken up during concrete mix design as per I.S. code?
(c) A foundation trench is to be excavated for a large project in a site. The soil investigation report shows the following details :

It is observed that an open excavation is stable up to 5.75 m depth with the existing water table. The excavation is to be made up to 8-5 m depth for which water table is to be lowered. What are the initial and final depths of water table ?

(d) Two bars of 50 mm dia are connected as shown in the above figure. Find the maximum load P that can be applied. E = 2x10^-5 MPa.
(e) Calculate the maximum shear stress in a hollow circular shaft having 300 mm external diameter and 150 mm internal diameter. This shaft is subjected to a twisting moment of 4 kN-m. If modultus of Rigidity G = 82 GN/m, calculate the twist for a length of 20 times the external diameter of shaft.

6. (a) Three beam members are connected at the joint B as shown in the above figure. Joint B is subjected to a clockwise moment of 100 KN-m. Calculate the moment at A, C and D by Moment Distribution Method. All beam elements have constant cross-sectional area and materials. (Constant I and E)

(b)

(c) A horizontal rectangular channel 4 m wide carries a discharge of 16 m/s. Determine whether a jump may occur at an initial depth of 0:5 m or not. Determine the sequent depth to this initial depth. Also find the energy loss in this jump.

7. (a) A Pelton wheel turbine develops 5520 KW power under a head of 240 m at an overall efficiency of 80%. The turbine is running at a speed of 200 r.p,m. Find the unit discharge, unit power and unit speed assuming peripheral coefficient as 0:46. If the head on the same turbine falls during summer season to 150 m, find the discharge, power and speed for this head.
(b) An anchored sheetpile founded in a cohesive soil is to retain a sandy backfill as shown in the above figure. Calculate the depth of embedment of the sheet pile and the pull in the anchor.

(c) Calculate maximum bending stress and shear stress at the fixed end of a cantilever beam as shown in the above figure. Also sketch the variations of bending stress and shear stress at fixed end. Beam has a uniform thickness of 50 mm. Beam has a depth of 200 mm at free end and 300 mm at fixed end.

8. (a) A cantilever retaining wall is to be constructed to retain earth embankment 3.1 m high above ground level. The unit weight of earth is 19 kN/m' and its angle of repose is 35o. Dimensions of the wall are shown in the above figure and the wall is safe against all stability check. Design the stem of the wall using M-25 and Fe500. Detail the reinforcement in stein also. Use Limit State Method. Given :

(b) Air flows over a flat plate 1 m long at a velocity of 6 m/sec. Determine

(i) the boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate,
(ii) shear stress at the middle of the plate,
(iii) total drag per unit length on both sides of the plate. Take mass density of air p = 1.226 kg/m³ and kinematic viscosity of air V = 0-15x10^-4 m²/sec.

(c)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam Paper - 2017 : Chemistry

CHEMISTRY
(Paper I)

• Time Allowed : Three Hours
• Maximum Marrls : 250

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in ENGLISH.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted choosing at least ONE question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized one.

Coordinate diagrams, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings.

Assume suitable data, if considered necessary, and indicate the same clearly.

Word limit in questions, wherever specified, should be adhered to.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.

SECTION “A”

1. (a) What is resonance energy? What are the conditions which permit structures to have resonance ? Discuss resonance taking the example of CO²₃^-  ion.
(b) For an ideal gas, the distribution law of molecular speed is,

where,
dN_c = Number molecules within the speed range c and (c + dc).
N = Total number of molecules.
m = Molecular mass.
T = Temperature in Kelvin scale,
Derive the expression of most probable speed of this gaseous system.

(c) Define Joule-Thomson coefficient (m_JT). What is its unit in SI system ? Show that

(d) (i) Four-phase sulphur system (in equilibrium) is impossible. Explain.
(ii) In open container, on heating, solid sulphur melts, but solid iodine sublimes. Explain.
1.(e) Write down the Debye-Hückel limiting equation with symbolic significances and their units. Calculate mean ionic activity co-efficient of 0.1 M NaCl (aq) solution at 25°C. The value of Debye-Huickel constant (A) is 0.51 mol^-12 L^1/2

2.(a) (i) What is the dimension of viscosity co-efficient ? What is its unit in SI system ? The temperature effect on viscosity co-efficient of ideal gas is positive. Explain.
(ii) Define Boyle temperature of non-ideal gas. Obtain its expression for van der Waals' gas.
(b) Find the change in surface area and energy when two identical mercury droplets of diameter 2 mm merged isothermally to one drop. Given that surface tension of mercury is 490 dyne cm at experimental temperature.
(c) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the disproportion reaction :

3.(a) At constant pressure, the temperature of a fixed amount of hot tea in a cup decreases spontaneously to room temperature. What will be the sign of (I) DH and (II) DG of this process ? Give reason(s) in support of your answer.
(ii) DG (J mol^-1) for an electrochemical reaction, as a function of temperature, T (K) is given by DG = a + bT+ cT² where a, b and c are constants and independent of T.

(I) What are the units of a, b and c? and
(II) Find the expressions of DS and DH as a function of T.

(b) What is its unit in SI system ? Is it intensive property ? Answer with justification. What factors influence its value ?
(c) Polonium crystallizes in the cubic system. Using X-ray of wavelength 0.154 nm, first order Bragg reflections occur at sind values 0.225, 0.316 and 0:388 from (100), (110) and (111) planes respectively. Determine the class (SC or BCC or FCC) of the cubic crystal and edge length (a) of unit cell.

4.(a) (i) For a particle in one-dimensional box of length a calculate the probability of its locating between zero and a/2.
(ii) Write the complete wave function for 1s-orbital and deduce its shape.
(b) Explain the paramagnetism of NO with its molecular orbital diagram.
(c) Using valence bond theory justify the presence of two lone electron pairs in XeF_4.

SECTION 'B'

5.(a) For zero-order reaction, write down the Arrhenius equation, indicating name of the symbols and their units in SI system. What is high temperature limiting value of rate constant ?
(b) What is ISC (Inter System Crossing) for an excited molecule in singlet state ? Answer using Jablonski diagram.
(c) At constant pressure and temperature, adsorption of a gas on solid surface occurs spontaneously. For this natural process, what will be the signs of (i) DG, (ii) DS and (iii) DH ? Give reason(s) in support of your answer.
(d) Explain the following properties of Ferrocene :

(i) Easy electrophilic substitution of its Cp ring.
(ii) Oxidation is difficult in comparison to that of cobaltocene.

(e) “Magnetic moment of Lanthanide (III) ions is generally different from the value predicted by spin state.” Explain.

6. (a) (i) What are the characteristics, essential for catalysis with specific reference to surface catalysis ?
(ii) Define activation energy, E_a of a chemical reaction. A gas-phase reaction completes 25% in 30 min at 27°C and in 10 min at 37°C. Determine the E_a in SI unit.
(b) Using a particular wavelength of light, a solution of a substance (molar mass 294 g mol^-1) transmits 80% of incident light. Determine the concentration of the solution in mol L^-1. Given that optical path length of the spectrophotometer tube is 1.0 cm and absorptivity of the substance is 2.0 L g^-1 cm^-1.
(c) In aqueous solution, at 298 K, the mobility of NH⁺₄ ion is 7.62 x 10^-8 m² s^-1 V^-1 Calculate its (i) molar conductivity; (ii) velocity if 15.0 V is applied across the electrodes of 25.0 cm apart. Calculate the transport numbers of the ions in CH₃COONH₄ (aq) solution if the mobility of CH₃COO^- ion is 4.24 x 10^-8 m² s^-1 V^-1 under same condition.

7.(a) (i) Write Vaska's catalyst with structure and show its oxidative addition with HCl and oxygen.
(ii) How is K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is converted into sodium nitroprusside ? Write reaction of S^2-ion with sodium nitroprusside.
(b) Define prosthetic group in cytochromes. How do they differ from haemoglobin ? What is their main function ?
(c) What are silicones ? How are they obtained ? Discuss the important properties and applications of organosilicon polymers.

8. (a) (i) What is meant by EAN rule applied to the complexes ? Apply the concept of EAN rule on the following two complexes [Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(CN)₆]^3- and draw your conclusion about the validity of the rule.
(ii) Explain crystal field theory. How does it differ from valence bond theory? How does this theory account for the fact that [CoF₆]^3- is paramagnetic while [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is diamagnetic though both are octahedral.

(b) "High oxidation states are more common in early actinides than lanthanides but the +2 oxidation state for americium and nobelium are more stable relative to those of other actinides. Explain.
(c) Define phosphazenes with formulae for ring and chain types. Write two examples of substitution reactions of cyclophosphazenes.

(Syllabus) MP PSC  State Forest Service : Main Exam

SYLLABUS - ENGLISH  LANGUAGE  & COMPOSITlON

(PART-B)   Marks 75

1. Grammar 
• Voice  (Active Passive)
•  Narration (Direct Indirect speech)
•  Degrees & comparison
•  Articles
2. Vocabulary
•  Synonyms and Antonyms
•  Fill-in the blank with suitable words
3. Comprehension-  Unseen Passage
4. Precis  wri ling
5. Composition

•  Essay writing (Topics on contemporary and burning issues)  (500 words)

•  Letter writing
•  Paragraph writing (200 words) (Expansion & Proverbs)

SYLLABUS- BOTANY PAPER-FIRST

1.  Origin and  Evolution of Life

Basic  ideas  about  the  origin  of Earth.Origin of life,  chemical  and  biological evolution, Geological time scale,  Fossilization, Types of fossils and their  formation.

2.  Cell Biology

Cell,  structure  and  functions  of cell organelles,  chromosomes  Structure  and types,  Cell division, Amitosis, Mitosis and meiosis, Cell Cycle.

3.  Genetics

Concept  of  gene,  DNA,  RNA,  laws  of  inheritance.  Cytoplasmic  inheritance, mutation and polyploidy. Plant breeding.

4. Plant  Diversity
A general account of structure  and reproduction of virus, bacteria, cyanobacteria, algae, fungi, lichens, bryophytes,  pteridophytes  and  gymnosperms.  Concept of alternation of generations.

5.  Angiosperms
Morphology, anatomy of Root  and  Leaf. Types of tissues  and  their  functions, Modifications of root  stem  and  leaf.  Reproduction : Pollination, fertilization and development of seed.

Click Here To Download Full Syllabus

Study Kit for Madhya Pradesh PSC Pre Exam

(Syllabus) MP PSC  State Forest Service : Preliminary Exam

FIRST PAPER: GENERAL STUDIES

1. General Science and Environment

Questions  on general science and  Environment  (Environmental  Ecology, Biodiversity & Climate Change) will cover  general appreciation  and  understanding  of science including matters  of every day observation and  experience as may be expected of a well educated person who has not made  a special study  of any particular  scientific discipline.

2. Current Events of National & International Importance

In current events knowledge of significant National and International  level will be tested.

3. History of India  and Independent  India

In  History, questions  of general knowledge related  to  social, economic and  political aspects will be asked. Also,  there  will be questions  on Indian National Movement and Development of Independent  India.

4.    (a)    Geography of India

There  will be questions of general knowledge relating to Physical, social and economic geography. It will also include questions on Indian Agriculture Natural  resources.  There  will be questions  pertaining  to demography    and census of India.    
 (b)    General Geographical awareness of world.
5. Indian Polity and  Economy

Political  system  and  constitution  of  the  country,  Panchayati  Raj,  social  system, sustainable economic  development,  elections,  political  parties,  plans, industrial development, foreign trade  and economic and financial institutions.

6. Sports

Important  games and  sports  tournaments,  Awards, personalities  and  Renowned Sports
Institutions  of M.P., India, Asia and World.

7. Geography, History and Culture of M.P.

There  will be questions  related to the  development of  Mountains,  rivers, climate, Flora and  Fauna, Minerals transportation  in the  Geography of Madhya Pradesh. It will also have  questions  relating  to  important  dynasties  of  M.P.,  Contribution  of  important dynasties  in  the  Histroy & Culture of Madhya Pradesh,  There  will be  questions  on Tribals, Arts, Architecture, Fine Arts and  Historical personalities  of M.P.

8. Polity and  Economy of M.P.

Political  system,  Political  parties  and  elections,  Pachyati  Raj,  Social  system  and sustainable  economic development of M.P.. This will also include questions on Industry, Plans,  Economic programmes, business,  demography and census of M.P.
 9. Information and Communication Technology

Questions pertaining to characteristics,  uses,  and  terminologies such  as website, online, search engine, e-mail, video mail,  chatting, video conferencing, hacking, cracking, virus and cyber crime.

10. Scheduled Caste & Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) 1989  (No.33 of 1989) and the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (No. 22 of 1955)

11.  The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

SECOND PAPER: GENERALAPTITUDETEST

1. Comprehension
2. Interpersonal  skill including communication skill
3.  Logical reasoning and analytical ability
4.  Decision making and problem solving
5. General mental ability
6. Basic numeracy  (numbers and  their  relations, order  of magnitude  ect.-Class  X level) Data  interpretation  (charts,  graphs,  tables, data  sufficiency etc.-Class  X level)
7.  Hindi Language Comprehension Skill (Class X level)

Note:- Question relating to Hindi Language Comprehension skill of Class X level  will be  tested through  passages  from  Hindi language  only  without  providing English Translation thereof in the question paper. 

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Study Kit for Madhya Pradesh PSC Pre Exam

Model Questions for UPSC PRE यूपीएससी आईएएस (प्री) GS (Hindi) Set-13

1-    निम्नलिखित घटनाओं को कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए-

1-    क्रिप्स मिशन

2-    कैबिनेट मिशन
3-    भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन
4-    व्यक्तिगत सत्याग्रह
5-    आई- एन- ए विद्रोह
        दिए गए कूटों से सही उत्तर चुनिए-
(a)    1-4-2-3-5

(b)    4-1-3-5-2 
(c)    4- 1-3-2-5

(d)    4-1-2-3-5

2-    निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?

(a)     व्यक्तिगत सत्याग्रह आंदोलन को आरंभ करने का निर्णय कांग्रेस के रामगढ़ अधिावेशन में लिया गया था।
(b)     1940 ई- में मौलाना अबुल कलाम आजाद की अधयक्षता में हुए अधिवेशन में व्यक्तिगत सत्याग्रह आंदोलन को आरंभ किया गया।
(c)     व्यक्तिगत सत्याग्रह आंदोलन के प्रथम सत्याग्रही राजगोपालाचारी थे।
(क)     कांग्रेस के शासनकाल के दौरान बिहार के प्रीमियर, श्रीकृष्ण सिन्हा ने व्यक्तिगत सत्याग्रह आंदोलन में भाग लिया।

3-    निम्नलिखित में से क्या नेहरू रिपोर्ट में शामिल नहीं था?

(a)     भारत को डोमिनियन दर्जा अवश्य दिया जाना चाहिए
(b)     गवर्नर जनरल केवल संवैधानिक प्रमुख के रूप में होना चाहिए
(c)     पृथक निर्वाचन क्षे= नहीं होगा
(d)     केन्द्र तथा प्रांतों में द्वैध शासन को आरंभ किया जाना चाहिए

4-    जनवरी-फरवरी, 1937 में हुए चुनावों में कांग्रेस निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रांत में पूर्ण बहुमत वाली पार्टीर् के रूप में नहीं उभर सकी?

(a)     बंगाल

(b)     मद्रास
(c)     संयुक्त प्रांत

(d)     म य-प्रांत

5-    निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए-

1-    शिशिर कुमार बोस ने इंडियन इंडिपेन्डेंस लीग की स्थापना।
2-    आजाद हिंद फ़ौज की एक महिला रेजिमेंट का गठन  कल्पना दत्ता की कमान के अंतर्गत- किया गया था।
    उपरोक्त में से सही कथन है/हैं-
(a)     केवल 1
(b)     केवल 2
(c)     1 और 2 दोनों 
(d)     न तो 1 न ही 2

6-    सुमेलित कीजिए-

        सूची-1 (त्योहार)     सूची-2 (राज्य)
(A)     बैसाखी            1-    तमिलनाडू
(B)     भोगाली बिहू     2-    केरल
(C)     ओणम            3-    पंजाब
(D)     पोंगल             4-    असम
        कूट-
         I    II    III   IV
(a)    2    4     1    3
(b)    3    1    2    4
(c)     1    3    2    4
(d)    3    4    2    1

7-    विवेकानंद रॉक मेमोरियल अवस्थित है-

(a)    कन्याकुमारी, तमिलनाडु में
(b)    रामेश्वरम, तमिलनाडु में
(c)    दक्षिणेश्वर, पश्चिम बंगाल में
(d)    अजमेर, राजस्थान में

8.   सुमेलित कीजिए-

          सूची-I (व्यक्तित्व)           सूची-II (नृत्य शैली)
(a)     यामिनी कृष्णमूर्ति       1-    कुचिपुडि़
(b)     स्वपन सुंदरी               2-    भरतनाट्यम
(c)     शंभू महाराज               3-    ओडिसी
(d)     प्रोतिमा बेदी               4-    कथक
        कूट-
        I    II    III    IV
(a)    2    1    4    3
(b)    3    1    2    4
(c)    1    2    3    4
(d)    4    2    1    3

9-    सुमेलित कीजिए-

          सूची-I (व्यक्तित्व)           सूची-II (लूग्द्य यंत्र)
(a)     अली अकबर खान           1- सरोद
(b)     अल्ला रख्खा                  2- तबला
(c)     बालमुरली कृष्ण             3- कर्नाटक शैली के गायक
(d)     बिस्मिल्लाह खान           4- शहनाई
        कूट-
        I    II    III    IV
(a)    1    2    3    4
(b)    3    1    2    4
(c)     2    3    1    4
(d)    1    4    3    2

10-    निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

1-    भारतीय शास्=ीय संगीत में, लय का आधार राग होता है तथा माधुर्य का आधाार ताल होता है।
2-   कर्नाटक संगीत में रागों की तीन श्रेणियां होती हैं।
3-    हिन्दुस्तानी संगीत में, गायन, तथा रचनाओं के दस प्रमुख  प्रकार या शैलियां होती है।
        कूट-
(a)     केवल 1 और 2

(b)     केवल 2 और 3
(c)     केवल 3

(d)     केवल 2
  

 11-    सुमेलित कीजिए-
 

        सूची-I (नृत्य शैली)          सूची-II(राज्य)
A-    कुचिपुडि़                   1-    नागालैंड
B-    मोहिनीअट्टम             2-    हरियाणा
C-    अलुयज्ञट्टु                  3-    केरल
D-    खोरिया                    4-    आंधा्र प्रदेश
        कूट-
(a)     केवल 1 और 2
(b)     केवल 2 और 3
(c)     केवल 3
(d)     केवल 2
  

12-    निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए-
  

1-    भारत में आधुनिक थियेटर का विकास भारत में ब्रिटिश शासन के आगमन तथा राजनीतिक ढांचे में परिवर्तन के साथ हुआ।
2-    भारतीय थियेटर को तीन विशिष्ट प्रकारों में बांटा जा सकता।
    उपरोक्त में से सही कथन है/हैं-
(a)     केवल 1
(b)     केवल 2
(c)     1 और 2 दोनों 
(d)     न तो 1 न ही 2
  

13-    निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए-

1-    भारत में प्राचीन समय से ही चित्रकला एक कला के रूप में फलती-फूलती रही है।
2-    गुप्तकाल को प्रायः भारतीय कलाओं का स्वर्ण युग कहा जाता है।
3-    पल्लव भी मंदिरों में चि=कला के श्रेष्ठ उदाहरण छोड़ गए हैं। 
        उपरोक्त में से सही कथन हैं-
(a)      केवल 1 और 2 
(b)      केवल 2 और 3
(c)      केवल 1 और 3

(d)      उपरोक्त सभी

14-    निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन एक चैत्य और स्तुप के बीच अंतर को सही-सही बताता है?

(a)    चैत्य एक विश्राम स्थल है जबकि स्तुप एक समाधिा संबंधाी इमारत है
(b)    चैत्य एक उपासना स्थल है जबकि स्तुप बुद्ध तथा अन्य प्रमुख बौद्ध भिक्षुओं के अवशेषों को धाारण करने वाला एक गुम्बद है, जिसे स्थापत्य कला के अंतर्गत स्तुप कहते हैं
(c)    चैत्यों का निर्माण मठों के द्वारा किया जाता था जबकि स्तुपों का निर्माण राजाओं तथा समृद्ध व्यापारियों द्वारा किया जाता था 
(d)    चैत्य महायान शाखा का जबकि स्तुप हीनयान शाखा का प्रतिनिधित्व करते हैं
  

15-    चोल समाज से संबंधित निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?

1-    ब्राह्मण तथा व्यापारी वर्ग का बहुत सम्मान किया जाता था ।
2-    ज्ञानी ब्राह्मणाें को उपहार में भूमि तथा गाँव दिए जाते थे जिन्हें ब्रह्मदेय कहा जाता था ।
3-    चोल काल के दौरान व्यापारी, श्रेणी, या गिल्ड नामक निकाय में संगठित थे जैसे मणिग्रामम ।
4-    एक श्रेणी या गिल्ड में सामान्यतः विभिन्न व्यवसायों के लोग शामिल होते हैं ।
        कूट-
(a)    केवल 1 और 2  
(b)    केवल 2 और 3
(c)    केवल 1, 2 और 3 
(d)    उपरोक्त सभी
 

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UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा (Combo) Study Kit 2018

संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा
(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2017
(PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION ) लोक प्रशासन(Paper-1)

Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (लोक प्रशासन) (Paper-1)

Marks: 250

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

खण्ड - A

प्रश्न 1. निम्नलिखित में से प्रत्येक प्रश्न का उत्तर लगभग 150 शब्दों में दीजिए :

(a) "अपने प्रकाशन के 130 वर्ष के पश्चात भी, वुडरो विल्सन का लेख 'दि स्टडी ऑफ़ एडमिनिस्ट्रेशन' आज भी अपनी उच्च प्रासंगिकता लिए हुए है | टिप्पणी कीजिए |
(b) ''प्रशासन की क्लासिकी तथा मानवीय संबंधो की विचारपद्धतियों की विशिष्टता दोनों की पारस्परिक पूरकता है | '' विश्लेषण कीजिए |
(c) '' विरोधिता भिन्नताओं --- मतों एवं हितो में भिन्नताओं का प्रकटीकरण है'' ---- (मैरी पार्कर फोलेट ) टिप्पणी कीजिये |
(d) ' नेता सही कार्य करते है ; प्रबंधक उन्हें सही ढंग से करते है'' ---- ( वारेन बैनीस ) क्या उसके द्धारा यह विभेद तर्कसंगत है ? स्पष्ट कीजिये
(e) '' प्रशासनिक विधि की पहचान उसके स्वरुप के बजाय उसकी विषय - सामग्री से की जाती है '' चर्चा कीजिए |

प्रश्न 2.

(a) कतिपय विद्वानों ने नव लोक प्रबंधक को 'नव-टेलरवाद' की संज्ञा दी है | क्या यह एक उचित तुलना है ? नव लोक प्रबंधन के जन्म के बाद इतने कम समय में इसका पतन किन कारको के कारण हुआ है ?
(b) ''अब्राहम मैस्लो के 'आवश्यकता सोपान' और फ़्रेडरिक हर्ज़बर्ग की 'द्विकारक थियोरी' के बीच मानवीय अभिप्रेरण के विश्लेषण में समानताएं है | '' टिप्पणी कीजिये |
(c) सिविल समाज राज्य के पूरक एवं अनुपूरक होता है | फिर भी उसकी क्षमता एवं भूमिका राज्य की इच्छा पर निर्भर करती है | टिप्पणी कीजिये |

प्रश्न 3.

(a) आर्गिरिस तथा लिकर्ट की सहभागी प्रबंधन की विचारपद्धति प्रशासनिक तंत्र के भीतर लोकतंत्र के पक्ष में तर्क करती है | क्या यह उपागम विकामन लोकतंत्रो के साथ विकासशील - देशो के लिए बराबर का उपयोगी होगा | |
(b) '' कार्यकारी पदों का निहितार्थ एक जटिल नैतिकता होना होता है और उनके लिए उत्तरदायित्व की एक उच्च क्षमता की आवश्यकता होती है '' ---- (चेस्टर बर्नार्ड ) | टिप्पणी कीजिये |
(c) जब मिडिया ही निहित - स्वार्थो के द्धारा नियंत्रित हो, तो वह सरकार के भीतर निहित स्वार्थो पर किस प्रकार नियंत्रण कर सकता है ? मिडिया और अधिक उत्तरदायी तथा निष्पक्ष किस प्रकार बन सकता है ?

प्रश्न 4.

(a) '' लोक प्रशासन के अनुप्रयुक्त जगत में हुए प्रत्येक मुख्य रूपांतरण के साथ ही लोक प्रशासन के अध्ययन की परिधि तथा गहनता में संवृद्धि हुई है | '' लोक प्रशासन के विषय के विकास और लोक प्रशासन के संव्यवसाय के बीच संबंध पर चर्चा कीजिए |
(b) तंत्र सिद्धांतो तत्वतः एक  थियोरी नहीं है, किन्तु प्रशासनिक सवृत्तियों के अध्ययन का एक उपागम है | ''टिप्पणी कीजिए |
(c) '' प्रत्यायोजन विधान का सिद्धांत, मेरे विचार में उचित है, किन्तु मै यह जोर देकर कहना चाहता हूँ की संसद के लिए उपयुक्त रहेगा कि वह सभी अवस्थाओं पर सतर्कतापूर्ण एवं उत्साहपूर्ण निगरानी बनाए रखे '' ------ (हर्बर्ट मॉरिसन ) | विश्लेषण कीजिए |

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