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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2006 (PART -3)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM - 2006 (Part- 3)


51. Who among the following wrote .The Communist Manifesto. along with Karl Marx ?
(a) Emile Durkheim
(b) Friedrich Engels
(c) Robert Owen
(d) Max Weber

52. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946 ?
(a) Defence
(b) External Affairs and Commonwealth
(c) Food and Agriculture
(d) None

53. Who among the following was presented with the Sangeet Natak Akadami Ratna Award, 2005 for her lifetime achievement in dance ?
(a) Chandralekha
(b) Tanjavur Balasaraswati
(c) Uma Sharma
(d) Yamini Krishnamurthy

54. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to the address global warming ?
(a) Australia (b) Germany
(c) Japan (d) New Zealand
55. Consider the following statements :
1. A person who has held office as a permanent as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Slovenia : Bratislava
(b) Seychelles : Victoria
(c) Sierra Leone : Freetown
(d) Uzbekistan : Tashkent

58. Who is Wole Soyinka ?
(a) A well-known economist
(b) A well-known football player
(c) A well-known industrialist owning steel plants in many parts of the world.
(d) A novel Prize winner for literature.

59. Consider the following statements :
1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.
2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African Coast.
3. Greece and Albania from a part of the Iberian Peninsula.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only

60. In a tournament each of the participants was to play one match against each of the other participants. 3 players fell ill after each of them had played three matches and had to leave the tournament. What was the total number of participants at the beginning, if the total number of matches played was 75 ?
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 15

61. P, Q, R, S and T reside in a 5-storeyed (Ground + 4) building, and each of them resides on a separate floor. Further,
1. T does not reside on the topmost floor.
2. Q does not reside on the ground floor.
3. S resides on one storey above that of P and one storey below that of R. To know as to which of the 5 persons resides on the ground floor which of the above statements are sufficient/ insufficient?
(a) 1 and 3 are sufficient
(b) 2 and 3 are sufficient
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are sufficient
(d) 1, 2 & 3 are insufficient

62. A box contains 5 sets of balls while there are 3 bails in each set. Each set of balls has one colour which is different from every other set. What is the least number of balls that must be removed from the box in order to claim with certainty that a pair of bails of the same colour has been removed?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9

63. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Brunel Darussalam
(c) Bangladeh
(d) Myanmar

64. Consider the following statements in respect of India.s advanced satellite INSAT . 4A :
1. INSAT . 4A was launched in December, 2005 from New Mexico.
2. The European commercial launch service provider Arianespace was associated with the launch of INSAT . 4A.
3. Tata-Sky-a digital cable service provider is associated with DTH television broadcasting services from INSAT-4A.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only

65. Consider the following statements:
1. Appellate Tribunal for Electricity has been established by each State Government in India.
2. One of the components of the Accelerated Power Development and Reforms Programme (APDRP) is upgradation of sub-transmission and distribution system for electricity in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Monastery
(a) Dhankar Monastery
(b) Rumtek Monastery
(c) Tabo Monastery
(d) Kye Monastery

State
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

67. Match List-1 with List-II and select .the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List .I (Valley)
A. Markha Valley
B. Dzukou Valley
C. Sangla Valley
D. Yumthang Valley

List-II (State)
1. Sikkim
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Nagaland

Codes :
A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1

68. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 without repeating any digit. What is the probability that their product is odd?
(a) 2/3 (b) 5/108
(c) 5/42 (d) 7/48

71. Where is Bundala Bioshpere Reserve which has been recently added to the UNESCO.s Man and Biosphere (MAB) network, located?
(a) Russia (b) India
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

72. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Census 2001, Kerala has the smallest gap in male and female literacy rates among the 28 states of India (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
2. According to the Census 2001, Rajasthan has literacy rate above the national average literacy rate

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 :
1. Under the provisions of the Act, 100 days of employment in a year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work has become a fundamental right.
2. Under the provisions of the Act, women are to get priority to the extent that one-half of persons who are given employment are women who have asked for work.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2

74. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rules to the throne of Delhi?
(a) Sikandar Shah-ibrahim Lodi-Bahlol Khan Lodi
(b) Sikandar Shah-Bahlol Khan Lodi- Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Bahlol Khan Lodi- Sikandar Shah- Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Bahlol Khan Lodi-Ibrahim Lodi- Sikandar Shah

75. Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which Mugal Emperor?
(a) Babar (b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb

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(Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (I) 2018

(Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (I) 2018

Post Detail :

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the  eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. 

  • National Defence Academy : 360 (208 for Army, 60 for Navy  and 92 for Air Force) 
  • Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme): 55

Total : 415

Education Qualification: 

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University

(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Age :

Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2002 are eligible.

Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2017 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.

Fees  :

Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/MasterCard Credit/Debit Card.

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION:

1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows :—

Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks
Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600
Total 900
SSB Test/Interview : 900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.

3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.

4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.

5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.

6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

Pay Scale:

Low - up to Rs. 9000/-pm
Middle - Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm
High - Above 18000/-pm 

How to Apply :   

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website

Important Date :

Starting Date- 15-Jan-2018

Last Date – 05-Feb-2018

Click Here To Download Official Notification

Click Here To Apply Online

Study Material for UPSC National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam

(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2006 (PART -1)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM - 2006 (Part - 1)


1. Match List . 1 with List . II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List . I
(National Park/ Wildlife Sanctuary)

A. Chandra Prabha
B. Karera
C. Jaisamand
D. Nahargarh

List . II


(Nearby Town)
1. Jaipur
2. Jhansi
3. Agra
4. Varanasi
5. Udaipur

A B C D

 


(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 5 2 3 1
(c) 4 2 5 1
(d) 5 1 3 2

2. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Well . known Company Major Area of Work
(a) Adobe Systems India : Software
(b) Sasken : Communication technology
(c) Genpact : Power generation
(d) Sunthite : Export of spices

3. Match List . I with Likst . II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List . I List . II
(Place of (State) Archaeological Monument)

A. Sisupalgarh 1. Assam
B. Piprahwa 2. Manipur
C. Goalpara 3. Orissa
D. Bishnupur 4. Uttar Pradesh

A B C D

 


(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

4. In which one among the following is the speed of sound maximum ?
(a) Air at 0ºC (b) Air at 100ºC
(c) Water (d) Wood

5. Consider the following chemicals :
1. Benzene
2. Carbon tetrachloride
3. Sodium Carbonate
4. Trichloroethylene

Which of the above is/are used as dry cleaning chemicals ?

(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 Only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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6. Consider the following statements :
1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic.
2. Citric acid is used in soft drinks.
3. Ascorbic acid is essential for the formation of bones and teeth.
4. Citric acid is a good substitution for ascorbic acid in our nutrition.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

 


(a) 1 and 2, only (b) 1, 2 and 3, only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of Indian ?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health

8. Consider the following statements :
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The constitution of India does not define backward classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. What is the new administrative capital proposed for Myanmar ?
(a) Bassein (b) Mandalay
(c) Myitkyina (d) Pyinmana

10. Consider the following statements :
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among Pondicherry, NCT of Delhi and other Union Territories.
3. Maharashtra has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only

11. Match List . I with Likst . II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List . I List . II
(Centre of (State)
Handicrafts)

A. Mon 1. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Nalbari 2. Assam
C. Pasighat 3. Meghalaya
D. Tura 4. Nagaland

A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 2 4 3

12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Vikramsila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh
(c) Udayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
(d) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa : Andhra Pradesh

13. Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolution approving the
Proclamation of Emergency are
passed only by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. What is the name of the vessel that delivers the nutrient rich blood from the stomach & small intestine to the liver ?
(a) Left hepatic artery
(b) Hepatic vein
(c) Right hepatic artery
(d) Hepatic portal vein

15. Consider the following statements with reference to human body :
1. The common bile duct release its contents into stomach.
2. The pancreatic duct releases its contents into duodenum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions : The following Six (6) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the .Assertion (A). and the other as .Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :

16.
Assertion (A): .Balance of Payments. represents a better picture of a country.s economic transactions with the rest of the world than the .Balance of Trade..

Reason (R) : .Balance of Payments.takes into account the exchange of both visible and invisible items whereas .Balance of Trade. does not.

17.
Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.

Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.

18.
Assertion (A): To orbit around the Sun, the planet Mars takes lesser time than the time taken by the Earth.

Reason (R) : The diameter of the Planet Mars is less than that of the Earth.

19.
Assertion (A): Cellulose is used in making shatter proof glass.

Reason (R) : Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.

20.
Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued a new gold coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah.

Reason (R) : Muhammad bin Tughlaq wanted to issue token currency in gold coins to Promote trade with West Asian and North African countries.

21.
Assertion (A): The percentage of net sown area in the total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as compared to that of West Bengal.

Reason (R) : The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is laterite.

22. Consider the following statements in respect of welfare schemes launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India .
1. Drinking water for rural areas in one of the components of the Bharat Nirman Plan.
2. In the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 there is a provision that the statutory minimum wage applicable to agriculture workers in the State has to be paid to the workers under the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to ?
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government.

24. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) concerns
(a) fiscal deficit only
(b) revenue deficit only
(c) both fiscal and revenue deficit
(d) neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit.

25. Consider the following statements :
1. Petronet LNG Ltd. Is setting up another LNG terminal at Mangalore.
2. The Head Office of the Dredging Corporation of India is at Visakhapatnam.
3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by the Uranium Corporation of Indian Limited.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only

Study Kit : UPSC - IAS PRE (GS+CSAT) Solved Papers & Test Series  

Printed Study Material for IAS (UPSC) General Studies PRE Cum MAINS

AP PSC PAPERS : Group -I Mains Examination Paper-III (Indian Economy & AP Economy)

AP PSC PAPERS : Group -I Mains Examination Paper-III

(Indian Economy & AP Economy)

Note: The question paper is in three sections. The candidate has to answer 15 questions with compulsorily 5 questions from each section. Each question carries 10 marks.

Section – I

1. (a) Discuss the difficulties faced in measuring the developmental level of economy and justify whether the current method of measurement in India overcomes the difficulties.
(or)
(b) Discuss briefly the major changes involved in the recent revision in the base year and method of national income accounting.

2. (a) Eleventh five year plan identified the weaknesses on the employment front during the period of reforms. Describe them.
(or)
(b) Discuss briefly the guiding principles in setting up the NITI Aayog.

3. (a) Explain the possible limitations in the strategy for poverty alleviation adopted by the Government of India.
(or)
(b) Discuss the possible consequences of rural unemployment on the society and suggest two effective remedial measures.

4. (a) Discuss briefly the recommendations of the expert committee constituted “To revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework". 

(or)
(b) Explain the need for emergence of Regional rural banks, and discuss the problems faced by them and the corresponding revisions made.

5. (a) Describe the highlights of Fiscal Reforms and Budget Management Act 2003
(or)
(b) Discuss the concept of revenue deficit and effective revenue deficit and justify the reasons for introducing effective revenue deficit. Give the details of the expected revenue deficit & the effective revenue deficit by the fiscal
2016-17, as per the Union Budget 2013-14.

Section – II

6. (a) Analyse the possible reasons for placing ceilings on agricultural holdings. Give two possible disadvantages to the economy due to such ceilings.
(or)
(b) Explain the need to enact the Andhra Pradesh Land Licensed Cultivators Act, 2011 and discuss the problems faced in meeting the objective of enacting the Act. 

7. (a) Describe the strategies being adopted by Andhra Pradesh to achieve the mission on agriculture extension program.
(or) 
(b) Detail the key four pillars, the project components, beneficiaries and key result indicators of Andhra Pradesh rural inclusive growth project

8 (a) Discuss the trends in the literacy rates in Andhra Pradesh.
(or)
(b) “Employment opportunities through Jawahar Knowledge Centres”-Explain how the Andhra Pradesh Government expects to meet its objective through this program.

9 (a) Explain the distinct aspect of Annual Budget for 2016-17 of Andhra Pradesh. Discuss the reasons for revenue deficit and fiscal deficit in residuary AP.
(or)
(b) The proportion of revenue receipts and total budgetary receipts as percentage of GSDP increased during the period 2002-2007 and declined during 2008-14. Explain the factors contributed for such trend.

10 (a) Discuss the performance of agriculture sector during the 11th plan period and reasons for such performance.
(or)
(b) List all the flagship programmes of Central Government implemented by the State during the 11th plan period and state the objective of the programs in one sentence.

Section – III

11 (a) Discuss salient features of Andhra Pradesh Industrial Investment Promotion Policy - 2015-20.
(or)
(b) Explain the need for the Andhra Pradesh Capital Region Development Authority Bill 2014 and describe its salient features.

12 (a) Discuss the recent initiatives taken to help farmers to increase productivity levels in agriculture.
(or)
(b) “Fair Price Shop Automation and portability within a District “– discuss the possible advantages of these changes in public distribution system.

13 (a) Describe the salient features of Polavaram irrigation project and explain its benefits.
(or)
(b) Explain the salient features and benefits of the PPP model of health services provided under Dr NTR Vaidya Seva programme.

14.(a)Discuss the highlights of farmers’ debt redemption scheme  implemented in Andhra Pradesh and its benifits 
(or)
(b) “An Indian peasant is born in debt, lives in debt and dies in debt”. In this context, explain the problems faced by the rural population in getting the loans from institutional and non-institutional sources in AP and how they get
into debt trap and poverty.

15 (a) Explain the e-pragati initiative of Andhra Pradesh and its benefits.
(or)
(b) “Smart village - Smart ward towards Smart Andhra Pradesh” - Explain

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