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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -1)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2004 (PART -1)

1. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements :

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.

2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.

3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of Parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements :

1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and starged the Saluva dynasty.

2. Vira Narasmiha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.

4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.

Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3. Consider the following statements :

Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the

1. abolition of diarchy in the Governor's provinces

2. power of the Governors to veto Legislative action and to Legislative on their own

3. abolition of the principle of communal representation

Which of these statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements :

1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta.

2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the president ship of Dadabhai Naoroji.

3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.

Which of these statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

5. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(a) The Constitution Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India.

(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.

(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.

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UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1 स्टडी किट

सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए ऑनलाइन कोचिंग (पेपर - 1)

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2014

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2014

Ancient History

1. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs: Famous shrine Location

1. Tabo monastery : Spiti Valley and temple complex
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang : Zanskar Valley temple, Nako
3. Alchi temple : Ladakh complex

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga

3. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Modern History

4. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

(a) The First World War when Indian  troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended
(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) The Partition of India is 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

5. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

(a) Attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
(b) Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
(d) Decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2013

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UPSC IAS (Pre.) General Studies Categorized Exam (Paper - 1) - 2013

Ancient History

1. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism.

2. Consider the following Bhakti Saints :

1. Dadu Dayal
2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

3. Consider the following historical places :

1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

4. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school :

1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self- knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while vihara is the hall axial to it
(d) There is no material difference between the two

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6. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

(a) The extinction of the flame of desire
(b) The complete annihilation of self
(c) A state of bliss and rest
(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension

7. Which of the following characterizes / characterize the people of Indus Civilization?

1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement / statements using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above is correct

8. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:

1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

10. The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following Statements is/are correct?

1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Medieval History

11. Annie Besant was

1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2. The founder of the Theosophical Society
3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement / statements using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

(a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth.

13. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because

(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

14. Quit India Movement was launched in response to

(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan

Modern History

15. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

(a) Directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) Elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) Selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

16. Consider the following Statements: Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) only
(b) and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

17. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for

(a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d) writing off all peasant debts

Indian Geography

18. Consider the following pairs :

Tribe                       State

1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
4. Bonda                : Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. Consider the following pairs :

National Park                  River flowing  through the Park

1. Corbett National Park         Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park      Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park  Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

20. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) only
(b) and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Posts of Foreman (Chemical) in Ministry of Defence

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 :  Posts of Foreman (Chemical) in Ministry of Defence

1. Which one of the following is an example of amphoteric oxide?

(a) CO2
(b) Na2O
(c) MgO
(d) Al2O3

2. Which one of the following material is used for control rods in Uranium reactors?
(a) Boron Steel
(b) Antimony
(c) Carbon Steel
(d) Titanium

3. What is the frequency of the radiation with a wavelength of 10.6 um,produced by CO2(g) laser?
(a) 2.38 × 10−13 HZ
(b) 2.83 × 10−13 HZ
(c) 2.83 × 1013 HZ
(d) 2.38 × 1013 HZ

4. What is the concentration of a solution of cane sugar (C12H22O11) which is isotonic with a solution containing 9.0 g of urea CO(NH2)?
(a) 34.2 g/l
(b) 51.3 g/l
(c) 25.6 g/l
(d) 17.1 g/l

5. A hydrocarbon contains 86 % carbon, 448 ml of the hydrocarbon weighs 1.68 g of STP. Then the hydrocarbon is
(a) ALKENE
(b) ALKENE
(c) ALKENE
(d) ARENE

6. When a solution of a metal salt is treated with ammonia solution, a white precipitate is formed which is insoluble in excess of ammonia. When same solution is treated with NaOH, a white precipitate is formed which dissolves in excess of NaOH. The cation is
(a) Ag+
(b) Hg2+
(c) Pb2+
(d) Cr3+

7. What is the solubility product of lead iodide at 25° C? Its solubility at that temperature is 0.7 g/l, atomic weight of Pb = 207.2 and = 127. 
(a) 6.75 × 10−9
(b) 13.5 × 10−9
(c) 27.0 × 10−9
(d) 30.0 × 10−9

8. The diameter measured under various trials for a wire using a microscope were 0.205 um, 0.209 um and 0.198 um . If the known diameter is 2.00 × 10−7 m, the percentage of error for an average measurement is
(a) 1.8 %
(b) 3.5 %
(c) 2.4 %
(d) 2.0 %

9. Which one of following is the correct sequence in decreasing order of the dielectric constants?
(a) Sulfuric acid > water > ethanol > decane
(b) Water >sulfuric acid > ethanol > decane
(c) Water >sulfuric acid > decane > ethanol
(d) Sulfuric acid > ethanol > water > decane

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Senior Scientific Assistants (Computer) in DGAQA, Ministry of Defence

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Senior Scientific Assistants (Computer) in DGAQA, Ministry of Defence

1. Consider the following statements:
1. A mouse listener can keep other mouse listeners from receiving a mouse event by invoking the consume ( ) method on Mouse Event Object
2. To enable events for a component, one must first invoke enable Events ( ) with the appropriate flags
 Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. When an exception is thrown but not caught in a particular scope, the method-call stack is ‘unwound’, and an attempt is made to catch the exception in the next outer try block. This process is called
(a) Rethrowing Exception
(b) Stack Unwinding
(c) Stack Unwounding
(d) Stack Tracing 

3. Consider the following tables:

City
a
b
c
City Language
a Hindi
b English
c Hindi
a punjabi
b Hindi

 The result of the division LANGUAGES / CITY in relational algebra is:
 (a) A table containing first three rows of LANGUAGES
 (b) A table with a single column LANGUAGE and a single row “Hindi”
 (c) A table with two columns CITY and LANGUAGE and a single row = “aa”, “Hindi”
 (d) A table having the first, third and fifth rows of LANGUAGES 

4. Consider the following statements:
In DRMBS, the second normal form(s) is/are:
1. A composite attributes is converted to individual attributes
2. Non key attributes are functional dependent on key attributes
3. The non key attributes functionally dependent on not a part of key attributes
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. In a relation (table) if a non key attribute is fully functionally dependent on composite key, then the relation (table) is in:
(a) DKNF (Domain Key Normal Form)
(b) BCNF (Boyce - Codd Normal Form)
(c) Fourth Normal Form
(d) Third Normal Form

6. Consider the following relational Schema for a library database:
Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, Publisher, Year, Price) Collection (Title, Author, Catalog_no)
With the following functional dependencies:
 1. Title, Author → Catalog_no
 2. Catalog_no →Title, Author, Publisher, Year
 3. Publisher, Title, Year→ Price
Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both the schema which one of the following statements is correct?
 (a) Both book and collection are in BCNF only
 (b) Both book and collection are in 3 NF only
 (c) Book is in 2 NF and collection is in 3 NF
 (d) Both book and collection are in 2 NF only

7. The simple object model that is frequently used for database applications and which is easier to understand and use than OLE DB is:
 (a) ADO
(b) ASP
(c) XML
(d) ODBC

8. Which one of the following CPU scheduling algorithms suffers from starvation?
(a) Round Robin
(b) FCFS (First Come First Serve)
(c) SJF (Shortest Job First)
(d) Multilevel Queues

9. An operating system uses swapping. A running process encounters the need to wait for an event. The correct sequence of states for the process to re-enter its running stage is:
(a) Blocked → Blocked - Ready → Blocked - suspended → Ready →Running
(b) Blocked - suspended → Blocked - Ready → Blocked → Ready →Running
(c) Ready → Running → Blocked → Ready→ Running
(d) Blocked→ Blocked-suspended → Blocked-Ready → Ready →Running

10. What is the maximum possible disk space for a cluster size of 2 kbyts for a MS-DOS disk system?
(a) 128 mbyts
(b) 512 mbyts
(c) 512 mbyts
(d) 128 mbyts
 
11. Consider the following consistency semantics:
1. Writes to an open file by a user are visible immediately to other users that have this file open.
2. Once a file is closed, the changes made to it are visible only in sessions starting later. Already open instances of the file do not reflect these changes.
3. A file has a single image that interleaves all accesses regardless of their origin.
Which of the above are used in UNIX file system?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 2 and 3 only

12. If a host broadcasts a frame that includes a source and destination hardware address, and its purpose is to assign ???????? addresses to itself, which protocol at the Network layer does the host use?
(a) RARP
(b) ARPA
(c) ICMP
(d) TCP

13. What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a class B network address?
 (a) 1 – 126
(b) 1 – 127
(c) 128 – 190
(d) 128 – 191

14. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and E-MAIL respectively are
(a) TCP,UDP,UDP and TCP
(b) TCP,UDP,TCP and UDP
(c) UDP,TCP,UDP and TCP
(d) UDP,TCP,TCP and UDP

15. In a LAN network every system is identified by
(a) Name
(b) MAC Address
(c) IP Address
(d) Serial number given by manufacturer

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Senior Scientific Officer Grade-II (Metallurgy) in Ministry of Defence

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Senior Scientific Officer Grade-II (Metallurgy) in Ministry of Defence

1. The equilibrium in multi-component systems has not been derived, to avoid:
(a) Elaboration and complexity
(b) Simplicity
(c) Elaboration
(d) Mathematical equation

2. Quasi chemical theory helps to understand:
(a) The qualitative behaviour of solution
(b) The qualitative behaviour of solvent
(c) The qualitative behaviour of solute
(d) The chemical reaction

3. The Gibbs-Duhem equation is very useful to:
(a) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution when that of the other component is known
(b) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution when that of the other component is not known
(c) Evaluate the activity of a component in solution and is very easy
(d) Measure the activity accurately 

4. What is the entropy change for the reaction as below at 298 KK?
fe2o3 + 3C = 2 Fe + 3 CO
Given the standard values of entropies at 298 K for the following elements/compounds:

Fe2O3 21.4 cal/mole
C

49.5 cal/mole

Fe

32.63 cal/mole

CO

47.3 cal/mole


(a) 27.16 cal/mole
(b) 47.3 cal/mole
(c) 30.82 cal/mole
(d) 37.26 cal/mole

5. The free energy of the reaction: < CaCO3 > = < CaO > +{CO2} is,
 ∆ G0 = +40250 − 34.4 T Cal/g mol
What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will occur?
(a) 789°C
(b) 879°C
(c) 897°C
(d) 910°C

6. Fractography is evaluated by:
(a) X-ray Diffraction
(b) X-ray Fluorescence Spectroscopy
(c) Scanning Electron Microscopy
(d) Transmission Electron Microscopy

7. X-ray Diffraction technique is used to determine:
(a) Grain size of cold-worked material
(b) Inclusion content in steel
(c) Microstructure of metal
(d) Curie temperature of magnetic material

8. In solid solution strengthening, which mechanism is relatively insensitive to temperature?
(a) Stacking - fault interaction
(b) Elastic interaction
(c) Electrical interaction
(d) Short-range order interaction

9. Which of the following is a sessile dislocation?
(a) Shockley partial dislocation
(b) Frank partial dislocation
(c) Edge dislocation
(d) Screw dislocation

10. In ductile metals, the Bauschinger effect causes lowering of:
(a) Tensile stress
(b) Fracture stress
(c) Elastic Modulus
(d) Yield stress

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Additional Assistant Director (Safety) (Mechanical)

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Additional Assistant Director (Safety) (Mechanical)

1. A fan consumes 20 W of electric power and discharges air from a ventilated room at 0.25 kg/s. The maximum air outlet velocity is nearly
(a) 4.7 m/s
(b) 8.7 m/s
(c) 10.2 m/s
(d) 12.7 m/s

2. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) A machine which violates Clausius statement will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(b) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank statement will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(c) A machine which violates the second law of thermodynamics will violate the first law of thermodynamics
(d) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank statement will violate the Clausius statement

3. 150 Kj of heat is transferred from a heat source of 527°C to a heat sink at 127°C . If the ambient temperature is 47°C , the loss of available energy during the process will be
(a) 40 Kj
(b) 50 Kj
(c) 60 Kj
(d) 70 Kj

4. Which one of the following is correct in the context of change of entropy of a system undergoing a reversible adiabatic process?
(a) Positive for expansion process and negative for compression process
(b) Positive for compression process and negative for expansion process
(c) Negative for both the processes
(d) Positive for both the processes

5. Consider the following devices:
1. Internal combustion engine working on Otto cycle
2. Internal combustion engine working on Diesel cycle
3. Gas turbines
4. Steam turbines
In which of the above devices, the equation dQ=dU+Pdv  is not applicable?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
 
6. Consider the following statements with reference to gas turbine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases thermal efficiency
2. Reheating decreases thermal efficiency
3. Cycle efficiency increases when the maximum temperature of the cycle is increased
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

7. For the same pressure ratio during compression, compressing in two-stage compressor with perfect inter-cooling instead of a single-stage compressor is characterized by:
1. Increase in volumetric efficiency
2. Decrease in work input
3. Decrease in discharge temperature
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. What is the compression ratio of a 4-stroke engine whose capacity is 245 cc,clearance volume is 27.2 cc and diameter of bore is 10 % higher than stroke?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12

9. Thorium breeder reactors are more promising for India essentially because
(a) They develop more power
(b) The technology thereof is simple
(c) Thorium deposits are abundantly available in the country
(d) These can be easily designed

10. If Nusselt number is 4000 with corresponding Reynolds and Prandtl numbers as 40 and 20 respectively, the relevant Stanton number will be
(a) 40
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Assistant Public Prosecutors in CBI

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Post of Assistant Public Prosecutors in CBI

1.Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, to the exclusion of any other Court, does NOT include any dispute:
(a) between Government of India and one or more States.
(b) between Government of India and any State or States on the one hand and one or more other States on the other.
(c) in relation to election of President of India.
(d) between Government of India and civil servants as to constitutional validity of service rule.

2.In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of National Awards like Bharat Ratna holding that these awards do not amount to ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India
(b) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
(c) D K Basu v. State of West Bengal
(d) J P Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh

3.Which of the following Fundamental Rights can NOT be suspended when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?
(a) Article 19 and Article 21
(b) Article 32 and Article 226
(c) Article 20 and Article 21
(d) Article 19 and Article 20

4.In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court, while recognizing the Muslim Women’s right to maintenance for the first time, observed, “A uniform civil code will help the cause of national integration by removing disparate loyalties to laws which have conflicting ideologies”?
(a) Shamim Ara v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(b) Danial Latifi v. Union of India
(c) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(d) K Zunaideen v. Ameena Begum

5.Doctrine of Eclipse, pertaining to Fundamental Rights, has originated from which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 13 

6.The power of the Supreme Court of India to punish for contempt of itself is traceable to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 128
(c) Article 129
(d) Article 131

7.Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy under the Constitution of India?
(a) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(b) Equal Justice and free legal aid
(c) To value and preserve the rich heritage of India’s composite culture
(d) To provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years

8.Which constitutional amendment is relevant to the goods and services tax?
(a) Constitution (99th Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (100th Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (101st Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act

9.Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The State of Andhra Pradesh enjoys special status under the Constitution of India in matters relating to education and therefore its power to prescribe residential requirement for candidates appearing in super specialty examination is constitutionally valid
(b) The Supreme Court of India has no power to transfer a case pending in a Court within the State of Jammu and Kashmir to any Court outside that State
(c) The Parliament cannot empower any Court in the State of Jammu and Kashmir to exercise the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court to enforce the fundamental rights by issuing writ, orders or directions
(d) The provisions of article 371D of the Constitution of India have overriding effect over any other provision of the Constitution

10.Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Goods and Services Tax Council Article 279A
(b) Taxes on sale of petroleum crude List I of Seventh Schedule
(c) Duties of excise on petroleum crude produced in India List II of Seventh Schedule
(d) Duties of excise on tobacco produced in India List III of Seventh Schedule

11.Article 246A of the Constitution of India:
1. contains a non-obstante clause thereby overrides Article 254.
2. confers exclusive power on the Parliament with respect to taxes on goods and services in the course of inter-state trade and commerce.
3. the legislature of a State has been given power to make laws for taxes on all goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

12.The Doctrine of Double Jeopardy is enshrined under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 20(2)
(c) Article 20(1)
(d) Article 22(1)

13.In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the Right to Privacy is a part of Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
(a) K S Puttaswamy case
(b) M P Sharma case
(c) Binoy Viswam case
(d) Karak Singh case

14.For making reservation in promotion in public employment under Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which of the following are the essential requirements?
1. Backwardness
2. Inadequate representation
3. Maintenance of efficiency in service
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15.In which one of the following matters the Supreme Court CANNOT issue directions to the Governments?
(a) For protecting children from drug abuse
(b) For collecting necessary quantifiable data of SC/ST candidates in civil services for giving them reservations in promotions
(c) For protecting good samaritans who wish to help victims of road accidents
(d) For banning sale of liquor on national and state highways

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Junior Time Scale Grade of Central Labour Service consisting of the posts of ALC - AWC - AD (Central)

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Junior Time Scale Grade of Central Labour Service 

consisting of the posts of ALC - AWC - AD (Central)

1.Consider the following Commissions / Committees:
1. First National Commission on Labour
2. Labour Investigation Committee
3. Royal Commission on Labour
4. National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector Which one of the following is the correct chronology of the above, in ascending order, in terms of their submission of reports?
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 3-4-2-1

2.Family planning became an integral part of labour welfare as per the International Labour
Organization Resolution passed in the year:
(a) 1917
(b) 1927
(c) 1937
(d) 1947

3.Which of the following is / are NOT correct approach with respect to welfare services undertaken by organizations in the commercial and public organizations?
1. As welfare is provided by the State to all , hence duplication by other organizations is undesirable
2. Welfare services may be provided for matters concerning employees which may not be immediately connected with their jobs, though connected with their place of work
3. Welfare services will include special services for retired employees
4. Child care facilities may be provided on a collective basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

4.Which one among the following is the earliest labour law in India?
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act
(b) Trade Unions Act
(c) Employee’s Compensation Act
(d) Factories Act

5.Which one of the following theories of labour welfare is also called efficiency theory?
(a) Functional theory
(b) Public relations theory
(c) Religious theory
(d) Philanthropic theory

6.Which of the following statements with respect to housing is / are NOT correct?
1. It is a basic requirement for living life with dignity
2. According to the Revised Integrated Housing Scheme 2016 for workers, central assistance for a new house may be released in twelve equal installments
3. House Listing and Housing Census data of 2011 is provided by the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

7.Which of the following benefits can be combined under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Sickness benefit and maternity benefit
(b) Sickness benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(c) Maternity benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(d) Maternity benefit and medical benefit

8.Which one of the following is the total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee having two or more than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
(a) Twenty six weeks
(b) Fourteen weeks
(c) Twelve weeks
(d) Sixteen weeks

9.What is the share of women representatives in the Advisory Committee to be constituted under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) One half of the total members
(b) One third of the total members
(c) One fourth of the total members
(d) Three fourth of the total members

10.The International Labour Organization’s Convention No 102 on ‘Minimum Standards of Social Security’ was adopted in the year:
(a) 1948
(b) 1953
(c) 1952
(d) 1950

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Labour Enforcement Officers (Central)

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Posts of Labour Enforcement Officers (Central)

1.Consider the following Commissions / Committees:
1. First National Commission on Labour
2. Labour Investigation Committee
3. Royal Commission on Labour
4. National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of the above, in ascending order, in termsof their submission of reports?
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 3-4-2-1

2.Family planning became an integral part of labour welfare as per the International Labour Organization Resolution passed in the year:
(a) 1917
(b) 1927
(c) 1937
(d) 1947

3.Which of the following is / are NOT correct approach with respect to welfare services undertaken by organizations in the commercial and public organizations?
1. As welfare is provided by the State to all , hence duplication by other organizations is undesirable
2. Welfare services may be provided for matters concerning employees which may not be immediately connected with their jobs, though connected with their place of work
3. Welfare services will include special services for retired employees
4. Child care facilities may be provided on a collective basis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

4.Which one among the following is the earliest labour law in India?
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act
(b) Trade Unions Act
(c) Employee’s Compensation Act
(d) Factories Act

5.Which one of the following theories of labour welfare is also called efficiency theory?
(a) Functional theory
(b) Public relations theory
(c) Religious theory
(d) Philanthropic theory

6.Which of the following statements with respect to housing is / are NOT correct?
1. It is a basic requirement for living life with dignity
2. According to the Revised Integrated Housing Scheme 2016 for workers, central assistance for a new house may be released in twelve equal installments
3. House Listing and Housing Census data of 2011 is provided by the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

7.Which of the following benefits can be combined under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(a) Sickness benefit and maternity benefit
(b) Sickness benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(c) Maternity benefit and disablement benefit for temporary disablement
(d) Maternity benefit and medical benefit

8.Which one of the following is the total period of maternity leave admissible to a woman employee having two or more than two surviving children under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
(a) Twenty six weeks
(b) Fourteen weeks
(c) Twelve weeks
(d) Sixteen weeks

9.What is the share of women representatives in the Advisory Committee to be constituted under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) One half of the total members
(b) One third of the total members
(c) One fourth of the total members
(d) Three fourth of the total members

10.The International Labour Organization’s Convention No 102 on ‘Minimum Standards of Social Security’ was adopted in the year:
(a) 1948
(b) 1953
(c) 1952
(d) 1950

11.In case of permanent total disablement, which one of the following is the minimum compensation to be paid under the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923?
(a) Rs. 1,60,000
(b) Rs. 1,40,000
(c) Rs. 1,20,000
(d) Rs. 1,00,000

12.Which of the following statements with regard to Section 1 of the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948, is / are NOT correct?
1. The Act shall apply to all factories including factories belonging to the Government
2. The Act shall not apply to a factory under the control of the Government whose employees are in receipt of benefits substantially inferior to the benefits under this Act
3. The Act extends to the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir
4. The applicability of the Act in an establishment ceases if the number of persons employed therein falls below the limit specified under the Act Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Mining, Mechanical & Drilling Engineering

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Mining, Mechanical & Drilling Engineering

1. Throttling curve in a centrifugal pump running at constant speed represents the relationship between:
(a) Power and flow rate
(b) Efficiency and flow rate
(c) Head and flow rate
(d) Efficiency and net suction positive head

2. Consider the following statements regarding the stability of bodies in a fluid medium:
1. The stability of a submerged body requires that the centre of gravity lies below the centre of buoyancy
2. To improve the stability of a floating body by increasing the bottom width and reducing the draft
3. For stability of a floating body, the metacentre should be above the centre of buoyancy but below the centre of gravity
Which of the above statements are correct?
 (a) 1, 2 and 3
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 2 and 3 only 

3. How does the angle of attack effect lift and drag?
(a) Increasing the angle of attack can decrease the lift, but it also increases drag so that less thrust required
(b) Increasing the angle of attack can increase the lift, but it also increases drag so that less thrust required
(c) Increasing the angle of attack can increase the lift, but it also increases drag so that more thrust required
(d) Increasing the angle of attack can decrease the lift, but it also increases drag so that more thrust required

4. A stone weighs 392.4 N in air and 196.2 N when fully submerged in water. The volume of the stone is:
(a) 1 × 104 cm3
(b) 2 × 104 cm3
(c) 3 × 104 cm3
(d) 4 × 104 cm3

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Medical Officer - (Homoeopathy)

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2017 : Medical Officer - (Homoeopathy)

1.Pernicious anaemia is:
(a) Microcytic normochromic
(b) Microcytic hypochromic
(c) Macrocytic normochromic
(d) Macrocytic hypochromic

2.Blackwater fever is a complication of infection with:
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plamodium malaraia
(d) All of these

3.Which one of the following is correct in respect of Raynaud’s disease?
(a) Women are affected five times more often than men
(b) Fingers are involved more frequently than toes
(c) Most patients experience only mild or infrequent episodes
(d) Results of physical examination are often entirely normal

4.The clinical variety of psoriasis which is most common in children and young adults is:
(a) Palmoplentar psoriasis
(b) Plaque-type psoriasis
(c) Guttate psoriasis
(d) Pustular psoriasis

5.Aschoff’s nodules are seen in:
(a) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
(b) Libman sacks endocarditis
(c) Rheumatic carditis
(d) Non-bacterial endocarditis

6.All are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis EXCEPT:
(a) Malignancy
(b) Pregnancy and postpartum
(c) Age less than 60 years
(d) High dose oestrogen oral contraceptive pill

7.A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmentation and hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:
(a) Haemochromatosis
(b) Tumor lung
(c) Wilson’s disease
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis

8.Hypoglycaemia is a recognised feature of all EXCEPT:
(a) Uremia
(b) Acromegaly
(c) Addisons disease
(d) Hepatocellular failure

9.Which one of the following is NOT a feature of multiple myeloma?
(a) Hypercalcemia
(b) Hyperviscosity
(c) Anaemia
(d) Elevated alkaline phosphatase

10.Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies EXCEPT:
(a) Hodgkin’s disease
(b) Non Hodgkins lymphoma
(c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(d) Multiple myeloma

11.The diagnostic test with best sensitivity and specificity to diagnose chronic pancreatitis is:
(a) Abdominal CT scan
(b) Abdominal radiograph
(c) Abdominal ultrasound
(d) Secretion test

12.Radiographic ‘string sign’ is a feature of:
(a) Diverticular disease
(b) Ulcerative colitis
(c) Crohn’s disease
(d) Acute Intestinal obstruction

13.A booming ‘pistol-shot’ sound heard over the formal arteries is found in:
(a) Mitral stenosis
(b) Mitral regurgitation
(c) Aortic regurgitation
(d) Aortic stenosis

14.Detection of which autoantibody is considered as the best screening test for SLE?
(a) Anti-dsDNA
(b) Anti-Ro
(c) Antinuclear antibody
(d) Anti-RNP

15.All are radiographic features of Osteoarthritis EXCEPT:
(a) Narrowed joint space
(b) Osteophytes
(c) Subchondral bone sclerosis
(d) Subchondral bone osteopenia

16.The hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
(a) Microaneurysms
(b) Haemorrhage
(c) Cotton-wool spots
(d) Neovascularisation

17.In cholinergic urticaria the pruritic wheals develop after exposure to:
(a) Hot bath
(b) Cold bath
(c) Pressure
(d) Wheat protein

18.The ‘tram tracks’ sign on X ray is found in patients of:
(a) Bronchial asthma
(b) Bronchiectasis
(c) Chronic bronchitis
(d) Silicosis

19.Neurologic symptoms produced by an elevation of the body’s core temperature are featuresof:
(a) Systemic sclerosis
(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c) Systematic lupus erythematosus
(d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

20.Pel-Ebstein fever is seen in:
(a) Burkitt’s lymphoma
(b) Mantle cell lymphoma
(c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(d) Follicular lymphoma

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(Answer Key) Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination-2017 (Civil Engineering)

 (Answer Key) Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination-2017

(Civil Engineering)

Exam Name: Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination

Year: 2017

Subjects:

  • (Civil Engineering)

Click Here to Download Civil Engineering Answer Key

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