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THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 23 November 2019 (Expedient exit (The Hindu))

Expedient exit (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 3 : Economy 
  • Prelims level : Disinvestment 
  • Mains level : Reason behind disinvestment 

Context

  • Recently the Cabinet has decided to approve strategic disinvestment of the government’s shareholding in five public sector enterprises including Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited, Shipping Corporation of India and the Container Corporation of India.
  • In this context, it is necessary to understand the meaning of disinvestment, its need, issues and way forward.

What is disinvestment?

  • Public Sector Enterprises have Government shareholding not less than 51% and disinvestment is the process of reducing the government shareholding in such companies.

What are the reasons for this decision?

  • The government has a ₹1.05 lakh crore disinvestment target of which, only ₹17,364 crores has been realised till now.
  • A massive shortfall in revenue and capital receipts — as of September 30, net tax revenue had only reached 36.8% of the budget estimate of ₹16.5 lakh crore for the full year, while non-debt capital receipts(disinvestment etc.) were at 17.2% of the fiscal’s target of about ₹1.2 lakh crore according to the Controller General of Accounts.It is aimed at helping the government narrow the yawning fiscal gap.

What are the underlying issues?

  • It is alleged that the lack of an explanation for the logic behind the move also hints at politics taking precedence over any economic interest.

Way forward

  • Thus it is opined that only 4 more months left in the present fiscal year, the government needs to move ahead with its decision of disinvestment fast.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the Pliosaur, consider the following statements:

1. They were the largest aquatic carnivorous reptiles that have ever lived and are often dubbed “sea monsters”.
2. Recently its remains were discovered in the Polish village of Krzyzanowice.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

Ans: C

Mains Questions:
Q.1) What is disinvestment? What are the reasons for this decision? What are the underlying issues?

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 23 November 2019 (Gloom deepens (The Hindu))

Gloom deepens (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 3 : Economy 
  • Prelims level : Index of industrial production
  • Mains level : Present issues in Industrial Production

Context

  • The latest index of industrial production (IIP) estimates from the NSO show that output shrank by 4.3% in September, with all three component sectors in the index — manufacturing, mining and electricity — posting contractions

What is the Index of Industrial Production?

  • It is an index for India which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mineral mining, electricity and manufacturing.
  • The all India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period which presently in India is 2011-12.
  • It is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

What are the present issues?

  • Consumer durables also posted a fourth straight contraction, with the 9.9% decline appearing in stark contrast to September 2018’s 5.4% growth.
  • 17 of the 23 industry groups that comprise the manufacturing sector contracted.
  • Motor vehicles industry posted a 25% contraction.
  • Manufacturing having a weight of almost 78% in the IIP, the latest report from IHS Markit gives little room for optimism. The survey based Purchasing Managers’ Index revealed continuing manufacturing sector weakness in October as weakening demand hurt new orders and business sentiment

What are the reasons for the dip?

  • Low rural demand
  • Low investors’ confidence

What are the measures taken in this regard?

  • The Centre’s announcement of a funding initiative to help stalled housing projects ought to provide some fillip in the coming months.

Way forward

  • Thus it is opined that the demand needs to be increased by the help of structural reforms while the Central Bank needs to lower interest rates for the revival in the time being.

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Prelims Questions:

Q.1) With reference to the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX), consider the following statements:

1. It will be funded and managed by NITI Aayog. 

2. It primarily aims at creation of an ecosystem to foster innovation in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D institutes & academia. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above

Ans: B

Mains Questions:
Q.1) What is the Index of Industrial Production? What are the present issues?

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 22 November 2019 (Not so fast (Indian Express))

Not so fast (Indian Express)

  • Mains Paper 2: Polity
  • Prelims level : RTI Act
  • Mains level : Relationship between RTI and Judiciary

Context:

  • On November 13, a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court passed its order in the Subhash Agarwal matter, bringing a closure to cases pending resolution for nearly 10 years. 
  • The five-judge Supreme Court bench recently disposed of the civil appeals its own registry had filed before it. 
  • In the process, the bench, in a dissertation length order, has delved deep into the concepts of fiduciary relationship, public interest, privacy, confidentiality and independence of judiciary 
  • It cast an onerous duty on its Central Public Information Officer to decide on disclosure of the information taking into account the observations of the court.

Background:

  • Everyone knows that a lot of information held by public authorities about the appointment, performance, conduct, complaints and inquiries against public servants, is personal in nature and the CPIO has to refer to the principles laid down in this order to decide if the information should be disclosed or not. 
  • In case the information relates to courts or judges, his problem is further compounded for he has also to consider the impact of disclosure on the independence of the judiciary. 
  • This calls for great judicial acumen, rarely to be expected from the level of officers who become CPIOs. 
  • Most CPIOs would choose to steer clear and refuse disclosure by invoking Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act and leave the information seekers to appeal against their orders. 
  • In fact, even before this order, information officers have been routinely denying such information on this precise ground.

Timeline of RTI:

  • The RTI has entered the 15th year of its existence. 
  • It met its first major challenge when the central government refused to disclose the file noting. 
  • The CIC held that file noting was also information and must be disclosed and the government at the highest level relented. 
  • The second challenge came when Subhash Agarwal sought information from the Supreme Court regarding collegium proceedings, personal assets of judges and alleged executive pressure on a high court judge. 
  • This information was denied on the ground that it was held by the CJI who was not a public authority and hence outside the RTI. 
  • The Supreme Court Registry challenged the CIC’s order in Delhi High Court which, too, ordered in Agarwal’s favour. The registry appealed in the Supreme Court which after 10 long years has finally decided that the CJI is a public authority and comes under the RTI Act.
  • The third major challenge came when the CIC order bringing political parties under the RTI was summarily disobeyed and it could do nothing. 
  • They have also realised that one sure way of blocking the orders of the information commissions is to go to the high courts or the Supreme Court and get a stay; the natural delay in those courts would kill the information.

Relationship between RTI and Judiciary:

  • The relationship of the RTI with the judiciary has been fraught from the beginning. 
  • Since the RTI Act conferred powers on the chief justice of the Supreme Court of India and the chief justices of high courts of states for carrying out its provisions, all these courts framed their own rules. 
  • The Supreme Court adopted the RTI-friendly rules of the central government for itself, several high courts framed extremely unfriendly rules, making it almost impossible to get any information. 
  • even contemplated in the RTI Act. 
  • Over the years, the courts have softened those rules but even now they continue to be restrictive, preventing easy disclosure of information.

Significance of RTI Act: 

  • The RTI Act makes the information commissions the final appellate authorities in their respective jurisdictions. 
  • But that does not stop public authorities, government entities, from going to the high courts and the Supreme Court in writs. Some orders passed by the central information commission did reach the Supreme Court eventually. 
  • In most such cases, the interpretation of the exemption provisions by the court reinforced not the right of the citizens to get information from the government but the resolve of the public authorities not to disclose uncomfortable information. 
  • In the Girish Deshpande case, the Supreme Court ruled that the relationship between the government and its employees was a personal one and hence no information about a government employee could be disclosed unless the information seeker could prove that it was in public interest. 
  • Under this interpretation of Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, even information about disciplinary proceedings against a government employee, irrespective of how serious the allegations against him might be, could not be disclosed by the information officer without putting it to the public interest test. 
  • This order has become very popular among information officers and many RTI applications are being rejected by citing it.

Conclusion:

  • For citizens seeking information, there are many such orders passed by the high courts and the Supreme Court which have directly or indirectly shrunk their right and strengthened the hands of the government. 
  • The present order is likely to be used by information officers to block disclosure of all such information of a personal nature. 
  • One wished that the court had spelt out more clearly those items of personal information, of the executive or the judiciary, which the CPIOs could disclose without adjudication of its benefits for the general public.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the ‘ozone hole’, consider the following statements:

1. It is a region in the stratosphere, directly above Antarctica. 
2. NASA recently reported that, an “ozone hole”, which builds up over the Antarctic region this time of the year, has been found to be the smallest since it was first discovered in the 1980s. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Mains Questions:
Q.1) Describe the evolution of the relationship between RTI with the judiciary has been fraught from the beginning. 
 

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 22 November 2019 (CLC de criminalising 46 penal provisions (Indian Express))

CLC de criminalising 46 penal provisions (Indian Express)

  • Mains Paper 2: Polity
  • Prelims level : Company Law Committee
  • Mains level : Key recommendations of the Committee

Context:

  • The report of the Company Law Committee-2019 was presented to the Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs by Injeti Srinivas, Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, who chaired the Committee. 

About:

  • The Committee was constituted by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs in September, 2019 to further decriminalise the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 based on their gravity and to take other concomitant measures to provide further Ease of Living for corporates in the country.
  • The Committee has proposed amendments in 46 penal provisions, so as to either remove criminality, or to restrict the punishment to only fine, or to allow rectification of defaults through alternative methods, which would lead to de-clogging of the criminal justice system.

Key recommendations of the Committee:

  • Re-categorising 23 offences out of the 66 remaining compoundable offences under the Act, to be dealt with in the in-house adjudication framework wherein these defaults would be subject to a penalty levied by an adjudicating officer.
  • In addition, the quantum of penalties recommended are lower than the quantum of fines presently provided in the Act.
  • Retention of status-quo in case of the non-compoundable offences.
  • Proposing benches of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal;
  • Extending applicability of Section 446B (lower penalties for small companies and one person companies) to all provisions which attract monetary penalties and extending the benefit to producer companies and start-ups also;
  • Providing power to enhance the thresholds which trigger applicability of Corporate Social Responsibility provisions;
  • Providing for appeal against the orders of the Regional Directors before the NCLT after due examination;
  • Exempting certain private placement requirements for Qualified Institutional Placements (QIPs) after due consultation with SEBI;

Way forward:

  • The CLC has also highlighted certain areas that require wider consultation and need to be taken up in due course at a later stage.
  • These include providing for appeal against the orders of the Regional Directors before the NCLT after due examination; 
  • Exempting certain private placement requirements for Qualified Institutional Placements (QIPs) after due consultation with SEBI; 
  • Reviewing provisions on disqualification of directors after due consultation and examination; and reviewing provisions in respect of debarment of audit firms after due consultation and examination.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the Article 142 of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 

1. The objective of Article 142(1) is that the Supreme Court must not be dependent on the executive for the enforcement of its decrees and orders. 
2. In Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India (1998), it was decided that this article can be used to over-ride the existing law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A

Mains Questions:
Q.1) What are the key recommendations made by Company Law Committee?

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 22 November 2019 (Senseless: On nationwide NRC (The Hindu))

Senseless: On nationwide NRC (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 2: Polity 
  • Prelims level : National Register of Citizens
  • Mains level : Drawbacks of Citizenship Amendment Bill

Context:

  • The proposal for a nationwide National Register of Citizens (NRC) is worrisome on several counts. The government, he said, would also re-introduce the Citizenship Amendment Bill (CAB) in Parliament that envisages the grant of Indian citizenship to all refugees from minority communities in Bangladesh, Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Provisions of the CAB:

  • The Bill effectively denies benefit to Muslim minorities from other neighbouring countries, including Myanmar where Rohingya Muslims face persecution. 
  • Home Minister announced that the NRC process would “naturally” be conducted in Assam again with the rest of the country.
  • The Assam proposal will be in defiance of the Supreme Court, which directed the entire NRC registration specific to Assam through all its tortuous details. 

Drawbacks of the CAB:

  • There is still no clarity on what the end results mean for the 19 lakh plus people who find themselves outside the NRC, potentially stateless and at risk of “deportation” to Bangladesh, which refuses to acknowledge, let alone accept, them. 
  • The NRC process in Assam was rooted in the specificities of the 1985 Assam Accord, and as the government never tires of saying, a court-mandated process, extending it to the entire country is both illogical and bizarre. 
  • It might have been flawed, but the NRC exercise, overseen by the Supreme Court, involved the active participation of the Central and State governments. 

Way ahead:

  • The government to repeat the exercise merely because the numbers thrown up are politically inconvenient for the ruling BJP, makes no sense at all.
  • If there is a lesson from Assam, it is that there is no right way of going through a process such as the NRC. 
  • It pointedly discriminates against Muslims, and is loaded against the right to equality and equal protection before the law as enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution, there are genuine fears that a nationwide NRC will target Muslims. 
  • Details of how such an exercise will be carried out are, of course, not yet known. In the case of Assam, there was a cut-off date — March 25, 1971 — after which all foreigners as per the Assam Accord were to be “detected, deleted and expelled in accordance with law”. 
  • The Centre will come out with a cut-off for the nationwide NRC, but it will be an arbitrary one.

Conclusion:

  • Given the dangers that lurk within such exercises, the government would do well to abandon the nationwide NRC-CAB combination. Indians can certainly be spared this pain.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the Cyclone Bulbul, consider the following statements:

1. It is an active tropical cyclone which struck the Indian state of West Bengal at Category 2 hurricane-equivalent intensity. 
2. It is first tropical cyclone ever recorded to regenerate over the Andaman Sea, having crossed Southeast Asia overland.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A

Mains Questions:
Q.1) What is the Citizenship amendment bill? What are the limitations of the bill?

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 22 November 2019 (A blow against punitive constitutionalism (The Hindu))

A blow against punitive constitutionalism (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 2: Polity 
  • Prelims level : Beggary Act
  • Mains level : Judgement on the Beggary Act

Context:

  • Independence and the Constitution were supposed to herald a new dawn, the reality turned out to be different. 
  • The post-colonial Indian state replicated many of the worst excesses of the British regime. 
  • One glaring example of this is the “beggary law”, which was enacted in Bombay in 1958, and later extended to many States and Union Territories. 
  • These draconian laws criminalise itinerant and nomadic communities, i.e., effectively anyone who does not fit the state’s definition of a “normal” citizen. And in establishing a system of “certified institutions” that are little better than detention centres, they facilitate the continued stigmatisation and incarceration of some of the most vulnerable and marginalised segments of society.

Judgement on the Beggary Act:

  • In a landmark verdict, the Jammu and Kashmir High Court struck down that state’s iteration of the Beggary Act.
  • In a detailed judgment, its Chief Justice Gita Mittal identified the colonial origins of the law and found it to be a gross violation of human dignity, equality, and freedom. 
  • The Chief Justice’s reasoning serves as a powerful reminder of the colonial vestiges that remain with us, seven decades after the birth of the constitutional republic. 
  • And, more importantly, it shows us a path to reach that ‘something of freedom that is yet to come’.

What do India’s beggary laws say? 

  • Among other things, “begging” is defined as “having no visible means of subsistence and wandering about or remaining in any public place... in such condition or manner, as makes it likely that the person doing so exists by soliciting or receiving alms”. 
  • Thus, beggary laws go substantially beyond criminalising the act of begging; rather, they criminalise people who are “wandering about” and who look like they might need to beg at some point. 
  • It is evident that the purpose of such provisions is not to protect public peace or prevent crimes, but to effectively “cleanse” these spaces of individuals who appear poor or destitute. It is the legislative equivalent of shops putting up “spikes” outside their doors and windows to prevent rough sleeping.

Substance of these laws:

  • People found “begging” can be arrested without a warrant, and after a summary procedure, thrown into “Beggars’ Homes” for anything between a year and three years. 
  • Upon a “second offence”, the punishment could extend up to seven years. More specifically, the Jammu and Kashmir Prevention of Beggary Rules, framed under J&K’s version of the Act.
  • It authorised forced medical examinations of “beggars” taken in police custody, “shaving” of hair and “removal of clothing” in order to undertake the euphemistically-phrased “cleansing” of the body.

The court’s analysis

  • The Chief Justice began by discussing the origins of beggary statutes in England. 
  • Under the belief that people without settled — and visible — means of sustenance were a threat to society, a number of “vagrancy statutes” were enacted and served as precursors to the beggary laws. 
  • In India, begging was first criminalised in the 1920s, as part of a colonial logic that sought to “subjugate certain communities by imputing criminality to them.”
  • The High Court then made the crucial observation that “begging and homelessness are indicators of abject, chronic poverty.” 
  • And poverty, the court noted further, had social causes: “Beggary is a manifestation of the fact that the person has fallen through the socially created net. 
  • It is evidence of the fact that the State has failed to ensure that all citizens have even the basic essential facilities.
  • The court, therefore, rejected the pernicious world view according to which poverty is a consequence of individual failings, and recognised that the primary failing was that of the state.

Addressed on fundamental rights:

  • As “begging” was a peaceful method by which a person sought to communicate their situation to another, and solicit their assistance, it was protected under Article 19(1)(a)’s freedom of speech guarantee. 
  • The government’s stated justification for criminalising “begging” — that of turning people into “good citizens” — was vague and undefined; nor was it demonstrated how incarcerating “beggars” into homes would transform them into “good citizens”. The constitutional violation, thus, could not be justified. 
  • The court also noted that by criminalising “wandering about” in public spaces, the law effectively attempted to exclude the poor and the marginalised from places that, by definition, were meant “for the enjoyment of every member of the public without exception.” Thus, the law also violated the constitutional guarantee of the freedom of movement.
  • Additionally, the court noted that there existed a large number of itinerant communities such as the Gujjars and the Bakarwals, whose very nature of existence — moving from place to place, and displaying none of the “conventional means of subsistence” — would bring them within the ambit of the beggary law. 
  • As the court pointedly asked: “Does ‘visible means of subsistence’ envisage waving your economic prosperity in public spaces? Or is it sufficient to have a hefty bank balance?”

Submerging individual rights

  • Recent years have seen the rise of a phenomenon that can best be described as “punitive constitutionalism”. 
  • Punitive constitutionalism seeks to submerge individual rights to a grand yet often undefined national project by holding that an individual may be stripped of their rights if they do not do their bit to contribute to this project. 
  • The laws barring political participation to those who have more than two children  or who lack formal education, effectively make freedom and equality conditional upon the state’s vision of what a “good citizen” should be like. Rights, then, are no longer about being human, but about earning the right to be treated as a human.

Way forward:

  • The beggary laws belong within this same family of punitive constitutionalism. 
  • The Jammu and Kashmir High Court’s judgment, therefore — which is explicitly premised upon the unconstitutionality of “invisiblising” a social problem by criminalising it.
  • It shows us the exact way in which our Constitution rejects this harsh world view. For that, it must be applauded.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the National Entrepreneurship Awards 2019, consider the following statements:

1. The awards aim to recognize and honour the outstanding young First-Generation Entrepreneurs, and Ecosystem builders. 
2. There were 4 special categories for the awards including Women Entrepreneur, Entrepreneur from SC/ST Category, Entrepreneur from People with Disability category, Entrepreneur from difficult areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C

Mains Questions:
Q.1) Describe the highlights of the Jammu and Kashmir High Court’s verdict on the Beggary Act.

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 21 November 2019 (Let us prioritize employment over labour protection (Mint))

Let us prioritize employment over labour protection (Mint)

  • Mains Paper 3: Economy  
  • Prelims level : Not much 
  • Mains level : Coordinated efforts to liberalize the engagement of labour

Context

  • The Narendra Modi government, at the start of its first term, did attempt land reforms; it promulgated nine ordinances, one after the other, which eventually lapsed after failing to get Rajya Sabha approval. 
  • Recently, Parliament legislated a new labour code, amalgamating the provisions of several acts. 
  • Provident Fund benefits have been extended to temporary/contract employees. 

Coordinated efforts to liberalize the engagement of labour:

  • Labour reforms tend to have political consequences. The vice-chairman of NITI Aayog, while talking about labour reforms, has been clear that there would be no “hire and fire" policy. 
  • While wages in India are low, the cost of labour is higher than in other Asian countries. 
  • Improving labour productivity, which is a serious impediment to the expansion of manufacturing, warrants investment in technology and scaling up the size of Indian enterprises.

Indian economy scenario:

  • India’s quarterly gross domestic product (GDP) growth has fallen to 5% in the first three months of the current fiscal year, with obvious consequences. 
  • The country now faces the challenge of low aggregate demand—caused, inter alia, by rising unemployment. 
  • While the Code on Wages, 2017, which stipulates a national floor minimum wage, has the potential to mitigate the effects of declining demand, without large-scale employment generation, its benefits cannot be realized.

Steps taken to boost up employment: 

  • Trade wars between the US and China, and Japan and Korea, have combined with demographic issues in those geographies to inspire significant shifts in manufacturing locations, particularly away from China. 
  • This offers an opportunity to welcome factories to India and join global supply chains. 
  • The Modi government has taken the bold step of bringing down corporate tax rates to a level comparable with other jurisdictions, especially in Asia. 
  • This decision is expected to aid the economy in the medium to long term, its full benefits can be reaped only if manufacturing units move to India.

If there is no employment, whom do we protect? 

  • Currently, 95% of employment in India is generated by agriculture, businesses in the informal economy, and micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs). 
  • No aspect of India’s labour protection law, except perhaps the minimum wage, applies to them.
  • This is not to suggest giving a complete go-by to labour protection laws. 
  • However, employment may rise if companies could hire well beyond 300 people without worrying about restrictions on layoffs during downturns. 
  • Ask an unemployed person whether he wants a job or job protection, and most likely he would want a job first. 
  • Once adequate employment opportunities are created, the government can deal with welfare issues. 
  • It could create a fund from the extra tax revenues, for example, for the purpose. Simply put, the order should be reversed from “first protect and then employ" to “first employ and then create welfare measures". 
  • This is exactly what China, Vietnam, Cambodia, Bangladesh and other Asian Tigers have done to attract global manufacturing.

Case study – China:

  • China created special economic zones and allowed businesses complete freedom to perform, with no conditions imposed. 
  • This attracted hordes of investors. 
  • The model has since been replicated countrywide. India’s Special Economic Zones, in contrast, have largely been tax-saving and land-grabbing exercises.
  • More than 80% of the export of manufacturing goods from China was done by enterprises that were 100% foreign owned. 
  • China has benefited from the employment of Chinese labour and the value addition involved. It would be worthwhile to explore a similar approach.

Way forward:

  • The earnestness of the Modi government to enhance the economic prosperity of India is undoubted.
  • It has taken bold steps to improve the fundamentals of India’s economy. 
  • However, without land and labour reforms, the speed of economic growth cannot be accelerated, nor can the country’s demographic dividend be maximized. 
  • Every opportunity has a timeline. And the daring harness it optimally.

Prelims Questions:

Q.1) With reference to the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), consider the following statements:

1. OCI is a person who was a citizen of India on or after January 26, 1950; or was eligible to become a citizen of India on that date; or who is a child or grandchild of such a person, among other eligibility criteria.
2. An applicant is eligible for the OCI card if he, his parents or grandparents have ever been a citizen of Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both
D.None 

Answer: A

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) For boosting up economic growth, land and labour both are require. Critically examine the statement.

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 21 November 2019 (What future generations learn can’t be left to private schools (Mint))

What future generations learn can’t be left to private schools (Mint)

  • Mains Paper 2: Education 
  • Prelims level : Public education 
  • Mains level : Reforms in public education

Context

  • Schools that are funded largely by tax revenues generated by the State, and run by the State through any of its bodies are called public schools, except in some countries such as the UK and India where the term could refer to private residential schools as well. 
  • Such a system of schools is what constitutes public education. This commonly shared understanding is usually quite adequate. 
  • However, this notion deserves closer scrutiny, with people’s expectations from education soaring and delivery falling way short.

What is “public" in public education? 

  • At its core, it is about being equally available to all. It is also about people coming together to further the public good through education. 
  • So, the word “public" has at least two aspects: for whom—equally for all; and, for what and why—for the public good.
  • With these meanings of “public", it becomes apparent that the State may be well suited to conduct such education. 
  • Nevertheless, state education is a mechanism and not always the same thing as public education. For example, in a totalitarian state, the state school system indoctrinates students to support the regime and its grip on power. 
  • This is state education, not public education, because it is not for the good of people at large.

The importance of public education for a democracy: 

  • To build and keep a democracy, a society needs the capacities and commitments that arise from public education, which serve a dual and entwined purpose—of socialization for all citizens to be equal and empowered.
  • If the curriculum were to change to suit the idiosyncratic needs of certain groups, or bend to ideology, ignoring truth, public education would no longer be public, since that would not further the public good.
  • It could also get undermined insidiously, energized by notions like “education for the economy", “education for employability", and so on. In themselves, these sentiments are unexceptionable. Corrosion happens when these reflect an implicit or explicit intent to give primacy to the economic aims of education over all else.

Economic objective in public education:

  • Economic aims are important to public education. 
  • For citizens to be equal and empowered, their economic well-being and capacity for achieving the same are crucial. 
  • But narrowing expectations, curricula and practices to serve economic aims as the top priority gnaws away at public education. 
  • It makes education serve the market and its dominant groups, not the public good.
  • In theory, a public-spirited private school can mirror public education if it follows a curriculum that is designed for the public good and is equally available to all, irrespective of socio-economic status. 
  • The second condition cannot be met by private schools if they recover their costs from students, since this would exclude the economically disadvantaged. 
  • This has led to the notion of publicly-funded private schools, which can then purportedly offer public education.

Missing public-spirited private schools: 

  • Most private schools are profit-minded, not public-spirited. 
  • For entrepreneurs, a school is just another enterprise. 
  • This is natural, particularly when education by its very nature grants asymmetric power to schools over parents and students. 
  • Too many abuse this power to cut every cost and enhance every revenue stream with mere lip service to education. 
  • Such schools do not provide equal access to all. They also create significant social barriers of exclusivity.

Way ahead:

  • It can be anticipated if we keep sight of the fundamentals and do not get swayed by market-fundamentalism. 
  • One of those fundamentals is that private entities establish and run schools, with a few notable exceptions, for private purposes—profit, prestige, and political influence—while wearing a thin veil of commitment to the public good.
  • Entities that are neither established nor run for the public good cannot miraculously produce the public good against their basic intent. 
  • Private schools cannot deliver true public education.

Conclusion:

  • So, a public education system can only be on the basis of a system of state schools. 
  • A state schooling system may not always offer public education, but public education cannot happen without a sound state schooling system. 
  • Since public education is foundational to all efforts at developing a good society and vibrant democracy.

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Prelims Questions:

Q.1) With reference to the National Capital Region (NCR), consider the following statements:

1. National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB) was constituted by the Act of Parliament in 1985, as a statutory body under the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. As per a report by United Nation, Delhi is slated to become the world’s largest metropolis overtaking Tokyo by 2028. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both
D.None 

Answer: C

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) What is “public" in public education? Describe the importance of public education for a democracy.

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 21 November 2019 (Politics should not meddle with our official statistics (Mint))

Politics should not meddle with our official statistics (Mint)

  • Mains Paper 2: Governance 
  • Prelims level : National Sample Survey
  • Mains level : Equilibrium between politics and statistics 

Context

  • The National Statistical Office is making headlines again; this time, over the non-release of the results of the 75th round (2017-2018) of the National Sample Survey (NSS).

Reasons:

  • Its report allegedly revealed a decline in average monthly per capita consumer expenditure (MPCE) in real terms compared to 2011-12. 
  • The government decided not to release the results, and indicated that it is examining the feasibility of conducting the next survey in 2020-2021 and 2021-22.

Issue with official data:

  • T.N. Srinivasan and others refer to as India’s downfall “from being the world leader in surveys" to a country “with a serious data problem".
  • Indeed, as S.L. Shetty pointed out, India’s “official statistical collection machinery has been in decline for more than two decades".
  • Our governments have repeatedly interfered with various official statistics. 
  • The NSSs have been in the limelight because of this for almost a decade.

Introduction of NSS:

  • The NSSs are the primary means to track household consumer expenditure and poverty. 
  • Led by P.C. Mahalanobis initially, several economists and statisticians contributed to the design and development of the NSSs. 
  • American statistician Harold Hotelling is said to have remarked, “No technique of random sample has, so far as I can find, been developed in the United States or elsewhere, which can compare in accuracy with that described by professor Mahalanobis." 
  • However, beginning with the 1970s, political interference began to corrode trust in government statistics.

Performance in the past:

  • In 1973, in the run-up to the Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–79), B.S. Minhas resigned from the Planning Commission over differences on the misuse of data to present a rosy picture of the economy. 
  • This was when the National Sample Survey Organization carried out two large-scale surveys in quick succession. 
  • The 27th round of 1972-73 was followed by the 28th in 1973-74, possibly because 1972-73 was a drought year. 
  • The Task Force on Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand relied on the 28th round, even though it might not have been able to account for seasonality.
  • Two decades later, when governments were struggling with lacklustre outcomes of economic reforms, the 55th round (1999-2000) of the NSS stirred a controversy over the lack of inter-temporal comparability of its MPCE estimates. 

NSS performance in the last decade:

  • The 66th round of the NSS (2009-10) proved controversial because it showed that employment generation fell significantly short of the target of the 11th Five Year Plan. 
  • Official statisticians argued that since the GDP series could not be rebased using data from an “abnormal year", another large scale survey was conducted in 2011-12. 
  • The government also delayed the fourth round of the National Family Health Survey, which was eventually held after the 2014 polls. 
  • A 2011 Economic and Political Weekly editorial pointed out that “A pattern seems to have emerged of the government wanting to dismiss its own data... Doubts were cast earlier on the poverty numbers, then on the inflation indices and now it is the turn of the employment...."
  • Unlike the 27th and 66th round when the results were released but superseded by fresh surveys, the Centre has gone a step further by deciding not to release the results of the 75th round of NSS.

Way ahead:

  • The NSS is not the only casualty of this government’s cavalier approach to official statistics. 
  • Several other surveys and committees have seen their reports either delayed or trashed, while revisions have eroded trust in national accounts. 
  • The government also delayed the release of several tables of the 2011 Census, which should have been made public by Manmohan Singh’s government.

Conclusion:

  • Statistical institutions are insulated from political interference.
  • The government’s contention that the NSSs are unable to capture changing patterns of consumption is not entirely untrue.
  • That does not obviate the need to shield statistical bodies from politics.

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Prelims Questions:

Q.1) With reference to the ‘Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) for skill’, consider the following statements:

1. Certified candidates are trained and assessed on their skill set under the Recognition of prior Learning program of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) of MSDE. 
2. RPL recognizes and certifies skills acquired through informal means, bringing about a major shift from un-organized sector to organized economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.    1 only
B.    2 only
C.    Both
D.    None 

Answer: C

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) What is the NSS data? How it is significant for country economy? 

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 21 November 2019 (An opening: On Telangana transport workers strike (The Hindu))

An opening: On Telangana transport workers strike (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
  • Prelims level : Not much 
  • Mains level : Transport sector reforms 

Context

  • The Telangana State Road Transport Corporation-Joint Action Committee (TSRTC-JAC) that coordinated the strike by transport unions has finally said that it is ready to call off the strike. 

Steps taken by the Court: 

  • The welcome move follows a High Court decision to direct the State Labour Commissioner to refer the dispute to a labour court which would also adjudicate on the legality of the strike. 
  • The court refrained from declaring the strike as illegal while also refusing to direct the State government and the corporation to negotiate with the striking workers. 
  • But it took a sympathetic stand about the perilous state of the workers and their families after the government had “dismissed” nearly the entire workforce and emphasised the point that the State is legally bound to look after the workers. 

Highlights of the court’s observations:

  • Two dozen transport workers have died following the start of the agitations, some committing suicide due to the stress of losing their jobs. Clearly this tragic situation is untenable. 
  • The High Court order provided an opening to the workers to seek to end the strike, leading to their demand that the State government should retain their services unconditionally. 
  • The government is yet to respond, but it must be said that its decision to “dismiss” the workers after conciliation talks had failed, was high-handed and legally suspect. 
  • The efforts to find replacement staff, in order to minimise the disruption, have not worked too well, as the erratic services and sporadic accidents in the last month-and-a-half have indicated. 

Role of Corporation:

  • It is in everyone’s interest that the Telangana Rashtra Samiti-led government brings back normalcy by reinstating the workers in accordance with the court’s sage advice.
  • The Corporation had indicated to the court that it will augment its services by buying 1,035 new buses; this was one of the key demands of the striking workers who complained about the ageing fleet. 
  • Reinstating the workers should pave the way for fresh negotiations between the workers and the management of the Corporation and the government to find ways to bring back sustainability in the finances and functioning of public transport in the State. 
  • Modernisation of transport services with the deployment of new buses, identification of proper routes and services using information technology among other reforms are the need of the hour. 

Conclusion:

  • These should benefit not just the users of public transport but also the workers. For such reforms to be implemented, the support from the State government is imperative. 
  • It is high time that the government seeks to reassure all stakeholders that it is keen on working towards these. 
  • For starters, it must reverse the decisions it has taken since the agitations by the transport workers began a month-and-a-half ago.

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Prelims Questions:

Q.1) With reference to the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), consider the following statements:

1. OCI is a person who was a citizen of India on or after January 26, 1950; or was eligible to become a citizen of India on that date; or who is a child or grandchild of such a person, among other eligibility criteria.
2. An applicant is eligible for the OCI card if he, his parents or grandparents have ever been a citizen of Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.    1 only
B.    2 only
C.    Both
D.    None 

Answer: A

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) What are the steps needed to improve transport sector in India? 
 

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 21 November 2019 (Crop insurance woes (The Hindu))

Crop insurance woes (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
  • Prelims level : Crop insurance
  • Mains level : Role of PMFBY 

Context

  • First time since its inception in February 2016, the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) faces the prospect of claims far exceeding the premiums collected. 
  • Even as the extent of crop damage remains uncertain on the whole, reports of crop loss in Maharashtra range from 54 lakh hectares, acknowledged officially, to 90 lakh hectares, out of the 140 lakh hectares of cultivated area in the State. 
  • Heavy rain also impacted Gujarat, Telangana, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, ravaging maize, pulses, paddy, cotton, soyabean, jowar, bajra, groundnut, sugarcane and horticulture crops.

Cautions over PMFBY: 

  • In Maharashtra, farmers have protested paltry compensation for their losses, amidst a growing perception that the PMFBY is tilted towards insurance players.
  • It has been reported that four major private insurance players have not bid for the PMFBY this year, citing an unviable business model. 
  • Over the last three years of PMFBY, insurance companies have collected more by way of premiums than they have disbursed through claims. 
  • There is nothing wrong with this, if the claims themselves are low. 
  • However, if the compensation, yield estimates and premiums have been miscalculated, it is a serious issue. 
  • The industry has complained of issues in dealing with the local bureaucracy and political machinery. Overall, a host of implementation issues need to be fixed.

Role of PMFBY:

  • The PMFBY was meant to enhance risk cover for farmers. In 2018-19, 5.64 crore farmers enrolled under the scheme, covering a gross cropped area of 30 per cent. 
  • The challenge ahead is to ensure that premiums, assessments of loss and payment of compensation work satisfactorily and transparently for all stakeholders. 
  • Farmers must be aware of how their premiums are worked out, and their losses calculated. For instance, some farmers in Maharashtra are of the view that the average yield of a region, against which the actual yield is compared and the loss ascertained, is underestimated. 
  • Insurance officials, however, contend that farmers at times act in collusion with State government officials in manipulating the results of crop cutting experiments (CCEs), meant to estimate actual yields; these CCEs, they argue, exaggerate the losses. 
  • It has earlier reported consistently high claims of damage in the case of groundnut in Gujarat, which were not borne out by mandi arrivals. 
  • These regions also fork out premiums as high as 50 per cent of the sum assured, against the nationwide norm of 18-20 per cent (with the States and the Centre bearing 98 per cent of the cost).

Way forward:

  • The IRDAI should look into irregularities in premium and compensation. 
  • Insurance firms should use their resources to conduct CCEs to their satisfaction. 
  • Crop insurance is a tricky business. Yet, it is indispensable for the future of agriculture.

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Prelims Questions:

Q.1) Which of the following are the objectives of Steel Scrap Recycling Policy?
1. To promote 6Rs principles of Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Recover, Redesign and Remanufacture through scientific handling, processing and disposal of all types of recyclable scraps including non-ferrous scraps, through authorized centers / facility.
2. To create a mechanism for treating waste streams and residues produced from dismantling and shredding facilities in compliance to Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 issued by MoEF and CC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.    1 only
B.    2 only
C.    Both
D.    None 

Answer: C

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) Describe the role of PMFBY to crop insurance sector. What are the reasons behind not participating private insurance players into the scheme? 

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 20 November 2019 (Can economics be of the people, for the people and by the people? (Mint))

Can economics be of the people, for the people and by the people? (Mint)

  • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
  • Prelims level: RCTs
  • Mains level:  Economic growth, development and responsibility 

Context:

  • Abhijeet Banerjee, Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer’s Nobel Prize for ‘randomised control trials’ or RCTs brought back fond memories of our Masters in Gokhale Institute of Politics and Economics. 
  • After the announcement of the Nobel Prize 2019, there was a lot of replugging of articles written by people who disagreed with the RCT and the results it produced. 
  • As the saying goes, if you put two economists in a room, you will get two opinions, unless one of them is Lord Keynes, in which case you would get three opinions. 

Example:

  • Privatisation of hospitals could require a broader analysis in the context of the implementation of Ayushman Bharat, but providing vegetarian or non-vegetarian food to students is more likely to be area-specific – small and manageable problems, as they are called.

Idea of Nyay programme:

  • In that context, Banerjee’s role in ideating the Nyay programme – giving 72,000 a year to the poorest (Rs 6,000 a month) – was a prominent election plank for the Congress. 
  • All and sundry criticised that it will mean higher taxes for corporates and high networth individuals. 
  • Well, the latter has already happened, and the corporate sector got relief only after the economic growth rate started faltering.

Case study:

  • Telangana Chief Minister K Chandrashekhar Rao’s Rythu Bandhu scheme, which provides Rs 5,000 per acre per season has been a huge success. 
  • It has boosted consumption, and the state is one of the top ones in goods and services tax collections and needs minor or no compensation from the centre. 
  • So, money at the hands of the people is working. And KCR is a winner, politically.

Way forward:

  • If Congress really wants to show to people that it was serious about Banerjee’s proposal on Nyay, it should implement it in the five states – Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh and Puducherry - in which it is in power. 
  • The resource is a question. But state government can raise money through bonds, and if consumption is revived, tax collections follow. It can also be targeted and done in phases.
  • This would strengthen the view that like democracy, economics can be of the people, for the people and by the people.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) Which of the following organisations has recently launched India’s first web repository documenting air quality studies done in the last 60 years?

A.     Centre for Science and Environment 
B.     Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune
C.     Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority
D.     None of the above.

Answer: D

Mains Questions:
Q.1) Can economics be of the people, for the people and by the people? 

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 20 November 2019 (Figure it out (Indian Express))

Figure it out (Indian Express)

  • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
  • Prelims level: Consumer expenditure
  • Mains level:  Reasons behind downfall of consumer expenditure 

Context:

  • The government’s decision to scrap the latest round of the consumption expenditure survey has dealt another blow to the independence of the Indian statistical system. 
  • The decision, which comes after it had initially suppressed the findings of the periodic labour force survey, lends further credence to the view that the current government is uncomfortable with data that is not in sync with its projected narrative. 

Reasons behind downfall in consumption expenditure:

  • The rationale for withdrawing the report, partly on grounds of divergence with national accounts data, is perplexing. 
  • This divergence is well known in academic circles and has been the subject of much debate. 
  • It is more probable that the results of the survey, carried out during a period when the economy was reeling from the effects of demonetisation and the shift to the goods and services tax, were unpalatable as they would have revealed the true extent of the shock to the system.

Highlights of the report:

  • The latest consumption expenditure survey shows that real household consumption fell by 3.7 per cent, to Rs 1,446 in 2017-18, from Rs 1,501 in 2011-12. 
  • As household expenditure accounts for a significant share of the economy, this data is at odds with official data which shows that the economy grew at 7.2 per cent in 2017-18. 
  • These surveys provide greater insight into the informal economy, these numbers, along with the unemployment data, suggest that the informal economy bore the brunt of both demonetisation and GST, which the high-frequency indicators, which largely capture the formal economy, were unable to reflect more accurately. 
  • The decision to reject this report has several implications. For one, it implies that there will not be an estimate of poverty for 2017-18. 
  • Now, after the last survey in 2011-12, it was widely expected that absolute poverty in India would have declined significantly. But the results of the survey, which show that rural consumption actually declined between 2011-12 and 2017-18, challenge this notion. 
  • As these surveys also form the basis of the estimation of inequality in India, and are used for adjusting the consumer price index as well as the GDP data, scrapping the survey means further delays in updating these key statistics.

Way forward:

  • In 2017-18 it could have announced plans to carry out another survey before parts of the report were published in the media, as was done in 2009-10. But, a more sober response would have been to release the data while acknowledging its limitations. 
  • Reliable and timely data form the bedrock of sound policy-making. 
  • Doubts over official data, as in the case of the controversy over the GDP figures, weaken the credibility of the entire statistical system. Suppressing data will only further erode it.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) Feni River is a trans-boundary river that originates in which of the following states?
A.     Assam
B.     Mizoram
C.     Nagaland
D.     Tripura

Answer: D
Mains Questions:

Q.1) How downfalling consumption expenditure weakens credibility of statistical system?

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 20 November 2019 (Light spots in the dark (Indian Express))

Light spots in the dark (Indian Express)

  • Mains Paper 3: Economy 
  • Prelims level: NSSO 
  • Mains level:  Pros and cons for inclusion or exclusion of subsidiary employment

Context:

  • Employment has been the subject of much argument over the past few years and it appears that it will continue to be so. 
  • To understand how employment patterns are changing over time, we used the comparable PLFS and NSSO data of surveys conducted in 2004-5, 2011-12 and 2017-18. And within that, we analysed the employment reported as per usual primary status.

The methodology:

  • Within the ambit of the NSS surveys, there are two methods of calculating employment and unemployment. 
  • The usual primary method and the usual primary subsidiary method. We use the former, some others use the latter. 
  • There is nothing extraordinary about what we do and what others do, except that our aggregate results differ. 
  • Note that only the aggregate results differ, the patterns don’t, because we primarily look at the underlying patterns that make up the whole, while others concentrate on the aggregate figures be they related to employment or the other side of the coin, unemployment.

What is the difference? 

  • To put it simply, the NSS and, later, the PLFS questionnaire ask each person whether they were employed and what was their primary and subsidiary work.
  • Those who report their usual primary status to be homemakers, students, retired or unable to work tend to be classified as out of the labour force. 
  • Now the interesting thing is that some people who classify their primary activity to be not in the labour force may also take up some employment for a limited amount of time (less than six months). 
  • This is subsidiary employment that is for only a minor part of the preceding year.

Should it be included in the total employment figures? 

  • It is time policy focused only on primary employment and discard the Planning Commission method of adding subsidiary work to total employment figures.
  • Note, in the table, while usual principal status figures show a rise of about 45 million (row one) that of subsidiary status shows a fall of about 94 million (row two).
  • Of this 94 million, about 65 million (row four) already have a principal status, so it’s not that they are out of a job.
  • That mostly leaves those not in the labour force with a subsidiary status denoting work, their numbers have fallen by about 27.7 million (row six) and were about 12.8 million in 2017-18 — falling steadily throughout the period.

What are the pros and cons for inclusion or exclusion of subsidiary employment?

  • Moreover, adding subsidiary status jobs with principal status jobs will necessarily yield wrong insights into how employment is changing in an economy marked by rapid technology changes. 
  • That primary employment is rising gives us much hope to build upon. 
  • Analysing its patterns, as mentioned, will provide insights into how to accelerate those changes that are creating greater opportunities. 
  • The fall in subsidiary employment has a different colour, it needs to be addressed separately.

What work is done under subsidiary status? 

  • The bulk of the work is for household enterprises and most of that is unpaid. 

If that is falling, why is it of policy interest? 

  • There is a very large literature in the country on disguised unemployment and unproductive and extremely small household enterprises. 
  • Employment marked by subsidiary status largely reflects that element. We, instead, focus on the larger problem of primary employment.
  • We find many such dark spots — less educated, self-employed, the agri-cropping sector, many manufacturing segments, less-educated women, and rural areas. 
  • But we also find many bright spots — middle school educated, graduates, many personal services, livestock sector, and agriculture services. 
  • There is a deep structural shift occurring in the Indian economy and a fascinating and rich picture is emerging as more data is accessible.

Conclusion:

  • We would be more keen on a wider discussion on these patterns because that will better help devise economic policies that can impact employment more. 
  • Whoever estimates the numbers, it is time we moved away from the larger sob-stories of falling/stagnating employment towards where the light and dark spots are and what they reveal about a rapidly changing economic structure.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) What is ‘CST-100 Starliner’, recently seen in news?

A. Unmanned safety test flight to ferry astronauts to and from the International Space Station (ISS).
B. New electric plane tested by SpaceX.
C. An anti-aircraft weapon system developed by U.S.A.
D. None of the above

Answer: A
Mains Questions:

Q.1) What are the pros and cons for inclusion or exclusion of subsidiary employment?
Q.2) What work is done under subsidiary status? If that is falling, why is it of policy interest? 

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 20 November 2019 (A greater ease of living (The Hindu))

A greater ease of living (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 2: Social Justice 
  • Prelims level: National Food Security Act
  • Mains level:  Poverty alleviation scheme in rural regions 

Context:

  • Rural poverty in India has been the subject of discussion in recent times. 
  • Low increase in prices of agricultural commodities and the slower increase in rural agricultural wages have been seen by some as signs of a crisis for the rural poor.
  • Many acknowledge the role of pro-poor public welfare programmes over the last five years. 
  • It have recorded sharp declines in chronic poverty as also multi-dimensional poverty between 2005-06 to 2015-16. 
  • Indicators like nutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, and assets determine multi-dimensional poverty. 
  • If that is the case, the performance between 2015-16 to now would be even more spectacular, considering the pro-poor public welfare thrust.

Understanding the context of the rural sector:

  • It is true that inflation rates have been very low, and inflation on agricultural produce even lower during the last five years. 
  • To availability of Rs 2 per kg wheat and Rs 3 per kg rice has become a reality across the country under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), which was under implementation only in 11 states five years ago. 
  • The public subsidy for the NFSA is as high as Rs 1.76 lakh crore every year. This means that 75 per cent rural households that get NFSA foodgrains are able to buy at much below the market price. 
  • In 2019-20, a subsidy of Rs 33.02 per kg for rice and Rs 23.06 per kg for wheat was being given through the NFSA. For a family of five, this would mean a total subsidy of Rs 825.50 per month. 
  • Even if it is 100 per cent wheat, a family of five gets a total monthly subsidy of Rs 576.50. This needs to be factored in when understanding the lower increases in agriculture wages.
  • Public welfare programmes: Programmes like rural housing, rural toilets, LPG connections under Ujjwala, electricity connections to households under Saubhagya, enrollment for bank account, accident and life insurance, have all happened on a larger scale. 
  • From 10-12 lakh houses a year, 40-50 lakh houses are now being constructed annually. About 1.54 crore rural homes were completed in 2014-19.
  • Pro-poor welfare programmes:  It involve households contributing from their side. This is quite large in the case of rural housing (NIPFP study, 2018) as even poor households make aspirational homes, pulling together all their savings/borrowings for it. 
  • Swachh Bharat Mission toilets, enrolment in Ujjwala, Saubhagya, or in accident and life insurance, also draws on incomes/savings. It is bound to affect demand for goods purchased by the poor, in the short run.
  • This has been the period when the allocation for rural development programmes has gone up considerably from Rs 50,162 crore in 2012-13 to Rs 1.18 lakh crore in 2019-20. Add to this the state shares, which have increased to 60:40 instead of 75:25 or 100 per cent (in the case of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana) from the central government for non-Himalayan states.
  • This has been the period when the 14th Finance Commission’s grants to gram panchayats have been released on an unprecedented scale. The annual releases are over three to four times the previous grants. 
  • Over Rs 2 lakh crore is to be released in five years, of which over Rs 1.44 lakh crore has already been provided and works done under it. Extra budgetary resources (EBRs) have also been mobilised for the housing programme.

Conclusion on data: 

  • These figures need to be understood in their full context before coming to a conclusion on rural poverty. 
  • Works under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) have continued to be in demand even though the wage rates fixed every year on the basis of the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) have grown modestly on account of the cheap price of foodgrains. 
  • In 2018-19, over 268 crore person days of work was carried out, the second-highest ever. 
  • In the three preceding years, the demand for work was about 235 crore person days every year.

Increase of financial resources:

  • The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM) programme under which over Rs 2,12,000 crore has been provided as loans in the last five years. 
  • NPA has come down from over 7 per cent in 2013-14 to barely 2.2 per cent in 2018-19, clearly establishing that DAY-NRLM SHG women borrow and return on time. 
  • Significant and diverse livelihoods have been generated through such loans leading to higher incomes, more productive assets, and larger number of village enterprises.
  • The improvement in rural road connectivity has also been a significant development of this period, leading to 97 per cent eligible and feasible habitations as per the 2001 Census getting all weather road connectivity.
  • Rural households do not migrate to urban areas for very low paid jobs as survival is possible with improved rural infrastructure, housing, etc in rural areas now more than before. 
  • This explains the continuously high demand for work under the MGNREGS. 
  • This period has also witnessed a significant increase in individual beneficiary schemes like farm ponds, dug wells, animal sheds, vermi-composting etc under the MGNREGS which have all gone into creating durable assets and providing opportunities for higher incomes. 
  • More than 18 lakh individual farm ponds, 10 lakh vermi-compost, 7 lakh animal sheds, etc have come up in this period. 
  • Over 15 million hectares of land has benefited from water conservation works.

Conclusion:

  • The larger labour force available for the MGNREGA also reflects the unwillingness of a rural household with better infrastructure to go in for a distress migration with very low incomes in urban areas. 
  • An unprecedented pace in improving the ease of living of very poor households through public welfare programmes reaching them through better identification through the Socio Economic Census (SECC 2011), IT/DBT, geo-tagging, improved financial management and governance reforms.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) The Minister for Shipping recently inaugurated the first ever ‘BIMSTEC Ports’ Conclave’ at which of the following places?
A.    Visakhapatnam
B.    Delhi
C.    Chennai
D.    Surat

Answer: A

Mains Questions:
Q.1) What are the key reasons behind the rural households do not migrate to urban areas?
 

THE GIST of Editorial for UPSC Exams : 20 November 2019 (Iran on the boil: on nationwide protests (The Hindu))

Iran on the boil: on nationwide protests (The Hindu)

  • Mains Paper 2: International 
  • Prelims level: Not much 
  • Mains level:  Iran oil crisis 

Context:

  • Nationwide protests that broke out over the weekend are the latest challenge to the Iranian regime that’s already struggling to fix a battered economy, hostile ties with the U.S. and waning influence in West Asia. 

Background:

  • The government’s decision to raise the price of rationed fuel. 
  • Thousands of people took to the streets, reminiscent of recent protests in Hong Kong, Chile, Lebanon and neighbouring Iraq. 
  • The protesters chanted slogans against the Islamic regime, carried “Death to Khamenei” posters, in a direct challenge to the country’s Supreme Leader Ali Khamenei, and burned down banks and stores. Security personnel reportedly unleashed violence on the protesters, while the government shut down the Internet. 
  • At least 12 people were killed, including security personnel, and some 1,000 protesters were arrested. 
  • Both President Hassan Rouhani and Ayatollah Khamenei, the real ruler of Iran, have condemned the protests, while the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps, the country’s top paramilitary force, has threatened to crack down on the demonstrations, raising the prospects of more violence.

Challenges ahead for Iran:

  • Iran still has one of the lowest fuel prices in the world. But the rise was enough for a people reeling under high inflation, joblessness and a collapsing economy to take to the streets. 
  • President Donald Trump’s decision last year to pull the U.S. out of the 2015 nuclear deal and reimpose sanctions has dealt a blow to Iran’s economy. Inflation has risen to 40%. 
  • A quarter of Iran’s youth are unemployed. And according to the IMF, the country’s economy is expected to contract by 9.5% this year, while the currency, the rial, has plunged to record lows against the dollar. 
  • It is now evident that the collapse of the nuclear deal has cost the Iranian economy dearly. 
  • The protests broke out at a time when Iran’s influence in Lebanon and Iraq is being challenged by protesters. 
  • In Iraq, protesters burned an Iranian consulate and turned their anger against Iran-trained militias. 
  • In Lebanon, where Iran-backed Hezbollah is a key pillar of the government, protesters demand the resignation of the entire political class. And now in Iran, the protesters challenge the regime itself.

Way ahead:

  • In recent years, Iran has seen many protests and labour agitations. And the regime’s response has always been typical. 
  • It branded the protesters as counter-revolutionaries and blamed foreign hands. 
  • The economic woes have weakened the delicate balance between the regime and its angry youth. The latest round of protests might die down. 
  • But Iran needs a lasting solution to address its revolting underbelly. 

Conclusion:

  • It can’t violently suppress the protesters forever and needs to get the nuclear deal back on track.

 

Online Coaching for UPSC PRE Exam

General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

 

Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the ‘India Internet 2019’, consider the following statements:
1. It was recently by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI).
2. Kerala’s Internet penetration rate is the second highest in the country. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B

Mains Questions:

Q.1) To struggling for Iran under the weight of U.S. sanctions, it needs to revive the nuclear deal. Comment.

(Answer Key) UPSC Engineering Services Pre Examination - 2019

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(Answer Key) UPSC Engineering Services Pre Examination - 2019

Exam Name: UPSC Engineering Services Pre Examination

Year: 2019

Subject:

  • General Studies & Engineering Aptitude
  • Civil Engineering Paper
  • Mechanical Engineering Paper
  • Electrical Engineering Paper
  • Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering 

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Assistant Director (Cost), Ministry of Finance

UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Assistant Director (Cost), Ministry of Finance

1. The verification of the correctness of cost accounts and of the adherence to the cost accounting plan is termed as:
(a) management audit.
(b) internal audit.
(c) cost audit.
(d) cost control.

2. If Project ‘X’ has a net present value (NPV) of ₹ 8,00,000 and Project ‘Y’ has a NPV of ₹ 12,00,000, what is the opportunity cost if Project ‘Y’ is selected?
(a) ₹ 8,00,000
(b) ₹ 12,00,000
(c) ₹ 20,00,000
(d) ₹ 10,00,000

3. In how many years cost of small assets purchased shall be written off as per the accounting policy?
(a) 5 years
(b) In the period in which they were purchased
(c) 7 years
(d) Full life of the asset

4. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of Responsibility Accounting?
(a) Breaking down of organizational goals into small goals
(b) Performance evaluation
(c) Prompt corrective action
(d) Transfer price management

5. Who among the following CANNOT be appointed as a Cost Auditor?
(a) A cost accountant as defined under Section 2(28) of the Companies Act, 2013
(b) A cost accountant who holds a valid certificate of practice under sub-Section (1) of Section (6) of Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959
(c) A firm of cost accountants
(d) Any graduate certified by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs

6. As per the Institute of Cost Accountants of India, which one of the following is a quality of a good internal auditor?
(a) Loyalty towards the Management
(b) Risk averter
(c) Right attitude
(d) Loyalty towards the shareholders 

7. Which one of the following is NOT a type of  cost audit?
(a) Cost audit to assist management
(b) Cost audit on behalf of trade association
(c) Cost audit on behalf of a customer
(d) Cost audit to assist an employee

8.Which one of the following is NOT a function of  a cost auditor?
(a) Examining inventory
(b) Examining stores issue procedure
(c) Physically verifying work-in-progress
(d) Preparing capital expenditure budget

9.A person is NOT eligible for appointment as a cost auditor if he has business relationship with:
1. the company.
2. a subsidiary of the company.
3. a holding company of the company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

10. Which of the following class / classes of company / companies shall be required to appoint an internal auditor or a firm of internal auditors?
1. Every listed company with net worth exceeding ₹ 50 crore
2. Every listed company
3. Every unlisted company with paid up share capital of ₹ 10 crore
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

11. Which of the following shall be absorbed in  material cost?
(a) Finance costs incurred in connection with the acquisition of materials
(b) Costs of spares which are specific to an item of equipment
(c) Losses due to evaporation before the material is received
(d) Penalty levied by transport 

12. “Manufacturing Activity” includes any act, process or method employed in relation to Cost Accounting (Records) Rules; except:
(a) harboring.
(b) docking.
(c) stripping.
(d) recording.

13. The term “Product” under Cost Accounting (Records) Rules includes:
1. tangible goods.
2. intangible goods.
3. idea.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. The cost records shall be maintained in accordance with the:
(a) Cost Accounting Principles and Cost Accounting Standards.
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
(c) Indian Accounting Standards.
(d) International Financial Reporting Standards.

15.Which one of the following is NOT included in the meaning of “Turnover” in relation to the Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules, 2014?
(a) Realization made from sales
(b) Realization made on account of service rendered
(c) Duties and taxes
(d) Turnover from job work

16. The Form CRA–1 requires cost records to be maintained under specified headings that do NOT include:
(a) utilities.
(b) overheads.
(c) quality control expenses.
(d) managerial remuneration.

17. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement of Cost Accounting (Records) Rules applicable to various industries in India?
(a) Records for by-products
(b) Computation of variances
(c) Statistical data
(d) Records for promotion 

18. The Cost Auditor should verify which one of the following areas of work-in-progress?
(a) Quantity shown in job-cards of uncompleted work
(b) Bin-card
(c) Stock level
(d) EOQ

19. Quality assurance includes:
(a) establishing the quality standards.
(b) establishing the production standards.
(c) avoiding defects.
(d) avoiding duplication.

20. Capital rationing  refers to:
(a) borrowings at a concessional rate.
(b) designing an optimal capital structure.
(c) a situation where the firm is constrained not to take up all the investment opportunities.
(d) a rational distribution of divisible profits.

21. Consider the following information:
Sales : ₹ 25,000
Fixed cost : ₹ 20,000
Variable cost : ₹ 15,000
How much the sales must be increased for the company to break even?
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 60,000

22. ‘Z’ Ltd. makes a single product which it sells for  ₹ 16 per unit. Fixed costs are ₹ 48,000 per month and the product has a contribution to sales ratio of 30%. In a month when actual sales were ₹ 2,24,000, ‘Z’ Ltd’s margin of safety, in units was:
(a) 2000
(b) 4000
(c) 10000
(d) 14000

23. If at breakeven point, fixed cost per unit amounts to ₹8, then what will be the amount of profits when actual sales are 1000 units in excess of break even sales and variable cost per unit amounts to  ₹ 7?
(a) ₹ 8,000
(b) ₹ 7,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) Cannot be determined 

24. What is the amount of profit when margin of safety is 40%, breakeven sales ₹ 1,20,000 and fixed cost ₹ 48,000?
(a) ₹ 48,000
(b) ₹ 19,200
(c) ₹ 32,000
(d) Cannot be determined

25. How can the profit- volume ratio be improved?
1. Increasing the sales volume
2. Decreasing the variable cost per unit
3. Decreasing the total fixed cost
4. Increasing selling price per unit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

26. The profit volume ratio of ‘X’ Ltd. is 50% and the margin of safety is 40%. Which one of the following is the net profit if sales volume is ₹ 2,50,000?
(a) ₹ 1,25,000
(b) ₹ 1,00,000
(c) ₹ 75,000
(d) ₹ 50,000

27. Profit volume ratio will fall if:
1. selling price per unit falls
2. variable cost per unit falls
3. fixed cost rises
4. variable cost per unit rises
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 

28. Consider the following statements:
1. Variable cost per unit is fixed
2. Fixed cost per unit is variable
3. Total fixed cost varies with the length of the period of production
4. Fixed cost remains unchanged for change in the volume of production
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

29. Material cost and factory cost are ₹ 2,42,000 and ₹ 4,10,000 respectively. If factory overheads are absorbed at 40% on direct wages, then the amount of factory overheads absorbed are:
(a) ₹ 80,000
(b) ₹ 98,000
(c) ₹ 72,000
(d) ₹ 48,000

30. If BEP is ₹ 35,00,000 at 70% level of sales and the profit is ₹ 5,25,000 at 100% level of sales, what is the P/V ratio?
(a) 40%
(b) 45%
(c) 35%
(d) 30%

31. Margin of safety is affected if:
1. P/V ratio changes
2. Fixed cost changes
3. Volume of sales changes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

32. 2200 units of a product are required to be sold to earn a profit of ₹ 1,36,000 in a monopoly market. The contribution is 2/3 of its variable cost and the fixed cost for the period is ₹ 84,000. Find the selling price from the options given below:
(a) ₹ 300
(b) ₹ 250
(c) ₹ 200
(d) ₹ 150 

33.Per unit material costs, labour costs and variable overheads are ₹ 75, ₹ 50, ₹ 25 respectively. The fixed overheads for 40000 units are budgeted at ₹ 12,00,000. If required rate of return is 25% on transfer price, then which one of the following is the value of transfer price per unit?
(a) ₹ 200
(b) ₹ 225
(c) ₹ 240
(d) ₹ 180

34. A company has 500 units of obsolete items which are carried in material inventory at the original purchase price of ₹ 16,000. Their scrap value is only ₹ 4,000. If these items are reworked at a cost of ₹ 5,000 and can be sold for ₹ 12,000, which one of the following is the value of the relevant cost of selling these items?
(a) ₹ 16,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 5,000
(d) ₹ 9,000

35. A manufacturing firm has produced 10000 units of a standard product by incurring the ollowing expenses:
Material costs : ₹ 80,000
Labour costs : ₹ 40,000
Production overhead : ₹ 30,000
Office overhead : 20% of factory cost
Estimated selling and distribution overhead is ₹ 4 per unit. If the firm has no inventory at the beginning of the period and expects to maintain 20% of output as closing inventory, at what price per unit the product should be sold to earn a profit of 20% on sales?
(a) ₹ 27.50
(b) ₹ 23.00
(c) ₹ 26.40
(d) ₹ 28.75

36. Pricing of a product shall necessarily be guided by the philosophy that it is able to help the firm:
(a) recover its cost and generate a fair and reasonable return in the long run.
(b) recover its cost only.
(c) generate a fair return in the long run only.
(d) to be competitive. 

37. ‘X’ Ltd. prices its product at full cost plus 20%.  The variable cost per unit is ₹ 12 and total fixed cost amounts to ₹ 2,40,000. The demand levels at different selling prices are as follows:
Price (₹) Demand (Unit)
17 100000
18 80000
19 60000
What should be the selling price of the product?
(a) ₹ 17
(b) ₹ 18
(c) ₹ 19
(d) ₹ 20

38. When production facility is sufficient but demand of products is the limiting factor, which one of the following budgets should be prepared first?
(a) Production budget
(b) Purchase budget
(c) Sales budget
(d) Cash budget

39. ‘B’ Ltd. is currently preparing cash budget for the year 2019. An extract from its sales budget for the same year shows the following sales values:
(₹ ’000)
March 600
April 700
May 800
June 500
40% of its sales are expected to be for cash. Of its credit sales, 80% are expected to be realised in the next month and the balance in the second month. The value of sales receipts to be shown in cash budget for May 2019 is (in ₹ ’000):
(a) 660
(b) 728
(c) 740
(d) 860

40. A method of budgeting whereby all activities  are revaluated each time a budget is set is called:
(a) appropriation budgeting.
(b) master budget.
(c) programme budgeting.
(d) zero base budgeting. 

41. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of a Budget Committee?
(a) To provide all historical data to the functional heads
(b) Preparation and development of Departmental Budget
(c) Providing central guidelines
(d) Approving the functional budgets after making the required changes

42. Master budget is prepared:
(a) after preparation of all the functional budgets.
(b) after preparation of flexible budgets.
(c) before preparation of the cash budget.
(d) at the beginning of all other budgets.

43. The budget cost for repairs and maintenance at 15000 units and 18000 units levels are ₹ 2,50,000 and ₹ 2,95,000 respectively. If 20000 units are to be produced, how much should be budgeted for repairs and maintenance?
(a) ₹ 3,15,000
(b) ₹ 3,10,000
(c) ₹ 3,25,000
(d) ₹ 3,35,000

44. Zero-base budgeting has been developed on the premises that:
(a) the amount of current budgetary allocation should always be above the previous allocation.
(b) each manager justifies his budgetary requests.
(c) the controlling authority making the budgetary allocation enjoys the privilege of making a higher allocation than what the manager has asked for.
(d) resources are unlimited.

45. If the current ratio is 2.5 and net working capital is ₹ 45,000 what is the value of current assets?
(a) ₹ 75,000
(b) ₹ 1,12,500
(c) ₹ 80,000
(d) ₹ 72,000

46.  ‘XYZ’ Limited has current PBIT of ₹ 16,80,000 on the total assets of ₹ 84,00,000. The company has decided to increase assets by ₹ 20,00,000, which is expected to increase the operating profit before depreciation by ₹ 5,52,000. There will be a net increase in depreciation by ₹ 3,60,000. The resultant ROI will be:
(a) 20%
(b) 18%
(c) 21.46%
(d) 22% 

47. The current assets and working capital of a firm are ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 50,000 respectively. How much can the firm borrow on a short-term basis to maintain its current ratio of 1.50?
(a) ₹ 35,000
(b) ₹ 50,000
(c) ₹ 70,000
(d) ₹ 1,00,000

48. Trend Percentage Analysis (TPA) helps comparing the performance of a company:
(a) with other companies of the same industry.
(b) with other industries.
(c) over a period of time for the same company.
(d) to estimate the future performance of the company only.

49. As per Du Pont analysis: a/b = a/c × c/ b where,
(a) a = Net Profit, b = Sales and c = Total Assets
(b) a = Total Assets, b = Sales and c = Net Profit
(c) a = Sales, b = Net Profit and c = Total Assets
(d) a = Net Profit, b = Total Assets and c = Sales

50. As per extended Du  Pont analysis:
ROE = NPM × TATR × x/y
Where, ROE = Return on Equity
NPM = Net Profit Margin
TATR = Total Asset Turnover Ratio
Here, x/y represents:
(a) Debt / Equity
(b) Total Assets / Sales
(c) Total Assets / Equity
(d) Equity / Debt

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Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

51. Budgeted annual sales of a firm is ₹ 80,00,000 and 25% of the sales are on cash basis. If average amount of debtors of the firm is ₹ 10,00,000, find the average collection period of the firm:
(a) 2.4 months
(b) 2 months
(c) 1 month
(d) 1.5 months  

52. A higher price-earnings ratio indicates:
(a) higher competition in the line of business.
(b) better productivity of the firm.
(c) improved capital structure of the firm.
(d) higher expected future income of the firm compared to its current income.

53. If Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) = 4/3, which one of the following will be the interest coverage ratio?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 3/4
(d) 1.33

54. The following data applies to a firm:
Interest charges : ₹ 1,50,000
Loan repayment instalment : ₹ 2,00,000
Depreciation : ₹ 1,00,000
Profit after tax : ₹ 4,50,000
What is the debt service coverage ratio of the firm?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1.71
(d) 2

55. ‘ABC’ Construction Company undertook a contract for ₹ 5,00,000 on 1st January, 2018. On 31st December, 2018 profit transferred to Costing Profit and Loss Account was ₹ 96,000. Cost of work uncertified was ₹ 1,20,000 and cash received (being 80% of work certified) was ₹ 2,50,000. What is the notional profit?
(a) ₹ 1,64,000
(b) ₹ 1,50,000
(c) ₹ 1,44,000
(d) ₹ 1,80,000

56. Which one of the following is NOT an example of multiple or composite costing?
(a) Bicycle
(b) Toy manufacturing
(c) Automobile industry
(d) Textile industry

57. Which one of the following items of cost is NOT excluded from cost records?
(a) Financial charges or losses
(b) Financial income or gains
(c) Implicit charges
(d) Profit appropriations 

58. Consider the following information:
Market demand per month : 500 units
Setting-up cost per batch : ₹ 120
Cost of manufacture per unit : ₹ 20
Rate of interest : 10% p.a.
Which one of the following is the Economic Batch Quantity (EBQ)?
(a) 600 units
(b) 848.53 units
(c) 268.33 units
(d) 1200 units

59. Cost, which requires their occurrence in cash,  is known as:
(a) explicit cost.
(b) opportunity cost.
(c) unavoidable cost.
(d) differential cost.

60. Under net realisable value method of apportionment of joint costs, the sales value of joint products is reduced by which of the following?
1. Estimated profit margin
2. Selling and distribution expense
3. Post-split-off costs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

61. In a production process, normal loss is 10%  of input and abnormal gain amounting to 800 units. If final output of the process is 18800 units then the actual loss in process will be:
(a) 1200 units
(b) 1800 units
(c) 2000 units
(d) 1880 units

62. ‘SR’ Limited has agreed to supply 40000 units of an instrument next year on regular basis to ‘RS’ Limited. It is estimated that inventory holding cost per instrument per month is ₹ 0.20 and set-up cost per run of instrument manufacturing is ₹ 480. Assuming that ‘SR’ Limited is manufacturing this instrument solely for ‘RS’ Limited, what should be its optimum run-size?
(a) 4000 units
(b) 4200 units
(c) 13857 units
(d) 12400 units
 

63. While calculating profits from an incomplete contract, 1/3rd of the notional profit is transferred to the year’s Profit and Loss Account when the work completed is:
(a) less than 25%.
(b) 25% and above but less than 50%.
(c) 50% and above.
(d) closer to 100%.

64. During a month, 10000 units were introduced into Process I. Units processed and transferred to Process II were 6000 units. 3400 units were incomplete at the end of the month. Normal loss is 10% of input. There was no opening work-in-progress. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Normal loss 1000 units and abnormal loss 3000 units
(b) Normal loss 1000 units and abnormal gain 600 units
(c) Normal loss 600 units and abnormal gain 400 units
(d) Normal loss 1000 units and abnormal gain 400 units

65. A firm’s Profit Volume ratio is 50% and fixed cost is ₹ 10,00,000. To earn a profit of ₹ 10,00,000 the firm should sell goods worth:
(a) ₹ 40,00,000
(b) ₹ 20,00,000
(c) ₹ 30,00,000
(d) ₹ 50,00,000

66. Margin of safety is determined by using:
(a) Profit / Profit Volume ratio.
(b) Contribution – Fixed cost.
(c) BEP Sales + Actual sales.
(d) Sales × Profit Volume ratio.

67. The amount by which the aggregate costs are changed for the change of one unit of volume is termed as:
(a) Fixed cost.
(b) Nominal cost.
(c) Marginal cost.
(d) Total cost. 

68. Consider the following information:
Sales per unit : ₹ 100
Variable cost : 40%
Units sold : 800
Profit : ₹ 28,000
Which one of the following is the value of fixed cost?
(a) ₹ 80,000
(b) ₹ 2,80,000
(c) ₹ 32,000
(d) ₹ 20,000

69. A firm produced and sold 10000 units in a month and suffered a loss of ₹ 10,000. In the next month, the firm produced and sold 20000 units and made a profit of ₹ 10,000. What is the contribution per unit if variable cost per unit is ₹ 5?
(a) ₹ 2
(b) ₹ 3
(c) ₹ 4
(d) ₹ 5

70.  Consider the following information:
Sales : ₹ 50,000
Fixed cost : ₹ 20,000
Break Even Point : ₹ 40,000
Which one of the following is the Contribution / Sales ratio?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.2

71.  A firm has monthly fixed cost of ₹  30,000 and earns ₹ 40,000 profits in a month at a sale of ₹ 3,50,000. The firm’s break even sales and margin of safety respectively are:
(a) ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹ 1,50,000
(b) ₹ 2,50,000 and ₹ 1,00,000
(c) ₹ 1,50,000 and ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 1,50,000 and ₹ 2,50,000

72. A firm incurs a loss of ₹ 20,000 on a monthly sale of ₹ 1,00,000. In the next month it plans to increase its sales by 50% to earn a profit of ₹ 10,000. What is the break-even sales?
(a) ₹ 1,40,000
(b) ₹ 1,33,333
(c) ₹ 1,20,000
(d) ₹ 1,10,000 

73. A firm has generated sales of ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹  3,00,000 over the last two years, with a corresponding profit of ₹ 40,000 and ₹ 70,000. What is the annual fixed cost?
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 20,000
(c) ₹ 40,000
(d) ₹ 50,000

74. Product X has a standard cost of ₹ 25, ₹ 6 of which relates to direct materials. Budgeted production for the month was 1600 units. During the month, 1500 units of X were produced and materials worth ₹ 9,000 were purchased. There was no opening stock of materials but closing stock, which was valued at standard cost, amounted to ₹ 1,000. What is the total variance for materials?
(a) ₹ 500 (F)
(b) ₹ 500 (A)
(c) ₹ 1000 (F)
(d) ₹ 1000 (A)

75. A company budgets for fixed overheads of ₹  24,000 and production of 4800 units. Actual production is 4200 units and the fixed overhead incurred is ₹ 20,000. What is the fixed volume variance?
(a) ₹ 3,000 (A)
(b) ₹ 3,000 (F)
(c) ₹ 1,000 (A)
(d) ₹ 2,000 (F)

76. NPV and IRR techniques of capital budgeting can give contradictory  results in the following situations:
1. Mutually exclusive projects having different scale of investment
2. When projects have conventional cash flows
3. Mutually exclusive projects having unequal lives
4. When projects are of independent nature
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

77. Standard cost of materials for an output of 4800 units is ₹ 1,20,000 and the actual output from the same quantities of the materials is 4550 units. What will be the material usage variance if material mix variance is ₹ 2,750 (A)?
(a) ₹ 3,500,(A)
(b) ₹ 6,250 (A)
(c) ₹ 9,000 (A)
(d) ₹ 9,000 (F) 

78. The standard quantity required to produce one ton of output is 60 units at a standard rate of ₹ 10 per unit. During a given period, the firm has produced 50 tons of output by consuming 2950 units at a total cost of ₹ 30,975. What is the material cost variance of the firm?
(a) ₹ 1,475 (A)
(b) ₹ 975 (F)
(c) ₹ 975 (A)
(d) ₹ 1,475 (F)

79. SOAP in ERP stands for:
(a) Standard Option Access Protocol
(b) Standard Operating Access Protocol
(c) Simple Object Access Protocol
(d) Single Object Access Protocol

80. The Cost Accounting Standard Board, in order to bring uniformity and consistency in the method of determining Research and Development Cost, has issued detailed guidelines through Cost Accounting Standard known as:
(a) CAS 15
(b) CAS 16
(c) CAS 11
(d) CAS 18

81. Identify the document against which materials can be issued by the stores department?
(a) Stores requisition
(b) Material slip
(c) Stores slip
(d) Bin card

82. A quantitative record of the all receipts, issues and balance of material after  each receipt or issue is found in:
(a) Accounts ledger
(b) Bin card
(c) Re-order level
(d) Re-order quantity

83. Cost of material consumed is always equal to:
(a) Opening stock of raw materials + Purchases – Closing stock of raw materials
(b) Opening stock of raw materials + Purchases returns – Closing stock of raw materials
(c) Opening stock of raw materials + Closing stock of raw materials – Returns
(d) Opening stock of raw materials – Closing stock of raw materials + Returns 

84. Danger level of inventory is obtained by calculating:
(a) average consumption × maximum re-order period for emergency purchases.
(b) average consumption × re-order level + re-order quantity.
(c) re-order level + re-order quantity + EOQ.
(d) EOQ + average consumption × number of safety days.

85. Average stock level is always equal to:
(a) Minimum stock level + ½ re-order quantity
(b) Re-order quantity + ½ re-order level
(c) EOQ + maximum stock level/2
(d) EOQ + buffer stock + re-order level

86. Carrying cost of material does​​​​​​​ NOT include:
(a) cost of storage space.
(b) cost of bins and racks.
(c) cost of obsolescence.
(d) cost of defective materials replacement.

87. Consider the following information:
1. Minimum, average and maximum consumption per week = 400 kg, 600 kg and 750 kg
2. Minimum, average and maximum lead time = 3 weeks, 5 weeks and 7 weeks
Which one of the following is the re-order level?
(a) 5000 kg
(b) 6800 kg
(c) 5250 kg
(d) 6000 kg

88. What is just in time purchasing?
(a) Purchase when required only
(b) Purchase before production
(c) Purchased just to store
(d) Purchase to display

89. During a month, the opening stock of raw materials were ₹ 4,00,000. Purchases made were ₹ 7,50,000. Payment made for the same was ₹ 6,00,000 and purchases returns were ₹ 50,000. Closing stock is nil. What is the value of materials consumed?
(a) ₹ 11,00,000
(b) ₹ 6,00,000
(c) ₹ 5,50,000
(d) ₹ 1,50,000 

90.  Why weighted average method of pricing material issues is​​​​​​​ considered best?
1. Cost comparison of different jobs can be easily made
2. Production is charged at the most recent price
3. It helps in smoothing out fluctuations in prices
4. Product is charged at the old price
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

91. Why is a material requisition raised?
(a) To intimate the supplier the quantity and quality of material required
(b) When stock of material has reached re-order level
(c) When material contained therein is required to be issued from stores department
(d) To request the purchase department for purchasing the material contained therein

92. A perpetual inventory system may  be defined as:
(a) checking of physical stock against the bin card information on continuous basis.
(b) checking of stock on the same date in each accounting period.
(c) maintenance of bin cards and store-ledger cards on continuous basis.
(d) ensuring that stock taking procedures conform to a previously agreed procedure.

93. The value of the rupee received at the end of each year for three years discounted at 10% per annum will be:
(a) more than ₹ 3.00.
(b) ₹ 3.00.
(c) sum of the discounted value of ₹ 1.00 at the end of each year.
(d) ₹ 3.00 plus interest.

94. In a make or buy decision the management is undecided between make and buy. When the monthly requirement of the component is 10000 units the firm should opt for:
(a) make if requirement is 12000 units.
(b) make if requirement is 8000 units.
(c) buy if requirement is 12000 units.
(d) buy for any level of requirement in units. 

95. Which one of the following statements regarding Decision Rule of MIRR is correct?
(a) If Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) ≥ Required rate of Return: Accept the proposal
(b) If Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) ≤ Required rate of Return: Accept the proposal
(c) If modified Internal rate of Return (MIRR) < Required Rate of Return: Accept the proposal
(d) If Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) > Required Rate of Return: Reject the proposal

96. Which one of the following costs does NOT involve any cash outlay and are computed and considered only for the purpose of decision-making?
(a) Imputed costs
(b) Out-of-pocket costs
(c) Sunk costs
(d) Avoidable costs

97. P/V ratio is used as a criterion for deciding product mix when:
(a) there is scarcity of material.
(b) there is scarcity of labour.
(c) sales potential in terms of units are limited.
(d) sales potential in terms of value is limited.

98. Which one of the following helps in calculating the ‘shut down point’?
(a) Standard costing
(b) Marginal costing
(c) Opportunity costing
(d) Replacement costing

99. When increase in cost results because of increase the level of activity, the differential cost is known as:
(a) net relevant cost.
(b) decremental cost.
(c) incremental cost.
(d) conversion cost.

100. Contribution per unit is used as a criterion for assessing profitability of products when:
(a) sales potential in terms of value is limited.
(b) material is in short supply.
(c) there is scarcity of labour.
(d) sales potential in terms of units are limited. 

101. In determining transfer price, which one of the following is NOT considered?
(a) Centralization of decision
(b) Goal congruence
(c) High level of decentralization
(d) Sub-unit autonomy

102. According to CAS–24 which one of the following is NOT an item of other operating brevenue?
(a) Sale of By-products
(b)Export incentives received from Government
(c) Profit on sale of property
(d)Sale of manufacturing scrap

103. IRR is one of the sophisticated techniques of capital budgeting, because it:
(a) considers time value of money with a rate.
(b) ignores present value of money.
(c) is calculated at an assumed cost of capital.
(d) is calculated without an assumed cost of capital.

104. Bailout Payback time of a capital project is reached, when its cumulative cash receipts plus it’s salvage value at the end equal its:
(a) initial investment.
(b) rate of return expected.
(c) nominal return.
(d) discount rate.

105. If the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is more than the required rate of return, then the project is:
(a) rejected
(b) evaluated
(c) considered for payback period
(d) accepted

106. A firm has to impose restrictions on the selection of capital projects so as to maximize the use of available resources. This is known as:
(a) capital rationing
(b) capital budgeting
(c) capital expenditure
(d) revenue expenditure 

107. While computing Net Cash Flow, for determining Net Present Value (NPV), the value of depreciation charged during the year is added back:
(a) after deducting taxes.
(b) before deducting taxes.
(c) after deducting salvage value.
(d) before adding scrap value

108. According to CAS–7, which one of the following is NOT included in employee cost?
(a) Payment made to employees engaged by employer on contract basis
(b) Employees cost incurred in kind
(c) Compensation paid to employees for the past service on account of any dispute / Court order
(d) Employees cost incurred on retirement / separation benefits

109. Standard overhead for actual output is called as:
(a) Standard overhead
(b) Budgeted overhead
(c) Recovered overhead
(d) Actual overhead

110. The process of planning expenditure that will influence the operation of a firm over a number of years is called:
(a) investment.
(b) capital budgeting.
(c) dividend valuation.
(d) net present valuation.

111. If expected sales (based on competitor’s price)  are ₹ 1,00,000; required rate of return on cost of sale is 25%; present feasible cost of sales is ₹ 90,000; what should be the cost reduction target for this level?
(a) ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 20,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) ₹ 5,000

112. Customer relationship management refers to:
(a) network of facilities and distribution options that performs the function of procurement of materials, transformation of these materials into intermediate and finished products and the distribution of these finished products to customer.
(b) fast analysis of shared multidimensional information system.
(c) computer based tool for mapping and analysing things that exist and events that happen on earth.
(d) methods and technologies used by companies to manage their relationship with clients. 

113.  What is Data mining?
(a) Data stored for business analysis can most effectively be accessed by separating it from the data in the operational systems
(b) The process of identifying valid, potentially useful and ultimately comprehensible knowledge from data bases to make crucial business decisions
(c) The tools and systems that play a key role in the strategic planning process of the corporation
(d) The practice of interactive methodical exploration of an organizations data with emphasis on statistical analysis

114. Which one of the following is NOT a hidden cost of implementation of ERP?
(a) Brain drain
(b) Data conversion
(c) Training of employees
(d) Core software license fee

115. Which one of the following is a technological risk of ERP?
(a) Programme management and execution
(b) Business process re-engineering
(c) Stage transition
(d) Software functionality

116. The slack in PERT is computed by comparing:
(a) earliest start time with latest start time for any activity.
(b) earliest start time with earliest finish time.
(c) latest start time with latest finish time.
(d) latest start time with expected time.

117. In PERT/CPM the latest start time and latest finish time for each activity is computed using:
(a) forward pass.
(b) backward pass.
(c) critical path.
(d) probabilistic time. 

118. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of program evaluation and review technique (PERT)?
(a) Crashing a project
(b) Event oriented technique
(c) Non-repetitive nature
(d) Used probabilistic time estimation 

119. Which one of the following Cost Accounting  Standard is related to “Pollution Control Costs”?
(a) CAS–3
(b) CAS–13
(c) CAS–14
(d) CAS–19

120.  Which one of the following is NOT a motivating factor for downsizing?
(a) Reducing working hours
(b) Reduce costs
(c) Right size resources relative to market demand
(d) Release the least-productive resources 

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1. Consider the following statements regarding air traffic controllers:
1. The ground controllers work on the runway and are responsible for the separation of aircraft and vehicles operations on the ramp, taxi ways.
2. The local controller is primarily responsible for the separation of aircraft operating within the airport traffic area and those landing on any of the active runways.
3. One of the duties of local controllers is to control taxiways lighting systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

2. A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction opposite to landing is called
(A) Downwind
(B) Upwind
(C) Crosswind
(D) Base

3. Consider the following statements regarding  controller duties in air route traffic control centre:
1. Flight data controller is responsible for assisting the other controllers, who actually separate the aircraft.
2. Non Radar controller is responsible to assist the radar controller when separating aircraft appears on the radar display.
3. Radar controller is responsible to separate participating aircraft using a radar-derived display.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements regarding aircraft entry requirements:
1. ATC clearance is required for both IFR and VFR for class E airspace category.
2. ATC clearance is required for both IFR and VFR for class A airspace category.
3. ATC clearance is required for both IFR and VFR for class B airspace category.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 

5. Consider the following statements:
An aircraft desiring to enter the other airspace must:
1. be equipped with a two-way radio and obtain an ATC clearance.
2. file a flight plan.
3. be equipped with an altitude reporting transponder.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only

6. At selected controlled airports where appropriate data have been published, air traffic controllers may use an expanded procedure whereby they may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway,  an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on runway. This operation is called 
(A) Land and hold short operation
(B) Available landing distance
(C) Airport facility directory
(D) Short approach

7. A touch and go clearance permits an aircraft
(A) to land on runway but does not actually make contact with runway surface.
(B) to perform a landing, touch and go, stop and go, or low approach
(C) to land on runway but to take off again before actually coming to a stop
(D) to make a full stop landing

8. Consider the following statements regarding ATS airspace in India:
1. Designated airspace within controlled airspace is classified as class A.
2. Designated airspace within air traffic service route segment outside controlled airspace is classified as class F.
3. Airspace outside air traffic service route segment and outside controlled airspace is classified as class G.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

9. Consider the following statements:
The objectives of air traffic services shall be to:
1. prevent collision between aircraft.
2. expedite and maintain on orderly flow of air traffic.
3. notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

10. Consider the following statements regarding aviation:
1. ARTCC stands for air route traffic control centers.
2. TRACON stands for terminal radar approach control.
3. MARSA stands for military authority assumes responsibility for separation of aircraft.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

11. If a radar system with an unambiguous range of 100 Km, and a bandwidth of 0.5 MHz, what is the required Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF)?
(A) 1100 Hz
(B) 1500 Hz
(C) 1300 Hz
(D) 1600 Hz

12. Which one of the following is a computer system used as a backup for airport surveillance radar?
(A) Radar data acquisition system
(B) Beacon data acquisition system
(C) Center data processing system
(D) Center radar ARTS presentation

13. Consider the following statements regarding Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR):
1. ASR-9 is short range radar that detects weather and aircraft within a radius of 60 nautical miles.
2. ASR-11 is used at aircraft to monitor closely spaced parallel runways.
3. ASR-9 is known as dual channel radar.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only 

14. Consider the following statements regarding Enhanced Back-Up Surveillance (EBUS):
1. EBUS system replaced the direct access radar channel (DARC) system, which was used as the backup system at domestic ARTCCs.
2. EBUS has all the functionality of the primary radar system including automated flight data processing capability.
3. EBUS uses components from the microprocessor en route automated radar tracking system (MEARTS) application to provide backup radar data processing services.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only

15. Consider the following statements regarding Data Acquisition Subsystem (DAS):
1. It is a peripheral device that receives raw radar data from the primary surveillance radar system.
2. It is a device that receives beacon-derived information from the secondary surveillance system.
3. It is composed of two different subsystems: radar data acquisition system and beacon data acquisition system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
16. Consider the following statements regarding Sensitivity Time Control (STC):
1. It is an electronic circuit that automatically controls the receiver’s sensitivity to equalize the display intensity of both nearby and distant targets.
2. It reduces the receiver’s sensitivity during the initial segment of the listening cycle, when strong echoes from nearby targets are received.
3. It reduces the receiver’s sensitivity during the final segment of the listening cycles, when strong echoes from nearby targets are received.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3 

17. Consider the following statements regarding Moving Target Detection (MTD):
1. MTD attempts to mitigate blind speed, tangential course, and precipitation display problem in Moving Target Indicator based radar systems.
2. During routine operation of ASR-11, reflected radar energy is processed by MTD system.
3. During routine operation of digital radar, the energy processed by MTD system is stored into computer memory known as random-access memory (RAM).
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

18. Consider the following statements regarding Moving Target Indicator (MTI):
1. It is an electronic circuit used for reducing the ground clutter from the radar screen.
2. It uses phase-change filtering techniques to eliminate any objects that are actually moving.
3. It uses phase-change filtering techniques to eliminate any objects that are not actually moving.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only

19. Consider the following statements regarding User Request Evaluation Tool (URET):
1. It displays electronic flight information in both a graphical and a tabular display.
2. It operates in the background, monitoring aircraft progress and correlating it with stored flight plan information.
3. When identified, it provides alerts to controllers up to 30 minutes in advance of the potential conflict.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only 

20. Consider the following statements  regarding Traffic Information Service (TIS):
1. It was designed to provide a lower cost service using existing ground-based infrastructure.
2. It is a ground-based service available to all aircraft equipped with mode-S transponders.
3. It provides escape maneuvering.
4. It uses existing mode-S data links to transmit aircraft position information to the pilot for display in the cockpit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4

21. Which one of the following types of indications is displayed in a signal area owing to the bad state of the manoeuvring area, or for any other reason?
(A) A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals
(B) A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal
(C) A horizontal yellow square panel with red diagonals
(D) A horizontal yellow square panel with one red diagonal

22. Which one of the following types of routes is designed for channeling the flow of traffic?
(A) Air traffic control route
(B) Air traffic service route
(C) Air clearance service route
(D) Air traffic clearance service route

23. Consider the following statements regarding Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems (RPAS):
1. RPAS engaged in international air navigation can be operated without appropriate authorization from the state from which the take-off of the Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA) is made.
2. RPA shall not be operated over the high seas without prior coordination with the appropriate Airport Traffic Services (ATS) authority.
3. RPAS shall meet the performance and equipment carriage requirements for the specific airspace in which the flight is to operate. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only 

24. Consider the following statements regarding runway:
1. Number of longitudinal strips of uniform dimensions required for 23 m runway is 6.
2. Number of longitudinal strips of uniform dimensions required for 30 m runway is 8.
3. Number of longitudinal strips of uniform dimensions required for 45 m runway is 10.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

25. Consider the following statements regarding estimated surface friction:
1. If runway friction coefficient is 0.40, then estimated surface friction is good.
2. If runway friction coefficient is 0.35, then estimated surface friction is medium.
3. If runway friction coefficient is 0.30, then estimated surface friction is poor.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

26. Consider the following statements regarding visual ground signals:
1. A horizontal white dumbbell when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
2. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal when displayed in a signal area indicates that landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
3. Crosses of a single contrasting color, white or yellow displayed horizontally on runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for movement of aircraft.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

27. Consider the following statements  regarding aviation:
1. Aerodrome control tower is the elevation of the highest point of the landing area.
2. Aerodrome beacon is used to indicate the location of an aerodrome from the air.
3. Hazard beacon is used to designate a danger to air navigation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

28. Consider the following statements regarding Areas over which flight by aircraft is prohibited:
1. The Area includes within a radius of 5 Kms from Kalpakam nuclear extending vertically from ground level up to an upper level of 2000 feet.
2. The Area included within a radius of one mile from the Towers of Silence on Malabar hills, Mumbai.
3. The Area near Bhubaneshwar extending vertically from ground level to upper level of 50,000 feet.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

29. Which one of the following techniques is useful to detect  the material failures in aircrafts?
(A) Ultrasound-based techniques
(B) Acoustic-based technique
(C) Cyclic stress based technique
(D) Fatigue based technique

30. Which of the following functions can be integrated for Flight Management System (FMS)?
1. navigation
2. performance management
3. flight planning
4. three dimensional guidance and control
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only

31. Consider the following statements regarding bubble memory in flight management computers:
1. A computer incorporates a bubble memory for holding the bulk navigation.
2. A computer incorporates aircraft performance characteristics data bank.
3. A computer incorporates a bubble memory for holding specific navigation and performance data.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

32. If the forces and moments on the body caused by a disturbance tend initially to return the body towards its equilibrium position, the body is
(A) neutrally stable
(B) statically unstable
(C) dynamically stable
(D) statically stable

33. The flat-faced CRT of the display unit gives  a dual character size presentation of
(A) 21 stroke-written characters per 12 lines
(B) 24 stroke-written characters per 14 lines
(C) 14 stroke-written characters per 24 lines
(D) 12 stroke-written characters per 21 lines

34. When a large aircraft is being taxied in the  vicinity of other aircraft or near terminal buildings, what signal the lineman gives with abruptly extended arms and wands to top of head, crossing wands?
(A) Set brakes
(B) Normal stop
(C) Straight ahead
(D) Emergency stop

35. Consider the following statements regarding  the purpose of Centralized Fault Display System (CFDS):
1. CFDS is to make maintenance task easier.
2. CFDS is to display fault messages in cockpit.
3. CFDS is to permit the flight crew to perform some specific tests.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

36. Which one of the following information is NOT displayed by engine indication and crew alerting system?
(A) Engine compressor and turbine speeds
(B) Lateral guidance information along with the location of ground facilities
(C) Engine temperature
(D) Engine vibration data

37. Which one of the following stabilities exists, when the object subject to a disturbance has neither the tendency to return nor the tendency to continue in the displacement direction?
(A) Dynamic stability
(B) Positive static stability
(C) Neutral static stability
(D) Negative static stability 

38. Consider the following statements regarding supercritical airfoil:
1. Supercritical airfoil has a very slight curvature on upper surface.
2. Maximum thickness is much farther back than normal.
3. The airfoil curves downward at the trailing edge.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the velocity field given by u = x/x2+y2  and v = -x/x2+y2  . What is the equation of the  streamline passing through the point (0, 5)? 
(A) x2-y2 = −25 
(B) x2+y2 = 25 
(C) x2+y=  5 
(D) x2-y = −5 

40. Which one of the following changes will be experienced by a supersonic airstream passing through an expansion wave?
(A) The airstream is decelerated; the velocity and Mach number behind the wave are lower.
(B) The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is increased.
(C) The airstream is accelerated; the velocity and Mach number behind the wave are greater.
(D) The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is unchanged.

41. A supersonic airstream passing through the oblique shock wave will experience the changes:
1. The flow direction is changed to flow along the surface of airfoil
2. The static pressure of the airstream behind the wave is decreased.
3. The density of the airstream behind the wave is increased.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

42. The straight line connecting the leading edge (the forward-most tip) and the trailing edge of the airfoil is called
(A) Chord line
(B) Camber line
(C) Mean line
(D) Maximum camber 

43. Which of the following are the  classifications for high-speed flights?
1. Subsonic – the aircraft’s maximum Mach number that all local speeds are less than Mach 1.
2. Transonic – the regime where local speeds are greater and less than Mach 1.
3. Supersonic – the aircraft’s minimum Mach number when all local speeds are less than Mach 1.
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

44. For subsonic and supersonic compressible flow, the freestream Mach number is determined by the ratio of
(A) freestream static pressure to pitot pressure
(B) pitot pressure to freestream static pressure
(C) total pressure to pitot pressure
(D) upstream static pressure to pitot pressure

45. Which one of the following is NOT a primary flight control?
(A) Ailerons
(B) Flaps
(C) Rudder
(D) Elevator

46. Consider the following statements regarding classification of beams:
1. Beams supported at more than two sections are known as continuous beams.
2. Beam with one end fixed and other simply supported are known as propped cantilever.
3. A beam with both ends fixed is known as simply support beam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

47. Consider the following statements regarding plane strain conditions:
1. All the points in the body undergo displacements in one plane only.
2. All the components of stress are perpendicular to the plane of deformation.
3. Except the normal component, all the other components of stress are perpendicular to the
plane of deformation of the body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

48.Consider the following statements regarding the requirements for doors and exits of an aircraft:
1. Closed cabins on all aircraft carrying passengers must be provided with at least one adequate and easily accessible external door.
2. For external doors, it is not necessary to be equipped with devices for locking and for safeguarding against opening in flight.
3. No passenger door may be located in the plane of rotation of an inboard propeller or within 5° thereof as measured from the propeller hub.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

49. A chordwise member of the wing structure used to give the wing section its shape and also to transmit the air loads from the covering to the spars is called
(A) wing spar
(B) monospar wing
(C) two-spar wing
(D) plain rib

50. The fuselages should be designed to satisfy which of the following major criteria?
1. Protect the passengers in the event of a crash.
2. Efficiently tie together the power plant, wing, landing gear and tail surface loads.
3. In single engine type airplane, the engine is usually not mounted in the nose of the fuselage.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

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51. A line established for locating stations on a vertical line is called
(A) water line
(B) butt line
(C) fuselage station
(D) wing station 

52. Consider the following  statements regarding the retractable landing gear:
1. It is carried partially or completely inside the airframe structure to reduce drag.
2. When necessary for landing, the gear is extended by some mechanism.
3. It is normally used with relatively low speed aircrafts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

53. Which of the following are the qualifications of licensee for the issue of aerodrome license?
1. Citizen of India
2. A society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 (21 of 1860)
3. The Central Government or State Government or any Company or any Corporation owned or controlled by either of the said Governments 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only

54. Consider the following statements regarding flight crew personnel and logging of flight time: 
1. Every member of flight crew should maintain a personal log book.
2. All entries in log books shall be made in ink.
3. Log books shall be preserved for not less than 3 years after the date of last entry.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

55. Consider the following statements regarding flight crew:
1. Crew member is a person assigned by an operator to perform duty on an aircraft during a flight duty period.
2. Cabin crew member is a person assigned to perform pilot tasks during cruise flight, to allow the pilot-in-command or a co-pilot to obtain planned rest.
3. A cruise relief pilot is not allowed to perform pilot tasks during planned rest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

56. Consider the following statements regarding the aircraft rules for license issue controls of an aerodrome:
1. Rule 79 defines qualifications of licensee.
2. Rule 83 specifies the validity period of an aerodrome license.
3. Rule 87 defines the information to be included in the aerodrome manual.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only

57. Consider the following statements regarding aerodrome license fee:
1. Rs. 1,00,000 are charged to grant the license for private use.
2. Rs. 5,00,000 are charged to grant the license for public use up to runway length of 5000 feet.
3. The fee chargeable for renewal of license of an aerodrome shall be seventy five percent of the fee chargeable for grant of the license.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

58. An aerodrome license may be granted for any period NOT exceeding
(A) 12 months
(B) 24 months
(C) 36 months
(D) 60 months

59. The Airport Authority of India constituted under which section of AAI Act, 1994 (55 of 1994)?
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 4
(D) Section 5

60. Which one of the following rules is considered for preparation of aerodrome manual for getting aerodrome license?
(A) Rule 86A of Aircraft Rule 1937
(B) Rule 81 of Aircraft Rule 1937
(C) Rule 47 of Aircraft Rule 1948
(D) Rule 71 of Aircraft Rule 1954 

61. Consider the following statements regarding educational qualification for different licenses:
1. Minimum educational qualification for Student Pilot’s License shall be a pass in class ten from recognized Board.
2. Minimum educational qualification for Flight Radio Telephone Operator’s License shall be a pass in class ten from recognized Board.
3. Minimum educational qualification for Student Flight Engineer’s License shall be a pass in class ten from recognized Board.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

62. What are the functions of  the air traffic control service?
1. Preventing collisions between aircraft
2. Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
3. Preventing collisions on the Manoeuvring area between aircraft and obstructions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following statements regarding aerodrome design:
1. Non-intersecting runways whose extended center lines have an angle of convergence/divergence of 90 degrees or less are known as Near-Parallel runways.
2. Manoeuvring area is a part of an aerodrome used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.
3. A symbol or group of symbols displayed on the surface of the movement area in order to convey aeronautical information is known as Marking.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

64. Which one of the following organizations recommends the standards for the operation and management of civil-use airports internationally?
(A) International Federal Aviation Organization
(B) International Airports Authority
(C) International Civil Airports Organization
(D) International Civil Aviation Organization 

65. In which year, the International Air Transport Association (IATA) was founded?
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1948

66. In structural design of airport pavements, which one of the following types of pavement is nown as flexible pavement?
(A) A pavement consisting of slab of Portland cement and concrete.
(B) A pavement consisting of a mixture of bituminous material and aggregate placed on high  quality granular materials.
(C) A pavement consisting of rubber and coal tar.
(D) A pavement consisting of mixture of cement and plaster of paris.

67. The Aerodrome Emergency Plan document should include the following:
1. A grid map of the aerodrome and its immediate vicinity.
2. Agencies involved in the plan.
3. Responsibility and role of each agency, the emergency operations centre and the command post, for each type of emergency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only

68. Consider the following statements regarding clearways:
1. The origin of a clearway should be at the end of the take-off run available.
2. The length of a clearway should not exceed half the length of the take-off run available.
3. A clearway should extend laterally to a distance of at least 85 m on each side of the extended centre line of the runway.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only

69. The threshold is identified  at large airports by a complete line of which one of the following color lights extending across the entire width of the runway?
(A) Red
(B) Violet
(C) Green
(D) White 

70. In the context of obstacle  limitation surfaces, the limits of the conical surface shall comprise 
(A) a lower edge coincident with the periphery of inner horizontal surface.
(B) an upper edge located at a specific height below the inner horizontal surface.
(C) a lower edge coincident with the periphery of outer horizontal surface.
(D) an upper edge coincident with the periphery of inner horizontal surface.

71. A minimum set of parameters required to define location and orientation of the local reference system with respect to the global reference system/frame is called 
(A) Geodetic datum
(B) Geoid undulation
(C) Geoid
(D) Barrette

72. A system designed to decelerate an aeroplane overrunning the runway is called
(A) Clearway
(B) Arresting system
(C) Apron
(D) Barrette

73. High altitude VORs (VHF  Omnidirectional Ranges) are used by aircraft operating between
(A) 5000 feet to 10000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles
(B) 10000 feet to 18000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles
(C) 18000 feet to 60000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles
(D) 60000 feet to 90000 feet, at ranges up to 200 nautical miles

74. Consider the following statements regarding long range navigation (LORAN):
1. LORAN-A system consists of a master station and a slave station.
2. LORAN-C ground stations consist of one master station and ten slave stations.
3. LORAN-D is a short range military version used for pin point navigation.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

75. Consider the following statements regarding rotating beacons used at airports:
1. Green and White indicates a land airport
2. White and Yellow indicates a water airport
3. Yellow and Green indicates a military airport
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

76. Which one of the following type of lighting systems is used to delineate the flight path that should be used by a pilot approaching a specific runway?
(A) omnidirectional approach lighting system
(B) runway end identifier lights
(C) medium-intensity approach lighting system
(D) simplified approach lighting system

77. Which one of the following aircraft is the first transport aircraft that uses electrically driven air cycle air conditioning and cabin pressurization function, with fresh air brought onboard via dedicated cabin air inlets?
(A) Boeing 737
(B) Boeing 747
(C) Boeing 787
(D) Boeing 777

78. Consider the following statements regarding aviation:
1. Wide area augmentation system uses a network of precisely located ground reference stations that monitor transmitted global positioning system satellite signals.
2. Aircraft using ground based augmentation system receive augmentation information directly from a local ground based transmitter.
3. The inertial navigation system committee was found to develop a strategy that would include new concept of aircraft communication, navigation and air traffic management. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

79. The frequency shift observed at a receiver due to any relative motion between transmitter and receiver is called
(A) Radio frequency shift
(B) Controller frequency shift
(C) Doppler shift
(D) Digital link shift 

80.Consider the following statements regarding a pressure type altimeter calibrated in accordancewith the standard atmosphere:
1. When set to a “Query Nautical Height (QNH)” altimeter setting, will indicate altitude.
2. When set to a “Query Field Elevation (QFE)” altimeter setting, will indicate height above the QFE reference datum.
3. When set to a pressure 1013.2 hPa, may be used to indicate flight level.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only

81. Consider the following  statements regarding the air navigation systems:
1. Inertial Navigation System (INS) is totally autonomous navigation system.
2. Doppler Navigation System (DNS) is fully autonomous system like INS.
3. Radio Navigation System (RNS) does not depend on a network of ground-based transmitters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

82. Consider the following statements regarding air traffic control information:
1. Flight information service is a service provided for the purpose of giving flight information service and alerting service.
2. Flight information center is a unit established to provide flight information service and alerting service.
3. Flight information region is airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information service and alerting service are provided.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

83. Consider the following  statements regarding the air route traffic control centers:
1. The position responsible for compiling statistical data and forwarding flight plan data is radar flight data position.
2. The position that is in direct communication with aircraft is radar associate position.
3. The position responsible for ensuring separation, initiating control instructions, managing flight strip information, and assisting radar position with coordination is the radar coordinator position.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only

84. Which one of the following landing systems is designed to provide the pilot with an approach path that is perfectly aligned with the runway centerline?
(A) Global Navigation Landing System
(B) Surveillance Landing System
(C) Instrument Landing System
(D) Terminal Landing System

85. Consider the following statements regarding provisions of Control Service AIP (India):
1. Radio communication shall be established with the appropriate aerodrome prior to taxiing for departure.
2. While operating in class ‘C’ and ‘D’ airspace only direct controller-pilot communication is permitted.
3. For Visual Flight Rules operation in class ‘C’ and ‘D’ airspace, aircraft shall be equipped with appropriate two-way VHF radio apparatus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

86. Consider the following statements regarding air traffic service route in India:
1. Aircraft shall obtain air traffic control clearance from the appropriate air traffic service unit at least 60 minutes prior to entering controlled airspace.
2. Minimum flight altitudes providing 1000 feet clearance from the highest obstacle within the route width are indicated in the appropriate column.
3. All aircraft are forbidden to operate within 15 NM of the international border of India unless specifically permitted or except when following the ATS route or operating to and from any aerodrome situated within 15NM of the international border of India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

87. Consider the following statements regarding automatic terminal information service:
1. The information communicated shall relate to a single aerodrome.
2. The information communicated shall be updated immediately when a significant change occurs.
3. The meteorological information shall be extracted from the global meteorological routine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following  statements regarding air traffic control service:
1. Air traffic control service shall be provided to all IFR flights in airspace classes A, B, C, D and E.
2. Air traffic control services shall be provided to all VFR flights in airspace classes F and G.
3. Air traffic control service shall be provided to all special VFR flights. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

89.The category of airspace  within which the pilots provide all separation, is called
(A) controlled airspace
(B) positive controlled airspace
(C) special use airspace
(D) uncontrolled airspace 

90. Which one of the following facilities is an ATC facility that uses radar and non radar capabilities to provide control services to aircraft arriving, departing and transiting airspace in a terminal area?
(A) Flight Radar Approach Control
(B) Runway Radar Approach Control
(C) Terminal Radar Approach Control
(D) Navigation Radar Approach Control

91. Consider the following statements regarding phrases and abbreviations used by air traffic controllers while performing their duties:
1. ‘L’ stands for cleared to airport of intended landing.
2. ‘Q’ stands for cleared to fly specified sectors of a navaid.
3. ‘Z’ stands for tower jurisdiction
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

92. Consider the following statements regarding aircraft call sign:
1. R23956 call sign is used for army
2. VV1963 call sign is used for navy
3. A24367 call sign is used for air force
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

93. Consider the following statements regarding coordinated universal time (UTC):
1. UTC is same as local time in Greenwich, England, which is located on the 30° line of longitude.
2. UTC was previously known as Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
3. To convert local time to UTC, convert local time to a 24-hour clock, and then add the required time difference.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 

94. Consider the following statements regarding cruise clearance:
1. It is used by air traffic controllers to authorize an IFR aircraft to operate at any altitude between the assigned altitude and minimum IFR altitude.
2. The clearance permits the pilot to level off and operate at any intermediate altitude within this assigned block of airspace.
3. It authorizes the pilot to conduct any instrument approach procedure published for the destination airport.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

95. Consider the following statements regarding wind direction and velocity:
1. Wind direction at airport is always determined in reference to magnetic north.
2. Wind direction at airports is always determined in reference to magnetic south.
3. The wind direction is always rounded off to the nearest 10°.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only

96. Consider the following statements regarding the duties of the ground controller:
1. Issuing clearance to IFR and participating VFR aircraft.
2. Receiving and relaying IFR departure clearances.
3. Controlling taxiway lighting systems.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

97. Consider the following statements regarding radar associate/non-radar controller:
1. The radar controller must be prepared to assume aircraft separation responsibility if the radar display should malfunction.
2. The non-radar controller’s duties are similar to those performed by the B controller in the old air traffic control centers.
3. The non-radar controller’s duties include updating the flight progress strips to accurately reflect every aircraft’s position, altitude, and route of the flight.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 only 

98. Consider the following statements regarding aircraft altitudes:
1. When the aircraft is within 1000 feet of the assigned altitude, the pilot should attempt to decrease the climb or descent rate to approximately 1000 feet per minute.
2. If the controller requires the pilot to change altitude at the aircraft’s optimal rate of climb or descent, the controller should precede the clearance with the phrase “descend now”.
3. If the phrase “at pilot’s discretion (PD)’ is used by the controller in conjunction with an altitude assignment, the pilot is given the option of when to begin the climb or descent. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 2

99. While operating within MARSA airspace, who is responsible for seeing and avoiding any participating military aircraft?
(A) VFR pilot
(B) IFR pilot
(C) Civilian pilot
(D) Military pilot

100. Consider the following statements regarding runway numbers:
1. The runway’s number is its magnetic heading rounded to the nearest 90° with leading and trailing zeros removed.
2. Runway designations are always prefixed with the word “runway” followed by runway number and a suffix.
3. If two or three runways are constructed parallel to each other, the suffix L for “left”, R for “right”, and C for “center” are used to differentiate the runways from one another. 
Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
(A) 3 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 2 

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Deputy Architect in Military Engineer Service (MOD)

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UPSC Recruitment Paper 2018 : Deputy Architect in Military Engineer Service (MOD)

1. A safety nosing in a staircase is
(A) the least thickness of a stanchion
(B) a non-slip surface flush with the riser surface
(C) a non-slip surface flush with the tread surface
(D) the least thickness of a reinforced concrete slab

2. Sumerian units of measurement were based on
(A) parts of an ancient buildings
(B) parts of animals’ body
(C) parts of trees and plants
(D) parts of the human body

3. Which one of the following statements is NOT fit for ambient luminescence in the context of interior lighting?
(A) It is shadowless
(B) It maximizes form and bulk
(C) It reduces the importance of things and people
(D) It fills people with a sense of freedom of space

4. Which one of the following enhances the perception of depth by emphasizing the natural texture and sculptural relief of the surface?
(A) Diffuse light
(B) Grazing light
(C) Contrast light
(D) Sparkle light

5. Consider the following statements regarding different types of design:
1. Semi-circular arched opening was the hallmark of the Romanesque style of Architecture.
2. Gothic style of Architecture is characterized by the use of pointed arch, groined vault and tracery.
3. The Cathedral of Notre-Dame is a prime example of Renaissance Architecture.
4. The emphasis during the Rococo period was on interior application rather than the exterior façade. Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4 

6. The art of inserting a part of one plant into  another plant by exposing the actively growing tissue so that they will unite and continue their growth as one plant is called
(A) Budding
(B) Stooling
(C) Layering
(D) Grafting

7. Albert Atterberg, a Swedish soil scientist defined the boundaries between different consistency states for soil that are referred to as the Atterberg limits. Of which, what comprises the plastic limit?
(A) Boundary between the plastic and liquid states
(B) Boundary between the semisolid and solid states
(C) Boundary between the plastic and semisolid states
(D) Boundary between the liquid and semisolid states

8. As far back as 1887, the Gazetteer of Delhi described Delhi district as having 4 ‘natural divisions’, which are still useful descriptive labels for Delhi microhabitats of which the sandy riverain of the Yamuna is called
(A) khadar
(B) bangar
(C) kohi
(D) dabar

9. ‘Solum’ is a term which describes one of the following elements of landscape: 
(A) Soil
(B) Water
(C) Trees
(D) Shrubs

10. What is the maximum angle of repose for strong bedrock at which it can be safely inclined and beyond which it will fail?
(A) 90°
(B) 60°
(C) 45°
(D) 30°

11. Consider the following statements with regard to deciding the performance of masonry buildings in earthquakes:
1. The masonry courses from the walls meeting at corners must have good interlocking.
2. Openings too close to wall corners hamper the flow of forces from one wall to another.
3. It is best to keep all openings as small and far away from the corners as possible.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

12. For minimizing the impact of earth quake, which of the following solutions are proposed for L-shape building?
1. Separate the wings
2. Add collector walls
3. Join the wings
4. Stiffen the ends
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

13. In the purview of earthquake engineering, the effect of internal friction, imperfect elasticity of material, slipping, sliding, etc in reducing the amplitude of vibration, is called
(A) Floor Response Spectra
(B) Liquefaction
(C) Damping
(D) Ductility

14. Which one of the following is NOT suitable building construction method in earthquake-prone areas?
(A) Roof with tiles or stone plates
(B) Wattle and daub wall system
(C) Textile walls filled with earth
(D) Adobe walls

15. Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale is used for  measuring
(A) temperature for volcano lava
(B) the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake
(C) sound intensity of thunder storm
(D) the intensity of flood 

16. In world design conference, 1960, Fumihiko Maki described three specific modes of urban design as:
(A) Core, Periphery, Suburban
(B) Lattice, Megastructures, Networks
(C) Homogeneous, Lattice, Heterogeneous
(D) Composition, Megastructures, Group form

17. Constantinos A Doxiadis, prepared the master plan of which one of the following cities?
(A) Baghdad
(B) Karachi
(C) Gandhinagar
(D) Kuwait

18.Jane Jacobs argued for repressed minorities and neighborhood protection against the large scaled development of cross-island highway through lower Manhattan to serve the suburbs, was proposed by
(A) Robert Moses
(B) J.L.Sert
(C) Edward Soja
(D) Rudyard Gulliani

19. In Chandigarh, Le Corbusier and his associates designed many of the buildings in sector 17 based on the prototype of
(A) Maison Domino
(B) Terrace Garden
(C) Maison Arch
(D) Human Body

20. Urban actor in a city is defined as
(A) urban ecological system of city for critical and sustainable survival
(B) urban transport which connects the fragmented city together through complex network
(C) large buildings in the city which influence the growth and future patterns of the city
(D) individuals or small or large groups who are active and organized to use and manipulate  space in the city

21. In cement manufacturing process,  gypsum is added to the clinker to
(A) soften the mixture
(B) retard setting
(C) solidify the mixture
(D) keep moisture 

22. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct in PERT network?
(A) PERT is event based
(B) PERT is frequently used in research and development projects
(C) PERT is preferred for those projects which are of repetitive nature
(D) Probabilistic approach is used by PERT planner

23. Under the Indian Contract Act-1872, which section states that “when a contract consists of reciprocal promises to be simultaneously performed, no promiser need perform his promise unless the promisee is ready and willing to perform his reciprocal promise”?
(A) Section – 37
(B) Section – 51
(C) Section – 53
(D) Section – 54

24. In tender documents, under a security deposit subhead, which clause is related to “Payment due to variation in prices of materials after receipt of tenders”?
(A) Clause – 10
(B) Clause – 10 C
(C) Clause – 10 CA
(D) Clause – 10 CC

25. Breach of contract means the failure or refusal to perform the promises that a party has made or deemed to have made under a contract. In this context, which section of the Contract Act provides payment of only reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount named or penalty stipulated?
(A) Section 52
(B) Section 70
(C) Section 20
(D) Section 74

26. The establishment of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) are done under
(A) River Boards Act, 1956
(B) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(D) National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1995

27. Resources like oxygen, water, food, which constitutes life support comes under
(A) Ecological Services
(B) Government and Public Services
(C) Climate Change Services
(D) International Standard Services 

28. If the outside temperature is 10℃ and the inside temperature is 22℃ over a 10 m2  brick wall, having transmittance value of 1.5 Wm-2K -1, what is the heat flow rate?
(A) -120 W
(B) +120 W
(C) +180 W
(D) -180 W

29. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for designing shelter for hot-dry climate?
(A) Buildings should have open elongated plan shapes.
(B) Shading of roofs, wall and out-door spaces is critical.
(C) The larger dimensions of a building should preferably face north and south.
(D) An enclosed, compactly planned and essentially inward-looking building is the most  suitable.

30. The process of conversion of  
into N2 by anaerobic bacteria is called
(A) Nitrification
(B) Ammonification
(C) Denitrification
(D) Anammox

31. Consider the following statements:
1. HUDCO is public sector undertaking under Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. RERA scheme is for promoting and regulating the real estate sector.
3. PMGSY is launched for the mission of ‘Housing for All”.
4. BSUP scheme is for providing “Houses for Urban Poor”.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 2 only

32. Identify the first sky-scraper building:
(A) Home Insurance Building, Chicago
(B) The Empire State Building, New York
(C) Burj Khalifa, Dubai
(D) Chrysler Building, New York 

33. Consider the following statements:
1. Housing demand is the total requirement while housing need is associated with the affordability.
2. TDR means achieving additional FAR in lieu of the area surrendered by the owner of the land.
3. Housing need is not standard across cultures and other societal groups. Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

34. The housing trend  of ‘Expandable Dwelling’ is associated with
(A) Row Housing
(B) Apartment Housing
(C) Core Housing
(D) Detached Housing

35.  As per Kenneth Frampton,  which one of the following built-up forms of urban settlement is assumed to be cost effective in terms of land-use and also has many social advantages in terms of services?
(A) high-rise, high-density
(B) high-rise, low-density
(C) low-rise, high-density
(D) low-rise, low-density

36. The antique statue of ‘Herkulanerin’ was first discovered by
(A) Alcubierre
(B) Camillo Paderni
(C) Prince d’Elboeuf
(D) Maria Amalia

37. The famous treatise ‘De Architectura’ of classical architecture is written by
(A) Domenico Fantana
(B) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
(C) Michelangelo
(D) Giuliano da Sangallo

38. Which one of the following International organizations is NOT associated with protection of cultural heritage?
(A) ICCROM
(B) ICOMOS
(C) UNESCO
(D) IRCOM 

39. The famous slogan “Conserve, do not store” is given by
(A) Mynors Charles
(B) Georg Dehio
(C) Robert Garland
(D) David Lowenthal

40. A master piece of Roman architecture ‘Montecitorio obelisk’ was restored by using
(A) Plain Egyptian red granite of huge monolithic column of Roman Emperor
(B) Reintegrating hieroglyphs
(C) Roman sail with gravels
(D) Egyptian sand and nearby conservation

41. Which one of the following is a good example of a successful application of thin film technology in a design context?
(A) Anti-reflection glass
(B) Holographically pattern glass
(C) Dichroic glass
(D) Electro-optical glass

42. The airflow of a fan operating at 9000 cfm and 1 inch of water gauge static pressure must be increased to 10500 cfm. The fan operates at 1500 rpm and requires 5 brake horsepower at the rated conditions. What is the new operating speed?
(A) 1450 rpm
(B) 1550 rpm
(C) 1650 rpm
(D) 1750 rpm

43. In Building Automation System, ‘Smart Window’ possesses which of the following functions?
1. Control of optical transmittance
2. Control of thermal transmittance
3. Control of thermal absorption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3 only

44. In modern Building Automation System, most of the equipments are based on the technology of
(A) Light amplification by simulation of energy reflection
(B) Light amplification of solar energy and radiation
(C) Layer application for simulation energy and radiation
(D) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation 

45. Ventilation cooling (100 percent untreated outdoor air) can be provided in locations where summer design temperatures are at least 
(A) 20℉ cooler than the required outdoor temperature
(B) 10℉ cooler than the required outdoor temperature
(C) 20℉ cooler than the required water temperature
(D) 10℉ cooler than the required indoor ambient temperature

46. As per NBC-2016 norms for roads and paths in hilly areas, the street orientation shall preferably be
(A) north – south
(B) north east – south west
(C) east – west
(D) north west – south east

47. As per NBC-2016 in case of single room tenements, the carpet area of the multipurpose single room should be at least
(A) 9 m2
(B) 10 m2
(C) 12.5 m2
(D) 15 m2

48. As per National Building Code, for group housing development in an area with a density of 250 Persons per hectare, maximum allowable ground coverage in percentage (%) is
(A) 25
(B) 33
(C) 30
(D) 35

49. For new buildings, structures which rise to 30 m or more in height need ‘No-objectioncertificate’ from the Directorate General of Civil Aviation as per NBC, if the proposed location lies within how much distance of the aerodrome reference point?
(A) 15 km
(B) 20 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 5 km

50. As per National Building Code, the ceiling height of the industrial buildings (except when air conditioned) should be
(A) 3.0 m
(B) 3.6 m
(C) 4.0 m
(D) 4.6 m 

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51. Victor Gruen is famously referred to as
(A) inventor of the passenger lift
(B) early designer of ‘mall’ as building type
(C) inventor of H.V.A.C.
(D) inventor of fire safety system in building

52. Durga temple at Aihole, built by Chalukyan builders adopted a plan of
(A) Buddhist chaitya hall
(B) Sanchi stupa
(C) Islamic mosque
(D) Christian church

53. One of the distinctive architectural characters of the Hoysalas of Karnataka is
(A) Chaitya style plan
(B) Star-Shaped plan
(C) Greek style plan
(D) Roman style plan

54. Which one of the definitions correctly defines the centralized organization in architectural design?
(A) A central space from which linear organizations of space extend in a radial manner.
(B) Spaces grouped by proximity or the sharing of a common visual trait or relationship.
(C) A central, dominant space about which a number of secondary spaces are grouped.
(D) Spaces organized within the field of a structural grid or other three-dimensional  framework.

55. Le Corbusier developed his proportioning  system, the Modulor, to order “the dimensions of that which contains and that which is contained”. The basic grid consists of three measures proportioned according to the Golden Section. They are
(A) 114 cm, 71 cm, 44 cm
(B) 113 cm, 70 cm, 43 cm
(C) 112 cm, 89 cm, 42 cm
(D) 111 cm, 88 cm, 41 cm

56. Which one of the following does NOT represent a visual art movement?
(A) Impressionism
(B) Cezanne
(C) Minimalism
(D) Prism 

57. Who wrote the book “DeColoribus” and established that all colors were derived from different mixtures of sunlight, firelight, air and water?
(A) Newton
(B) Da Vinci
(C) Aristotle
(D) Le Blen & Harris

58. Which one of the following is NOT an example of basic design ordering principles?
(A) Symmetry
(B) Datum
(C) Rhythm
(D) Scale

59. The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial separation individuals maintain in various social and interpersonal situations, and how the nature and degree of this spatial arrangement relates to environmental and cultural factor is called 
(A) pylon
(B) propylon
(C) proxemics
(D) propylaeum

60. Who developed one of the first full-color circles, which spaced the primaries at equal distances from one another?
(A) Munsell
(B) Moses Harris
(C) Goethe
(D) Le Blon

61. Radiance software can be used  for
(A) thermal comfort in a building
(B) structural design for high rise building
(C) acoustical measurement for a building
(D) lighting simulation of interior spaces

62. Which commands are NOT used in AutoCAD?
(A) UCSICON and MATCHPROP
(B) DXFOUT and MLEADER
(C) TURNOVER and DRAWORDER
(D) DRAWORDER and DXFIN

63. In ‘Sketch up’, moving the time slider back and forth, for shadow setting indicates
(A) moving sun and moon around in the sky
(B) moving sun around in the sky
(C) moving moon around in the sky
(D) moving artificial lights around in the sky 

64. To display one or more scaled views of your design on a standard-size drawing sheet is called
(A) layers
(B) layouts
(C) blocks
(D) geometry

65. In AutoCAD, Precision feature which specifies a location by its Cartesian, either absolute or relative is
(A) Polar tracking
(B) Locking angles
(C) Grid snaps
(D) Coordinate entry

66. Difference between the readings of wet-bulb thermometer and dry-bulb thermometer is called
(A) Variable depression
(B) Wet-bulb depression
(C) Dry-bulb depression
(D) Atmospheric depression

67.Operative temperature scale was developed by
(A) Bedford, Harris
(B) C G Webb, Givoni
(C) Winslow, Herrington, Gagge
(D) Missenard, Otto Koenisberger

68. The amount of moisture actually present in unit mass or unit volume of air, in terms of gramme per kilogramme (g/kg) or gramme per cubic meter (g/m 3 ) is called 
(A) atmospheric humidity
(B) absolute humidity
(C) relative humidity
(D) saturation point humidity

69. Assume that the outdoor temperature is 18 ℃, the indoor temperature has risen to 28 ℃ and there is an internal heat gain of 5 kW, which would cause a further increase of indoor temperature. What is the rate of ventilation? (Assume the specific heat of air as 1300 J/m3  degC)
(A) 0.485 m2 /s
(B) 0.385 m2 /s
(C) 0.285 m2 /s
(D) 0.185 m2 /s  

70. The intensity of radiation reaching the upper surface of the atmosphere is taken as the Solar Constant 1395 W/m2 , but it actually varies due to variations in the output of the sun itself and also due to changes in the earth-sun distance. What is the percentage variation in both cases respectively?
(A) ±3.5 %, ±2 %
(B) ±3.5 %, ±1 %
(C) ±2 %, ±1 %
(D) ±2 %, ±3.5 %

71. A mixing of Romano-Greek and  Indian motifs in architecture/sculpture is called
(A) Gandhara style
(B) Ashoka style
(C) Islamic style
(D) Mauryan style

72. In architectural design theory, synectics is referred to as
(A) a study of synergy between various building materials
(B) a study of creative processes involving free use of metaphor and analogy
(C) a study of visual aesthetics of a building
(D) a study of processes in sequence to understand the construction techniques in buildings

73. In the purview of social comprehension and assimilation architecture, who said this “A society can be defined as a group of individuals competing for conventional prizes by conventional means”?
(A) V.C. Wynne - Edwards
(B) Staurt Altmann
(C) Manfredo Tafuri
(D) Terence Hawkes

74. The Angkor Vat in Cambodia, is culmination of which one of the following concepts of the Buddhist planning?
(A) Dwiratna
(B) Charbagh
(C) Nagara
(D) Pancharatna

75. Who authored “The Seven Lamps of Architecture”?
(A) John Ruskin
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Paul Horwich
(D) William James 

76. In building acoustics, the function of an acoustical cloud is
(A) reflecting the sound from ceiling for improving the acoustic quality of music
(B) absorbing the white noise from the source
(C) creating the echo within the given space
(D) creating a new sound by absorbing the noise from surrounding

77. The time in seconds required​​​​​​​ for a sound made in an enclosed space to diminish by 60 dB is called
(A) Decay rate
(B) Interference
(C) Reverberation time
(D) Metric sabin

78. If two sounds differ by 20 dB, the louder of them is 100 times more intense and when they differ by 30 dB, the louder of them would be
(A) 20 times more intense
(B) 150 times more intense
(C) 1000 times more intense
(D) 200 times more intense

79. The sound which is transmitted first through the structure is called
(A) Structure sound
(B) Airborne sound
(C) Impact sound
(D) Transfer sound

80. The ratio of transmitted sound power and the power incident on the surface is called
(A) Transmission index
(B) Transmission factor
(C) Sound incident index
(D) Sound incident factor

81. The Town Hall, Leeds is a classical master piece of
(A) Edwardien Era
(B) High Victorian Classicism
(C) Historical Anachronism
(D) Norwich Classicism

82. The White House, Washington D.C., was designed by
(A) Charles Bulfinch
(B) Thomas Jefferson
(C) James Hoban
(D) Sir John Soane 

83. Who wrote the book “Complexity  and Contradiction” in Architecture?
(A) Robert Venturi
(B) Bernhard Tschumi
(C) Bruno Zevi
(D) Gordon Cullen

84. Radburn city in USA was planned by
(A) Clarence Stein
(B) Ebenezor Howard
(C) Patrick Geddes
(D) Patrick Abercrombie

85. Which one of the following terms​​​​​​​ was used by Dutch architectural group ‘MVRDV’ to describe a city formed from information?
(A) Megacity
(B) Metacity
(C) Beta city
(D) Invisible city

86. What is the cost of brickwork and plastering work on both sides, respectively for the wall of 4 m long, 3 m high and 30 cm thick, if the rate of brickwork is Rs. 320 per cubic metre and plastering Rs. 8.50 per square metre?
(A) Rs. 1150, Rs. 200
(B) Rs. 1152, Rs. 204
(C) Rs. 1150, Rs. 204
(D) Rs. 1152, Rs. 200

87. Which of the following methods are predominantly used for the detailed estimation of quantities of various items of a building in the construction process?
(A) Long & short wall method and Centre line method
(B) Centre line method and Plinth area method
(C) Plinth area method and Cubical method
(D) Long & short wall method and Cubical method

88. Which valuation method out of the following options can be adopted when the rental value is not available from the property concerned, but there are evidences of sale price of the property as a whole for fixing the capitalized value?
(A) Valuation based on profit
(B) Valuation based on cost
(C) Valuation based on depreciation
(D) Direct comparison with the capital value 

89. If the brick size is 20 cm × 10 cm ×10​​​​​​​ cm, how many bricks required for brick floor to cover 100 sqm floor area?
(A) 5000
(B) 4000
(C) 3500
(D) 5500

90. The fund which is gradually accumulated by way of periodic deposit for the replacement of a building at the end of its useful life is called
(A) Life cycle fund
(B) Salvage fund
(C) Sinking fund
(D) Capitalized fund

91. Central Place Theory was proposed by
(A) Walter Miles
(B) Walter Gropius
(C) Walter Christaller
(D) Walter Benjamin

92. In physical planning, the Concept of Saturation Flow is associated with
(A) Temperature flow
(B) Traffic flow
(C) Wind flow
(D) Electricity flow

93. In alternative systems for sanitation and sewage, UASB (Dutch Technology) stands for
(A) Urban Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
(B) Urban Aerobic Sludge Blanket
(C) Up-flow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket
(D) Up-flow Aerobic Sludge Blanket

94. According to WHO standards, the number of hospital beds recommended for per 1000 population in urban areas is
(A) 3 hospital beds
(B) 4 hospital beds
(C) 5 hospital beds
(D) 6 hospital beds

95. Cul-de-sac is associated with
(A) Dead end
(B) Central Island
(C) Sectoral Planning
(D) Intersection 

96. The Council of Architecture has adopted nine ‘Conditions of Engagement’ to maintain the highest standards of practice and conduct. Indicate which factor out of the following does NOT come under the Conditions of Engagement.
(A) Remuneration
(B) Interpretation
(C) Responsibilities
(D) Indemnification

97. Consider the following circumstances with  regard to Architects Professional Guidelines:
1. Use of building for the purposes other than for which it has been designed.
2. Modifications to the building carried out by the owner without the consent of the  Architect who designed.
3. Damages caused due to any reasons arising out of specialized consultants, who were  engaged in consultation with client.
4. Any compromise with the safety norms by the architect.
In which of the above circumstances Architect is NOT liable?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only

98. Under which section of the Architects  Act 1972, if an architect is found guilty of professional misconduct, he/she is liable for disciplinary action by the Council of Architecture?
(A) Section – 30
(B) Section – 53
(C) Section – 35
(D) Section – 20

99. As per the Architects Regulation (Professional Conduct) 1989, an architect may exhibit his name outside his/her office and on a building either under construction or completed, for which he/she is/was an Architect, provided the lettering does not exceed in height more than
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 10 cm

100. For conducting an Architectural competition, the guidelines are framed by Council of Architecture based on Architecture Competition Rule formed by International Union of Architects on behalf of
(A) UNESCO
(B) ASI
(C) INTACH
(D) WHO  

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