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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2006 (PART -5)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM - 2006 (Part- 5)


102.A mixed doubled tennis game I to be played between two teams (each team consists of one male and one female). There are 4 married couples. No team is to consists of a husband and his wife. What is the Maximum number of games that can be played?
(a) 12 (b) 21
(c) 36 (d) 42

103.In an office, the number of persons who take tea is twice the number of persons who take only coffee. The number of persons who take coffee is twice the number of persons who take coffee is twice the number of persons who take only tea.
Consider the following statements :
1. The sum of the number of persons who take either tea or coffee or both is four times the number of persons who take both coffee and tea.
2. The sum of the number of persons who take only coffee and those who take only tea is twice the number of persons who take both and coffee. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

104.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I
A. Harold Pinter
B. Jacques Diouf
C. Jose Manuel Barroso
D. Raymond Lafitte

List-II
1. Director-General, Fao
2. President, European Commission
3. World Bank appointed expert for Adjudicating on the Baglihar Hydel Project
4. Litterateur

A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

105.Consider the following statements :
1. Life Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest insurance company is India.
2. National Insurance Company Limited was nationalized in the year 1972 and made a subsidiary of General Insurance Corporation of India.
3. Headquarters of United India Insurance Company Limited are located at Chennai.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only

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106.Which one of the following pairs is
not
correctly matched?

Railway Zone
(a) North Eastern Railway
(b) South Eastern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) South East Central Railway

Headquarters
1. Gorakhpur
2. Bhudaneshwar
3. Kolkata
4. Bilaspur

107.Which one of the following is the correct statements? Service tax is a/an
(a) direct tax levied by the Central Government.
(b) indirect tax levied by the Central Government
(c) direct tax levied by the State Government
(d) indirect tax levied by the State Government

108.Which one of the following pairs is
not
correctly matched?
(a) Sigmund Freud : Psychoanalysis
(b) Anna Freud : Child psychiatry
(c) Milton Friedman : Economic
(d) Eric R. Kandel : Literature

109.Who is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Reseach?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Union Minister of Science and Technology

110. Projects and Development India Limited is Mainly engaged is design engineering, procurement and supervision of construction/commissioning in which area?
(a) Pharmaceutical plants
(b) Petroleum refineries and sugar factories
(c) Ship-building yard
(d) Fertilizer and allied chemical plants

111. Where is the Central Water and Power Research Station located?
(a) Khadakwasia (b) Sileru
(c) Jamnagar (d) Srisailam

112. Which one of the following companies is associated with the exploration and commercial production of oil in Barmer- Sanchore basin of Rajasthan?
(a) Cairn Energy
(b) Unocal Corporation
(c) Reliance Energy Ventures
(d) ONGC

113. Recently with Which country.s government did ONGC-Mittal Energy Limited (OMEL) sign a joint, venture deal of $6 billion dealing with infrastructure, refinery and power?
(a) Colombia (b) Venezuela
(c) Nigeria (d) Saudi Arabia

114. Which one among the following as awarded the CSIR. Diamond Jubilee Technology Award 2004 in September, 2005 by the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Infosys Technologies Ltd.
(b) Midas Communication Technologies
(c) Tata Consultancy Services
(d) Biocon India Ltd.

115. Who among the following directed the film chosen as India.s offical entry for the year 2006 Academy Awards?
(a) Adodor Gopalakrishnan
(b) Amol Palekar
(c) Sanjay Leela Bhansali
(d) Kunal Kohli

116. Recently Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh governments signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the linking of two rivers as a link project. Which are these two rivers?
(a) Betwa and Chambal
(b) Betwa and Ken
(c) Chambal and Son
(d) Ken and Narmada

117. Who among the following laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire?
(a) Amoghavarsha I
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Dhruva
(d) Krishna I

118. With reference to the Government of India.s varius programmes, what is Nirmal Gram Puraskar?
(a) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for the single girl child in families in villages.
(b) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for female sportspersons from villages who represent their states in any game.
(c) It is an incentive scheme for schools in the villages for computer education.
(d) It is an incentive scheme Panchayati Raj institutions.

119. Which is the correct chronoligcal sequence of the major events given below?
1. SLV-3 Launch
2. Formation of Bagladesh
3. Sikim becomes 22nd State of the Indian Union
4. Pokharan-I test.

Select the correct answer using the
code given below :


(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1

120.Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?
1. Ilmenite 2. Zircon
3. Silimanite 4. Tungsten

Select the correct answer using the code given belwo :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only

121.In which Olympics games did India last win a Gold Medal?
(a) Montreal (1976)
(b) Moscow (1980)
(c) Los Angeles (1984)
(d) Atalanta (1996)

122.In which country is the committee which selects winners for Nobel peace prize located?
(a) Norway (b) Sweden
(c) Finland (d) Denmark

123.Match List . I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) with List-II (Area of work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I
A. C.N.R. Rao
B. Jagdish Bhagwati
C. G.N. Ramchandran
D. Ashok

List II
1. Telecommunication
2. Physics
3. Economics
4. Solid State Chemistry and Material Science

Code :
A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 2 3 4 1

124.Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial System?
(a) M. Hidaatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati

125.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Person)
A. Ela Bhatt
B. Mahashweta Devi
C. Ebrahim Alkazi
D. Vijay Govindarajan

List-II (Area of work)
1. Theatre training
2. Womens. labour sector
3. Management teaching
4. Literrateur and Social Worker for the country.s tribal communities

Codes:
A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3

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(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2006 (PART -4)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM - 2006 (Part- 4)


76. In Indian history, who was abdul Hamid Lahori?
(a) An important military commander during Akbar.s reign
(b) An official historian of the reign of Shah Jahan
(c) An important noble and confidant of Aurangzeb
(d) A chronicler and poet during the reign of Muhammad Shah

78. Who was the Governor-General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny?
(a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge (d) Lord Lytton

79. Consider the following statements about
Madam Bhikaji Cama :
1. Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at the international Socialist Conference in Paris in the year 1907.
2. Madam Cama served as private secretary to Dadabhai Naoroji.
3. Madam Cama was born to Parsi parents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 1 and 2, only (d) 3 only

80. Whom did Croatia defeat in the Davis Cup- 2005 Finals to win the Davis Cup-2005?
(a) United States of America
(d) Slovak Republic
(c) Argentina
(d) Spain

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81. The initial design and construction of which massive temple took place during the reign of Suryavarman II?
(a) Sri Mariamman Temple
(b) Angkor Vat
(c) Batu Caves Temple
(d) Kamakhya Temple

82. Indian Airlines (New name :Indian) have redesigned their logo which is a graphic wheel. This logo has been inspired from which one of the following?
(a) Hampi Temples
(b) Mamallapuram Temples
(c) Sun Temple, Konark
(d) Khajuraho Temple

83. Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct, answer using the code given below the lists :

List-I
A. E.C.G. Sudarshan
B. V. Shanta
C. T.N. Krishnan
D. Mahesh Dattani

List-II
1. Theatre
2. Violin
3. Research in Physics
4. Cancer treatment
5. Water-harvesting

A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 5 1
(d) 2 1 5 4

84. Where is Davos- the venue of the annual meeting of World Economic . Forum, located?
(a) France (b) Germany
(c) Switzerland (d) Luxembourg

85. What is the Universal Product Code (UPC) adopted for?
(a) Fire safely code in buildings
(b) Earthquake-resistant buildings code
(c) Bar code
(d) Against aduiteration eatables

86. What does the term .Dolby B, or .Dolby C. printed on tape recorders and other sound system refer to?
(a) Frequency modulated system
(b) Amplitude Modulated system
(c) Noise reduction circuit
(d) Both DC and AC power can be used

87. Consider the following statements :
1. The Richter scale is a logarithmic scale and so an increase of 1 magnitude unit represents a factor of 10 times in amplitude.
2. Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that of the previous integer reading.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

88. For which sport is the Val Barker Cup awarded in the Olympic Games?
(a) Swimming (b) Boxing
(c) Long Jump (d) High Jump
89. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) States Reorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State

90. Consider the following statements:
1. Assam shares a border with Bhutal and Bangladesh.
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal
3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
91. Which one among the following was the first to legalize euthanasia?
(a) Austria (b) Switzerland
(c) Netherlands (d) Canada

92. in a question paper, there are four multiplechoice questions. Each question has five choices with only one choice for its correct answer. What is the total number of ways in which a candidate will
not
get all the four answers correct?
(a) 19 (b) 120
(c) 624 (d) 1024

93. Which one of the following is
not
a Central University?
(a) Pondicherry University
(b) Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad
(c) Visva Bhati, Shanti Niketan
(d) University of Madras, Chennai
94. Consider the following statements :

1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by
the state was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th
Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only

95. There are 8 equitant points A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the clockwise direction on the periphery of a circle. In a time interval t, a person reaches from A to C with uniform motion while another person reaches the point E from the point B during the same time interval with uniform motion. Both the persons move in the same direction along the circumference of the circle and start at the same instant. How much time after the start, will the two persoins meet each other?
(a) 4t (b) 7t
(c) 9t (d) Never

96. Each of the persons A, B, C, D and E possesses Unequal number (<10) of similar items. A, B and C possess 21 items in all, while C, D and E possess 7 items in all. How many items do A and B possess in all?
(a) 15 (b) 17
(c) 18 (d) Data is insufficient

97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List-I (Leading Woman Lawn Tennis Player)
A Daniela Hantuchova
B. Patty Schnyder
C. Nadia Petrova
D. Amelie Mauresmo

List-II (Country)
1. Russia
2. Slovakia
3. France
4. Switzerland

A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

98. Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have been a bone of contention between which of the following countries?
(a) Portugal and Spain
(b) Bulgaria and Greece
(c) Romania and Bulgaria
(d) Portugal and Greece

99. Huangpu River flows through which one of the following cities?
(a) Beijing (b) Ho Chi Minh City
(c) Shanghai (d) Manila

100.Which one of the following countries is the leading producer of uranium?
(a) United States of America
(b) Canada
(c) Germany
(d) Zambia

101.There are three parallel straight lines. Two points A and B are marked on the first line, points C and D are marked on the second line, and points E and F are marked on the third line. Each of these 6 points can move to any position on its respective straight line.
Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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UPSC PRE TOPIC WISE PAPER : Science and Technology 

 IAS EXAM

UPSC PRE TOPIC WISE PAPER : Science and Technology 

1. With  reference  to  the  use  of  nano-technology  in health sector, which of the following statements is/are  correct? (UPSC 2015)
1. Targeted  drug  delivery  is  made  possible  by nanotechnology.
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.
Select  the  correct  answer  using  the  code  given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both  1  and  2 (d) Neither  1  nor  2
Ans: C
Exp: Nanotechnology  has  provided  the  possibility  of delivering drugs to specific cells using nanoparticles. The  overall  drug  consumption and  side-effects  may be  lowered  significantly  by  depositing  the  active  
agent  in  the  morbid  region  only  and  in  no  higher dose than needed. Targeted drug delivery is intended to  reduce  the  side  effects  of  drugs  with  concomitant decreases  in  consumption  and  treatment  expenses. 
Drug  delivery  focuses  on  maximizing  bioavailability both  at  specific  places  in  the  body  and  over  a period  of  time.  This  can  potentially  be  achieved  by molecular  targeting  by  nanoengineered  devices. Bionanotechnology  is  a  specific  application  of nanotechnology.  For  example,  DNA  nanotechnology  or  cellular  engineering  would  be  classified  as bionanotechnology  because  they  involve  working 
with  biomolecules  on  the  nanoscale.  Conversely,many  new  medical  technologies  involving nanoparticles as delivery systems or as sensors would be examples of nanobiotechnology since they involve using  nanotechnology  to  advance  the  goals  of biology.  However  whether  it  can  largely  contribute to  gene  therapy  or  not  is  not  clear.)

 2. In the context of modem scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news:(UPSC 2015)
1. It  is  the  world’s  largest  neutrino  detector,encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
2. It  is  a  powerful  telescope  to  search  for  dark matter.
3. It is  buried  deep in the ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,  2  and  3
Ans: D
Exp: The  IceCube  Neutrino  Observatory  (or  simply IceCube)  is  a  neutrino  telescope  constructed  at  the Amundsen-Scott  South  Pole  Station  in  Antarctica.  Its thousands of  sensors are  distributed  over  a cubic
kilometre  of  volume  under  the Antarctic  ice.  Similar to  its  predecessor, the Antarctic Muon And Neutrino Detector  Array  (AMANDA),  IceCube  consists  of spherical  optical  sensors  called  Digital  Optical Modules  (DOMs)each  with  a  photomultiplier  tube (PMT) and a single board data acquisition computer which  sends  digital  data  to  the  counting  house  on the  surface  above the  array.  IceCube was completed on  18  December  2010.
However,  a  neutrino  is  an  electrically  neutral elementary  particle  with  half-integer  spin.  The neutrino  (meaning  “little  neutral  one”  in  Italian)  is denoted  by  the  Greek  letter  í  (nu).  All  evidence 
suggests  that  neutrinos  have  mass  but  that  their masses  are  tiny,  even  compared  to  other  subatomic particles.  They  are  the  only  identified  form  of  dark matter,  specifically  hot  dark  matter. 

 3. With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/ are  correct?(UPSC 2015)
1. It  is  a  contactless  communication  technology that uses electromagnetic  radio  fields.
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be  at  a  distance  of  even  a  metre  from  each other.
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.

Select  the  correct  answer  using  the  code  given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,  2  and  3
Ans: C
Exp: Near  field  communication  (NFC)  is  the  set  of protocols  that  enables  smartphones  and  other devices  to  establish  radio  communication  with each  other  by  touching  the  devices  together  or bringing  them  into  proximity  to  a  distance  of typically  10  cm  (3.9  in)  or  less. 

 4. The  Genetic  Engineering Appraisal  Committee  is constituted under the (UPSC 2015)
(a) Food  Safety  and  Standards Act,  2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Ans: C
Exp:
The  Genetic  Engineering  Appraisal  Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of  Environment  and  Forests  under  ‘Rules  for Manufacture,  Use,  Import,  Export  and  Storage  of Hazardous  Microorganisms/Genetically  Engineered Organisms  or Cells  19892 ,  under the Environment Protection  Act,  1986.  (Source:  website  of  Ministry of  Environment,  Forest  and  Climate  Change) 

 5. In  which  of  the  following  activities  are  Indian Remote  Sensing  (IRS)  satellites  used?(UPSC 2015)
1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating  groundwater  resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic studies
Select  the  correct  answer  using  the  code  given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2,  3, 4 and 5
Ans: A
Exp:
Data from  Indian Remote  Sensing  satellites  are used for  various  applications  of  resources  survey  and management  under  the  National  Natural  Resources Management  System  (NNRMS).  Following  is the list
of  those  applications: 

· Space  Based  Inputs  for  Decentralized  Planning (SIS-DP)
· National  Urban  Information  System  (NUIS)
· ISRO Disaster Management Support Programme (ISRO-DMSP)
· Biodiversity Characterizations at landscape level 
· Preharvest  crop  area  and  production  estimation of  major  crops.
· Drought  monitoring  and  assessment  based on  vegetation  condition.
· Flood  risk  zone  mapping  and  flood  damage assessment.
· Hydro-geomorphological  maps  for  locating underground water  resources for  drilling well.
· Irrigation  command  area  status  monitoring 
· Snow-melt  run-off  estimates  for  planning water  use  in  down  stream  projects
· Land  use  and  land  cover  mapping
· Urban  planning
· Forest  survey
· Wetland  mapping
· Environmental  impact  analysis
· Mineral  Prospecting
· Coastal  studies
· Integrated  Mission  for  Sustainable Development  (initiated  in  1992)  for generating  locale-specific  prescriptions  for integrated  land  and  water  resources development  in  174  districts.

 6. The term  ‘IndARC’,  sometimes  seen in the  news,is the  name  of (UPSC 2015)
(a) an indigenously developed radar system inducted into  Indian Defence
(b) India’s  satellite  to  provide  services  to  the countries  of  Indian Ocean Rim
(c) a  scientific  establishment  set  up  by  India  in Antarctic region
(d) India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic  region
Ans: D
Exp:
A  major  milestone  in  India’s  scientific  endeavors in  the  Arctic  region  has  been  achieved  on  the 23rd  July,  2014  when  a  team  of  scientists  from the  ESSO-National  Centre  for  Antarctic  and 
Ocean  Research  (NCAOR)  and  the  ESSONational  Institute  of  Ocean  Technology  (NIOT) successfully  deployed  IndARC,  the  country’s  first  multi-sensor  moored  observatory  in  the 
Kongsfjorden  fjord  of  the  Arctic,  roughly  half way  between  Norway  and  the  North  Pole.  This  moored  observatory,  designed  and  developed  by ESSO-NIOT  and  ESSO-NCAOR  with  ESSOIndian 
 National  Centre  for  Ocean  Information Services  (INCOIS)  was  deployed  from  the Norwegian  Polar  Institute’s  research  vessel  R.V. Lance  during  its  annual  MOSJ-ICE  cruise  to 
the  Kongsfjorden  area.  The  observatory  is presently  anchored  (78°57´  N  12°01´E),  about 1100  km  away from the North  Pole  at  a  depth  of 192  m  and  has  an  array  of  ten  state-of-the-art 
oceanographic  sensors  strategically  positioned at  discrete  depths  in  the  water  column.  These sensors  are  programmed to  collect  real-time  data on  seawater  temperature,  salinity,  current  and 
other  vital  parameters  of  the  ford. 

 7. HINI  virus  is  sometimes  mentioned  in  the  news with  reference  to  which  one  of  the  following diseases?(UPSC 2015)
(a) AIDS (b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue (d) Swine flu
Ans: D
Exp:
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the most common cause of  human  influenza  (flu).  In  June  2009,  the  World Health Organization (WHO) declared the new strain of  swine-origin  H1N1  as  a  pandemic.  This  strain
is  often  called  swine  flu  by  the  public  media. 

UPSC Mains General Studies Study Kit (GS I + GS II + GS III + GS IV)

Printed Study Material for IAS (UPSC) : General Studies PRE Cum MAINS

(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2006 (PART -3)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM - 2006 (Part- 3)


51. Who among the following wrote .The Communist Manifesto. along with Karl Marx ?
(a) Emile Durkheim
(b) Friedrich Engels
(c) Robert Owen
(d) Max Weber

52. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946 ?
(a) Defence
(b) External Affairs and Commonwealth
(c) Food and Agriculture
(d) None

53. Who among the following was presented with the Sangeet Natak Akadami Ratna Award, 2005 for her lifetime achievement in dance ?
(a) Chandralekha
(b) Tanjavur Balasaraswati
(c) Uma Sharma
(d) Yamini Krishnamurthy

54. Which one of the following countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to the address global warming ?
(a) Australia (b) Germany
(c) Japan (d) New Zealand
55. Consider the following statements :
1. A person who has held office as a permanent as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Printed Study Material for IAS (UPSC) General Studies PRE Cum MAINS

57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Slovenia : Bratislava
(b) Seychelles : Victoria
(c) Sierra Leone : Freetown
(d) Uzbekistan : Tashkent

58. Who is Wole Soyinka ?
(a) A well-known economist
(b) A well-known football player
(c) A well-known industrialist owning steel plants in many parts of the world.
(d) A novel Prize winner for literature.

59. Consider the following statements :
1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.
2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African Coast.
3. Greece and Albania from a part of the Iberian Peninsula.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only

60. In a tournament each of the participants was to play one match against each of the other participants. 3 players fell ill after each of them had played three matches and had to leave the tournament. What was the total number of participants at the beginning, if the total number of matches played was 75 ?
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 15

61. P, Q, R, S and T reside in a 5-storeyed (Ground + 4) building, and each of them resides on a separate floor. Further,
1. T does not reside on the topmost floor.
2. Q does not reside on the ground floor.
3. S resides on one storey above that of P and one storey below that of R. To know as to which of the 5 persons resides on the ground floor which of the above statements are sufficient/ insufficient?
(a) 1 and 3 are sufficient
(b) 2 and 3 are sufficient
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are sufficient
(d) 1, 2 & 3 are insufficient

62. A box contains 5 sets of balls while there are 3 bails in each set. Each set of balls has one colour which is different from every other set. What is the least number of balls that must be removed from the box in order to claim with certainty that a pair of bails of the same colour has been removed?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9

63. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Brunel Darussalam
(c) Bangladeh
(d) Myanmar

64. Consider the following statements in respect of India.s advanced satellite INSAT . 4A :
1. INSAT . 4A was launched in December, 2005 from New Mexico.
2. The European commercial launch service provider Arianespace was associated with the launch of INSAT . 4A.
3. Tata-Sky-a digital cable service provider is associated with DTH television broadcasting services from INSAT-4A.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only

65. Consider the following statements:
1. Appellate Tribunal for Electricity has been established by each State Government in India.
2. One of the components of the Accelerated Power Development and Reforms Programme (APDRP) is upgradation of sub-transmission and distribution system for electricity in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Monastery
(a) Dhankar Monastery
(b) Rumtek Monastery
(c) Tabo Monastery
(d) Kye Monastery

State
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

67. Match List-1 with List-II and select .the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List .I (Valley)
A. Markha Valley
B. Dzukou Valley
C. Sangla Valley
D. Yumthang Valley

List-II (State)
1. Sikkim
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Nagaland

Codes :
A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1

68. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 without repeating any digit. What is the probability that their product is odd?
(a) 2/3 (b) 5/108
(c) 5/42 (d) 7/48

71. Where is Bundala Bioshpere Reserve which has been recently added to the UNESCO.s Man and Biosphere (MAB) network, located?
(a) Russia (b) India
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

72. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Census 2001, Kerala has the smallest gap in male and female literacy rates among the 28 states of India (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
2. According to the Census 2001, Rajasthan has literacy rate above the national average literacy rate

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 :
1. Under the provisions of the Act, 100 days of employment in a year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work has become a fundamental right.
2. Under the provisions of the Act, women are to get priority to the extent that one-half of persons who are given employment are women who have asked for work.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2

74. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rules to the throne of Delhi?
(a) Sikandar Shah-ibrahim Lodi-Bahlol Khan Lodi
(b) Sikandar Shah-Bahlol Khan Lodi- Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Bahlol Khan Lodi- Sikandar Shah- Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Bahlol Khan Lodi-Ibrahim Lodi- Sikandar Shah

75. Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which Mugal Emperor?
(a) Babar (b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb

Study Kit : UPSC - IAS PRE (GS+CSAT) Solved Papers & Test Series  

Printed Study Material for IAS (UPSC) General Studies PRE Cum MAINS

(Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (I) 2018

(Notification) UPSC : NDA & NA Exam (I) 2018

Post Detail :

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the  eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. 

  • National Defence Academy : 360 (208 for Army, 60 for Navy  and 92 for Air Force) 
  • Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme): 55

Total : 415

Education Qualification: 

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State Education Board or a University

(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :—12th Class pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Age :

Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2002 are eligible.

Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2017 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.

Fees  :

Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/MasterCard Credit/Debit Card.

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION:

1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows :—

Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks
Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600
Total 900
SSB Test/Interview : 900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.

3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.

4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.

5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.

6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

Pay Scale:

Low - up to Rs. 9000/-pm
Middle - Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm
High - Above 18000/-pm 

How to Apply :   

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website

Important Date :

Starting Date- 15-Jan-2018

Last Date – 05-Feb-2018

Click Here To Download Official Notification

Click Here To Apply Online

Study Material for UPSC National Defence Academy (NDA) Exam

(Paper) IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIMS QUESTION PAPER - 2006 (PART -1)

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PAPER : IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM - 2006 (Part - 1)


1. Match List . 1 with List . II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List . I
(National Park/ Wildlife Sanctuary)

A. Chandra Prabha
B. Karera
C. Jaisamand
D. Nahargarh

List . II


(Nearby Town)
1. Jaipur
2. Jhansi
3. Agra
4. Varanasi
5. Udaipur

A B C D

 


(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 5 2 3 1
(c) 4 2 5 1
(d) 5 1 3 2

2. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Well . known Company Major Area of Work
(a) Adobe Systems India : Software
(b) Sasken : Communication technology
(c) Genpact : Power generation
(d) Sunthite : Export of spices

3. Match List . I with Likst . II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List . I List . II
(Place of (State) Archaeological Monument)

A. Sisupalgarh 1. Assam
B. Piprahwa 2. Manipur
C. Goalpara 3. Orissa
D. Bishnupur 4. Uttar Pradesh

A B C D

 


(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

4. In which one among the following is the speed of sound maximum ?
(a) Air at 0ºC (b) Air at 100ºC
(c) Water (d) Wood

5. Consider the following chemicals :
1. Benzene
2. Carbon tetrachloride
3. Sodium Carbonate
4. Trichloroethylene

Which of the above is/are used as dry cleaning chemicals ?

(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 Only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Printed Study Material for IAS (UPSC) General Studies PRE Cum MAINS

6. Consider the following statements :
1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic.
2. Citric acid is used in soft drinks.
3. Ascorbic acid is essential for the formation of bones and teeth.
4. Citric acid is a good substitution for ascorbic acid in our nutrition.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

 


(a) 1 and 2, only (b) 1, 2 and 3, only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of Indian ?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health

8. Consider the following statements :
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The constitution of India does not define backward classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. What is the new administrative capital proposed for Myanmar ?
(a) Bassein (b) Mandalay
(c) Myitkyina (d) Pyinmana

10. Consider the following statements :
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among Pondicherry, NCT of Delhi and other Union Territories.
3. Maharashtra has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry not included).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only

11. Match List . I with Likst . II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List . I List . II
(Centre of (State)
Handicrafts)

A. Mon 1. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Nalbari 2. Assam
C. Pasighat 3. Meghalaya
D. Tura 4. Nagaland

A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 2 4 3

12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Vikramsila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh
(c) Udayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
(d) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa : Andhra Pradesh

13. Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolution approving the
Proclamation of Emergency are
passed only by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. What is the name of the vessel that delivers the nutrient rich blood from the stomach & small intestine to the liver ?
(a) Left hepatic artery
(b) Hepatic vein
(c) Right hepatic artery
(d) Hepatic portal vein

15. Consider the following statements with reference to human body :
1. The common bile duct release its contents into stomach.
2. The pancreatic duct releases its contents into duodenum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions : The following Six (6) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the .Assertion (A). and the other as .Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :

16.
Assertion (A): .Balance of Payments. represents a better picture of a country.s economic transactions with the rest of the world than the .Balance of Trade..

Reason (R) : .Balance of Payments.takes into account the exchange of both visible and invisible items whereas .Balance of Trade. does not.

17.
Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.

Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.

18.
Assertion (A): To orbit around the Sun, the planet Mars takes lesser time than the time taken by the Earth.

Reason (R) : The diameter of the Planet Mars is less than that of the Earth.

19.
Assertion (A): Cellulose is used in making shatter proof glass.

Reason (R) : Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.

20.
Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued a new gold coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah.

Reason (R) : Muhammad bin Tughlaq wanted to issue token currency in gold coins to Promote trade with West Asian and North African countries.

21.
Assertion (A): The percentage of net sown area in the total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as compared to that of West Bengal.

Reason (R) : The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is laterite.

22. Consider the following statements in respect of welfare schemes launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India .
1. Drinking water for rural areas in one of the components of the Bharat Nirman Plan.
2. In the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 there is a provision that the statutory minimum wage applicable to agriculture workers in the State has to be paid to the workers under the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to ?
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government.

24. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) concerns
(a) fiscal deficit only
(b) revenue deficit only
(c) both fiscal and revenue deficit
(d) neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit.

25. Consider the following statements :
1. Petronet LNG Ltd. Is setting up another LNG terminal at Mangalore.
2. The Head Office of the Dredging Corporation of India is at Visakhapatnam.
3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by the Uranium Corporation of Indian Limited.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only

Study Kit : UPSC - IAS PRE (GS+CSAT) Solved Papers & Test Series  

Printed Study Material for IAS (UPSC) General Studies PRE Cum MAINS

AP PSC PAPERS : Group -I Mains Examination Paper-III (Indian Economy & AP Economy)

AP PSC PAPERS : Group -I Mains Examination Paper-III

(Indian Economy & AP Economy)

Note: The question paper is in three sections. The candidate has to answer 15 questions with compulsorily 5 questions from each section. Each question carries 10 marks.

Section – I

1. (a) Discuss the difficulties faced in measuring the developmental level of economy and justify whether the current method of measurement in India overcomes the difficulties.
(or)
(b) Discuss briefly the major changes involved in the recent revision in the base year and method of national income accounting.

2. (a) Eleventh five year plan identified the weaknesses on the employment front during the period of reforms. Describe them.
(or)
(b) Discuss briefly the guiding principles in setting up the NITI Aayog.

3. (a) Explain the possible limitations in the strategy for poverty alleviation adopted by the Government of India.
(or)
(b) Discuss the possible consequences of rural unemployment on the society and suggest two effective remedial measures.

4. (a) Discuss briefly the recommendations of the expert committee constituted “To revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework". 

(or)
(b) Explain the need for emergence of Regional rural banks, and discuss the problems faced by them and the corresponding revisions made.

5. (a) Describe the highlights of Fiscal Reforms and Budget Management Act 2003
(or)
(b) Discuss the concept of revenue deficit and effective revenue deficit and justify the reasons for introducing effective revenue deficit. Give the details of the expected revenue deficit & the effective revenue deficit by the fiscal
2016-17, as per the Union Budget 2013-14.

Section – II

6. (a) Analyse the possible reasons for placing ceilings on agricultural holdings. Give two possible disadvantages to the economy due to such ceilings.
(or)
(b) Explain the need to enact the Andhra Pradesh Land Licensed Cultivators Act, 2011 and discuss the problems faced in meeting the objective of enacting the Act. 

7. (a) Describe the strategies being adopted by Andhra Pradesh to achieve the mission on agriculture extension program.
(or) 
(b) Detail the key four pillars, the project components, beneficiaries and key result indicators of Andhra Pradesh rural inclusive growth project

8 (a) Discuss the trends in the literacy rates in Andhra Pradesh.
(or)
(b) “Employment opportunities through Jawahar Knowledge Centres”-Explain how the Andhra Pradesh Government expects to meet its objective through this program.

9 (a) Explain the distinct aspect of Annual Budget for 2016-17 of Andhra Pradesh. Discuss the reasons for revenue deficit and fiscal deficit in residuary AP.
(or)
(b) The proportion of revenue receipts and total budgetary receipts as percentage of GSDP increased during the period 2002-2007 and declined during 2008-14. Explain the factors contributed for such trend.

10 (a) Discuss the performance of agriculture sector during the 11th plan period and reasons for such performance.
(or)
(b) List all the flagship programmes of Central Government implemented by the State during the 11th plan period and state the objective of the programs in one sentence.

Section – III

11 (a) Discuss salient features of Andhra Pradesh Industrial Investment Promotion Policy - 2015-20.
(or)
(b) Explain the need for the Andhra Pradesh Capital Region Development Authority Bill 2014 and describe its salient features.

12 (a) Discuss the recent initiatives taken to help farmers to increase productivity levels in agriculture.
(or)
(b) “Fair Price Shop Automation and portability within a District “– discuss the possible advantages of these changes in public distribution system.

13 (a) Describe the salient features of Polavaram irrigation project and explain its benefits.
(or)
(b) Explain the salient features and benefits of the PPP model of health services provided under Dr NTR Vaidya Seva programme.

14.(a)Discuss the highlights of farmers’ debt redemption scheme  implemented in Andhra Pradesh and its benifits 
(or)
(b) “An Indian peasant is born in debt, lives in debt and dies in debt”. In this context, explain the problems faced by the rural population in getting the loans from institutional and non-institutional sources in AP and how they get
into debt trap and poverty.

15 (a) Explain the e-pragati initiative of Andhra Pradesh and its benefits.
(or)
(b) “Smart village - Smart ward towards Smart Andhra Pradesh” - Explain

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