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(Download) UPSC (MAIN) EXAM:2024 PHILOSOPHY (Paper 1)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 PHILOSOPHY (Paper 1)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Philosophy

  • Paper : 1

  • Year : 2024

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours


खण्ड A SECTION A 

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5= 50 

(a) Differentiate between Plato's and Aristotle's conceptions of form. 
(b) How does Kant respond to Hume's scepticism with regard to a priori judgments? Discuss. 
(c) What arguments are offered by Moore to prove that there are certain truisms, knowledge of which is a matter of common sense? Critically discuss. 
(d) Why does later Wittgenstein think that there cannot be a language that only one person can speak a language that is essentially private ? Discuss. 
(e) How does Kierkegaard define truth in terms of subjectivity? Critically discuss. 

Q2. (a) Is rejection of Locke's notion of primary qualities instrumental in Berkeley's leaning towards idealism? In this context, also discuss how Berkeley's subjective idealism is different from the absolute idealism proposed by Hegel. 
(b) How does Spinoza establish that God alone is absolutely real with his statement – “Whatever is, is in God” ? Critically discuss. 
(c) Critically examine Kant's objections against the ontological argument for the existence of God.  

Q3.(a) Explain Russell's notion of incomplete symbols. Also explain how this notion leads to the doctrine of logical atomism. 
(b) Is the sentence "All objects are either red or not red" meaningful in the same way as "This page is white" is, according to the logical positivists? Discuss with arguments. 
(c) Among the rationalists, whose account of mind-body problem is compatible with the notion of human freedom and free will? Critically discuss. 

Q4. (a) What do the existentialist thinkers mean by the slogan "existence precedes essence"? How is human existence related to human freedom according to them ? Discuss. 
(b) Why does Husserl think that essences exhibit a kind of continuity between consciousness and being? Discuss. 
(c) Explain the nature of the two dogmas that Quine refers to in his paper "Two Dogmas of Empiricism'. 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10x5=50  

(a) Do you think Cārvāka's philosophy is positivistic in nature? Give reasons and justifications for your answer. 
(b) Explain the six reasons offered by the Naiyayikas to prove the existence of the self. 
(c) Do these two sentences "Air does not have heat" and "Air is not fire" refer to the same type of absence or abhāva, according to the Vaiśesikas? Discuss. 
(d) How does Bhāṭṭa's view of nature of word-meaning and sentential-meaning differ from Prābhākara's view ? Critically discuss. 
(e) "In Visiṣṭādvaita philosophy, the relationship between God and the world is parallel to that between an individual self and its body." Critically discuss. 

Q6. (a) Differentiate between the Cārvākas' refutation of self as transcendental category and the Buddhist rejection of ātmā. 
(b) How do the two schools of Buddhism arrive at two opposed conclusions, namely "everything is void" and "everything is real" from the same doctrine of Pratityasamutpada? Answer with arguments. 
(c) What is the distinction between Bhavabandha and Dravyabandha, according to the Jainas ? Discuss. 

Q7. (a) Present an account of evolution of Prakṛti as propounded in Sāmkhyakārikā. In this context, also explain the difference between buddhi, mahat and ahamkāra. 
(b) "So long as there are changes and modifications in citta, the self is reflected therein, and, in the absence of discriminative knowledge, identifies itself with them." Present an appraisal of Yoga Soteriology in the light of the above statement. 
(c) "Our Yoga is a double movement of ascent and descent." Discuss the above statement in the context of Sri Aurobindo's conception of Integral Yoga. 

Q8. (a) How do I know that I know? Answer this question with reference to the Naiyāyikas, the Bhāṭṭa Mīmāmsākas and the Prabhakaras. 
(b) "A candidate who is never seen to be studying during the day time secures a high position in a competitive exam." How would the Bhāṭṭa Mīmāmsākas and the Naiyayikas explain the success of this candidate? Discuss. 
(c) On what grounds do the Prabhakaras and the Naiyayikas reject memory as a source of knowledge ? Discuss. 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - Medical Science (Paper-2)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Medical Science (Paper-2)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Medical Science

  • Paper : 2024

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड A-SECTION-A 

Q1. (a) Discuss in short the role of a Chest X-ray in the diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. 
(b) Describe the clinical features for diagnosing a case of Depression. 
(c) What are the key differences between Kwashiorkor and Marasmus ? Which is the easiest method which can help in the early detection of Protein Energy Malnutrition ( PEM) in children ? 
(d) During the initial phase of stabilization in a severe acute malnourished child, map out the dietary plan. State the type, amount and frequency of feed that the child requires and for how long that would be necessary. In this phase, what is the vitamin and mineral supplementation given? 
(e) In a confirmed case of scabies in an adult : 
(i) What are the primary manifestations of the disease and what is the pattern of distribution of lesions on the body? 
(ii) What are the complications seen in scabies? 

Q2. (a) (i) Discuss in short about the different modalities used in the diagnosis of Extra-Pulmonary Tuberculosis. 
(ii) Describe the clinical features of malabsorption syndrome. 
(b) (i) Write in brief the ten steps of Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (revised 2018).
(ii) Write the advantages of breast-feeding. 
(c) A young adult female develops asymptomatic depigmented chalky white macules and patches with no sign of inflammation over face and around body orifices. 
(i) What is the diagnosis? 
(ii) What are the associated findings seen in this disorder ? 
(iii) How is this disorder classified ? 
(iv) Describe the clinical course of the disease. 
 
Q3. (a) Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of Kala-azar. 
(b) What are the types of vaccines currently in use against Pneumococcus organisms ? State the National Immunization Schedule for administering Pneumococcal Vaccine in infants. Enumerate the diseases that the Pneumococcal Vaccine can safeguard against. 
(c) A young female patient develops acute inflammatory papules and vesicles all over her scalp and tips of ears following repeated use of hair 
(i) What is the diagnosis? 
(ii) How can the diagnosis be confirmed ? 
(iii) How will this condition be treated ? 

Q4. (a) A sixty-year-old male develops central chest pain while walking uphill. The pain is squeezing in character, radiating to left arm, that relieves on taking rest. 
Discuss in short about the evaluation and treatment of this case. 

(b) (i) Enumerate the causes of respiratory distress in a newborn. How would you differentiate between respiratory distress of respiratory origin and that of cardiac origin? 
(ii) Write the complications of cyanotic congenital heart diseases. 
(iii) How will you manage a one-year five-month old child presenting with severe respiratory distress with a history of cough and fever for 5 days ? 

(c) (i) What is the meaning of the term 'lichenoid' ? 
(ii) Name the disease that is a prototype of lichenoid reaction. 
(iii) Describe the clinical features of the disease. 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. (a) (i) Enlist conditions having an increased risk of malignant disease in bone and cartilage. 
(ii) Briefly mention classification of bone tumours. 
(b) A 55-year-old male patient underwent subtotal gastrectomy for carcinoma stomach. Briefly describe early and late complications of this procedure.
(c) (i) A 25-year-old infertile woman presents with menorrhagia. USG (Ultrasound) pelvis revealed multi-fibroid uterus, largest measuring 3 x 3 cm. Describe the evaluation and management of Fibroid Uterus in the above patient. 
(ii) Describe recent classification of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (AUB).

(d) (i) A young newly married couple wants advice on contraception. Describe the various methods of contraception which are suitable for them. 
(ii) Enlist the various methods of female sterilization and complications of tubectomy.
(e) (i) Describe the 'yellow' category of biomedical waste in terms of types of waste, types of bags or containers to be used, and treatment and disposal options. 
(ii) Comment upon incineration' as a method of biomedical waste management. 
 
Q6. (a) (i) A 22-year-old Unbooked Primigravida at 38 weeks of gestation presents to Emergency with labour pains. How would you evaluate the patient for obstetric triaging and further management of labour ? 
(ii) Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of Rupture Uterus following obstructed labour. 
(b) (i) Write the clinical features and diagnostic work-up in a case of carcinoma rectum. 
(ii) Briefly mention Dukes' staging for this condition. 
(iii) Enumerate surgical options for this disease.
(c) (i) In the context of HIV/AIDS control and the National AIDS Control Programme in India, comment upon the following: 
(i) 95-95-95 targets 
(ii) Categorization of districts 
(iii) TB-HIV coordination to reduce mortality 

Q7. (a) A 50-year-old male presented with a 3 cm nodule in the left lobe of thyroid gland with a hard left cervical lymph node. Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) from the thyroid nodule revealed orphan Annie-eyed nuclei. 
(i) What is the diagnosis in this case? How can this condition be managed surgically ? 
(ii) Enumerate different prognostic scoring systems for this condition. 
(iii) What are the post-operative complications of total thyroidectomy? 

(b) (i) List the various sources of health information. 
(ii) Describe the limitations of hospital records as a source of health information. 
(iii) Write in brief the use of pictograms for presenting health information data. 
(c) (i) What are the signs and symptoms of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) ? 
(ii) What are the complications of PID ? 
(iii) How do you manage a 28-year-old woman, P1L1 with unilateral Tubo-ovarian abscess ? 

Q8. (a) (i) What are the different types of epidemiological studies ? 
(ii) What are the possible sources of control in case-control studies ? 
(iii) List the advantages of case-control studies as compared to cohort studies. 

(b) Define Antenatal Care. What are its objectives? What is the schedule of antenatal clinic visits that a mother is expected to follow during the course of her pregnancy? What are the advantages and disadvantages of ‘domiciliary midwifery service' ? 
(c) (i) Enumerate the causes of hematuria in a 60-year-old male. 
(ii) Briefly describe the management of carcinoma prostate in a 60-year-old male. 

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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - Medical Science (Paper-1)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Medical Science (Paper-1)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 Medical Science

  • Paper : 2024

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. (a) Describe the radial nerve under the following headings: 
(i) Origin and course 
(ii) Branches and muscles supplied 
(iii) Applied aspects 

(b) Describe the development of ventricles of the heart. Add a note on Fallot's tetralogy. 
(c) Explain the 'Mucosal Block Theory' for iron absorption. Discuss briefly the complications of excess of iron deposition in the body. 
(d) Give the sequence of events at the neuromuscular junction during the transmission of a nerve impulse. Name the muscles most commonly affected by myasthenia gravis. 
(e) Describe the components of the nervous system which are concerned with 'conscious alert state' that makes perception possible. 

2. (a) A middle-aged female notices a lump in the midline of the neck. She notices it moves with swallowing. The surgeon gives a tentative diagnosis of goitre. 
Describe the thyroid gland under the following headings : 
(i) Gross anatomy and relations 
(ii) Blood supply and lymphatic drainage 
(iii) Surgical anatomy of thyroid gland 5+5+5=15 

(b) (i) Explain why vitamin D can be considered to be a hormone'. Describe the role of vitamin D in calcium homeostasis. 
(ii) Discuss the sources and Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of vitamin B12. Briefly discuss the absorption of vitamin B12 in the GIT and the clinical manifestations of the disorder of absorption of vitamin B12. 
(c) (i) Define the Frank-Starling law. State the significance and causes of shift of Frank-Starling curve to right and left. 
(ii) What is the role of baroreceptors and chemoreceptors in the regulation of blood pressure? 

3. (a) Describe the uterus under the following headings : 
(i) Gross anatomy 
(ii) Ligaments and supports 
(iii) Relations of uterus 
(iv) Blood supply 
(v) Lymphatic drainage 
(vi) Applied aspects

(b) (i) Which antibiotics and toxins inhibit protein synthesis in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Briefly explain the mechanism of action of each of them. 
(ii) What are ribozymes? Explain briefly the role of any one ribozyme in protein synthesis. 
(c) (i) Enumerate the major hormonal causes of dwarfism. Give their characteristic features. 
(ii) Describe the principal events during oogenesis in brief. 
 
4. (a) (i) Describe the facial nerve under the following headings: 
1. Functional columns and nuclei of origin 
2. Course and branches 
3. Bell's palsy
 
(ii) Differentiate between indirect and direct inguinal hernia. 

(b) (i) Define renal clearance. What key features should be present in a compound for it to be considered as a 'gold standard' for measurement of renal clearance? Explain why urea is not considered as a 'gold standard' for this. 
(ii) Briefly describe the role of Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) in DNA fingerprinting. 
(c) (i) Give the physiological basis of anaemia in kidney and liver disease. 
(ii) Describe the role of eosinophils in control of allergy reactions. 
(iii) Describe the role of platelets in haemostasis. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. (a) (i) Discuss the antiviral spectrum and therapeutic uses of acyclovir. 
(ii) Doxorubicin is an antibiotic. Enumerate its role in cancer chemotherapy and its adverse effects. 
(b) What is hypersensitivity? Enumerate different hypersensitivity reactions along with examples. Define type I hypersensitivity reaction and write its role in health and disease. 
(c) Define cancer. Describe in detail the effects of cancer-related genes on cell growth. 
(d) A 50-year-old male presented with a history of chest pain, polyuria and polydipsia since last 5 years. Investigations showed HbAlc level of 12%, cardiac enzymes were normal, while urinalysis showed proteinuria. 
(i) What is the most likely diagnosis ? 
(ii) Describe the microscopic findings. 
(iii) What is the pathogenesis ? 
(e) Define injury. Discuss the microscopic and histochemical methods which can determine the age of injury. 

6. (a) (i) Describe the microscopic features of breast cancer. Enumerate any five major prognostic factors. 
(ii) Enumerate any five differences between primary tuberculosis and secondary tuberculosis. 
(b) (i) Explain why primaquine is used for radical cure of malaria. 
(ii) Explain why albendazole is termed as broad-spectrum oral antihelminthic. 
(c) (i) What is candidiasis? What are its different presentations and etiological causes? Give the laboratory diagnosis of a case of invasive candidiasis. 
(ii) What is shigellosis? What are its causative organisms and their modes of pathogenicity? Give the laboratory diagnosis of a case. 

7. (a) (i) Define death due to hanging. What are the probable causes of death in hanging? 
(ii) What are the findings in a case of judicial hanging? 

(b) (i) A 55-year-old female presented with haematemesis. On physical examination, she was afebrile and pale. No organomegaly was noted. Serological tests for hepatitis B were positive. 
1. What is the most likely diagnosis ? 
2. Describe the microscopic findings. 
3. What is the pathogenesis?
(ii) Describe the clinical features and microscopic findings in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. 

(c) (i) State the role of diuretics in the management of hypertension. 
(ii) Discuss how excess dose of paracetamol causes acute hepatocellular toxicity and how you will manage the condition. 
(iii) Elaborate the advantages and disadvantages of Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2 ) inhibitors in the management of diabetes mellitus. 

8. (a) (i) What is enteric fever? What are its causative agents? Give a detailed presentation of a case according to the time of the disease and the respective tests used for diagnosis. 
(ii) Draw a diagram of HIV virion depicting the various antigens and proteins. Give the serological pattern in an HIV infection according to the time of presentation. List the various diseases associated with AIDS. 

(b) (i) What is virtual autopsy? State its methodology. What are its merits? 
(ii) Define brain death. Describe its medicolegal importance. 
(c) (i) Discuss why infliximab is considered as an immunosuppressant. Mention its therapeutic uses. 
(ii) Describe briefly the pharmacological characteristics of natriuretic peptides and their clinical uses. 

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(Download) UPSC MAINS 2024 - LAW Paper-2

(Download) UPSC 2024 LAW Paper II

  • Exam Name: UPSC 2024 LAW Paper II
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Year : 2024
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड 'A' SECTION ‘A’ 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each.Support your answer with relevant legal provisions and Judicial pronouncements : 10×5=50

1. (a) The underlying principle of mens-rea is expressed in the familiar Latin maxim 'actus non-facit reum nisi mens sit rea,' - 'the act does not make a man guilty unless the mind is also guilty.' Explain with decided cases.  
1. (b) "The principle that every conspirator is liable for all the acts of co-conspirators if they are towards attaining the goals of the conspiracy even if some of them have not actively participated in the commission of that offence/s." In the light of above statement, explain the principle of criminal conspiracy as per Indian Penal Code 1860.
1. (c) 'It is the degree of negligence which really determines whether a particular action will amount to rash and negligent act as required to hold a person guilty of homicide under Section 304 - A of Indian Penal Code, 1860.' Discuss. 
1. (d) 'The determination of vicarious liability of the state is linked with the negligence made by all its functionaries and no immunity can be claimed.' In the light of above observation discuss; vicarious liability of state with reference to its sovereign functions.
1. (e) “The introduction of 'product liability' under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 marked an end of the 'buyer beware' doctrine and the introduction of 'seller beware' as the new doctrine.” Discuss. 

2. (a) "Justification for introduction of 'plea-bargaining' in India was that it will reduce delay in case of undertrial prisoners in a cheaper and quicker method." Do you appreciate its existence in the same form or not? Justify your answer.
2. (b) 'Intoxication impairs perception and judgement both so one fails to foresee the result of his conduct.' In this backdrop, examine the law relating to the defence of intoxication and refer to the leading cases. 
2. (c) How far do you agree that prevention of corruption Act 1988 is an important legal instrument in curbing corruption in the society. Discuss. What are the types of offences recognised under this law and what are punishments?

3. (a) "It is the mode of acquiring possession of property of other party with/without his consent, which determines the type of offence against property and thus distinguishes theft, misappropriation and Criminal breach of trust.” Discuss. 
3. (b) "A person is liable for Public nuisance, when he does an act or illegal omission which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public..." Discuss Nuisance in the light of above statement along with its types. 
3. (c) Explain 'false imprisonment' as per law of Torts and distinguish it from 'malicious prosecution.' 

4. (a) 'If an enterprise is permitted to carry on any hazardous or inherently dangerous activity for its profits, the cost of any accident arising on account of such activity must be an appropriate term of overheads.' Comment. (M. C. Mehta v. U.O.I.) 
4. (b) 'Kidnapping is a substantive offence while abduction is not an offence exclusively. It becomes offence, when committed with a criminal intent.' Explain. 
4. (c) 'The offence of abetment depends upon the intention of the abettor not upon the act committed by the abetted person.' Explain. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. Support your answer with relevant legal provisions and Judicial pronouncements: 10×5=50 

5. (a) A "Quasi-Contract' arises out of judicial principles and not out of contractual agreement between two parties." Explain. 
5. (b) Every partner of a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) for the purposes of its business is its agent but not that of other partners. Analyse the extent of liability of LLP and its partners. 
5. (c) "The rights of an unpaid seller do not depend upon any agreement, express or implied, between the parties. They arise by implication of law.' Explain. 
5. (d) Mutual rights and duties of the Principal and agent may be wholly provided for in their contract. Discuss the general duties of the agent with special reference to the duty of reasonable care and skill. 
5. (e) What is the commercial significance of the Geographical Indications of Goods? Explain the benefits that accrue to the registered proprietors and authorised users by registration of Geographical Indications of Goods. 

6. (a) Discuss the rules which are taken into account by the courts while awarding damages for the breach of contract. Refer to the relevant statutory provisions and case law. 
6. (b) 'An illegal contract is always void but a void contract is not always illegal.' Examine while illustrating both the types of contract. 
6. (c) "The principle of arbitral autonomy is an integral element of the ever evolving domain of arbitration law .... The basis of arbitral autonomy is to give effect to the true intention of the parties to distance themselves from the 'risk of domestic judicial parochialism.'" Comment with reference to the theory and practice. 

7. (a) 'The liability of a surety is secondary, but it is co-extensive with that of Principal debtor.' In this backdrop, discuss the nature and extent of liability of surety.
7. (b) ‘Sections 124 and 125 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are not exhaustive of the law of indemnity.' Comment in the context of Indemnity and Indemnity - holder's rights.
7. (c) 'Mistake does not defeat consent, but only misleads the parties.' Explain citing the 15 relevant legal provisions and cases decided by the courts. 

8. (a) "There is, in recent years, a feeling which is not without any foundation that 'public interest litigation' is now tending to become 'publicity interest litigation' or 'private interest litigation', and has a tendency to be counter-productive." Examine the 20 statement critically. 
8. (b) Discuss the relevance of the 'safe harbour' clause under the Information Technology Act 2000. Comment on the need to make the intermediaries liable for transmitting the posts and communications of third parties.
8. (c) An information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought. Are there any exceptions to this rule? Explain with suitable illustrations. 

(Download) UPSC MAINS 2024 - LAW Paper-1

(Download) UPSC 2024 LAW Paper I

  • Exam Name: UPSC 2024 LAW Paper I
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Year : 2024
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Examine the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to criminal matters. 
(b) The Parliament or any State Legislature should keep within the domain assigned to it and not encroach upon the other's subject. Critically examine. 
(c) "Every person who is a member of civil service of the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President." Is there any exception to this rule? Describe. 
(d) The Indian Constitution permits delegation but imposes specific restrictions to ensure alignment with the Parent Act and protect legislative intent. Examine with illustrations. 
(e) "A law is void only to the extent of inconsistency or contravention with the relevant Fundamental Right." Explain with the help of decided cases. 

2. (a) The concept of Public Interest Litigation is an exception to the rule of 'locus standi'. Elaborate in the light of its evolution, aims and objects in India with the help of leading cases. Also discuss its drawbacks. 
(b) "Constitutionalism is the concept of limited government under a Fundamental Law." In the light of this, differentiate between distinctive features of Constitution and Constitutionalism. 
(c) Discuss the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers under the parliamentary form of government in India. Explain with the help of relevant constitutional provisions. 

3. (a) “Article 194, which is an exact reproduction of Article 105, deals with the State Legislatures and their members and committees." On this background, comment that both the Articles are complementary to each other and should be read together. 
(b) Who are 'minorities'? The Constitution of India protects the rights and interests of minorities to the extent that the rights conferred to them to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions. Discuss with the help of decided case laws. 
(c) Discuss the procedure of amending the Constitution. Are there any restrictions also in this regard? Support your answer with the help of relevant Supreme Court judgments. 

4. (a) In recent years, the concept of 'Cooperative Federalism' has played a pivotal role in constitutional governance of the nation but at the same time it comes across various challenges as well. Elaborate. 
(b ) "The Fundamental Rights are not an end in themselves but are the means to an end. The end is specified in the Directive Principles." Analyze the statement. 
(c) "The ordinance making power of the President and the Governors is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution but it balances on a razor-sharp edge between pragmatic governance and potential over-reach." Critically examine with the help of decided case laws. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Define International Law. Enumerate its weaknesses and give suggestions for improvement. 
(b) What is State recognition? Draw a distinction between recognition de jure and de facto. 
(c) Examine the importance of nationality and discuss the modes of acquisition of nationality. 
(d) Distinguish between the concept of territorial sea and inland water. Comment on the breadth of territorial sea that is internationally accepted. 
(e) Examine the importance of 'the Economic and Social Council' as a principal organ of the United Nations. 

6. (a) Peaceful settlement of international disputes has been developed on the principles of International Law concerning friendly relations and cooperations among States. Explain. 
(b) The present world 'Economic Order' is supposed to be granted by the operation of free market forces propelled by free competition and enterprises, based on free movement of goods and services including technology. Elucidate. 
(c) International Law and Municipal Law are two branches of unified knowledge of law, which are applicable to human community in someway or the other. Elaborate with the help of prevalent theories. 

7. (a) Following 'World War II' destruction, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund emerged as two historic institutions to promote economic recovery and to build a global monetary system to ensure economic stability around the world. Discuss at length. 
(b) Discuss the law on extradition. The procedure for granting asylum and approving extradition requests differ significantly. Explain. 
(c) What is intervention? Discuss the intervention on humanitarian grounds and the intervention due to self-defence. 

8. (a) Describe the constitution of United Nations Security Council's 'Counter- Terrorism Committee'. To what extent has this Committee been effective in countering terrorism across international borders? Critically analyze. 
(b) What do you understand by nuclear disarmament? Do you agree with the opinion that Comprehensive Nuclear - Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) has been successful in achieving its objects? Critically examine. 
(c) What is statelessness? A stateless person is often subjected to a number of human rights violation. What are the impediments that people face due to statelessness? Elaborate the human rights issues that are connected to statelessness. 
 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam : 2024 - History (Paper-2)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - History (Paper-2)

  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS MAINS HISTORY - PAPER- II
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड 'A' SECTION 'A' 

1. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10×5=50 

1. (a) After the battle of Plassey, the mercenary became the Kingmaker. 
1.(b) The values of utilitarianism prompted the Company administration to attempt reform of Indian society.
1.(c) In course of the 19th century, the agenda of social reform was gradually replaced by revivalism. 
1. (d) The federal provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935 foundered on the rock of princely intransigence. 
1.(e) The strength of the Pakistan programme was its vagueness. It meant everything to everyone. 

2. (a) The pace of commercialisation of agriculture increased as a result of British revenue policies in India. - Critically examine. 
2.(b) Why was the Great Revolt of 1857 confined only to North India? How did it change the character of British rule in the subcontinent? Explain.
2.(c) Why did the demand for land reform never become an agenda in national politics after 1947? Elucidate. 

3. (a) Political extremism in colonial India often converged with cultural nationalism, but not always. - Comment. 
3.(b) Regionalism in India after 1947 was occasioned by developmental imperatives as much as linguistic particularism. – Elucidate.
3.(c) Twenty years of peace secured by the treaty of Salbai proved very costly to the Marathas in strategic terms. - Elucidate.

4. (a) The Swadeshi movement of 1905 anticipated many of the tactics that were later developed during the Gandhian mass movement. - Critically examine.
4. (b) The trade union movement joined forces with the mainstream of nationalist politics to strengthen each other in their struggle against colonial rule. - Comment. 
4. (c) India's developmental strategy after independence was influenced by economic imperatives, not ideological considerations. – Comment. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Critically examine the following statements in about 150 words each: 10×5 = 50

5. (a) The ideas raised by Enlightenment thinkers were profoundly unsettling and challenging to old regime society and political order. 
5.(b) The American Civil War was a result of disparity of needs of industrial north and agrarian south. 
5.(c) The unification of Germany was as much a product of coal and iron as it was of blood and iron. 
5. (d) The new regime in China addressed the peasant question by instituting wholesale land redistribution, which was carried out swiftly and ruthlessly. 
5. (e) The revolutions of 1989 did not simply destroy governments; they also ended an ideology. 

6. (a) The course of the English industrialization was too long drawn to be considered a revolution. Comment. 
6. (b) The social and political landscape of Europe after the first world war was uniquely suited to the rise of Fascism. Discuss. 
6. (c) The state was the most important factor in the industrialization of Russia. Comment. 

7.(a) The second world war was a truly global conflict. Discuss.
7.(b) Trace the different stages of European economic integration. 
7. (c) The nature of apartheid regime undermined South Africa's claim of being a democratic polity. 

8. (a) The emergence of two power blocs not only symbolised two competing ideologies but also two alternative models of economic growth. Explain. 
8. (b) To what extent underdevelopment in Latin America is caused by neo-imperialism? 
8. (c) How did Ho Chi Minh emerge as the central figure in the Vietnamese independence movement ? 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam : 2024 - History (Paper-1)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - History (Paper-1)

  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS MAINS HISTORY - PAPER- I
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Maximum Marks : 250

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Identify the following places marked on the map supplied to you and write a short note of about 30 words on each of them in your Question-cum-Answer Booklet. Locational hints for each of the places marked on the map are given below seriatim: 50 
(i) Prehistoric site 
(ii) Area of petroglyphs 
(iii) Neolithic site 
(iv) Harappan site 
(v) Buddhist monastery 
(vi) Chalcolithic site 
(vii) Neo-Chalcolithic site 
(viii) Megalithic site with rock art 
(ix) One of the Mahajanapadas' capital and associated with Buddha's miracle 
(x) Hominid fossil find site 
(xi) Major rock edict of Ashoka 
(xii) Ancient trade centre 
(xiii) Stone inscription recording land grants with tax exemptions 
(xiv) Shiva temples named after family relationships 
(xv) Place of art-related inscription 
(xvi) Place of inscription of three languages 
(xvii) Temple site where three styles of temple architecture are found 
(xviii) Jain pilgrimage site 
(xic) Shiva temple of Gupta period 
(xx ) Megalithic monumental site 

2. (a) Harappan art contributes to our understanding of their aesthetic sensibilities in addition to spiritual and ritualistic life. Comment. 20 
(b) Discuss different types of Megalithic burial practices in India. How far does the archaeological evidence from it help us to know the religious beliefs and cultural practices? 
(c) Western Kshatrapas are known for their socio-economic contribution, particularly in trade, agriculture and urbanization. Examine the statement. 

3. (a) Symbiotic relationships between Buddhist establishments, traders, artisan guilds, and royal support led to a close proximity of religion, economy and polity in the Mauryan and post-Mauryan periods. Examine the statement. 
(b) Discuss the role of Buddhism in shaping the socio-religious landscape of the Mauryan Empire. 
(c) Discuss the evolution of State institution and taxation system from Rigvedic period to later Vedic period. 

4. (a) Highlight the contributions of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta in the fields of Astronomy and Mathematics. 
(b) Examine the course of Pallava-Chalukya conflicts between sixth and eighth century CE. 
(c) Examine the role played by the Agraharas in the promotion of education in the early medieval India. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5 = 50 

(a) Illustrate the main features of Vesara style temple architecture. 
(b) Evaluate Firuz Shah Tughluq's economic policies. 
(c) Evaluate the contribution of Qalandariyyah to medieval Indian culture. 
(d) Discuss the main features of Malwa school of painting with examples. 
(e) Highlight the features of Portuguese colonial enterprise. 

6. (a) Analyze the contributions of Acharya Triumvirate to Indian Vedanta. 
(b) Compare and contrast the position of Hindu and Muslim women in 13th and 14th century India. 
(c) Examine the causes and consequences of peasants uprising during the reign of Aurangzeb. 

7. (a) "Instead of bringing credit, the Ibadat Khana brought growing discredit to Akbar." Comment. 20 
(b) How did the Maratha guerrilla warfare tactics contribute to their military successes against larger and more established armies? 
(c) Examine the role of Asaf Jahi Dynasty in the political transformation of the State of Hyderabad. 

8. (a) Discuss the contributions of Bahmani Sultans to the development of Indo-Islamic architecture. 
(b) Evaluate the impact of the Third Battle of Panipat on the political economy of 18th century India. 
(c) Examine the process of urbanization caused by the establishment of European trading companies in India. 
 

(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 - GEOLOGY (Paper-2)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper II)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper II)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड A SECTION A 

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10x5=50 

(a) What are the different types of rotational axes of symmetry present in a crystal? What are the different types of twinning observed in quartz? 
(b) How does one define "Double refraction" and "Birefringence" of an anisotropic mineral? Write with the help of suitable sketches. 
(c) Show diagrammatically the characteristics of binary eutectic system under 1 atmosphere (1 atm pressure). How does one explain the formation of porphyritic basic rock with phenocryst of plagioclase in a groundmass with plagioclase and clinopyroxene with the help of a suitable binary eutectic system? 
(d) Explain the processes involved in magmatic differentiation. 
(e) With the help of suitable diagrams, describe Folk's graphic classification of carbonate rocks. 

Q2. (a) What are the symmetry elements present in the normal class of an isometric system? Write the Hermann-Mauguin notation of the normal class of isometric system. Plot the face (hkl) and deduce the form generated by operation of symmetry elements from the face (hkl) on a stereogram of the normal class of isometric system. 
(b) Draw and describe the structure of mica group of minerals. Describe the chemical composition and optical properties of minerals of mica group. 
(c) Define polymorphism and discuss different types of polymorphic transitions. What are the different types of polymorphs of SiO2 and AlgSiO5? 

Q3. (a) Describe the mineral reactions in prograde metamorphism of argillaceous sedimentary rocks with appropriate diagrams. 
(b) Write the mineralogy and texture of basalt. How does basaltic magma form in deep earth? 
(c) Discuss the process of magma generation in the Earth's interior and its causes. 

Q4. (a) Discuss the various factors that control the composition of sandstone. 
(b) What do you understand by facies model? Describe the facies and facies association produced in a fluvial environment. 
(c) What are heavy minerals? Describe methods of their separation and comment on the utility of heavy mineral suite in provenance interpretation. 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each. 10x5=50 

(a) Give an account of the geology and the process of formation of aluminium mineral deposits of India. 
(b) What are the Iron-Titanium oxides associated with igneous rocks? Add an account of their mineral associations and textures. 
(c) What is the difference between prospecting and exploration? Explain the various techniques of sampling. 
(d) Discuss briefly about the abundance of elements in the Universe. State Oddo-Harkins rule with examples. 
(e) Describe the natural hazards due to earthquakes. Discuss the mitigation aspects of earthquake hazards. 

Q6. (a) Explain the various peculiarities inherent in the mineral industry. 
(b) What is mineral conservation? Explain how it can be achieved. 
(c) Describe the classification of magmatic deposits and add a note on "late magmatic deposits". 

Q7.(i) What is the difference between a sample and a specimen ?

(ii) Describe the classification of mineral reserves. 
(iii) What are the different marine mineral resources? 

(b) What is the principle and nature of construction of Wilfley Table? Which mineral product is separated in tabling? 
(c) What do you know about 'Neyveli Lignite Mine'? Enumerate the methodology of mining and machinery under use in this mine, with neat sketches. 

Q8. (a) What are the different layers in the Earth's interior? How is the layered structure of the Earth determined? Name two most abundant elements of each layer of the Earth. 
(b) Define major, minor and trace elements. Write briefly about the characteristics of lithophile, chalcophile, siderophile and atmophile elements with examples. Why are trace elements considered more efficient than major elements in understanding the Earth's processes? 
(c) Discuss in detail the pollution of surface water and groundwater due to mining activities. 

(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 - GEOLOGY (Paper-1)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper I)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 GEOLOGY (Paper I)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) Discuss two widely accepted theories of origin of the earth. Elucidate the position of all planets within the solar system and write the important facts of the earth. 
(b) What are the planar and linear structures of a rock? Discuss the genesis of boudins. 
(c) Discuss the applications of remote sensing in Geology. 
(d) Discuss the process of soil formation. 
(e) Define dip of a rock bed. What is true dip and apparent dip? Find the strike direction of a bed which dips 30°; towards North 30° East. 

2. (a) Discuss the intensity and magnitude scale commonly used to assess seismic damage. Write a note on the global distribution pattern of earthquake. Mark the different seismic zones of India on the given map and discuss about them. 
(b) Discuss in detail the ideas of geomorphic cycle proposed by Davis and Penck.
(c) What do contours represent in a toposheet? How do the contour lines help to identify the different geomorphic features of an area? Explain with neat diagrams. 

3. (a) Discuss in detail, with diagrams, the landforms and features resulting from deposition by rivers. 
(b) Describe the characteristics of Indian remote sensing satellites. 
(c) Diagrammatically explain the formation of normal fault, strike-slip fault and thrust fault with the help of stress ellipsoid. 

4. (a) Describe fold geometry. Illustrate various types of folds on the basis of their symmetry, orientation of axial plane and the trend of the fold axis. 
(b) Describe and illustrate different types of plate boundaries, and explain the mechanism of plate motion. 
(c) "At depth of compensation, the pressure generated by all overlying landmass substances on the earth is everywhere equal." Describe the hypotheses which support this statement. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50 

(a) Define species and explain how paleontological species are different from biological species. 
(b) Discuss the geological parameters used to subdivide the Dharwar Craton into two subcratons.
(c) Describe the Cretaceous volcanic province in India. 
(D) Describe how Darcy's law and Reynolds' number are related to the types of fluid flow in aquifers. 
(e) Describe the rehabilitation measures required in landslide-affected area to restore the community and the ecology of the area affected. 

6. (a) Elucidate the evolutionary trend of Proboscidea with examples. 
(b) Describe lithostratigraphic classification and shift of depositional environments during deposition of the Vindhyan Supergroup. Comment on the age of the Vindhyan succession. 
(c) Describe briefly the characteristics of different types of aquifers and also discuss the important properties that an aquifer should possess. 

7. (a) Discuss the merits and limitations of different methods of stratigraphic analysis in brief. Comment on the most suitable method of stratigraphic analysis with justification. 
(b) Describe in brief various types of organic-walled microfossils. Add a note on their biostratigraphic and paleogeographic significance. 
(c) Describe the types of geological investigation required before construction of a highway in the Himalayas. 

8. (a) Explain the concept of drainage basin morphometry. How do morphometric parameters influence the groundwater conditions of an area? 
(b) Discuss various modes of preservation of fossils. 
(c) Discuss the evolution of the Himalayas. Illustrate your answer with suitable labelled sketches. 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - Geography (Paper-2)

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 Geography (Paper-2)

  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Geography (Paper-II)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed: 3 Hours
  • Year : 2024

 

खण्ड - A / SECTION—A 

1. (a) On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of all of the following. Write in your QCA Booklet the significance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic / ecological/environmental / cultural, in not more than 30 words for each entry : 2×10=20 

(i) Lunkaransar 
(ii) Gua 
(iii) Raidak River 
(iv) Ekta Nagar 
(v) Chandanwari 
(vi) Babina 
(vii) Tatipaka 
(viii) Along Airport 
(ix) Karaikal 
(x) Panna 

(b) Discuss the basis of various explanations for the formation of Shiwalik. 
(c) Conservation and breeding centres are important components of the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation, 2020-2025. Why? 
(d) North-Eastern States of India are geopolitically sensitive and strategically significant. Explain. 

2. (a) Institutional factors are playing a dominant role in controlling the agricultural prosperity in India. Justify with evidences. 
(b) The Indian Space Policy, 2023 supports the commercial presence in space. In what ways will it benefit the socio-economic development and security of India? 15 
(c) Discuss the process of formation of conurbations in India and describe their problems. 

3. (a) India has wide-ranging regional disparities in economic development. Explain the patterns, implications and challenges. 
(b) Discuss the variations in nature of glaciers in India and the emerging issues due to climate change. 
(c) Domestic tourism in India has immense local resource potential. Discuss the reasons and its various dimensions. 

4. (a) Migration is the reflection of regional disparities. What socio-economic and demographic consequences are experienced at the place of origin and destination? 
(b) In spite of various tribal area development programmes in India, tribal areas still lag behind. Discuss critically with examples. 
(c) Water scarcity is an important cause of disputes and conflicts in India. Suggest innovative methods for location-based solutions. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION - B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) How are geographic factors influencing the distribution of high annual rainfall in certain parts of India? 
(b) Indian population belongs to large number of races. Discuss the spatial distribution of major races. 
(c) Examine the transitional role of technology on Indian agriculture sector. 
(d) Describe the area-specific strategies for the development of drought-prone areas in India. 
(e) Examine the relationship between seaports and regional development in India. 

6. (a) Industrial waste is diversified. Discuss the potentials and challenges associated with it. 
(b) How is cultural background of States of India reflected in the attributes of sex and age structure? 
(c) Discuss the targets of focused interventions of the Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain, 2024 in rural and urban areas. 

7. (a) India is playing a very significant role in world affairs. Examine the stands taken by India in important global and regional summits. 
(b) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act devolved functions, finances and functionaries for planning of rural areas in India. Discuss the major achievements with examples. 
(c) How do small and fragmented landholdings affect the agro-ecological system in rural India? What are the resilient steps needed to overcome this issue? 

8. (a) How can morphology of Indian towns be described historically? Discuss the major features of the first planned city in India after independence. 
(b) Health is the outcome of interaction between physical setting, cultural traits and ecological connection. Explain. 
(c) What are the major regional rapid transit systems developed in India? How are urban problems being addressed by them?

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