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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 ANTHROPOLOGY (Paper-2)



(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 ANTHROPOLOGY (Paper-2)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 ANTHROPOL0GY (Paper II)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड A : SECTION A 

Q1. Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each : 10x5= 50

(a) Digitisation of rural economy 
(b) Origin of State Societies 
(c) Syro-Malabar Christians 
(d) Artisan tribes of Jharkhand 
(e) Causes of stunting and wasting among tribal children 

Q2. (a) Critically discuss the recent welfare measures initiated by the Government for the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). Comment why PVTGs were erroneously called Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs).
(b) How is PESA Act empowering local self-governance and impacting women's political participation ?
(c) Deconstruct the colonial history of Indian Anthropology highlighting the critical role played by the Indian Anthropologists in sustaining its autonomy.  

Q3. (a) Critically describe evidences from Rakhi Garhi and its linkages to Harappan civilization.  
(b) Compare and contrast the approaches of M.N. Srinivas and L.P. Vidyarthi to social change in village India. 
(c) Examine the impact of Forest Policies from 1878 to 2006 on land alienation and deprivation of rights of tribal communities in India. 

Q4. (a) What are the ethical concerns in biological and socio-cultural anthropology because of recent advances in AI and genetic research?  
(b) Write an essay on the life history of tribal activist and freedom fighter Birsa Munda. What was the impact of his sacrifice on tribal society? 
(c) What are the demographic challenges of India's changing population dynamics in the next 50 years ? 

खण्ड B SECTION B 

Q5. Write short notes on the following in about 150 words each: 10x5=50 

(a) B.K. Roy Burman's concept of 'Buffer Zone' 
(b) Describe ILO's Convention No. 169 (1989) on Indigenous and Tribal people. Is India a signatory to it ? 
(c) Agricultural practices of the Apatani 
(d) Status of Sixth Schedule Areas 
(e) Constitutional Safeguards for Backward Classes

Q6. (a) Custodians of natural resources are the tribals, but they are the most deprived. Critically examine how climate change will impact their survival in future. 
(b) Elucidate the difference between secularism, religiosity, religious fundamentalism and spiritualism from an anthropological perspective. 
(c) Discuss the contribution of P.K. Bhowmick in decriminalising the status of the Lodha tribe. 

Q7. (a) Critically examine existing paradigms of holistic health for the marginalised sections of society drawing inferences from COVID-19 pandemic.
(b) Discuss the theories on origin of caste system and its criticism in India. Differentiate between caste, class and race. 
(c) Elucidate the resurgence of ethno-nationalism from an anthropological lens. 

Q8. (a) Describe the important Paleolithic sites from South India with suitable examples. What is the significance of South Indian Paleolithic cultures?
(b) Distinguish a Theocratic State' from a secular, liberal, democratic state. Illustrate your answer with examples from tribal and contemporary societies. 
(c) Discuss the economic, social and developmental impacts on tribal communities with special reference to mining.

(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 ANTHROPOLOGY (Paper-1)



(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2024 ANTHROPOLOGY (Paper-1)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 ANTHROPOL0GY (Paper I)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड - A / SECTION —A 

1.Write notes on the following in about 150 words each : 10×5=50

(a) Attributes of culture 
(b) Harappan maritime trade 
(c) Critical perspective on avoidance and joking relationship 
(d) Lethal and sublethal genes 
(e) Hemoglobin in health and disease 
 
2. (a) Discuss historical particularism as a critical development to the classical evolutionism. 
(b) Describe the evidences of food production and domestication of animals with special reference to Mehrgarh. Throw light on its significance. 
(c) Critically comment on the lifestyle diseases and their impact on human health. 

3. (a) What is meant by karyotype? How does its analysis help in diagnosis of the chromosomal aberrations in man? 
(b) Define urbanization and discuss its impact on family in India with examples. 
(c) Discuss the contemporary challenges in fieldwork method in anthropological research. 

4. (a) Critically discuss the characteristics of the psychological types in the cultures of the American South-West as observed by Ruth Benedict. 
(b) Discuss the Acheulian and Oldowan traditions of Indian Paleolithic cultures with suitable illustrations. 
(c) What is genetic counselling? Briefly discuss various steps involved in it. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Write notes on the following in about 150 words each :10 × 5 = 50 

(a) Chronometric dating 
(b) Cultural relevance of the Kula 
(c) Heritability and its estimation 
(d) Authority and forms of political organization 
(e) Single-gene mutation disorders in man 

6. (a) Discuss the geographical distribution of Homo erectus. Taking into account its physical features, where does it fit in human evolutionary line? 
(b) Discuss the applications of forensic anthropology with suitable examples. 
(c) How does Lévi-Strauss look at the Tsimshian myth of Asdiwal? Critically discuss Lévi-Strauss' theory of structuralism in the light of his study of mythologies. 

7. (a) Critically explain the notion of 'deconstruction' in the light of the postmodern works of Jacques Derrida. 
(b) What is a multifactorial trait? Illustrate your answer with suitable human examples. 
(c) Discuss the applicability of various sampling techniques in selecting the study group. 

8. (a) Examine critically the concept of social stratification as a basis for sustaining social inequality. 
(b) Describe the genetics and inheritance patterns of the ABO and Rh blood groups in man. 
(c) Critically discuss the synergistic effect of biological and cultural factors in human evolution. 

(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2024 Agriculture (Paper-1)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024 Agriculture (Paper I)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2024  Agriculture (Paper I)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

खण्ड 'A' SECTION ‘A’ 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each :10 × 5 = 50

1. (a) Briefly discuss the principles of agro-ecology. 
1. (b) What are the factors responsible for low production and productivity of pulses in India? Discuss strategies adopted for enhancing the pulse production and productivity. 
1. (c) Describe the objectives of social forestry. Write down the plant species suitable for social forestry. 
1. (d) Discuss the cultural methods of weed control. 
1. (e) What are the two steps of nitrification and enlist micro-organisms responsible for each ? Write down the importance of nitrification. 

2. (a) Write down the physical environmental factors affecting the crop production. Discuss the effects of changing rainfall pattern on crop production in India. 
2. (b) Describe the improved cultivation practices of Chickpea under the following heads:
(i) Improved varieties 
(ii) Seed rate and row to row spacing 
(iii) Nutrient management 
(iv) Weed management 
(v) Insect-pest and disease management 

2. (c) Discuss about the cropping patterns of Middle Gangetic Plain and Western Plateau and hills. 

3. (a) What is the Arnon and Stout (1939) criteria for plant nutrient essentiality ? Give account of forms of each essential plant nutrient element absorbed by plants. 
3. (b) What do you mean by Forest products? Write about the value added products from forest. 20 
3. (c) Give account of soil fertility evaluation techniques. Enlist the points to be considered along with soil test values for fertiliser dose recommendation. 

4. (a) Explain the term conventional and conservation tillage. Give account of their comparative effects on soil properties and green house gas emissions. 
4. (b) Discuss the Remote sensing system used for ecosystem analysis. Briefly discuss the use of Remote sensing for drought monitoring. 
4. (c) Describe in detail about the weed control measures in Black Gram and Sesame. 

खण्ड 'B' SECTION 'B' 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10 × 5 = 50

5. (a) Write down the principles involved in Integrated Watershed Management. Briefly discuss the relevance of Integrated Watershed Management under climate change scenario.
5. (b) Explain the term irrigation scheduling. Elaborate the criteria IW/CPE ratio of irrigation scheduling along with its merits and demerits. 
5.(c) Briefly discuss the price instability and its types. Write down the measurements for price instability. 
5. (d) Give the account of new tools and methods used in agricultural extension. 
5. (e) It is proposed to give four ( 4 ) irrigations to six ( 6 ) hectare area of wheat crop. Depth of each irrigation is 60mm, which will be given with a pump of discharge @ 5 litre / second. Find out the duration (in days) of pump operation to discharge the required quantity of water.

6. (a) Briefly discuss the crop management practices for stabilising yield in dryland areas. Enlist 20 the crops with their characteristics suitable for dryland agriculture. 
6. (b) Discuss the changes in irrigated area through different sources of irrigation in India since independence. Classify the irrigation projects based on cultivable command area, purpose served and financial return. 
6. (c) Describe the five steps of effective extension education process as per Leagans (1967).

7. (a) Discuss the chronological developments of National Extension System of India after independence.
7. (b) Briefly discuss the decisions involved in Farm management. Write down the principles applied in Farm management. 
7.(c) Justify the statement that Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK) is playing vital role in solving location specific problems and transfer of technologies in agriculture. 

8. (a) Explain different types of farming. Discuss the factors affecting types of farming.
8. (b) Explain the term water use efficiency in relation to crop production. Discuss the role of pressurised irrigation methods to achieve the objectives of more crop per drop 20 programme. 
8. (c) Briefly discuss the factors affecting soil erosion. Write down the agronomic measures for soil conservation. 

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024 - PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (Paper-1)


(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2024

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (Paper-1)


  • Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Public Administration (Paper-I)
  • Marks: 250
  • Year : 2024
  • Time Allowed: 3 Hours

खण्ड - A / SECTION — A 

1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 

(a) “Politics-administration dichotomy debate is still alive.” Comment. 
(b) "Formal organisations are made up of informal groups." Discuss. 
(c) "Grapevine is a necessary evil." Examine. 10×5 = 50 
(d) Healthy Headquarters and Field Agencies relationship thrives on effective communication. Comment. 
(e) Media has become more of a societal lens than institutional lens. Analyse. 

2. (a) McGregor's Theory X' and Theory Y' provide insights into human motivation at workplace differently. Examine in detail. 
(b) Good governance adds normative and evaluative attributes to the process of governing. Comment. 
(c) Regulatory Authorities are independent and effective for controlling service delivery activities, but are subjected to extraneous factors. Do you agree? Give reasons. 20 

3. (a) Strengthening social audit through appropriate ways will promote inclusive government. Comment. 
(b) The development of administrative law in Welfare State has made administrative tribunals a necessity. Examine. 
(c) Ineffectiveness of legislative control over administration can stem from various factors, hence in ensuring effectiveness a comprehensive approach is the need of the hour. Discuss. 

4. (a) ERG theory of motivation attempts to reconceptualise the theory of Hierarchy of Needs. Comment. 
(b) Scientific Management and Human Relations theory are two distinct approaches for improving efficiency and production. Explain. 
(c) New Public Governance, an emerging paradigm, is contrasted with market- based approach of New Public Management. Comment. 

खण्ड - B / SECTION — B 

5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 10×5=50 

(a) The Anti-Development Thesis is a critical perspective on the traditional development models. Comment. 
(b) Civil Servants should be allowed only to cast vote or to participate in the electoral process of the country. Examine. 
(c) Critical Path Method (CPM) is a project management technique used to plan and manage project effectively. Discuss. 
(d) Auditing is not about finding faults, it is about ensuring the accuracy and Baubintegrity of financial information. Analyse. 
(e) The study of Public Administration must include its ecology. Discuss. 

6. (a) A trend to adopt innovative practices in administrative ethics is gaining ground for improving public trust in government. Discuss. 
(b) The future of e-governance is shaped by emerging trends for making government services efficient and accessible. Analyse. 
(c) Undoubtedly, social and historical factors play a significant role in shaping administrative system, but side by side, understanding of these influences is essential for designing responsive governance structure. Examine.

7. (a) Riggs' Prismatic Model has been criticised as overly gloomy and technical complex, but it remains as a useful starting point for Comparative Public Administration research. Analyse. 
(b) Performance Management and Performance Appraisal are two distinct activities in Public Personnel Administration. Discuss. 
(c) Balancing State intervention and Market freedom is the need of developing countries. Comment. 

8. (a) Bureaucracy in developing countries faces several challenges and tackling of these will make them more responsive, adaptive and align with development needs. Discuss. 
(b) Modern economists think public debt is an essential means of increasing employment, and element of economic policy, but it also shifts the burden to future generations. Analyse. 
(c) Unless there is a sound mechanism for policy evaluation, policy formulation process remains redundant. Examine. 

(Notification) UPSC IES (Engineering Services Examination) , 2025


(Notification) UPSC IES, Engineering Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2025


No.F. 02/03/2024-E.1B: Preliminary/Stage-I Examination of the Engineering Services Examination for recruitment to the services/ posts mentioned in para 2 below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 9 February, 2025 in accordance with the Rules published by Ministry of Communications, Department of Telecommunications in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 18 September, 2024.

CATEGORY I—CIVIL ENGINEERING

Group‐A Services/Posts 

(i) Central Engineering Service (Civil)
(ii) Central Engineering Service (Roads), Group-A (Civil Engineering Posts).
(iii) Survey of India Group 'A' Service.
(iv) *AEE (Civil) in Border Roads Engineering Service.
(v) Indian Defence Service of Engineers.
(vi) AEE (QS&C) in MES Surveyor Cadre.
(vii) Indian Skill Development Service.
(viii) Central Water Engineering (Group ‘A’) Service.

CATEGORY II—MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Group‐A/B Services/Posts 

(i) Indian Defence Service of Engineers.
(ii) Indian Naval Armament Service (Mechanical Engineering Posts).
(iii) Central Power Engineering Service Gr 'A'(Mechanical Engineering Posts)
(iv) Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Mechanical).
(v) AEE ( Elect & Mech) in Border Roads Engineering Service.
(vi) Indian Naval Material Management Service (Mechanical Engineering Posts)
(vii) Indian Skill Development Service

CATEGORY III—ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

Group‐A/B Services/Posts

(i) Indian Defence Service of Engineers.
(ii) Indian Naval Material Management Service (Electrical Engineering Posts)
(iii) Indian Naval Armament Service (Electrical Engineering Posts)
(iv) Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Electrical).
(v) Central Power Engineering Service Gr ‘A’ (Electrical Engineering Posts).
(vi) Indian Skill Development Service.
(vii) IEDS/Assistant Director Grade-I (IEDS) Electrical Trade
(viii) IEDS/Assistant Director Grade-II (IEDS) Electrical Trade

CATEGORY IV—ELECTRONICS AND TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING 

Group‐A/B Services/Posts 

(i) Indian Telecommunication Service Gr ‘A’.
(ii) Central Power Engineering Service Gr ‘A’ (Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering Posts).
(iii) Indian Naval Armament Service (Electronics and Telecom Engineering Posts).
(iv) Indian Naval Material Management Service (Electronics and Telecom Engineering Posts)
(v) Defence Aeronautical Quality Assurance Service/SSO-II (Electronics & Tele).
(vi ) Indian Skill Development Service.
(vii ) Indian Radio Regulatory Service Gr ‘A’
(viii ) IEDS/Assistant Director Grade-I(IEDS) Electronics Trade.
(ix ) IEDS/Assistant Director Grade-II(IEDS) Electronics Trade

Educational Qualification:

For admission to the examination, a candidate must have – 

For admission to the examination, a candidate must have – 

(a)  obtained a degree in Engineering from a University incorporated by an Act of  the Central or State Legislature in India or other Educational Institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as Universities under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission  Act,  1956; or 
(b)  passed Sections A and B of  the Institution Examinations of the Institution  of  Engineers  (India); or 
(c)  obtained  a  degree/diploma    in  Engineering  from  such  foreign  University/College/Institution  and  under  such conditions as may be recognised by the Government for the purpose from time to time, or 
(d)  passed Graduate Membership Examination of the Institution of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineers (India); or 
(e)  passed Associate Membership Examination  Parts II and III/Sections A and B of the Aeronautical Society of India; or 
(f)  passed Graduate   Membership Examination of the Institution of Electronics and Radio Engineers, London held after November, 1959 
Provided  that  a  candidate  for  the  post of Indian Naval Armament  Service  (Electronics Engineering Posts) and Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group ‘A’ may possess any of the above qualifications or the qualification mentioned below namely:‐  

For  Indian  Naval  Armament  Service  (Electronics  Engg.  Posts)  ‐  M.Sc.  degree  or  its  equivalent  with  Wireless Communication Electronics, Radio Physics or Radio Engineering as a special subject. For Indian Radio Regulatory Service Group ‘A’– M.Sc. degree or its equivalent with Wireless Communication Electronics, Radio  Physics  or  Radio  Engineering  as  a  subject  or  Master’s  Degree  in  Science  with  Physics  and  Radio Communication  or Electronics or Telecommunication as a special subject.

Plan of Examination:

1.  The examination shall be conducted according to the following plan :— 
(i)  Stage‐I: Engineering Services (Preliminary/Stage‐I) Examination (Objective Type Papers) for the selection of candidates for the Stage‐II: Engineering Services (Main/Stage‐II) Examination;
(ii) Stage‐II: Engineering Services (Main/Stage‐II) Examination (Conventional Type Papers) and 
(iii)  Stage‐III : Personality Test 

Age Limits:

(As on 01/January/2025)

Minimum – 21 Years

Maximum – 30 Years

(a) A candidate for this examination must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years on the 1st January, 2025 i.e., he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd January, 1995 and not later than 1st January,2004.

(b) The upper age-limit of 30 years will be relaxable upto 35 years in the case of Government servants of the following categories, if they are employed in a Department/ Office under the control of any of the authorities mentioned in column 1 below and apply for admission to the examination for all or any of the Service(s)/Post(s) mentioned in column 2, for which they are otherwise eligible. 

Medical Examination :

Candidates finally recommended by the Commission on the basis of Engineering Services Examination, - 2025 shall be required to undergo medical examination.

(a) Every candidate, on being finally recommended by Commission will be required to undergo medical examination as and when so decided by the Ministry of Communications, Department of Telecommunications and in such manner as they deem appropriate irrespective of the fact that he/she has appeared for such medical examination in the past and found fit/unfit on the basis of earlier examination. The findings of the Medical Board will be taken as final and binding for all allotment purposes. 

Physical standards :

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Engineering Services Examination, - 2025 as per guidelines given in Appendix-II of the Rules for the Engineering Services Examination, - 2025 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 18.09.2024 

Application Fee:

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST/PwBD who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/‐ (Rupees T w o  hundred   only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash or by using net banking facility  of  State  Bank  of India or by using any Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card.

HOW TO APPLY:

(a) Candidates are required to apply Online using the link www.upsconline.nic.in.

It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination. 

(i) Modification in OTR Profile: In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at OTR platform. The change in OTR profile data shall be available till expiry of 7 days from the next day after the closure of application window of his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. In the case, the candidate after registration of OTR applies for the first time in this examination last date of modification of OTR would be 15.10.2024. 

(ii) Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile): The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form for this examination from next day of the closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 7 days from the date of opening of the same, i.e., from .09.10.2024 to 15.10.2024 In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in his/her OTR profile during this period, then he/she should login to the OTR platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change in the OTR profile can be made by visiting the window for Modification in application form. 
Brief instructions are given in Appendix-IIA. Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above mentioned website.

(iii ) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the same.

8. MOBILE PHONES NOT PERMITTED:

(a)The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations. 

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be assured

Important Dates:

  • Starting Date18.09.2024
  • Last Date08.10.2024
  • Last Date of Fee Payment – 08.10.2024

Click Here to Apply Online

Click Here for Official Notification

Courtesy: UPSC

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