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(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2020 - Medical Science (Paper-2)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020 Medical Science (Paper-2)


  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020 Medical Science

  • Paper : 2020

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

SECTION 'A' 

Q1.(a) (i) As per ICD-10 classification, describe briefly the types of schizophrenia.

           (ii) Enumerate the various catatonic symptoms observed in schizophrenia and describe each in one line. 

(b) (i) Enumerate the various primary haemostatic disorders.

     (ii) Discuss the treatment of severe haemarthrosis of right knee in a 50 kg male suffering with Haemophilia A. 

(c) An 18-month-old child weighing 7 kg has presented with history of diarrhoea, vomiting, rapid breathing and dehydration. How will you manage the child as per IMNCI protocol ? 

(d) A 12-month-old child has presented with cough, respiratory distress and noisy respiration. Enumerate their causes and the management. 

(e) Parents of a 7-year-old girl noticed milky white macules on her upper eyelids and hands. Her mother had been recently diagnosed as a case of autoimmune thyroiditis.

     (i) What is the diagnosis for her skin lesions ? Enlist the differential diagnosis of this clinical entity.

     (ii) Enumerate the disorders associated with this condition. (iii) How would you classify this disorder ? 

Q2.(a) (i) What are the causes of "neonatal jaundice" ?

          (ii) Outline the algorithm for its work-up.

          (iii) How will you manage a 34 weeks newborn at 7 days of life weighing 1600 gm with hyperbilirubinemia ?

          (iv) Enumerate the indications of exchange transfusion and outline the procedure. 

(b)(i) What are the various causes of pleural effusion ? 

    (ii) How can we differentiate between transudative and exudative pleural effusion based on Light's criteria' ?

    (iii) What is parapneumonic effusion ? Enlist factors which indicate towards inserting a chest tube to manage a case of parapneumonic effusion. 

(c) A 30-year-old male presented with well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery white scales on the knees and elbows. Grattage test was positive.

(i) Enlist the differential diagnosis for various clinical forms of this disorder.

(ii) State briefly the treatment options for this disorder, for mild, moderate and severe presentation.

(iii) What are the various disease modifying factors for this skin disorder ? 

Q3.(a) A 4-month-old infant presented with severe itching disturbing her sleep. On examination she had redness, papules and excoriations on the cheeks. Family history revealed asthma in mother since childhood.

(i) What is the most likely diagnosis ?

(ii) What is the clinical presentation in different age groups ?

(iii) State its diagnostic criteria.

(iv) Discuss first, second and third line of management and the non-medical measures for this condition. 

(b) (i) Enumerate the causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease and the ages of their presentation.

     (ii) How will you manage a 6 weeks infant presenting with cyanosis and congestive heart failure ?

     (iii) How will you manage a 2-year-old child weighing 10 kg in a cyanotic spell ? 

(c) (i) Enumerate the commonly encountered serological patterns of Hepatitis-B infection along with the interpretation of each.

     (ii) Discuss the role of Tenofovir in the treatment of chronic Hepatitis-B infection. 

Q4.(a) A 22-year-old male is bitten by a stray dog on his right leg. The bite was an unprovoked bite.

(i) What are the immediate dos and don'ts for such a wound ?

(ii) As per the national guidelines on rabies prophylaxis, what are the categories of dog bite in humans and what are the recommended post-exposure prophylaxis in each ?

(iii) What are the clinical manifestations of rabies in humans ?

(iv) What are the intramuscular and intradermal regimens of anti-rabies vaccine as per national guidelines ? 

(b) An elderly female developed itchy, firm, shiny, violet, polygonal, flat topped papules on her wrists and ankles.

(i) What could be the associated environmental factors for this disorder ?

(ii) What are its clinical variants ?

(iii) State its histopathology findings. 

(c) (i) Enumerate the common causes of under-5 mortality.

     (ii) Enumerate the vaccines preventing CNS infections in children and their schedule.

     (iii) What are the adverse events and contraindications of DPT vaccine? 

SECTION 'B' 

Q5.(a) Describe in brief the clinical features, diagnostic work-up and management of a case of pheochromocytoma. 

(b) Describe in brief the etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of a case of amoebic liver abscess. 

(c) A 35-year-old unmarried female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding since two years with severe anaemia.

(i) Write the causes for this condition.

(ii) Outline the management protocol of this patient. 

(d) (i) What are the advantages of vaginal births over caesarean section ?

     (ii) What are the current caesarean section rates globally and in India ?

     (iii) What, according to you, is the reason behind rising caesarean section rates ?

     (iv) What are the implications of caesarean sections on future pregnancies ? 

(e) (i) What is the significance of birth weight for an infant ?

     (ii) Under the international standards, what is the definition of low birth weight ?

     (iii) From the perspective of causation, how are low birth weight babies broadly grouped ? 

Q6.(a) (i) Define Premature Ovarian Insufficiency (POI).

(ii) How do you diagnose POI ?

(iii) Outline management for a 27-year-old woman with history of primary infertility presenting with POI. 

(b) (i) Write briefly about the medical management of peptic ulcer disease. 

(ii) Enumerate various surgeries for duodenal ulcer.

(iii) Discuss in brief about the sequelae of peptic ulcer surgery. 

(c) (i) Name the States in India which continue to be heavily infected with lymphatic filariasis. 

(ii) Under the National Filaria Control Programme, what is the strategy being adopted to achieve the elimination of lymphatic filariasis ? 

(iii) Define the criteria which must be met to state that elimination of lymphatic filariasis has been achieved. 

Q7.(a) A 35-year-old male is brought to casualty after suffering from blunt trauma chest. He is having significant hemothorax.

(i) What will be the clinical picture of this patient ?

(ii) Write boundaries of triangle of safety. What is the rationale of underwater seal in intercostal drainage ?

(iii) What is 'Flail chest' and what is its significance ? How will you manage it ? 

(b) (i) State in brief how the National Rural Health Mission aims to fulfil the goals of Janani Suraksha Yojana at the community level.

(ii) List the key areas of action proposed under the National Rural Health Mission which aim to make primary healthcare comprehensive and universal.

(c) (i) Enumerate non-contraceptive usage of oral contraceptive pills.

(ii) What are long-acting reversible contraceptives ? Mention briefly their advantages over oral contraceptives.

(iii) Define "Emergency contraception”. What is their mechanism of action ?

(iv) Enumerate any two "Emergency contraceptives". How should they be prescribed for their maximum effectiveness ? 

Q8.(a) (i) State in brief how dietary factors may influence the cardio-vascular health in adults highlighting the specific cause-effect relationship.

(ii) Explain why vegans are more at risk to develop Vitamin B12 deficiency. State the ill-effects of Vitamin B12 deficiency on human health. 

(b) A 30-year-old P2L1 woman presents to casualty with 7 month amenorrhoea and gives history of off and on bleeding per vaginum since 2 days. She has had one myomectomy three years back and has undergone one lower segment caesarean section one year back.

(i) How will you evaluate her and what are your concerns ?

(ii) Outline the management protocol to optimize her outcome. 

(c) A 45-year-old male is having pain and pus discharging wound near anus. On examination, he is found to be having fistula-in-ano.

(i) What is 'Goodsall rule' ?

(ii) Briefly describe Park's classification system of fistula-in-ano.

(iii) Outline the management of this condition.

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2020 - POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS (Paper-1)



(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020 POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS (Paper 1)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020  POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  (Paper I)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

SECTION-A

Q1.Comment on the following in about 150 words each :

(a) Post colonial theory of the state

(b) Equality of opportunity

(c) Liberalism as a revolutionary idea

(d) Ambedkar's ideas on constitutionalism

(e) Machiavelli's secularism 

Q2.(a) Make a comparative assessment of Greek perspective of Justice with the Rawlsian concept of Justice.

(b) Representative democracy . . . . . . . means the people as a body must be able to control the general direction of government policy. (J. S. Mill). Comment

(c) Assess the significance of right to property in political theory. 

Q3.(a) Explicate the ideological components of Gandhism.

(b)Examine the nature and meaning of power.

(c) Explain the sources of ancient Indian political thought. 

Q4.(a) Trace the evolution of Western Political Thought from ancient to contemporary period. 

(b) Discuss the significance of a normative approach to Political theory.

(c) Discuss Karl Marx's concept of class. 

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Section-B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words each :

(a) Role of socialists in Indian National Movement

(b) Indian constitution makers' concerns on social inequality

(c) Right to constitutional remedies in India

(d) Judicial overreach in India

(e) Mechanism for settling inter-state disputes 

Q6.(a) Examine the role and functioning of the Election Commission of India and the Comptroller and Auditor General in the last two decades. 

(b) Trace the role of militant and revolutionary movements in Indian national movement. 

(c) To what extent has 73rd and 74th amendments of the Indian Constitution enhanced women's empowerment ? 

Q7.(a) Does the functioning of the federalism in India tend to make it appear as a unitary state in practice ? 

(b) Has the thrust of government tilted towards executive in contemporary Indian Politics? Give your arguments. 

(c) ‘Liberalisation of Indian Economy has not been accompanied with adequate reforms'. Comment. 

Q8.(a) To what extent has the inadequate intra-party democracy affected the functioning of Indian Democracy ? 

(b) Examine the role of religion in Indian Electoral Politics in the contemporary times. 

(c) Examine the nature of the civil liberty movement in India. 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2020 - POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS (Paper-2)



(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020 POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS (Paper 2)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020  POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  (Paper II)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

SECTION-A

Q1. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 

(a) Discuss the subject matter of comparative politics. Outline the limitations of comparative political analysis.

(b) Analyze the contribution of liberal democratic principles in the democratization of Indian polity.

(c) Has the increased participation of the underprivileged in the political process of the developing societies strengthened democracy or created political chaos and conflict? Comment.

(d) Critically examine the impact of the process of globalization from the perspective of the countries of the Global South.

(e) What are the core assumptions of idealism as an approach to study International Relations? Explain its continuing relevance in peace building.

Q2.(a) Explain the concept of balance of power. What are the various techniques of maintaining balance of power?

(b) Enumerate the challenges in the operation of the principles related to collective security in the UN Charter. 

(c) Critically analyze the implications of Sino-American strategic rivalry for the South and South-East Asian region. 

Q3.(a) Discuss the ways to strengthen the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) to enable it to address the challenges faced by the developing countries.

(b) Critically evaluate the role of the United States of America in the World Trade Organization (WTO) dispute settlement mechanism and its implications for the future of the WTO. 

(c) Explain the significance and importance of the demand raised by the developing countries for a New International Economic Order (NIEO). Are they likely to achieve their objectives of NIEO in foreseeable future?

Q4.(a) Discuss the significance and urgency of the UN Security Council reforms. Explain the relevance of the reform proposals made by the UN Secretary General António Guterres for the developing countries.

(b) Critically analyze the role of ASEAN in the promotion of regional peace and security through economic cooperation and trade. 

(c) Examine the role of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and other major efforts by the UN to address the global environmental crisis. 

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Section-B

Q5. Answer the following in about 150 words each : 

(a) Describe the structure and function of the National Security Council of India. What role does it play in the formulation of Indian foreign policy?

(b) Outline the reasons of low volume of trade in the SAARC region.

(c) Analyze the impact of hydropolitics on Indo-Bangladesh relations.

(d) Discuss the future prospects of Indo-Nepal relations in the context of the recent publication of new Nepalese map wrongly claiming Indian territory.

(e) How does cross-border terrorism impede the achievements of peace and security in South Asia? 

Q6.(a) How do the guiding principles of India-Africa relations seek to enhance harmony and mutual cooperation between India and Africa?

(b) What are the notable features of the recently concluded pact or the Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement (ACSA) between India and Japan? How is it likely to address the security concerns of India?

(c) Discuss the significance of Indo-US strategic partnership and its implications for India's security and national defence. 

Q7.(a) Explain the defence and foreign policy options of India to address the challenges emerging out of the current India-China standoff at the Line of Actual Control (LAC).

(b) Explain the importance of India's claim for a permanent seat in the UN Security Council.

(c) Discuss the efficacy of India's ‘no first use' policy (nuclear weapons) in the context of the evolving strategic challenges from its neighbours.

Q8.(a) “The war in Afghanistan is crucial from the point of view of India's national security. If the Americans withdraw and Jihadis emerge with a sense of triumphalism, India will face increasing onslaught of terrorism." Comment.

(b) Identify the key sectors of cooperation between India and Israel since 2014. Examine their significance in strengthening the bilateral ties between the two countries.

(c) Critically examine the role of India in shaping the emerging world order. 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2020 - Zoology (Paper-1)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020 ZOOLOGY (Paper 1)


SECTION ‘A’

Q1.Write notes on the following in about 150 words each : 

(a) Gamontogamy in Monocystis

(b) Skeleton in sponges

(c) Describe different kinds of coral reefs on the basis of their formation

(d) Write a note on general characters of Prototheria

(e) Flight adaptations in birds

Q2.(a) With the help of labelled diagrams, describe the mouth parts of house-fly, butter-fly and honey bee. 

(b) With the help of suitable diagrams, describe the different stages of life cycle of Nereis. 

(c) With the help of labelled diagrams, give an account of the larvae found in Asteroidea, Ophiuroidea and Holothuroidea.

Q3.(a) Describe the distribution, habits and habitat of Rhynchocephalia. Write a note on crocodilian and lacertilian characters of Sphenodon.

(b) Explain origin of Amphibia and classify Amphibia up to sub class with characters and examples. 

(c) With the help of labelled diagrams only, explain the different larval stages in the life cycle of Fasciola hepatica (No description is required). 

Q4.(a) Describe various accessory respiratory organs of fishes with examples.

(b) Describe the respiratory organs and mechanism of respiration in Unio.

(c) Give an account of aortic arches in reptiles, birds and mammals. 

SECTION 'B'

Q5.(a) Write notes on the following in about 150 words each :

(a) Division of biosphere 

(b) Give an account of biological rhythms

(c) Phosphorus biogeochemical cycle

(d) Transgenic animals

(e) T.E.M 

Q6.(a) What are the uses of Biotechnology in Forensic science ?

(b) Describe the uses of remote sensing in sustainable development.

(c) Explain the principle of spectrophotometer and describe its following components : 

(i) Radiation sources

(ii) Phototube

(iii) Prism 

Q7.(a) Describe the names of any four diseases of silkworm and their causal agents (scientific names), sources of infection, symptoms and management. 

(b) Describe the characteristics of social insects with examples.

(c) Describe chromosome painting and its versatility in modern diagnostics. 15 

Q8.(a) Describe the differences between f-test and t-test.

(b) Describe the principle and applications of gel electrophoresis.

(c) Write scientific names of any three pests of stored grains and describe the nature of damage and management of Sitophilus oryzae. 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2020 - Zoology (Paper-2)

(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2020 ZOOLOGY (Paper 2)

SECTION ‘A’

Q1.(a) What is Wobble hypothesis? How does it explain degeneracy in genetic code? 

(b) Describe the mechanism of sex determination in Drosophila. 

(c) Differentiate between sympatric and parapatric speciation with suitable examples. 

(d) Describe the origin of code for zoological nomenclature. 

(e) Describe the sequence specific DNA binding proteins. 

Q2.(a) Draw an overview of eukaryotic cell cycle. Describe the roles of cyclins in the regulation of cell cycle. 

(b) What is transgenesis? Describe the methods for gene transfer in animals and its applications. 

(c) Define paleontology. Discuss the chronological order of elephant evolution. 

Q3.(a) Define mutation. Describe the types, causes and applications of mutations. 

(b) What is nucleosome? Explain the functional elements of eukaryotic chromosomes. 

(c) What is RAPD? Give an account of the general methods for mapping human genome. 

Q4.(a) What is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Describe the principles, mechanism and its applications in population genetics. 

(b) Draw an ultrastructure of plasma membrane. Discuss the roles of lipids in the regulation of membrane fluidity. 

(c) Explain biodiversity. Discuss different grades and factors affecting the distribution of animal biodiversity. 

SECTION 'B' 

 

Q5.(a) Describe the basic structure and functions of immunoglobulins. 

(b) Draw a typical neuron action potential. Discuss the ionic basis for the propagation of nerve impulse. 

(c) Enlist the composition of saliva. Describe the mechanism of secretion of saliva. 

(d) Give a schematic representation of differentiation of sexual phenotypes during early embryonic development in mammals. 

(e) "Calcium is an initiator of cortical granules reaction.” Explain. 

Q6.(a) Define oxidative phosphorylation. Describe the theories of mechanism of ATP synthesis. 

(b) What is the general mechanism of blood coagulation? Describe the intrinsic pathway for the initiation of blood clotting. 

(c) What are embryonic stem cells? Discuss the isolation, differentiation and therapeutic applications of embryonic stem cells. 

Q7.(a) Enlist the sources of energy for muscle contraction. Describe the mechanism of contraction of skeletal muscle. 

(b) "Glycolysis is considered as metabolic hub." Justify. 

(c) What is metamorphosis? Explain the role of thyroxine in the regulation of amphibian metamorphosis. 

Q8.(a) Define programmed cell death. Explain the molecular mechanism and significance of apoptosis during early embryonic development. 

(b) What are vitamins? Describe the types and biological roles of fat-soluble vitamins. 

(c) Describe the process of glomerular filtration. Discuss the determinants of glomerular filtration rate in human. 

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2020 ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper-1)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2020 ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper I)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2020  ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper I)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

SECTION-A

Q1. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 

(a) Discuss in brief the necessity of processing of animal feeds. 

(b) Explain the statement, “the reproductive behaviour is controlled by central nervous system in animals". 

(c) Describe the methods by which feed intake in grazing animals is predicted. 

(d) Discuss the role of specific tissue growth factors in animals. 

(e) What are the endogenous and exogenous factors which influence the sperm motility of a buffalo bull?

Q2. (a) Write short notes on the following: 

(i) Swollen hock syndrome

(ii) Protein-energy interrelationship 

(iii) Respiratory quotient 

(iv) Total digestible nutrients 

(v) Protease inhibitors in feeds 

(b)How are non-protein nitrogenous substances utilized in ruminant animals? Enumerate the factors which affect the urea utilization in cattle. 

(c) Classify vitamins. What do you mean by essential and non-essential vitamins? Mention the coenzymes and enzyme prosthetic groups of 'B' vitamins along with their functions in metabolism. 

Q3.(a) Illustrate diagrammatically the interactions between physical environment and animal productivity. 

(b) Discuss the control of aldosterone secretion by renin-angiotensin mechanism. 

(c) Differentiate between milk secretion and milk ejection. Explain the milk ejection mechanism in a cow. 

(d) How is hormone secretion regulated in animals? Explain. 

Q4.(a) Describe the methods for estimation of protein requirements for maintenance in adult cattle. 

(b) Compute a ration for a lactating crossbred cow weighing 400 kg and yielding 12 kg milk with 4% fat daily during second calving from wheat straw (0% DCP and 40% TDN) and concentrate mixture (15% DCP and 70% TDN). The requirement for maintenance is 300 g DCP and 3.30 kg TDN, whereas for production of 1 kg milk, 45 g DCP and 315 g TDN are required. 

(c) What are gastrointestinal hormonal substances? Write their action and stimulus for release. 

(d) Conception rate is affected by artificial insemination technique in a cow. Explain. 

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Section-B

Q5. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each : 

(a) Illustrate the inheritance of sex-limited characters in cattle and poultry. 

(b) Prepare a schedule of day-to-day operations to be carried out in an organized dairy farm. 

(c) Differentiate between mitosis and meiosis.

(d) Mention the salient features of any two indigenous milch breeds of cattle.

(e) What is cyber extension? Write the advantages of cyber extension. 

Q6.(a) Write in detail the procedure for calculating the economics of the milk production at a commercial dairy farm. 

(b) Suggest the strategic measures for feeding management of livestock during natural calamities. 

(c) Discuss the feeding habits of goats and write the commonly available feeds and fodder for goats in India. 

(d) Write in brief about the feeding management of goat kids from birth to three months of age. 

Q7.(a) What do you understand by Hardy-Weinberg law? Give the properties and uses of Hardy-Weinberg law. What prerequisites are necessary for the maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in a population? 

(b) Describe gene mutations. Give the classification of gene mutation based on its location and effect. Write the salient features of mutation. 

(c) Describe various systems of animal breeding. Explain how grading-up differs from cross-breeding. 

Q8.(a) What is meant by chromosomal aberration? Classify it. Discuss about translocation and karyotyping.

(b) Describe various components of good dairy farming practices.

(c) Enlist the programmes which have been implemented in 21st century for the welfare of animal husbandry sector.

(d) Write in brief about the 'Rashtriya Gokul Mission and its objectives.

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(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2020 ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper-2)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2020 ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper II)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2020  ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (Paper II)

  • Marks: 250

  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

SECTION-A

Q1.(a) Write short notes on paranasal sinuses of ox. 

(b) Define autocoids and classify them. Describe clinical use of antihistaminic drugs. 

(c) Key facilities required for farrowing pen and calf pen.

(d) Define convulsions and describe different conditions in which dairy cows show convulsions.

(e) What are the advantages and disadvantages of inhalation anaesthesia in animals ? 

Q2.(a) Describe in detail the female genitalia of cow in relation to surface anatomy.

(b) Describe etio-pathogenesis, clinical signs and management of post parturient haemoglobinurea in buffaloes. 

(c) Clinical use and mechanism of action of Ivermectin in controlling parasitic infestations. 

Q3.(a) Write about the etiology, risk factors, pathogenesis, clinical symptoms and management of nitrate poisoning in the livestock.

(b) Describe major animal welfare issues related to industrialized animal production. 

(c) Write indications and procedure of cornual nerve block in bovines. 

Q4.(a) Write a detailed note on types of immunity. Differentiate between attenuated and inactivated vaccines.

(b) List the name, nature (sensory, motor & mixed), and distribution of cranial nerves in bovines. 

(c) Elaborate effects of photoperiod on performance of various livestock species. 

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Section-B

Q5.(a) Enlist the occupational zoonotic diseases and their causative agents, which are transmitted from animals to human beings. 

(b) Write down FSSAI standards for different types of milk. 

(c) Enumerate different poisons, which are commonly suspected in animals. Mention the material along with its quantity to be collected in order of its importance. 

(d) Discuss in detail meat curing. 

(e) Differentiate between PSE and DFD meat. Also write a short note on methods of fraudulent substitution of meat. 

Q6.(a) Define homogenized milk and mention its advantages and disadvantages. Describe the methods of manufacture of homogenized milk. 

(b) Describe through flow diagrams the steps involved in investigating a propagating epidemic and a point epidemic.

(c) Explain in detail the principle and different methods of meat preservation. 

Q7.(a) Define cheese. Explain the manufacture of cheddar cheese with suitable flow diagram. 

(b) Write in detail the strategies for the control and eradication of infectious disease. 

(c) Explain the methods of collection, preservation and processing of glandular byproducts during slaughter. 

Q8.(a) Enlist different byproducts produced during the preparation of milk products, and write in detail about their utilization. 

(b) Classify grades of rabbit wool.

(c) Describe the methods to measure disease occurrence.

(d) What are the objectives of meat inspection ? Write in detail the procedure of postmortem inspection. 

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(Download) UPSC MAINS 2020 - LAW Paper-2

(Download) UPSC 2020 LAW Paper II

  • Exam Name: UPSC 2020 LAW Paper II
  • Time Allowed : 3.00 Hrs
  • Maximum Marks : 250

SECTION – "A"

Q1. Answer the following in about 150 words each. Support your answers with relevant legal provisions and judicial pronouncements : 

(a) If a person, who voluntarily consumed intoxicating liquor, commits an offence, while under the influence of such intoxication, can he plead 'voluntary intoxication' as a defence? Discuss in the light of relevant provisions of the IPC. 

(b) If a woman watches or captures the image of another woman engaging in a private act in circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not being observed by any other person, does that amount to offence of voyeurism' under the Indian Penal Code? Discuss. 

(c) Is it mandatory to obtain previous sanction for prosecuting a public servant for offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988? Discuss in the light of relevant provisions and the decisions of the Supreme Court. 

(d) " 'Public nuisance' does not create a civil cause of action for any person." Comment. 

(e) "The common cases of vicarious liability relate to servant driving his vehicle in the course of employment." Explain in the light of decided cases. 

Q2.(a) The definition of 'murder' under Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code is very Vwide. It includes not only both intentional' and 'unintentional' causing of death but also cases where the death is not even 'foreseen'. Explain. 

(b) "The expression 'measures of damages' means the scale or rule by reference to which the amount of damages is to be recorded and assessed." In the light of the above statement, examine the changing contours of damages as a tortious remedy. 

(c) Though both Sections 34 and 149 of the Indian Penal Code provide for imposition of constructive criminal liability, there are substantial points of difference between the two. What are they? 

Q3.(a) Though the 'capital punishment' is not abolished in India, the recent trends show that the Supreme Court, in appeals, is inclined to modify the same and sentence the convict to life imprisonment with further direction that the convict must not be released from prison before he/she actually serves certain specified number of years usually 20, 25 or 30 years. Do you think the Court is justified in issuing such directions? Comment. 

(b) Critically examine the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and distinguish it with the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. 

(c) Privilege' means that a person stands in such relation to the facts of the case that he is justified in saying or writing what would be 'slanderous' or 'libellous' in anyone else." Explain the statement with leading case law. 

Q4.(a) Unless the ingredients of either theft' or 'extortion' are present, neither the offence of 'robbery' nor the offence of 'dacoity' can be made out. Explain. 

(b) Mere proof of presence of both actus reus' and 'mens rea' is not sufficient, the concurrence between the two also needs to be established to impose criminal liability. Elucidate in the light of case law. 

(c) The rule "Crown was not answerable for tort committed by its servant” has never been applied in India. Examine the statement in the light of the decided cases. 

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Section-"B"

Q5.Answer the following in about 150 words each. Support your answers with relevant legal provisions and decided cases : 

(a) "Like an ordinary paper contract, an electronic contract is also primarily governed by the codified provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as applicable to contracts in general." Explain the statement highlighting the legal provisions relating to conclusion of electronic contract. 

(b) Discuss the access and benefit sharing (ABS) law provided under the Biodiversity Conservation Act, 2002 with special reference to adjudication of biodiversity disputes and jurisdiction of the National Green Tribunal. 

(c) "The Supreme Court of India in public interest litigation cases relating to COVID-19 pandemic adopted a judicial policy of non-interference into the policies of the Government.” Elucidate with the help of decided cases. 

(d) "A surety is said to be discharged from liability when his liability comes to an end." Throw light on the statement with relevant legal provision under the Indian Contract Act, 1872. 

(e) According to Anson, "Contract of insurance bears a certain superficial resemblance to wagering agreement but they are really transactions of different nature". Elucidate. 

Q6.(a) "The grant of patent implies that patentee has a right to exclude others from using the invention.

"Examine the implication of the above statement with relevant provisions of the Patent Act, 1970 and leading judgements. 

(b) "No court will lend its aid to a man who found his cause of action upon an immoral or illegal act."

Are there any exceptions to the above-said rule? Explain. 

(c) “The parties cannot appeal against an arbitral award as to its merits and the court cannot interfere on its merits.” Critically examine the statement and also explain the highlights of the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2019. 

Q7.(a) "The objective of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is to promote the efficiency of banking operations and to ensure credibility in transacting business through cheques." Explain the statement with recent amendments. 

(b) "Laws are geared to protect the right to equitable remuneration but life is beyond the material.” In the light of the above statement, dwell on the dichotomy of economic rights and moral rights under the Copyright Act, 1957 and case law on the point. 

(c) Discuss the rationale of exemption to disclosure of information endangering life and the information regarding criminal trial and criminal investigation provided under the Right to Information Act, 2005 in the light of decided cases.

Q8.(a) "In the course of time, the courts have introduced a number of exceptions in which the rule of privity of contract does not prevent a person from enforcing a contract which has been made for his benefit but without his being a party to it." Explain the statement with the help of leading case law. 

(b)“The intellectual property right and competition law generally work in tandem but often become friends in disagreement." Elucidate the above statement by referring to the mandate of the TRIPS Agreement, 1995 and its compliance under the Competition Act, 2002.  

(c) "The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is an umbrella legislation to not only protect and improve the environment but to prevent and control of pollution." Comment and analyze.

(Download) UPSC MAIN EXAM : 2020 AGRICULTURE (Paper-1)


(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM:2020 AGRICULTURE (Paper I)

  • Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM:2020  AGRICULTURE (Paper I)
  • Marks: 250
  • Time Allowed : Three Hours

SECTION ‘A’

Q1.Describe the following in 150 words each:

(a) What is tillage ? Why zero tillage is getting importance in Indian Agriculture.

(b) Describe in-situ and ex-situ management of Paddy Crop residue (Parali) in India. 

(c) Write ditferent elements of weather affecting crop production with suitable examples. 

(d) Write the scope and needs of (Agroforestry) in India. 

(e) What are the instilutional arrangements and mechanism for imparting raining for  extension workers in India ?  

2.(a) Differentiate between the followings :

(a)(i). Fertigation and Herbigation  

(a)(ii). Agroforestry and Agrostology  

(a)(iii). Cooperative Societies and Non-Govemmental Organizations (NGOs)  

(a)(iv). Dry land farming and Imigated farming

(b) Enlist and cxplain the etfects of tFarmers (Empowerment and protection) agreement on  price assurance and tarm service Act-2020) on small and medium famers in India. 

(c) Explain El-Nino effect. Give causes and its impact on Indian Agriculture. 

Q3.(a) Whal are the major causes of low productivity of oilseed and pulse crops in India ? Suggest  stralegies for increasing the production and productivity of oilseed crops in the country.

(b) Describe the causes of increasing threats of Parthenium weed in the country.  Write integraled methods of weed management with suitable examples. 

(c) What is contingent crop planning ? How it helps in dry land agriculture ? 

Q4.(a) Descrnbe training methods suitable for small and marginal farmers and agriculture labours.  Explain the contribution of self-help groups in Agriculture development in India. 

(b) Define water harvesting along with different methods of water harvesting in India. write  govenmental initiatives to promote rain water harvesting. 

(c) Describe cnvironmental pollution. Write the role of afforestation in minimizing the effccts  of environmental pollution.  

UPSC Mains General Studies Study Kit

SECTION 'B'

Q5.Describe the following in about 150 words cach:

(a) Define water use efficiency and water productivity. List the crops having high and low water use efficiency.  

(b) Explain the institutional infrastructure of Agriculhural marketing in India.

(c) Indian farmers usually choose crops and their vaieties based on their socio-economic aspects and resources at their disposal. Critically comment. 10  

(d) What is diversified system of faming ? How it is bencficial to small and marginal farmers n India ?  

(e) What is integrated nutrient management (INM) ? Explain the limitations in practice of INM  at famers level in india.  

Q6.(a) What is scheduling of irrigation in crops? What are the important factors considered 20  while deciding irrigation schedules for difierent rgions and Crops.  

(b) Enlist and explain the methods of evaluation of extension programmes. Explain what  Kind of quaitative changes can be achieved by adopting educational approach in extension programmes. 

(c) Describe precision agriculture and conservation agriculture.  

Q7.(a) Define crop weed competition. Describe various factors affecting crop weed competition  Explain the factors affecting the efficacy of herbicides.

(b) What do you mean by problematic soil ? How soil is converted into problematie soil  Explain various methods of reclamation of saline-alkali-soils. 

(c) What is farm budgeting? Explain diferent types of farm budgeting.  

Q8.(a) Rice-wheat crop rotation is very common in north Indian Agriculture. Discuss  and describe the advantages and disadvantages of this crop rotation according to the  principles of crop rotation. 

(b) Describe the production technology of sugarcane crop on the following heads:  

(i) Improved varieties  

(ii) Methods of sowing and seed rate  

(iii) Fertilizers and irigation management  

(iv) Tnter culture operations  

(v) Plant protection 

(c) Describe the principles of soil fertility. Explain the role of biofertilizers in enhancing  the soil fertility. 

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