trainee5's blog

(E-Book) YOJANA MAGAZINE HINDI PDF - DEC 2020 (HINDI)

 (E-Book) YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF - DEC 2020 (HINDI)

  • Medium: Hindi
  • E-BOOK NAME : YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF -DEC 2020
  • Total Pages: 72
  • PRICE: 49/- FREE/- (only for few days)
  • Hosting Charges: NIL
  • File Type: PDF File Download Link via Email

Click Here to Download PDF

Related E-Books:

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Company Prosecutor in Ministry of Corporate Affairs

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Company Prosecutor in Ministry of Corporate Affairs



1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I                                                   List II

(Power as mentioned in Article 72   (Explanation)
 of the Constitution of India)
A. Pardon                                  1. Postponement of execution of sentence to the future
B. Reprieve                               2. It merely substitutes one form of  punishments for another with a  lighter character
C. Commutation                       3. It rescinds both the sentence and the  conviction and absolves the offender from all punishment and disqualification
D. Respite                                4. A temporary suspension of the  punishment fixed by law
 Code:
    A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
    A B C D
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
    3 2 4 1
(d) A B C D
    1 4 2 3 

2. The subject of Bankruptcy and Insolvency are covered under which one of the following entries and lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Entry 9, Concurrent List
(b) Entry 9, Union List
(c) Entry 45, Concurrent List
(d) Entry 45, Union List

3. “Constitutional safeguards to civil servants” is explained under which Parts and Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Part V, Article 74
(b) Part XIV, Article 311
(c) Part XIV, Article 312
(d) Part XIV, Article 312A

4. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a Review Petition could be filed against any judgement or order of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Article 133
(b) Article 136
(c) Article 137
(d) Article 138 

5. On which of the following grounds, the Supreme Court of India may entertain the Curative Petition while exercising its wide powers?
(a) Non-observance of the principles of natural justice and abuse of the process of the court
(b) Violation of rights of accused
(c) Condonation of delay
(d) Principle of prospective over-ruling

6. Which fundamental right CANNOT be enforced in Court during the emergency if suspended by the President?
(a) Right to life
(b) Right to religion
(c) Right not to be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) Right against self incrimination

7.Which one of the following is NOT explicitly stated in the amendment procedure laid down in Article 368 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Simple majority in either House of the Parliament
(b) Special majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in either House of the Parliament
(c) Ratification by resolution passed by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures in addition to special majority
(d) The President may give his assent to the Bill or may return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses of Parliament

8.Which is the suitable expression for “Right to Vote”?
(a) It is obligatory in nature
(b) It is mandatory in nature
(c) It is moral in nature
(d) It is statutory in nature

9.Which of the following is NOT deemed to be the Constitutional Power of the President of India?
(a) Dissolving both the Houses of Parliament
(b) Proroguing both the Houses of Parliament
(c) Addressing both the Houses of Parliament
(d) Granting pardons

10.Consider the following statement:
“The decision declaring some of the provisions of the Act to be invalid does not affect the  validity of the Act as it remains”
Which one amongst the following principles of the Constitution of India does the above statement refer to?
(a) Principle of Eclipse
(b) Principle of Waiver
(c) Principle of Colourable Legislation
(d) Principle of Severability 

Click Here to Download Full Paper PDF

Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Assistant Legal Adviser in Enforcement Directorate

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Assistant Legal Adviser in Enforcement Directorate



1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I                                                   List II

(Power as mentioned in Article 72   (Explanation)
 of the Constitution of India)
A. Pardon                                  1. Postponement of execution of sentence to the future
B. Reprieve                               2. It merely substitutes one form of  punishments for another with a  lighter character
C. Commutation                       3. It rescinds both the sentence and the  conviction and absolves the offender from all punishment and disqualification
D. Respite                                4. A temporary suspension of the  punishment fixed by law
 Code:
    A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
    A B C D
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
    3 2 4 1
(d) A B C D
    1 4 2 3 

2. The subject of Bankruptcy and Insolvency are covered under which one of the following entries and lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Entry 9, Concurrent List
(b) Entry 9, Union List
(c) Entry 45, Concurrent List
(d) Entry 45, Union List

3. “Constitutional safeguards to civil servants” is explained under which Parts and Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Part V, Article 74
(b) Part XIV, Article 311
(c) Part XIV, Article 312
(d) Part XIV, Article 312A

4. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a Review Petition could be filed against any judgement or order of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Article 133
(b) Article 136
(c) Article 137
(d) Article 138 

5. On which of the following grounds, the Supreme Court of India may entertain the Curative Petition while exercising its wide powers?
(a) Non-observance of the principles of natural justice and abuse of the process of the court
(b) Violation of rights of accused
(c) Condonation of delay
(d) Principle of prospective over-ruling

6. Which fundamental right CANNOT be enforced in Court during the emergency if suspended by the President?
(a) Right to life
(b) Right to religion
(c) Right not to be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) Right against self incrimination

7.Which one of the following is NOT explicitly stated in the amendment procedure laid down in Article 368 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Simple majority in either House of the Parliament
(b) Special majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in either House of the Parliament
(c) Ratification by resolution passed by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures in addition to special majority
(d) The President may give his assent to the Bill or may return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses of Parliament

8.Which is the suitable expression for “Right to Vote”?
(a) It is obligatory in nature
(b) It is mandatory in nature
(c) It is moral in nature
(d) It is statutory in nature

9.Which of the following is NOT deemed to be the Constitutional Power of the President of India?
(a) Dissolving both the Houses of Parliament
(b) Proroguing both the Houses of Parliament
(c) Addressing both the Houses of Parliament
(d) Granting pardons

10.Consider the following statement:
“The decision declaring some of the provisions of the Act to be invalid does not affect the  validity of the Act as it remains”
Which one amongst the following principles of the Constitution of India does the above statement refer to?
(a) Principle of Eclipse
(b) Principle of Waiver
(c) Principle of Colourable Legislation
(d) Principle of Severability 

Click Here to Download Full Paper PDF

Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Examiner of Trade Marks and Geographical Indications

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Examiner of Trade Marks and Geographical Indications



1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I                                                   List II

(Power as mentioned in Article 72   (Explanation)
 of the Constitution of India)
A. Pardon                                  1. Postponement of execution of sentence to the future
B. Reprieve                               2. It merely substitutes one form of  punishments for another with a  lighter character
C. Commutation                       3. It rescinds both the sentence and the  conviction and absolves the offender from all punishment and disqualification
D. Respite                                4. A temporary suspension of the  punishment fixed by law
 Code:
    A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
    A B C D
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
    3 2 4 1
(d) A B C D
    1 4 2 3 

2. The subject of Bankruptcy and Insolvency are covered under which one of the following entries and lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Entry 9, Concurrent List
(b) Entry 9, Union List
(c) Entry 45, Concurrent List
(d) Entry 45, Union List

3. “Constitutional safeguards to civil servants” is explained under which Parts and Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Part V, Article 74
(b) Part XIV, Article 311
(c) Part XIV, Article 312
(d) Part XIV, Article 312A

4. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a Review Petition could be filed against any judgement or order of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Article 133
(b) Article 136
(c) Article 137
(d) Article 138 

5. On which of the following grounds, the Supreme Court of India may entertain the Curative Petition while exercising its wide powers?
(a) Non-observance of the principles of natural justice and abuse of the process of the court
(b) Violation of rights of accused
(c) Condonation of delay
(d) Principle of prospective over-ruling

6. Which fundamental right CANNOT be enforced in Court during the emergency if suspended by the President?
(a) Right to life
(b) Right to religion
(c) Right not to be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) Right against self incrimination

7.Which one of the following is NOT explicitly stated in the amendment procedure laid down in Article 368 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Simple majority in either House of the Parliament
(b) Special majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in either House of the Parliament
(c) Ratification by resolution passed by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures in addition to special majority
(d) The President may give his assent to the Bill or may return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses of Parliament

8.Which is the suitable expression for “Right to Vote”?
(a) It is obligatory in nature
(b) It is mandatory in nature
(c) It is moral in nature
(d) It is statutory in nature

9.Which of the following is NOT deemed to be the Constitutional Power of the President of India?
(a) Dissolving both the Houses of Parliament
(b) Proroguing both the Houses of Parliament
(c) Addressing both the Houses of Parliament
(d) Granting pardons

10.Consider the following statement:
“The decision declaring some of the provisions of the Act to be invalid does not affect the  validity of the Act as it remains”
Which one amongst the following principles of the Constitution of India does the above statement refer to?
(a) Principle of Eclipse
(b) Principle of Waiver
(c) Principle of Colourable Legislation
(d) Principle of Severability 

Click Here to Download Full Paper PDF

Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Senior Examiner of Trade Marks and Geographical Indications

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Senior Examiner of Trade Marks and Geographical Indications



1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I                                                   List II

(Power as mentioned in Article 72   (Explanation)
 of the Constitution of India)
A. Pardon                                  1. Postponement of execution of sentence to the future
B. Reprieve                               2. It merely substitutes one form of  punishments for another with a  lighter character
C. Commutation                       3. It rescinds both the sentence and the  conviction and absolves the offender from all punishment and disqualification
D. Respite                                4. A temporary suspension of the  punishment fixed by law
 Code:
    A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
    A B C D
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
    3 2 4 1
(d) A B C D
    1 4 2 3 

2. The subject of Bankruptcy and Insolvency are covered under which one of the following entries and lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Entry 9, Concurrent List
(b) Entry 9, Union List
(c) Entry 45, Concurrent List
(d) Entry 45, Union List

3. “Constitutional safeguards to civil servants” is explained under which Parts and Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Part V, Article 74
(b) Part XIV, Article 311
(c) Part XIV, Article 312
(d) Part XIV, Article 312A

4. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a Review Petition could be filed against any judgement or order of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Article 133
(b) Article 136
(c) Article 137
(d) Article 138 

5. On which of the following grounds, the Supreme Court of India may entertain the Curative Petition while exercising its wide powers?
(a) Non-observance of the principles of natural justice and abuse of the process of the court
(b) Violation of rights of accused
(c) Condonation of delay
(d) Principle of prospective over-ruling

6. Which fundamental right CANNOT be enforced in Court during the emergency if suspended by the President?
(a) Right to life
(b) Right to religion
(c) Right not to be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) Right against self incrimination

7.Which one of the following is NOT explicitly stated in the amendment procedure laid down in Article 368 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Simple majority in either House of the Parliament
(b) Special majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in either House of the Parliament
(c) Ratification by resolution passed by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures in addition to special majority
(d) The President may give his assent to the Bill or may return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses of Parliament

8.Which is the suitable expression for “Right to Vote”?
(a) It is obligatory in nature
(b) It is mandatory in nature
(c) It is moral in nature
(d) It is statutory in nature

9.Which of the following is NOT deemed to be the Constitutional Power of the President of India?
(a) Dissolving both the Houses of Parliament
(b) Proroguing both the Houses of Parliament
(c) Addressing both the Houses of Parliament
(d) Granting pardons

10.Consider the following statement:
“The decision declaring some of the provisions of the Act to be invalid does not affect the  validity of the Act as it remains”
Which one amongst the following principles of the Constitution of India does the above statement refer to?
(a) Principle of Eclipse
(b) Principle of Waiver
(c) Principle of Colourable Legislation
(d) Principle of Severability 

Click Here to Download Full Paper PDF

Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Joint Assistant Director, Directorate of Coordination Police Wireless

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Joint Assistant Director, Directorate of Coordination Police Wireless



1.Suppose a specimen (metal or semiconductor) carrying a current I is placed in a transverse magnetic field B, an electric field ε is induced in the direction perpendicular to both I and B. Then this phenomenon is known as
(a) Mobility
(b) Super conductivity
(c) Hall effect
(d) Diffusion

2. The rate of change of collector current with respect to the reverse saturation current, keeping β and VBE constant, is called
(a) Stability factor
(b) Fixed bias
(c) Load line
(d) Bias compensation

3. Which one of the following has negative temperature coefficient?
(a) Sensistor
(b) Thermistor
(c) Metal
(d) Heavily doped semiconductor

4. If a conductor of length L, carrying a current of I, is placed in a magnetic field of intensity B, then the force fm acting on this conductor is (assuming that the directions of I and B are perpendicular to each other)
(a) fm = BIL
(b) fm = BI/L
(c) fm = LI/B
(d) fm = 2BI/L

5. In a P-N junction diode, if a forward-bias potential (Vd) is zero, then
(a) The forward-bias current (Id) will be equal to the reverse saturation current (Is)
(b) The forward-bias current (Id) will be equal to the negative of reverse saturation
current (Is)
(c) Id will be zero
(d) Id = 2Is

6. What is the cutoff frequency of the op-amp, if unity gain frequency is 10 MHz and voltage differential gain is 50,000?
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 1000 Hz
(d) 2000 Hz 

7.Which of the following elements are most frequently used for formation of p-type material by doping a pure germanium or silicon crystal with impurity atoms having three valence electrons?
(a) Antimony, Arsenic, Boron
(b) Boron, Gallium, Arsenic
(c) Phosphorus, Boron, Gallium
(d) Boron, Gallium, Indium

8. Consider the following statements for sampling:
1. Flat-top sampling is preferred because of its noise immunity.
2. In natural sampling, the top of each rectangular pulse remains constant and is equal to the instantaneous value of the signal x(t) at the start of sampling.
3. One important reason for intentionally lengthening the duration of each pulse in flattop sampling is to reduce the bandwidth.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Click Here to Download Full Paper PDF

Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Deputy Central Intelligence Officer (Technical), IB

UPSC



UPSC Recruitment Paper 2019 : Deputy Central Intelligence Officer (Technical), IB



1.Suppose a specimen (metal or semiconductor) carrying a current I is placed in a transverse magnetic field B, an electric field ε is induced in the direction perpendicular to both I and B. Then this phenomenon is known as
(a) Mobility
(b) Super conductivity
(c) Hall effect
(d) Diffusion

2. The rate of change of collector current with respect to the reverse saturation current, keeping β and VBE constant, is called
(a) Stability factor
(b) Fixed bias
(c) Load line
(d) Bias compensation

3. Which one of the following has negative temperature coefficient?
(a) Sensistor
(b) Thermistor
(c) Metal
(d) Heavily doped semiconductor

4. If a conductor of length L, carrying a current of I, is placed in a magnetic field of intensity B, then the force fm acting on this conductor is (assuming that the directions of I and B are perpendicular to each other)
(a) fm = BIL
(b) fm = BI/L
(c) fm = LI/B
(d) fm = 2BI/L

5. In a P-N junction diode, if a forward-bias potential (Vd) is zero, then
(a) The forward-bias current (Id) will be equal to the reverse saturation current (Is)
(b) The forward-bias current (Id) will be equal to the negative of reverse saturation
current (Is)
(c) Id will be zero
(d) Id = 2Is

6. What is the cutoff frequency of the op-amp, if unity gain frequency is 10 MHz and voltage differential gain is 50,000?
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 1000 Hz
(d) 2000 Hz 

7.Which of the following elements are most frequently used for formation of p-type material by doping a pure germanium or silicon crystal with impurity atoms having three valence electrons?
(a) Antimony, Arsenic, Boron
(b) Boron, Gallium, Arsenic
(c) Phosphorus, Boron, Gallium
(d) Boron, Gallium, Indium

8. Consider the following statements for sampling:
1. Flat-top sampling is preferred because of its noise immunity.
2. In natural sampling, the top of each rectangular pulse remains constant and is equal to the instantaneous value of the signal x(t) at the start of sampling.
3. One important reason for intentionally lengthening the duration of each pulse in flattop sampling is to reduce the bandwidth.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Click Here to Download Full Paper PDF

Printed Study Material for UPSC Exams

Courtesy : UPSC

(E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE PDF - DEC 2020

 (E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE PDF - DEC 2020

  • Medium: ENGLISH
  • E-BOOK NAME : KUKSHETRA MAGAZINE PDF -DEC 2020
  • Total Pages: 52
  • PRICE: 49/- FREE/- (only for few days)
  • Hosting Charges: NIL
  • File Type: PDF File Download Link via Email

Click Here to Download PDF

Related E-Books:

(E-Book) YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF - DEC 2020

 (E-Book) YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF - DEC 2020

  • Medium: ENGLISH
  • E-BOOK NAME : YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF -DEC 2020
  • Total Pages: 52
  • PRICE: 49/- FREE/- (only for few days)
  • Hosting Charges: NIL
  • File Type: PDF File Download Link via Email

Content Table

Click Here to Download PDF

Related E-Books:

(E-Book) Current Affairs GK for UPSC, IAS Exams- OCTOBER 2020 PDF

General Awareness for UPSC Exams - NOV 2020

Current Affairs GK for UPSC, IAS Exams - OCTOBER 2020 PDF

  • Medium: English
  • E-BOOK NAME : IAS Current Affairs GK PDF - OCTOBER 2020
  • Total Pages: 85
  • PRICE: 49/- FREE/- (only for few days)
  • Hosting Charges: 19/-
  • File Type: PDF File Download Link via Email

Covered Topics:

  • National
  • International
  • Business And Economy
  • Science and Technology
  • Environment
  • Sports
  • MCQ Questions

 


Click Here to Download PDF

(E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE HINDI PDF - DEC 2020

 (E-Book) KURUKSHETRA MAGAZINE PDF - DEC 2020 (HINDI)

  • Medium: Hindi
  • E-BOOK NAME : YOJANA KURUKSHETRA PDF -DEC 2020
  • Total Pages: 68
  • PRICE: 49/- FREE/- (only for few days)
  • Hosting Charges: NIL
  • File Type: PDF File Download Link via Email

Click Here to Download PDF

Related E-Books:

(The Gist of PIB) Finance Minister unveils Doorstep Banking Services and declares EASE 2.0 Index Results  [SEPTEMBER-2020]


(The Gist of PIB) Finance Minister unveils Doorstep Banking Services and declares EASE 2.0 Index Results

 [SEPTEMBER-2020]

Finance Minister unveils Doorstep Banking Services and declares EASE 2.0 Index Results

Union Minister of Finance inaugurated Doorstep Banking Services by Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and participated in the awards ceremony to felicitate best performing banks on EASE Banking Reforms Index.

Doorstep Banking Services:

  • As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services is envisaged to provide convenience of banking services to the customers at their doorstep through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App.
  • Customers can also track their service request through these channels. The services shall be rendered by the Doorstep Banking Agents deployed by the selected Service Providers at 100 centres across the country.
  • The services can be availed by customers of Public Sector Banks at nominal charges.

EASE Banking Reforms Index:

  • A common reform agenda for PSBs, EASE Agenda is aimed at institutionalizing clean and smart banking. It was launched in January 2018. PSBs have shown a healthy trajectory in their performance over four quarters since the launch of EASE 2.0 Reforms Agenda.
  • Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three in the ‘Top Performing Banks’ category according to the EASE 2.0 Index Results.
  • Bank of Maharashtra, Central Bank of India and erstwhile Corporation Bank were awarded in the ‘Top Improvers’ category basis EASE 2.0 Index.

CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD FULL PDF

Study Material for UPSC General Studies Pre Cum Mains

This is Only Sample Material, To Get Full Materials Buy The Gist 1 Year Subscription - "Only PDF" Click Here

Click Here to Download More Free Sample Material

<<Go Back To Main Page

Courtesy: PIB

(The Gist of Science Reporter) Device for Diabetic Retinopathy Testing


(The Gist of Science Reporter) Device for Diabetic Retinopathy Testing

[September-2020]


Device for Diabetic Retinopathy Testing

  • One arising in diabetics is Diabetic Retinopathy. This is an of the several complications abnormal growth in the retinal blood vessels and usually worsens when the patient is on insulin. Symptoms of Diabetic Retinopathy include blurred vision, problems in recognising colours, etc.
  • There is a long and inconvenient procedure for examining this condition of the eye, as part of which ophthalmologists use many modern laboratory techniques. But now IIT Guwahati researchers have developed a portable point-of-care device for early and easy detection of diabetic retinopathy. It is a microfluidic analyzer device developed in collaboration with Shri Sankaradeva Nethralaya, Guwahati which can alert the patient by identifying diabetic retinopathy at an early stage with the help of tear or urine sample.
  • The research team identified a protein called beta-2 microglobulin or B2M, found in tears and urine of the patients. It’s a reliable biomarker for the condition. The device uses nanogold-laden antibodies of the protein to detect its presence in the sample. 
  • A colour change in the sample denotes the presence of protein. The device is as easy and portable as a glucometer, so a patient can be examined easily at general clinics.
  • The research has been published in the journal ACS Sustainable Chemistry and Engineering. The team has also filed an Indian patent for this idea and device.

CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD FULL PDF

CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD UPSC E-BOOKS

Study Material for UPSC General Studies Pre Cum Mains

Get The Gist 1 Year Subscription Online

Click Here to Download More Free Sample Material

<<Go Back To Main Page

Courtesy: Science Reporter

Pages

Subscribe to RSS - trainee5's blog