1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

All candidates (male/female/transgender) are requested to carefully read the Rules of Civil Services Examination notified by the Government (Department of Personnel and Training) and this Notice of Examination derived from these Rules. The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility conditions for admission to examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. The Commission takes up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test. 

2. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above mentioned website. Brief Instructions for filling up the "Online Application Form" given in Appendix-IIA. 

Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The candidates will have to upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided in the online application by him/her. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test. 

The facility of withdrawal of Application is available for those candidates who do not want to appear for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination. In this regard, Instructions are mentioned in Appendix IIB of this Examination Notice.

3. LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS :

The online Applications can be filled up to 3rd March, 2020 till 6:00 PM. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. 

UPSC PRE EXAM DATE: 31st MAY 2020 (SUNDAY)

4. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (negative marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

5. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:

In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.

F. No. 1/6/2019-E.I(B) : Preliminary Examination of the Civil Services Examination for recruitment to the Services and Posts mentioned below will be held by the Union Public Service Commission on 31st May, 2020 in accordance with the Rules published by the Department of Personnel & Training in the Gazette of India Extraordinary dated 12th February, 2020. 

(i) Indian Administrative Service.
(ii) Indian Foreign Service.
(iii) Indian Police Service.
(iv) Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’.
(v) Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(vi) Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise), Group ‘A’.
(vii) Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(viii) Indian Revenue Service (I.T.), Group ‘A’.
(ix) Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A’ (Assistant Works Manager, Administration).
(x) Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’.
(xi) Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’.
(xii) Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’.
(xiii) Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group 'A'.
(xiv) Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’.
(xv) Post of Assistant Security Commissioner in Railway Protection Force, Group ‘A’
(xvi) Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’.
(xvii) Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A’.
(xviii) Indian Trade Service, Group 'A'.
(xix) Indian Corporate Law Service, Group ‘A’.
(xx) Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B’ (Section Officer’s Grade).
(xxi) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli
Civil Service, Group 'B'.
(xxii) Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli

Police Service, Group 'B'.

(xxiii) Pondicherry Civil Service, Group 'B'.
(xxiv) Pondicherry Police Service, Group ‘B’

 

Click Here to Download UPSC Official Notification PDF

The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 796 which include 24 vacancies reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability Category, i.e. 3 vacancies for candidates of (a) blindness and low vision; 9 Vacancies for (b) deaf and hard of hearing; 8 Vacancies for (c) locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy; and 4 Vacancies for (e) multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (c) including deaf-blindness. The final number of vacancies may undergo change after getting firm number of vacancies from Cadre Controlling Authorities. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. As per the decision taken by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job opportunities, the Commission will publicly disclose the scores of the candidates (obtained in the Written Examination and Interview/Personality Test) through the public portals. The disclosure will be made in respect of only those willing candidates who will appear in the Interview/Personality Test for the Civil Service Examination and are not finally recommended for appointment. The information shared through this disclosure scheme about the non-recommended candidates may be used by other public and private recruitment agencies to appoint suitable candidates from the information made available in the public portal. Candidates will be required to give their options at the time of Interview/Personality Test, while downloading the e-Summon Letter from the Commission’s website for the interview. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published by the Commission. 

Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of this examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and manner in which information related to such candidates is utilized by public/private organizations.

• UPSC Pre Exam Syllabus

• Number of attempts

• Centres of Examination

• Eligibility Conditions

• Answer Key

• Result

• UPSC Prelims Cut-off Marks

• Educational Qualifications

• (E-Admit Card) Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination

• How To Apply

• Apply Online

3. Eligibility Conditions: (I) Nationality

1. For the Indian Administrative Service, the Indian Foreign Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India.

2. For other services, a candidate must be either:-

• a citizen of India, or

• a subject of Nepal, or

• a subject of Bhutan, or

• a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or

• a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India.

(II) Age Limits:

(a) A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years and must not have attained the age of 32 years on the 1st of August, 2020 i.e., he must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1988 and not later than 1st August, 1999. Necessary action to make corresponding changes in respective Rules/Regulations pertaining to various services is being taken separately.

(b) The upper age-limit prescribed above will be relaxable:
(i) up to a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe;
(ii) up to a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates;
(iii) up to a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services Personnel, disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof;
(iv) up to a maximum of five years in the case of ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2020 and have been released;
(a) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st August, 2020 otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency; or
(b) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service; or
(c) on invalidment.
(v) up to a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service as on 1st August, 2020 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for civil employment and that they will be released on three months’ notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment. 
(vi) up to a maximum of 10 years in the case of (a) blindness and low vision; (b) deaf and hard of hearing; (c) locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy; (d) autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness; and (e) multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness. 

(III) Minimum Educational Qualifications :

The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification 

Note I:—Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the result as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination along with their application (i.e. Detailed Application Form-I) for the Main Examination, failing which
such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. Such proof of passing the requisite examination should be dated earlier than the due date (closing date) of Detailed Application Form-I of the Civil Services (Main) Examination.

Note II: In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who does not have any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/she has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.

Note III: Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by the Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

Note IV: Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted to the Examination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award of the Degree 

4. FEE:

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST/Persons with Benchmark Disability Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of State Bank of India or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card or by using Internet Banking of SBI. Applicants who opt for "Pay by Cash" mode should print the system generated Pay-in-slip during part II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. "Pay by Cash” mode will be deactivated at 11.59 P.M. of 02.03.2020 i.e. one day before the closing date; however applicants who have generated their Pay-in- Slip before it is deactivated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reasons whatsoever, even if holding valid pay-in-slip will have no other offline option but to opt for available online Debit/Credit Card or Internet Banking payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 18:00 Hours of 03.03.2020.

For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the bank they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and a list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission website within two weeks after the last day of submission of online application.These applicants shall also be intimated through e-mail to submit copy of proof of their payment to the Commission at the address mentioned in the e-mail. The applicant shall be required to submit the proof within 10 days from the date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the Commission. In case, no response is received from the applicants their applications shall be summarily rejected and no further correspondence shall be entertained in this regard. All female candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe/ Persons with Benchmark Disability categories are exempted from payment of fee. No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC/EWS candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed fee in full. Persons with Benchmark Disability are exempted from the payment of fee provided they are otherwise eligible for appointment to the Services/Posts to be filled on the results of this examination on the basis of the standards of medical fitness for these Services/Posts (including any concessions specifically extended to the Persons with Benchmark Disability). A candidate of Persons with Benchmark Disability claiming fee concession will be required by the Commission to submit along with their Detailed Application Form - I, a certified copy of the Certificate of Disability from a Government Hospital/Medical Board in support of his/her claim for belonging to Persons with Benchmark Disability. 

NB: Notwithstanding, the aforesaid provision for fee exemption, a candidate of Persons with Benchmark Disability will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she (after such physical examination as the Government or the Appointing Authority, as the case may be, may prescribe) is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to candidates of Persons with Benchmark Disability by the Government. 

Note I: Applications without the prescribed Fee (Unless remission of Fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.
Note II: Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

Note III: If any candidate who took the Civil Services Examination held in 2019 wishes to apply for admission to this examination, he/she must submit his/her application without waiting for the results or an offer of appointment.

Note IV: Candidates admitted to the Main Examination will be required to pay a further fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two hundreds only).

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ALERT: UPSC PRE 2020 परीक्षा स्थगित Due to COVID-19

1. परीक्षा के लिए उम्मीदवार अपनी  पात्रता सुनिश्चित कर लें :

सभी उम्मीदवारों (पुरुष / महिला / ट्रांसजेंडर) से अनुरोध है कि वे सरकार (कार्मिक और प्रशिक्षण विभाग) द्वारा अधिसूचित सिविल सेवा परीक्षा के नियमों और इन नियमों से प्राप्त परीक्षा के नोटिस को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें। परीक्षा के लिए आवेदन करने वाले उम्मीदवारों को यह सुनिश्चित करना चाहिए कि वे परीक्षा में प्रवेश के लिए सभी पात्रता शर्तों को पूरा करें। निर्धारित पात्रता शर्तों को पूरा करने के लिए परीक्षा के सभी चरणों में उनका प्रवेश विशुद्ध रूप से अनंतिम विषय होगा। अभ्यर्थी को ई-एडमिट कार्ड जारी करने का यह अर्थ नहीं होगा कि आयोग द्वारा उसकी उम्मीदवारी को अंततः मंजूरी दे दी गई है। उम्मीदवार द्वारा साक्षात्कार / व्यक्तित्व परीक्षण के लिए योग्य होने के बाद ही आयोग मूल दस्तावेजों के संदर्भ में पात्रता शर्तों का सत्यापन करता है।

आवेदन कैसे करे:

उम्मीदवारों को वेबसाइट https://upsconline.nic.in का उपयोग करके ऑनलाइन आवेदन करना होगा। ऑनलाइन आवेदन भरने के लिए विस्तृत निर्देश उपर्युक्त वेबसाइट पर उपलब्ध हैं। परिशिष्ट-आईआईए में दिए गए "ऑनलाइन आवेदन पत्र" को भरने के लिए संक्षिप्त निर्देश।

उम्मीदवार के पास एक फोटो आईडी कार्ड का विवरण होना चाहिए। आधार कार्ड / वोटर कार्ड / पैन कार्ड / पासपोर्ट / ड्राइविंग लाइसेंस / राज्य / केंद्र सरकार द्वारा जारी कोई अन्य फोटो पहचान पत्र। इस फोटो आईडी कार्ड का विवरण उम्मीदवार को ऑनलाइन आवेदन पत्र भरते समय प्रदान करना होगा। उम्मीदवारों को फोटो आईडी की एक स्कैन की गई कॉपी अपलोड करनी होगी जिसका विवरण उसके / उसके द्वारा ऑनलाइन आवेदन में प्रदान किया गया है। यह फोटो आईडी कार्ड भविष्य के सभी संदर्भों के लिए उपयोग किया जाएगा और उम्मीदवार को सलाह दी जाती है कि वह परीक्षा / व्यक्तिगत परीक्षा के लिए इस फोटो आईडी कार्ड को ले जाए।

आवेदन वापस लेने की सुविधा उन उम्मीदवारों के लिए उपलब्ध है जो सिविल सेवा (प्रारंभिक) परीक्षा के लिए उपस्थित नहीं होना चाहते हैं। इस संबंध में, इस परीक्षा सूचना के परिशिष्ट II में निर्देशों का उल्लेख किया गया है।

आवेदन पत्र की भरने की अंतिम तारीख  :

ऑनलाइन आवेदन 3 मार्च, 2020 तक शाम 6:00 बजे तक भरे जा सकते हैं। पात्र उम्मीदवारों को परीक्षा शुरू होने से तीन सप्ताह पहले ई-एडमिट कार्ड जारी किया जाएगा। उम्मीदवारों द्वारा डाउनलोड करने के लिए ई-एडमिट कार्ड यूपीएससी की वेबसाइट [https://upsconline.nic.in] में उपलब्ध कराया जाएगा। कोई भी एडमिट कार्ड डाक से नहीं भेजा जाएगा।

गलत उतर के लए दंड

उम्मीदवारों को ध्यान देना चाहिए कि वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रकार के प्रश्न पत्रों में एक उम्मीदवार द्वारा चिह्नित गलत उत्तरों के लिए जुर्माना (नकारात्मक अंकन) होगा।

उमीदवार के मार्गदर्शन हेत सुविधा काउंटर :

अपने आवेदन, उम्मीदवारी आदि के संबंध में किसी भी मार्गदर्शन / सूचना / स्पष्टीकरण के मामले में उम्मीदवार यूपीएससी के सुविधा काउंटर से संपर्क कर सकते हैं, जिसके परिसर में गेट 'सी' के पास व्यक्ति या टेलीफोन नंबर 011-23385271 / 011-23381125 / 011-23098543 पर काम कर रहा है। 10.00 बजे से 17.00 बजे के बीच का दिन।

(स्टडी किट) UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा (Combo)

(स्टडी किट) UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1

मोबाइल फोन प्रतिबंधित:

(क) जहां परा आयोिजत क जा रह है, उस परसर म मोबाइल फोन का योग (चाहे वह  ऑफ ह य ना हो), पेजर या कसी अ य कार का इलेनक उपकरण या कए जा सकने वाला डवाइस या पेन  जैसा कोई टोरेज मीडया, माट वॉच इयाद या कै मरा या लू टूथ डवाइस या कोई  उपकरण या संचार यं के प म योग कए जा सकने वाला कोई अय संबंधत उपकरण, चाहे वह बंद हो या चालूसत मना है।
(ख) उमीदवार को उनके हत म सलाह द जाती है क वे परा थल पर मोबाइल फोन/ लू टूथ सहत कोई भी तबंधत सामी न लाएं, यक इनक सु रा सुनिचत नहं क जा सकती।

उमीदवार को सलाह  जाती है क वे कोई भी  यवान/कमती सामान परा भवन म न लाएं, यक उनक सु रा सुनिचत नहं क जा सकती. आयोग इस संबंध म कसी नकसान के लए उतरदायी नहं होगा।

एफ. सं. 1/6/2019-प.1(ख)

नीचे दी गई सेवाओं और पदों पर भर्ती के लिए सिविल सेवा परीक्षा की प्रारंभिक परीक्षा संघ लोक सेवा आयोग द्वारा 31 मई, 2020 को भारत के राजपत्र में कार्मिक और प्रशिक्षण विभाग द्वारा प्रकाशित नियमों के अनुसार होगी। 12 फरवरी, 2020।

(i) भारतीय प्रशासनिक सेवा

(ii) भारतीय विदेश सेवा

(iii) भारतीय पुलिस सेवा

(iv) भारतीय डाक एवं तार लेखा और वित्त सेवा, ग्रुप "क "

(v) भारतीय लेखा परीक्षा और लेखा सेवा , ग्रुप "क "

(vi) भारतीय राजस्व सेवा (सीमा शुल्क और केंद्रीय उत्पाद), ग्रुप 'क'

(vii) भारतीय रक्षा लेखा सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(viii) भारतीय राजस्व सेवा (आयकर), ग्रुप 'क'

(ix) भारतीय आयुध कारखाना सेवा, ग्रुप 'क' (सहायक कर्मशाला प्रबंधक , प्रशासनिक)

(x) भारतीय डाक सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xi) भारतीय सिविल लेखा सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xii) भारतीय रेलवे यातायात सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xiii) भारतीय रेलवे लेखा सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xiv) भारतीय रेलवे कार्मिक सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xv) रेलवे सुरक्षा बल में ग्रुप 'क' के सहायक सुरक्षा आयुक्त के पद

(xvi) भारतीय रक्षा संपदा सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xvii) भारतीय सूचना सेवा (कनिष्ठ ग्रेड), ग्रुप 'क'

(xviii) भारतीय व्यापार सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xix) भारतीय कारपोरेट विधि सेवा, ग्रुप 'क'

(xx) सशस्त्र सेना मुख्यालय सिविल सेवा, ग्रुप 'ख' (अनुभाग अधर्कारी ग्रेड)

(xxi) दिल्ली , अंडमान एवं निकोबार द्वीप समूह,लक्षद्वीप , दमन व दीव एवं दादरा व नगर हवेली सिविल सेवा, ग्रुप 'ख'

(xxii) दिल्ली , अंडमान एवं निकोबार द्वीप समूह,लक्षद्वीप , दमन व दीव एवं दादरा व नगर हवेली पुलिस सेवा, ग्रुप 'ख'

(xxiii)पांडिचेरी सिविल सेवा, ग्रुप 'ख'

(xxiv)पांडिचेरी पुलिस सेवा, ग्रुप 'ख'.

आवेदन प्राप्त करने की अंतिम तिथि : 03 मार्च 2020)

UPSC 2020 अधिसूचना के लिए यहां क्लिक करें

ऑनलाइन आवेदन के लिए यहां क्लिक करें

(स्टडी किट) UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन प्रारंभिक एवं मुख्य परीक्षा (Combo)

(स्टडी किट) UPSC सामान्य अध्ययन (GS) प्रारंभिक परीक्षा (Pre) पेपर-1

Courtesy: UPSC

महत्वपूर्ण लिंक:

• शैक्षिक योग्यता

• पाठ्यक्रम (Syllabus)

• UPSC HINDI PAPERS : यूपीएससी आईएएस (प्री) सामान्य अध्ययन परीक्षा पेपर

• अवसरो की संख्या

• आवेदन कैसे करें

• ऑनलाइन आवेदन करने के लिए यहां क्लिक करें

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(Answer Key) UPSC Indian Statistical Service Examination, 2019

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Exam Name: Indian Statistical Service Examination

Year: 2019

Subjects:

• Statistics-I
• Statistics-II

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Time to prioritise education and health (Indian Express)

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• Mains Paper 3: Economy 
• Prelims level: Social sector 
• Mains level: Liberalizing in social sector 

Context:

• The government’s macroeconomic policy has acquired a new salience in the context
• of reversing the current slowdown in recent months.
• The policy currently being pursued is intended primarily to incentivise potential investors by facilitating ease-of-doing business and making large-scale concessions to the corporate sector but investments to serve social objectives and help in indigenisation are being discarded.

What are the reforms needed?

• Reform such as labour market liberalisation and removal of constraints on acquisition of land for industrial purposes.
• Advocating acceleration of investment in physical infrastructure and human infrastructure.

Negative impact of such reforms:

• Likely to have an impact on the incomes, living conditions and the economic security of the workers and the agricultural class.
• The policy of freedom of hiring and firing of labour will be counterproductive as it would squeeze demand further in a situation of huge demand deficit.
• Investment in physical infrastructure is not as labour-intensive as that in other sectors.
• Large-scale projects in physical infrastructure field have long gestation periods.

Positive impact of investing in social sector:

• Creating demand in the short run by way of opening avenues for large-scale employment.
• Imparts competitiveness and sustainability on the Indian economy on the medium and long run.
• Increased public expenditure in social sectors have short- and medium-term effect of enhancing employment, generating demand and attracting investment.
• Lower gestation periods.

Impact of investment in school education:

• The Right to Education Act (RTE) sets out the objective of universalizing elementary education in five years.
• The National Education Policy, 2020 states that the Act “will be reviewed... to ensure that all students... shall have free and compulsory access to high quality and equitable schooling from early childhood education (age three onwards) through higher education (i.e. until Grade 12)”.
• Council for Social Development, have calculated the magnitude of demand creation by meeting just one condition for realising this objective, i.e. employment of teachers.
• The recruitment of 5.7 million (figure arrived by considering pupil teacher ratio as 10:1) additional teachers over a period of five years, can create huge scale demand which is only one factor essential
• for universalising quality school education.
• There is also a large gap between the requirement of infrastructure in the schools and that available and built recently.
• According to government data, only 12.5% of the schools covered by the RTE Act were compliant with RTE norms, most of which are related to infrastructure.
• Thus meeting these norms has the potential of creating employment on a large scale.

Health and employability:

• In the health field, there is a vast number of vacant posts for professionals at these levels and there is a huge deficit of paramedical workers, middle-level health workers, nurses and trained doctors.
• Health being one of the labour intensive sector investments in this sector is need of the hour.

Significance of Investments in education and health:

• Health and education are of instrumental value in driving growth, creating employment and improving people’s well-being.
• Education has a crucial role to play for an individual in gaining employment and retaining employability.
• If we compare 2011 and 2017 data released by the Labour Ministry, the gap in educational attainment emerges as the single most important factor for the higher rate of growth during this period.
• Health and education have been widely recognised as public goods.

Conclusion:

• It is therefore time for reprioritizing education and health in the scheme of development strategy and the allocation of budgetary resources.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust, consider the following statements:
1. It will have 15 trustees, out of which one trustee will always be from Dalit community.
2. It will be completely free to take every decision related to the temple and 67 acres of land will be transferred to the trust. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both  
(d) None
Answer: C

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) What are the impacts of investment in school education? Do you think is there any negative impact of liberalization in informal sector? 

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Crime and politics: on political candidates with criminal records (Indian Express)

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• Mains Paper 2: Polity 
• Prelims level: Representation of the People Act 1951
• Mains level: Reasons for still prevailing criminalization of Politics

Context:

• The Supreme Court has recently agreed to hear a plea from the Election Commission
• of India (ECI) to direct political parties not to field candidates with criminal antecedents.
• Supreme Court has passed successive series of landmark judgments to bar criminal candidates from contesting but the extent of the problem has not been eliminated entirely.
• A recent report stated that 1. 46% of Members of Parliament have criminal records.
• Current cohort of Lok Sabha MPs has the highest (29%) proportion of those with serious declared criminal cases.

What does this indicate?

• These unhealthy tendencies in the democratic system reflect a poor image of the nature of India’s state institutions and the quality of its elected representatives.
• This is a consequence of a structural problem in Indian democracy and the nature of the Indian state.

Landmark judgements by Supreme Court to curb criminalisation of politics:

• In 2013 Lily Thomas vs. Union of India case, Supreme Court removed the statutory protection of convicted legislators from immediate disqualification.
• In 2014, SC directed the completion of trials involving elected representatives within a year.
• In 2017, it asked the Centre to frame a scheme to appoint special courts to exclusively try cases against politicians.
• In Public Interest Foundation vs. Union of India, 2018 Supreme Court asked the political parties to publicise pending criminal cases faced by their candidates.

Reasons for still prevailing criminalization of Politics:

Lack of political will:

Representation of the People Act, 1951, deals with disqualification of candidates against whom charges have been framed in court for serious offences. Therefore, in order to curb criminalisation of politics, Parliament needs to bring an amendment in the Act.
The parliament is yet to frame a law that is deterrent to legislators with dubious credentials.

Money power:

• Candidates with serious records seem to do well largely due to their ability to finance their own elections and bring substantive resources to their respective parties.
• The report by the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) and the National Election Watch (New) found that a candidate with a clean record has 12 per cent chance of winning the election whereas for a candidate with a criminal record, the chance of winning is 23 percent.

Narrow prism view:

• Some voters tend to view such candidates through a narrow prism of being able to represent their interests by any possible means.

Left out with no choice:

• As all competing candidates have criminal records voters are left with no choices but to select any of them.

Way forward:

• While judicial pronouncements on making it difficult for criminal candidates to contest are necessary.
• Only enhanced awareness and increased democratic participation could create the right conditions for the decriminalisation of politics.

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the India- Russia energy ties, consider the following statements:
1. Indian Oil Corp (IOCL) recently signed a deal with Russia’s Rosneft for the annual purchase of 2 million metric tonnes of Urals grade crude oil from Rosneft.
2. The crude oil, being sourced under the contract, will be loaded in Suezmax vessels at Novorossiysk port of Russia and will come to India, bypassing Straits of Hormuz.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both  
(d) None
Answer: C

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) What are the reasons behind for still prevailing criminalization of politics? 

 

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The Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act (The Hindu)

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• Mains Paper 2: Polity 
• Prelims level: Public Safety Act
• Mains level: Uses of Public Safety Act in accordance with Indian constitution 

Context:

• Former Jammu and  Kashmir Chief Minister Dr. Farooq Abdullah was detained under the State’s Public Safety Act on September 16, for 12 days. 
• This was hours before the Supreme Court was due to hear Rajya Sabha Member Vaiko’s habeus corpus petition, seeking the Jammu and  Kashmir government to produce him in court and release him from detention.

What is the Public Safety Act?

• The law was introduced by Sheikh Abdullah (Farooq Abdullah’s father) in 1978. But it’s purpose was different. It was brought in to prevent timber smuggling, and keep the smugglers in prison. This is a preventive detention law that allows the State government to detain a person up to two years without a trial.
• It is similar to the National Security Act, but this was enacted two years before the NSA came into being.

Why has he been detained under PSA now?

• In police custody, a person has to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of detention. But the PSA allows the State to hold a person without producing them in court.

What happens after PSA is used?

• Within four weeks of passing the detention order, the government has to refer the case to an Advisory Board. 
• This Advisory Board will have to give its recommendations within eight weeks of the order. If the Board thinks that there is cause for preventive detention, the government can hold the person up to two years.
• The person detained has limited rights. Usually when a person is arrested, they have the right to legal representation and can challenge the arrest. 
• But, when a person is arrested under the PSA, they do not have these rights before the Advisory Board unless sufficient grounds can be established that the detention is illegal. There have been cases where the High Court has interfered and quashed the detention.
• According to Section 13(2), the detaining authority need not even inform the detained individual as to the reason for the action, if it decides that it goes against public interest.

Has this been used before?

• Last month, former IAS officer and founder of Jammu and Kashmir People’s movement Shah Faesal was stopped from flying out of the country from the Delhi Airport and sent back to Srinagar, where he was detained under the PSA. He is still under detention.
• In the wake of the Pulwama attack, scores of detainees were slapped with this law, and Jammu and  Kashmir Governor Satya Pal Malik had approved an amendment to move detainees to jails outside the State.
• Hurriyat leaders like Masarat Alam, JKLF leader Yasin Malik have also been detained under this law. Incidentally, in January this year, National Conference vice president and son of Dr. Abdullah, Omar Abdullah had promised to repeal the controversial Act if he came back to power in the State.

Online Coaching for UPSC PRE Exam

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the India International Seafood Show (IISS) 2020, consider the following statements:
1. The theme of this year’s seafood show is “Blue Revolution- Beyond Production to Value Addition”. 
2. It is being organized by the Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA), under Ministry of Commerce and Industry in association with the Seafood Exporters Association of India (SEAI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both  
(d) None
Answer: C

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) What is the Public Safety Act? What are the uses of it?

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The high cost of raising trade walls (The Hindu)

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• Mains Paper 3: Economy 
• Prelims level: Free Trade Agreements
• Mains level: Future challenges of the Free Trade Agreements

Context:

• India’s international trade posture appeared to turn protectionist in the past week, with two indicators the government sent out. 
• The first, which played out live on television was contained in the Union Budget announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1. 
• The other, that went virtually unnoticed, was that India declined to attend a meeting of trade negotiators in Bali (February 3-4) that was discussing the next step in the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) trade agreement.

.Rise in trade deficits:

• The government’s problem with FTAs was a key theme in its decision to walk out of the RCEP negotiations (of 16 countries) in November 2019, where Prime Minister Narendra Modi and members of his cabinet cited the rise in trade deficits with FTA partners. 
• The government says it will now review all those agreements, in particular TAs signed with the 10-nation ASEAN grouping (FTA), Japan (Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, or CEPA) and South Korea (CEPA), and wants to “correct asymmetry” in negotiations with new partners.
• India makes a complete break with RCEP, as its absence from the Bali meeting indicates it is determined to, negotiating the bilateral trade agreements (TAs) will not be a priority for the other countries until RCEP is done. 
• The process of legal scrubbing is likely to take most of the year, and any talks with India will probably only follow that. 
• It is also hard to see any of them being able to offer India a better deal bilaterally once they are bound into the multilateral RCEP agreement.

Tough road ahead:

• A similar scenario awaits the announcement of the India-United Kingdom FTA talks. British Prime Minister Boris Johnson is to visit Delhi in the next few months, while Mr. Modi heads to the U.K. in November for an environmental summit, and their bilateral bonhomie is expected to boost chances of an FTA post-Brexit. 
• However, it is unlikely that the U.K. will actually be able to talk until next year, after terms for the U.K.’s full withdrawal from the European Union (EU) are completed.

No safety net:

• While the absence of a TA with any country does not mean that trade will not grow, other changes in the world trading order may become significant hindrances when added to this present scenario. 
• The decline of multilateralism, accelerated by retrenchment of the U.S. and China’s intransigence have all meant the World Trade Organization (WTO) has lost steam as a world arbiter. This leaves states that are not part of arrangements without a safety net on dispute settlement mechanisms.
• The government has invoked the massive $57-billion trade deficit with China to explain protectionist measures, but it forgets its own trade surpluses with smaller economies, particularly in the neighbourhood, where Indian exports form more than 80% of total trade with Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Sri Lanka, respectively. 
• Even with Pakistan, before India cancelled most favoured nation (MFN) status and Pakistan suspended all trade, in 2019, India’s exports stood at about $2.06 billion of a total of $2.55 billion.

Rise of regional agreements:

• It is clear that most of the world is now divided into regional FTAs, including the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) for North America, the Southern Common Market (MERCOSUR for its Spanish initials) for South America.
• The EU, the Eurasian Economic Union (Russia and neighbours), the African Continental Free Trade Agreement (AfCFTA), the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) FTA in West Asia, and now the biggest of them all, RCEP, which minus India, represents a third of the world’s population and just under a third of its GDP.
• With the door to RCEP all but closed, and the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) virtually abandoned, India is not a part of any regional FTA. 
• The trend across the world does not favour trade in services the way it does in goods, as most countries have turned migration-averse.
• India’s strength in the services sector and its demand for more mobility for Indian employees, is thus becoming another sticky point in FTA negotiations.
• The debate over trade is as much about India’s leadership ambitions in the world, and the factors that could inhibit its rise. 
• It would be hard to argue that India can rise in Asia without closer trade links with the East or the backing of South Asia.

Way forward:

• India’s demographic might is certainly attractive for international investors, but only if that vast market has purchasing power and is not riven by social unrest and instability. 
• Historically, the decline of colonial powers and more ancient empires can be traced to times when they turned inward and disengaged from foreign trade. 
• It flows logically that in the modern, economically interconnected and technologically inseparable world, India’s global rise cannot but be accompanied by an open mind on trade as well.

Online Coaching for UPSC PRE Exam

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Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the  flame-throated bulbul, also called the Rubigula, consider the following statements:
1. It is found in the Western Ghats from southern Maharashtra and Goa southwards.
2. Its IUCN Red List Status is Vulnerable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both  
(d) None
Answer: A

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) What is Free Trade Agreements? What are the future challenges of Free Trade Agreements?

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Listening to the call of the informal (The Hindu)

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• Mains Paper 2: Social Justice 
• Prelims level: Formalisation trap
• Mains level: Development of informal sector 

Context:

• A week after the Budget, it is clear that successive policies of the government over the years have left the informal sector stigmatised. 
• The government and its policy advisers want to dress the sector up to their preferred versions of formality. 
• However, in the process, they could dampen its growth potential, as two recent papers reveal.

The formalisation trap:

• The state finds it easier to monitor and to tax the firms that adopt its version of formality. An imposed formality can reduce the last-mile costs for banks also.
• However an imposition of forms for the convenience of the state (and other powerful actors) can harm societies and produce adverse outcomes.
• In India, which currently faces an unemployment problem, the informal sector provides the vast majority of opportunities both for its youth and for people coming off the farm to earn incomes. 
• Hence, India’s policymakers need to look at the demerits of formalisation from the perspective of informal sector enterprises.
• The thrust of the Indian government’s policies should not be to reduce the size of the informal sector. Rather, it must be to improve working conditions for the citizens who earn incomes in the sector. 
• Their safety at work, their dignity, and their fair treatment by employers must be the thrust of any reform. 
• Even in developed industrial countries, the informal sector is growing with advances in technologies, emergence of new business models, and growth of the gig economy. 
• There too, policymakers are struggling to invent new systems to protect the rights of workers while maintaining the dynamism of an entrepreneurial economy.

Reorienting policies:

• India’s jobs, incomes, and growth challenge necessitates a reorientation of policies towards the informal sector.
• The government and its policy advisers must stop denigrating the informal sector and trying to reduce its size. 
• The development of an economy, from agriculture to the production of more complex products in industry, is a process of learning. 
• Informal enterprises provide the transition space for people who have insufficient skills and assets to join the formal sector.

Support informal sectors:

• The policymakers must learn to support informal enterprises on their own terms. And they should not impose their own versions of formality on them for their own convenience. 
• Merely making it easy for MNCs and large companies to invest will not increase growth of the economy if enterprises and incomes at the bottom of the pyramid do not grow. 
• Therefore, voices of tiny entrepreneurs in the rural heartlands and on the fringes of Indian cities must be listened to while developing policies for ‘ease of doing business’.

Developing oft skills:

• The policymakers must learn how to speed up the process of learning within informal enterprises by developing their ‘soft’ skills. 
• Large schemes to provide enterprises with hard resources such as money and buildings, which the government finds easier to organise, are necessary but inadequate for the growth of small enterprises. 

Strengthening network and clusters of small enterprises:

• Networks and clusters of small enterprises must be strengthened. They improve the efficiency of small firms by enabling sharing of resources.
• They give them more clout to improve the terms of trade in their favour within supply chains; and they reduce the ‘last mile costs’ for agencies and providers of finance and other inputs to reach scattered and tiny enterprises.

Drumbeat for labour reforms must be changed:

• A vocal crowd has been harping on the need for bold reforms to make it easier for employers to hire and fire workers. They advocate the raising of the size of enterprises (in terms of numbers of employees) to which laws should apply. These hire and fire laws are already not applicable to the small sector, where the vast majority of enterprises employ less than 10 persons. 
• There is an urgent need for labour reforms in other ways. The laws should be simplified, and their administration improved. And, their thrust should be to improve the conditions of workers.

Way forward:

• The social security framework for all citizens must be strengthened, especially for those who have to scramble for work in the informal sector. 
• Health insurance and availability of health services must be improved, and disability benefits and old-age pensions must be enhanced. 
• The purpose of ‘labour reforms’ must be changed to provide safety nets, rather than make the workers’ lives even more precarious with misdirected attempts to increase flexibility.

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General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

Prelims Questions: 

Q.1) With reference to the Global Misery Index (GMI), consider the following statements:
1. American economist Steve Hanke of Johns Hopkins University, an applied economist has popularised the GMI concept. 
2. It is based on the three parameters namely unemployment rate, inflation rate and lending rate. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both  
(d) None
Answer: C

Mains Questions: 
Q.1) How development of informal sector became significant for India’s economic growth and sustainable development? 

• Medium: Hindi
• E-BOOK NAME : YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF -FEB 2020
• Total Pages: 46
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Content Table:

• विकास के लिए विज्ञान, प्रौद्योगिकी और नवाचार प्रमुख प्रेरक उपराष्ट्रपति (योजना टीम)
• प्रधानमंत्री द्वारा भारतीय विज्ञान कांग्रेस का उद्घाटन
• फिट इंडिया स्कूल रेटिंग सिस्टम का शुभारंभ
• 2022 तक 'भारतीय मानव अंतरिक्ष कार्यक्रम गगनयान होगा साकार (डॉ के सिवन)
• कृत्रिम मैथा भारत के लिये चुनौतियां और अवसर (योगेश के द्विवेदी, संतोष के मिश्र, लॉरी हयूज)
• दृष्टि दिव्यांगजनों के लिए शिक्षा और टेक्नोलॉजी (डॉ आर एस चौहान)
• उच्च शिक्षा में वैश्विक तालमेल (नताशा झा भास्कर)
• शिक्षा के क्षेत्र में प्रमुख पहलें योजना टीम
• मुक्त और दूरस्थ शिक्षा (के डी प्रसाद)
• उच्च शिक्षा संस्थानों में नवाचार और उद्यमिता (सत्यनारायणन शेषाद्री)
• योग और शिक्षा (डॉ राकेश चक्र)
• खेल और शिक्षा (राजेश राय)
• विश्व पुस्तक मेले में प्रकाशन विभाग

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• 'The Gist' of The Hindu, Yojana, PIB Etc PDF
• Download UPSC IAS Syllabus PDF
• IAS Pre GS Paper-1 Previous Years Question Papers
• UPSC MAINS GS Paper(1-4) Question Papers
• MORE E-BOOKS.....

• Medium: ENGLISH
• E-BOOK NAME : YOJANA MAGAZINE PDF -FEB 2020
• Total Pages: 47
• PRICE: 49/- FREE/- (only for few days)
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Content Table

• The Vice President of Science Education and Innovation Excerpts from Speech
• In Conversation With (Dr K Sivan)
• Leadership In Science Need to Challenge Existing Assumption (Dr Vikram A Sarabhai)
• Artificial Intelligence Challenges and Opportunities for India (Yogesh K Dwivedi, Santosh K Misra and Laurie Hughes)
• Innovation in Higher Education Institutions (Satyanarayanan Seshadri)
• Education and Technology for the Blind (Dr RS Chauhan)
• Quality Education for Weaker Section and Disadvantaged Groups Yojana Team 
• Key Initiatives in Education Big Picture 
• Open & Distance Learning : A Futuristic Approach (Dr K D Prasad)
• Cybersecurity: Issues and Challenges (GP Pandey)
• Global Synergy in Higher Education (Natasha Jha Bhaskar)
• Employment Opportunities in Rural Homestays (Dr Ratna Bhuyan)
• New Delhi World Book Fair 2020 Yojana Team

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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2020

(Geology Paper-II)

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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2020 : Geology Paper- II

Year : 2020

Geology Paper - II

• Time Allowed : Three Hours
• Maximum

 

1. The ‘Correlation’ determines the age relationship between rock units or geological events in separate area, but the ‘Physical Continuity’ is:
(a) To trace physically the source of rock unit between the two different places
(b) The correlation of two rock units according to geological time scale
(c) The lateral correlation of the rocks which are exposed in a wide gap physically
(d) The correlation of two rock units on the basis of their same physical and chemical character

2. Consider the following regarding a rock sample:
T is half life of the radioactive substance Np is number of atoms of parent radioactive substance present today d is number of atoms of the daughter product The age of a rock sample is determined by which one of the following equations? 

3. In “humid temperate climate” the rocks are weathered predominantly by a combination of both disintegration and decomposition, resulting in the formation of:
(a) Black cotton soil
(b) Lateritic soil
(c) Podzol soil
(d) Sandy soil

4. The molten spheroidal mass that the earth originally was started cooling with the result that a solid crust was formed over a molten core. The process of gradual release of previously dissolved gasses, in molten magma, is called:
(a) Degassing
(b) Diagenesis
(c) Decomposition
(d) Disintegration

5. The volcanism of island arcs and continental-margin orogens are associated with plate convergence. More extensive vast sheets of basaltic lavas which have formed on the continents at various times in the past are referred to as:
(a) Continental flood basalts
(b) Mid-oceanic lava flow
(c) Andesitic lava flow
(d) Rhyolitic lava flow
 
6. Isostatic adjustment is:
(a) The horizontal movement of crustal rock tending to rise or sink gradually until they are balanced by the weight of displaced mantle rocks.
(b) The vertical movement of crustal rock tending to rise and sink gradually until they are balanced by the weight of displaced mantle rocks.
(c) Shrinking of crust rock during the process of convergent plate boundary movement which is equal to applied stress 
(d) Rearrangement of morphological features at the surface of earth after removal of applied pressure

7. The ‘truncated spurs’  are the Erosional landscapes associated with valley glacier, these are:
(a) Sharp peaks that remain after cirques have cut back into a mountain on several sides
(b) Frost wedging on the rocks exposed above the glacier, steepening and cutting back the side wall of the valley
(c) Lower parts of ridges that have been carved into triangular facets by glacial erosion
(d) Steep sided, rounded hollow carved into a mountain at the head of a glacial valley

8. The quantity of water which enters stream channels in a drainage basin over a specified period of time can be determined by a:
(a) Channel steepness equation
(b) Stream length gradient equation
(c) Water-balance equation
(d) Darcy equation 

9. Crevasses form along the:
(a) Margins of glaciers in places where the path is curved
(b) Bed rock, by the marking of boulders that are dragged at the base of ice sheet
(c) Grinding of rocks into a powder of fine fragment of silt and clay size
(d) Marking on rock in the form of scratches by the sharp corner of rock fragments

10. The threshold flow velocity at which a particle settles to a channel bed is known as:
(a) Fall velocity
(b) Increasing velocity
(c) Decreasing velocity
(d) Runoff velocity

11. Pedalfer is a type of soil in the wet climate, it is formed by:
(a) An effective downward leaching due to the high rainfall and acids produced by the decay of abundant humus
(b) An upward movement of soil water beneath the land surface characterized by little leaching, scant humus
(c) The cementation of clay particles, silica and iron compound that have accumulated at ܤ horizon
(d) An intense and deep weathering in tropical regions where silica disintegrates into clay and mica 

12. Abrasion is a process that can mechanically weather rock, and:
(a) Solvent action of water which attack in the mineral structure for disintegration
(b) Disintegration of rock masses by the process of frost wedging
(c) Exposing fresh country rock to the surface due to the removal of their overlying weathering material
(d) Grinding away of rocks by friction and impact during transportation

13. If the beds are vertical, the synclinal axis is in the:
(a) Opposite direction from that in which the bedding dips
(b) Opposite direction from that in which the cleavage dips
(c) Same direction from that in which the bedding dips
(d) Same direction from that in which the cleavage dips

14. In a plunging fold, if the strike of cleavage is diagonal to the strike of the bedding, the plunge of fold can be determined by:
(a) Obtuse angle between strike of bedding on vertical plane and strike of cleavage on horizontal plane
(b) Acute angle between line drawn on the ground perpendicular to the strike of bedding and strike of cleavage
(c) Obtuse angle between strike of bedding and cleavage strike
(d) Acute angle between the line drawn parallel to the strike and dip direction of cleavage
 
15. With regard to strain-slip cleavage, in metamorphic terranes the schistosity may be crinkled into:
(a) Small wavelength folds, and the mica flakes are rotated into non discrete zones
(b) Big wavelength folds, and the mica flakes are rotated into non discrete zones
(c) Big wavelength folds, and the mica flakes are rotated into discrete zones
(d) Small folds with a wavelength of a fraction of an inch and the mica flakes are rotated into discrete zones

16. The slip refers to the displacement along the fault line, while shift is used to refer to:
(a) An angle between the fault plane and vertical plane that strikes parallel to the fault
(b) The differential movement takes place by systematic small displacement along a large number of closely spaced fractures
(c) The total displacement measured on fault surface between two adjacent points situated on opposite walls of fault
(d) The displacement on opposite site of fault and outside the dislocated zone 

19. The space lattice of a mineral is:
(a) An assemblage of atoms that is constantly repeated to form a mineral.
(b) A glide plane parallel to which there are number of additional planes along which gliding takes place
(c) A position of mineral in terms of their resistance towards failure
(d) A position of mineral before plastic deformation and recrystallization

20. A tectonite is:
(a) A recrystallized rock without any change in shape and orientation of grain
(b) A rock showing an imperfection in crystal structure resulting reorientation of rock in terms of volume not in structure
(c) A rock that result from the accumulation of many separate components and each of which moved into place independently of its neighbors
(d) A deformed rock, the fabric of which is due to the systematic movement of the individual units under a common external force

21. The topography has no control on the outcrop pattern of vertical beds whereas the top and bottom of a vertical bed will appear on the map as:
(a) Vertical lines perpendicular to the bed
(b) Vertical lines parallel to the dip direction
(c) Straight lines parallel to the strike of the bed
(d) Straight line perpendicular to the bed
 
22. In the Rule of V's,the outcrop pattern of beds that dip:
(a) Downstream at an angle greater than the stream gradient forms a V, ܸthe apex of which points downstream
(b) Downstream at an angle greater than the stream gradient forms a V, ܸthe apex of which points upstream
(c) Downstream at an angle smaller than the stream gradient forms a V, ܸthe apex of which points downstream
(d) Downstream at an angle smaller than the stream gradient forms a V, the apex of which points upstream

23. In  Pi, diagrams,  the projections of the poles which are perpendicular to a horizontal plane will coincide:
(a) With the poles of diametrically opposite
(b) At the N-E quadrant of the net
(c) With the center of the projection
(d) At the S-W quadrant of the net

24. The Chromite deposits in the north limb of the Sukinda syncline in Orissa are blanketed by:
(a) Breccia and Sandstone
(b) Sandstone and Shale
(c) Alluvium and Shale
(d) Laterite and Colluvium 

25. Emery deposits are:
(a) Greyish-black variety of corundum, containing much admixed magnetite and hematite
(b) Red gemstone of corundum found in metamorphosed bauxite deposit
(c) Placer variety of corundum having rounded pebbles in alluvium
(d) Thermally altered alumina rich shales in zenothic of basic igneous rock

26. A tetragonal unit is a right square prism with ܽ and ܾ edge lengths equal and ܿ different with two space lattices:
(a) Primitive and body centered
(b) Primitive and face centered
(c) Primitive only
(d) Body centered and face centered

27. In feldspar group of minerals, while cooling, unmixing of potash feldspars and soda feldspars takes place. The larger component occurs as ground mass and the minor one oriented parallel lamellae within the groundmass. 
This process of unmixing of two minerals is:
(a) Exsolution
(b) Isomorphism
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Magmatic segregation 

28. Polymorphism is the phenomenon when a mineral exhibits:
(a) Distinctly different physical or optical properties in spite of possessing the same chemical composition
(b) Identical physical or optical properties in spite of possessing the same chemical composition
(c) Identical physical or chemical properties in spite of possessing the different crystal lattice
(d) Distinctly different physical or chemical properties in spite of possessing the same crystal lattice

29. The  characteristic feature of a inosilicates group is:
(a) 3.5 oxygens are shared between adjacent tetrahedra
(b) 2 oxygen atoms link together to form a ring of composition
(c) 2 tetrahedra sharing common oxygen
(d) 2.5 oxygens are shared by adjacent tetrahedra

30. The characteristic feature of an opal is ;
(a) It is contaminated form of silica with varying amount of Fe ݁and Mg in its structures
(b) It contains a variable quantity of water molecules in its structures
(c) It contains large numbers of micro-cavity in its structure
(d) It contains traces of colloidal carbon and iron in its structure 

31. The fibrous variety of anthophyllite is called:
(a) Glaucophane
(b) Jadeite
(c) Enstatite
(d) Amosite

32. Piezoelectricity is the simultaneous development of:
(a) Positive and negative charges of electricity when its temperature is suitably changed
(b) Positive and negative charges of electricity on different parts of same crystal when its pressure is suitably changed
(c) Magnetic charge when its pressure and temperature is suitably changed
(d) Electrical charges on different parts of same crystal when its pressure is suitably changed

33. Idiochromatic minerals are those which have:
(a) An uniform white streak though the colour is variable
(b) A different colour based on chemical composition
(c) A characteristic and constant colour
(d) The same physical appearance in spite of having different chemical composition 

34. Perthites consisting mainly of an:
(a) Alkali feldspar host with an exsolved Na-rich plagioclase feldspar phase which segregated from the host during cooling
(b) Na-rich feldspar as host with an exsolved alkali feldspar segregated from host
(c) Equal amount of alkali feldspar and a more Ca-rich plagioclase
(d) Intrusion of Na-rich plagioclase into alkali feldspar with a phase of segregation

35. Duhem’s Theorem states that, a system is said to be closed if:
(a) No masses are added to or subtracted from it in the course of the transformation under consideration
(b) Masses are added to it in the course of the transformation under consideration
(c) Masses are subtracted from it in the course of the transformation under consideration
(d) Masses are partially added to or subtracted from it in the course of the transformation under consideration

36. If crystallization is strictly along Bowen’s reaction series, such crystallization is called:
(a) Cotectic crystallization
(b) Eutectic crystallization
(c) Peritectic crystallization
(d) Fractional crystallization 

37. The IUGS classification of plutonic rocks is applicable to visually crystalline (Phaneritic) rocks which are presumed to have formed at considerable depth. 
This classification is strictly:
(a) Based on silica percentage
(b) A quantitative mineralogical
(c) A depth wise
(d) Based on texture

38. Feldspathoids are :
(a) Calciferous mineral rich in silica than feldspar
(b) Aluminosilicates which occur as constituents of igneous rocks and which are poorer in silica than corresponding alkali feldspars
(c) Monomineralic rocks which only composed of sodic feldspar
(d) Aluminosilicates saturated with silica and poorer in alkali feldspars

39. Rapakivi structure is a special type of orbicular structure where ovoid phenocrysts of K-feldspar are mantled by shells of granular oligoclase. This structure is typically developed in: 
(a) Merozone granites
(b) Catazone granites
(c) Epizonal granites
(d) S-type granites 

40. Spinif ex texture is a type of quench texture and resembles a bunch of ‘grass’. It is usually associated with:
(a) Low magnesian lava
(b) Granitic lava
(c) High magnesian lava
(d) Andesitic lava

41. Incongruent melting occurs when:
(a) A melt break down into two or more than two chemically distinct phase by assimilation
(b) A solid split at very high temperature into two solids having same bulk chemical composition
(c) A solid splits at definite temperature into another solid and liquid
(d) A rock is subjected to high confining pressure without any increase in temperature

42. Influence of dissolved water is one of the process of magmatic differentiation, it involves:
(a) Alkalis and certain metals co-ordinate with the water and concentrate in the regions of lowest pressure and temperature
(b) Alkalis and metals are hydrophobic so they move from water saturated area to water deficient area
(c) Different chemical potential of water throughout the magma chamber
(d) Water provides a way to gravitational rising of heavy crystal 

43. During the complex process of reaction between magma and invaded rock, magma becomes modified by incorporation of material originally present in wall rock. This process is termed as magmatic:
(a) Differentiation
(b) Mixing
(c) Assimilation
(d) Crystallization

44. Kimberlites are alkalic rocks characteristically ultramaphic in composition. 
They differ from lamprophyres and lamproites in:
(a) Kimberlites have high silica
(b) Contents of alkalis i.e. Na₂O  + K₂O in Kimberlites are in a lower level
(c) Contents of MgO are low in Kimberlites
(d) Contents of alkalis are high in Kimberlites

45. Crystallization may be localized at a cooling margin, where the temperature is lower than the central parts of magma, thus:
(a) A solid phase is formed
(b) A liquid phase is formed
(c) A solid and a liquid phases are formed
(d) A Liquid and gaseous phases is formed 

46. A certain mineralogical change in rock that is also of local extent but is of different character from either contact or cataclastic metamorphism is called:
(a) Cataclastic metamorphism
(b) Hydrothermal metamorphism
(c) Dynamo-thermal metamorphism
(d) Regional Burial metamorphism

47. Nucleation in metamorphic rocks is:
(a) Faster when entropy change is smallest
(b) Faster when entropy change is highest
(c) Initiated by entropy but not depends on entropy in advance stage
(d) Controlling factor for second order transitions

48. Consider the following regarding phase rule:
F is the number of independent degrees of freedom for the system
C is the number of chemical components
P is the number of phases
The phase rule is expressed by which one of the following equations?
(a) F = C + P - 2
(b) F = C - P + 2
(c) F = C+ P + 2
(d) F = C - P - 2

49. A foliation marked by the parallel orientation of tabular minerals in a metamorphic rock with a sufficiently coarse grain size is called a:
(a) Cleavage
(b) Schistosity
(c) Gneissosity
(d) Solution cleavage

50. Pseudotachylytes are:
(a) Thin seams of glassy igneous intrusion by extreme from the magma with mafic composition
(b) Thin seams of glassy rock produced of the results of melting due to frictional heating and are restricted to dry rocks
(c) A rock mass with random fabric of interlocking with a tough texture and strength
(d) Fine grained rock produced in the zone of intense ductile deformation whereas pre existing grains have been recrystallized as finer grains

51. When an igneous rock is metamorphosed and the original texture continues to occur in metamorphosed ones, the resulting texture is said to be:
(a) Granoblastic texture
(b) Blasto-porphyritic texture
(c) Porphyroblastic texture
(d) Xenoblastic texture 

52. Metamorphic facies can be defined as:
(a) A range of chemical reaction under the process of metamorphism where bulk chemical composition of altered rock remain same as parent rock
(b) A range of pressure-temperature conditions over which a particular common mineral assemblage or range of mineral assemblages are stable
(c) A physically separable constituents of the system in the form of solid, liquid or gas
(d) A changing condition of pressure and temperature which lead to reaction and production of new assemblage

53. A specific change in mineral assemblage reflecting a metamorphic reaction and satisfying the condition of reaction equilibrium is called:
(a) Isograd
(b) Isopatch
(c) Isocontour
(d) Line of phase change

54. Skarns are: 
(a) Metasedimentary rock that are rich in Ca-or Ca-Mg silicate
(b) Recrystallized rock where all the igneous minerals recrystallized into high grade metamorphic minerals
(c) Metamorphic rocks formed by hydrothermal alteration of limestone into marble
(d) A variety of calc-silicate rock formed by metasomatic interaction between marble and silicate rock 

55. In a baric type paired metamorphic belt:
(a) The high and low pressure belt of the same age occurred next to one another, separated by major faults
(b) Two high pressure belts of the different age occurred next to one another
(c) The high and low pressure belt of different age occurred next to one another separated by faults
(d) Two low pressure belts of the different age occurred next to one another

56. The steps involved in a metamorphic reaction will be the slowest in a natural geological setting and will therefore control the rate of the overall reaction is known as:
(a) Rate limiting step
(b) Surface step
(c) Heat energy step
(d) Natural reaction step

57. The difference between carbonate and siliciclastic sediment is: 
(a) The carbonate sequence occur in shallow tropical environments while siliciclastic occurs worldwide and at all depths
(b) The carbonate sequence occur at deep marine environments while siliciclastic occurs at all depths
(c) Both carbonate and siliciclastic occur at same depositional environment with only difference of grain size and texture
(d) The carbonate deposits results from shallow water bodies from interaction of current and waves while siliciclastic sediments are result of only deep, calm water deposit 

58. Grain size interpretation in siliciclastic rock is much simpler than carbonate and evaporites because:
(a) Diagenesis in carbonates and evaporites obscures original grain relationship
(b) Siliclastic rocks are cemented on sea floor and easy for stratigraphic co-relation
(c) For carbonate and evaporites climate is no constraints, sediment occur worldwide and at all depth
(d) In carbonate sediment periodic exposure of sediment during deposition leaves deposits relatively unaffected
59. Hardgrounds are :
(a) Microscopic erosional surface on the underside of bedding planeformed by natural casts of erosional feature
(b) Vortex erosion typically at the base of turbidity current
(c) Organically bored surfaces which encrusted with fossils in growth position
(d) Resistant surface altered by erosional impact of large objects entrained in the flow

60. In sedimentary rocks, the beds that contain internal layers that are essentially parallel to the bounding bedding surfaces are said to be:
(a) Cross stratified
(b) Planar stratified
(c) Composite bedsets
(d) Laminated bedding 

61. Ichnofacies dominated by deep vertical burrows in a tidal zone named the:
(a) Scolithos (Skolithos)
(b) Cruziana
(c) Zoophycus
(d) Nereites

63. Textural maturity of sandstone is determined by:
(a) The relative abundance of stable and unstable framework grains
(b) The ratio of matrix and well defined grain under hydrostatic condition
(c) The relative abundance of matrix and the degree of rounding andsorting of framework grains
(d) The proportion of coarse grain sediment to fine grain sediment when matrix is absent 

64. Vertical profile model of a cyclic sequence in evaporite bearing sediments,reflecting a sensitive response of evaporite environments to:
(a) Climate change, brine level or water chemistry
(b) Change in lateral dispersal of sediment as sea level changes
(c) Vertical profile in evaporites cyclic sequence does not reflect
(d) Change in sediment supply as a response of faunal and floralintervention

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65. The non-clastic sediment composed of microcrystalline quartz, found in bothbed and nodules of limestones and sandstones is known as:
(a) Cherts
(b) Silly sandstone
(c) Breccia
(d) Evaporites

66. Which one of the  following zone of carbonate diagenetic depth occurs belowthe calcite compensation depth (CCD) ?
(a) Zone of precipitation
(b) Zone of partial dissolution
(c) Zone of no carbonate
(d) Zone of active dissolution
 
67. Which one of the following may be caused by carbonic acid-rich watersproduced by the devolatilization of coal beds?
(a) Kaolinization
(b) Montmorillonite
(c) Rudaceous rock formation
(d) Salt rock formation

68. Reef and carbonate slope build- ups have steeply dipping sediment-water interfaces, much steeper than the angle of repose of loose talus, is due to:
(a) Deposits at equatorial regions only and grows towards overhead sun
(b) Characteristic feature that grows vertical or overhanging
(c) Organic binding and early cementation
(d) Vertical growth from sea beds

69. The most favourable conditions for fossilization are present in:
(a) Terrestrial
(b) Fluvial
(c) Sea
(d) Lacustrine

70. Fossils range from ancient time upto the present day without any change in their primitive characters are known as:
(a) Living fossils
(b) Derived fossils
(c) Facies fossils
(d) Remanie ́fossils 

71. A specimen of a species from the same locality as its holotypes or syntypes is a:
(a) Plesiotype
(b) Metatype
(c) Paratype
(d) Topotype

72. Two populations differing in one or more morphologic characteristics to a statistically significant degree are called:
(a) Morphonomical species
(b) Morphospecies
(c) Founder species
(d) Allopatric species

73. Which one of the following is the median part of the cephalon that inflatedin trilobites?
(a) Glabella
(b) Cheeks
(c) Axial furrows
(d) Pleuron 

74. Which one of the following is the oldest known ammonoides during upper Silurian–Devonian period?
(a) Trilobites
(b) Gymmites
(c) Agoniatites
(d) Prolecanites

75. In Gastropods, the cavity opens at the base of the shell is called:
(a) Umbilicus
(b) Columella
(c) Whorl
(d) Apex

76. A straight conical shell of an ammonoid cephalopod is known as:
(a) Camerae
(b) Cyrotocone
(c) Bactriticone
(d) Roastrum

77. The earliest fossil remains of horse in  equine evolution is:
(a) Epihippus
(b) Mesohippus
(c) Eohippus
(d) Miohippus 

78. The modern horses belong to which one  of the following genus?
(a) Epihippus
(b) Equus
(c) Miohippus
(d) Orohippus

79. The first formed chamber in multilocular form of foraminifera is known as:
(a) Protegulam
(b) Proloculum
(c) Protoconch
(d) Prodissononch

80. In which one of the following rhizome ( root) on which Glossopteris and Gangamopteris grew?
(a) Ptilophyllum
(b) Vertebraria
(c) Calamites
(d) Lepidodendron

81. In conformable contacts, if the change from  one lithology to another is less marked than abrupt contacts, reflecting gradual change in depositional conditions with time is said to be:
(a) Gradational
(b) Lateral Adjustment
(c) Lithostratigraphy
(d) Angular Unconformity 

82. When geological formations are equivalent in age but situated wide apart in different districts, countries or continents, they are said to be:
(a) Homotaxis
(b) Homotaxial
(c) Synchronous beds
(d) Contemporaneous

83. The Sargur Schist Complex rocks have undergone a high degree of metamorphism ranging from amphibolites to lower granulite facies, and these rocks have often been extensively migmatised and mobilized during the subsequent phase of emplacement of:
(a) Peninsular Gneissic Complex
(b) Closepet Granite
(c) Bundelkhand Granite
(d) Newer Green Stone Belt

84. The characteristic feature of the 'Charnockite Series' of Eastern Ghats Province is:
(a) Hypersthene bearing granite composed of blue quartz, felspar and hypersthene
(b) Garnetiferous quartzite
(c) Potash felspar with graphite and manganese
(d) Dry metamorphic rocks comprising minerals devoid of water 

85. The gneisses known as 'Kodurites' belonging to 'Kondalite Series' are rich in :
(a) Iron ore
(b) Manganese ore
(c) Copper
(d) Lead-Zinc 

86. The Cuddapah system is  made up of alternate layers of:
(a) Shales and sandstones
(b) Quartzites and shales
(c) Shales and breccia
(d) Quartzite and breccia

87. The Vindhyan system lies unconformably on the:
(a) Kurnool rocks
(b) Kuling rocks
(c) Cuddapah rocks
(d) Kanwar rocks

88. The Cretaceous rocks of fresh water origin which occur in Madhya Pradesh are called the:
(a) Lameta group
(b) Bagh bed
(c) Nimar sandstone
(d) Umia sandstone 

89. A series of mainly acidic volcanic rocks belonging to the 'Upper Purana Succession' are known as :
(a) Rialo series
(b) Malani Volcanics
(c) Charnockite series
(d) Khondalite series

90. Trigonia beds with the characteristic fossils of Trigonia of Mesozoic succession of Kutch Region belongs to:
(a) Chari Formation
(b) Patcham Formation
(c) Umia Formation
(d) Katrol Formation

91. Which one of the following basins of the Damodar Valley region shows the maximum development of coaliferous beds that contain several superior quality coal measures?
(a) Barker basin
(b) Talchir basin
(c) Raniganj basin
(d) Panchet basin 

92. The origin and structure of Indo-Gangetic Plain are closely related with the rise of the Himalaya. This plane is:
(a) A basin caused by the central rifting of continental crust during Himalayan orogeny
(b) A dome of Precambrian rock with representation of the sediment in the same basin
(c) A plateau with the Archean Basement unconformably overlain by the sediment of Tertiary sediment
(d) A deep crustal trough filled with Quaternary sediments

93. The ‘Flyschoidal' rocks were deposited in:
(a) A geosynclinal basin bordering the shelf sea of the Zanskar-Spiti region
(b) A shallow freshwater stream flowing in a wide sedimentary basin
(c) A deep sea with phases of sea transgression and regression
(d) A deep lake deposit with the intervening sea fringes

94. A process of mineral deposits associated with volcanism, thermal springs and fumaroles wherefrom volatilized matter is redeposited at lower temperature and pressure is:
(a) Evapotranspiration
(b) Oxidation
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Sublimation 

95. Tenor is:
(a) The concentration of gang mineral associated with the ore mineral
(b) The metal content of an ore, expressed in percent (%), and is expressed in ounces per tonne in case of precious metals or gems
(c) The total quantity of matter that is used to extract a particular kind of ore
(d) The ratio of total quantity of host rock to total quantity of ore extracted

96. Most of the primary gold deposits occur in the vicinity of:
(a) Basic igneous intrusions
(b) Acidic igneous intrusions
(c) Intermediate igneous intrusions
(d) Pegmatite igneous intrusions

97. The rock that holds the oil and gas in place so that they do not escape until released by drilling is known as:
(a) Reservoir rock
(b) Cap rock
(c) Basement rock
(d) Stratigraphic trap 

98. Auriferous veins occur in the Hutti-Gold-field within the schistose rocks of:
(a) Permian age
(b) Cambrian age
(c) Dharwarian age
(d) Archean age

99. 'Saladipura Pyrite - Pyrrhotite ' mineralogical changes in wall rock brought about by the depletion of some element from the wall rock. These deposits are:
(a) Epigenetic
(b) Syngenetic
(c) Postgenetic
(d) Residual 

100. The ' Fumaroles' Represent :
(a) A gaseous phase where substances are carried and demonstrate the ability of gaseous emanations to collect, transport and deposit the metal 
(b) A water phase contain many mineral substance with higher temperature water dissolve, transport and deposit mineral 
(c) A magmatic source of mineral deposits which transport and deposit many non metallic mineral as hydrothermal injections 
(d) A mineral deposits of copper and lead formed by supergene enrichment after a volcanic eruption  

101. The cap- rock of an ore deposit in the form of cellular mass of limonite and gangue formed due to oxidation of an ore and points to the nature of underlying hidden deposits is called:
(a) Carnotite
(b) Gossan
(c) Host rock
(d) Parent rock

102. The process of metasomatic replacement is by:
(a) Alteration
(b) Hydrolysis
(c) Hydrostatic alteration
(d) Diffusion

103. Oil formed from marine organisms buried in sediments is explained by:
(a) Animal-origin theory
(b) Vegetable-origin theory
(c) Mendelef’s carbide theory
(d) Cosmic theory 

104. Gold province of Karnataka-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu is occupied by Dharwars, the rock type in the area are represented by:
(a) Granite that intruded schist
(b) Metamorphosed mafic volcanic rocks altered to schistose, granular and fibrous amphibolites
(c) Precambrian tremalite, actinolite schist and granite gneiss
(d) Metamorphosed flysch with exogenic quartzite and limestone

105. In an area of 100 ha the water table dropped by 4.5m the porosity is 30% and specific retention is 10%. The change in groundwater storage will be:
(a) 3 X 10⁵ m³
(b) 6 X 10⁵ m³
(c) 9 X 10⁵ m³
(d) 12 X 10⁵ m³

106. Which one of the following types of rocks are relatively high porous because there is a great variation in degree of packing on the one hand and in size, shape and arrangement of the grains on the other hand?
(a) Igneous
(b) Metamorphic
(c) Sedimentary
(d) Crystalline rocks 

107. In designing a critical underpass drain to accept a 10% risk that flooding will occur in the next 5 Years .The return period for a highway engineer  se will be nearly:
(a) 58 Years
(b) 52 Years
(c) 48 Years
(d) 42 Years

110. Which of the following isotopes will be used for an age determination of groundwater?
(a) Hydrogen - 3 (Tritium)
(b) Uranium
(c) Hydrogen - 3 (Tritium) and Uranium
(d) Hydrogen - 3 (Tritium) and Carbon – 14

111. Lateral reduction in hydraulic conductivity of aquifer below the recharge area causes a higher hydraulic gradient underneath the recharge basin, adequate to cause:
(a) An entire volume of recharged ground water to flow towards the domain boundary
(b) The hydraulic conductivity of the function to reduce at the centre of aquifer
(c) The value of groundwater head to remain constant for a section in plain surface
(d) The ground water head value to a lower level at margin

Directions: -- Each of the  next Six (06) items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b)Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c)Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d)Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true

115. Statement ( I): Material is pulled out of the sun by an external force such as gravitational pull resulting from the dynamic encounter or near collision of the sun with another star.
Statement (II): The planets become isolated masses of matter as the material of the solar-system condensed into the sun.

116. Statement (I): A strike-slip fault is one in which the net slip is parallel to the strike of the fault.
Statement (II): Faults may be classified on the basis of their genesis is called strike slip fault. 

117. Statement (I): The ܲ݅ diagram is analyzed on the assumptions that the folds are cylindrical.
Statement (II): The ܤ݁ݐ ܽdiagram involve the projection of the planes rather than perpendicular to the planes.

118. Statement (I): Feldspars are the most abundant minerals in the earth crust.
Statement (II): Feldspars are essential minerals in only metamorphic rock and stable over a limited range of pressure-temperature conditions.

119. Statement (I): Igneous rocks are formed during the cooling and hardening of magma within the earth surface.
Statement (II): Igneous rocks constitute 65% of the total mass of the rocks composing the crust.

120. Statement (I): The texture and mineral composition of sedimentary rocks are of great value in determining the nature of the environment at the time when the sediment was deposited.
Statement (II): A conglomerate, arkose and shale indicates high energy, inorganic material, such as swamp and lagoons are examples of sedimentary rocks. 

 

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