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(Download) UPSC: Geologist Examination Papers-2020

(General Studies Paper-I)

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Exam Name : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam

Subject : UPSC Geo-Scientist and Geologist Exam Papers 2020 : General Studies Paper- I

Year : 2020

General Studies Paper - I

• Time Allowed : Three Hours
• Maximum Marks : 200

 1. Gause`s competitive exclusion principle states that two species:
 (a) can coexist if they occupy the same niche.
 (b) cannot coexist if they occupy the same niche.
 (c) cannot coexist if they occupy the adjacent niches.
 (d) can coexist if they occupy similar niches.

2. Chemosynthetic bacteria found near sub-marine volcanic vents feed on:
(a) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S).
(b) Organic matter.
(c) Deep sea tube worms.
(d) Inorganic carbon.

3. Chemoautotrophs are  those organisms which obtain energy:
(a) from the oxidation of organic electron donors in the presence of light.
(b) solely from the oxidation of inorganic electron donors in the presence of light.
(c) from the oxidation of organic electron donors in the absence of light.
(d) solely from the oxidation of inorganic electron donors in the absence of light.

4. The amount of sun  energy trapped by plants is:
(a) 1 % - 3 %
(b) 12 % - 15 % 
(c) 17 % - 20 %
(d) 23 % - 26 %

5. The term wetland implies:
(a) land covered by rain water only.
(b) slow moving water covered wet ground.
(c) water logged wet ground.
(d) fast moving water covered wet ground.

6. The edge effect at the contact of continental fresh water and sea water results in:
(a) non-deposition of sediments due to turbulence.
(b) deposition of sand due to fall in system energy.
(c) deposition of organic matter due to density difference.
(d) flocculation of clays resulting in formation of mud deposits. 

7. Heliophile plants  require mean maximum illumination of:
(a) 30,000 lux.
(b) 20,000 lux.
(c) 10,000 lux.
(d) 40,000 lux.

8. Which one of the following about anemophilous plants is correct?
(a) Bright coloured flowers
(b) Sweet smelling flowers
(c) No nectar
(d) Dwarf stigmata

9. The salt in sea  water comes from:
(a) rain.
(b) chemical exchange between sea water and its substratum as well as hydrothermal emissions.
(c) evaporation of water and concentration of dissolved salts.
(d) mixing of different density waters during natural warm and cold current movements.

10. Biodiversity in terms of species richness is maximum in:
(a) natural grasslands.
(b) semi-natural grasslands.
(c) artificial grasslands.
(d) well maintained and watered grasslands.

11. Which one of the following greenhouse gases is the largest single contributor to anthropogenic radiative forcing?
(a) Methane
(b) Ozone
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Carbon dioxide

12. Which one of the following is the main natural source of Methane?
(a) Wetlands
(b) Belching by cattle
(c) Leakage from pipelines
(d) Burning of wood 

13. Ozone layer depletion is concentrated in:
(a) mid-latitude regions.
(b) high latitude regions.
(c) equatorial regions.
(d) tropical regions.

14. Which of the following particulate matters (size based) are notified pollutants in National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
(a) PM 10 and PM 3.5
(b) PM 9 and PM 2.5
(c) PM 10 and PM 2.5
(d) PM 5 and PM 3.5

15. The broad estimates of sea level rise due to global warming by 2100 is approximately:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 40 cm

16. Thermal pollution which involves release of excessive amounts of heated water in aquatic systems is harmful. It is because hot water:
(a) kills aquatic plants.
(b) causes oxygen starvation.
(c) kills aquatic microbes.
(d) causes CO2 depletion.

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17. The biological oxygen  demand (BOD) of unpolluted river water is:
(a) 10 - 20 mg O₂/dm³ /5 day.
(b) 5-10 mg O₂/dm³ /5 day.
(c) less than 5 mg O₂/dm³ /5 day.
(d) more than 20 mg O₂/dm³ /5 day.

18. Pneumatophores are specialized structures for:
(a) maintaining turgor pressure in cells.
(b) providing physical support to plants in marshy lands.
(c) oxygen inhalation by plants.
(d) carbon dioxide release during photosynthesis. 

19. Bog ecosystem wetland receives water only from:
(a) Rain
(b) Streams
(c) Rivers
(d) Groundwater

20. Farmers surround the fields with hedgerows during high insolation period to:
(a) prevent the reduction in photosynthetic activity.
(b) reduce evapotranspiration.
(c) create conditions for plants to close their stomata.
(d) prevent wilting of plants.

21. Greenhouse gases are known so as:
(a) they trap heat in the high altitudes.
(b) they act like a greenhouse on the surface of the planet.
(c) the colour of some of the gases emanating from industrial plants are green.
(d) these gases are produced by agricultural crops.

22. Pursuant to the ratification of Convention on Biological Diversity, India legislated Biodiversity Act in the year:
(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 2002
(d) 2014

23. India has committed to reduce emission intensity of its GDP from 2005 levels by 33-35 per cent by the year:
(a) 2022
(b) 2030
(c) 2032
(d) 2035

24. Which one of the following is NOT vested in the Union by the Constitution (Fortieth Amendment) Act?
(a) All mines and minerals lying in the ocean within its territorial waters
(b) All resources of the exclusive economic zone
(c) Fisheries
(d) All things of value in the ocean within its continental shelf 

25. Which one of the following is NOT a renewable source of energy?
(a) Wind
(b) Sunlight
(c) Nuclear minerals
(d) Biofuels

26. India’s climate is most affected by which of the following two winds?
(a) North-East monsoon and South-West monsoon
(b) North-West monsoon and South-East monsoon
(c) North-East monsoon and South-East monsoon
(d) North-West monsoon and South-West monsoon

27. Centrally sponsored scheme Ayushman Bharat is a national health insurance system for:
(a) women.
(b) every citizen.
(c) old age people.
(d) poor and vulnerable.

28. Which one of the following statements about Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana is NOT correct?
(a) It is a livelihood mission aiming at alleviation of rural poverty
(b) It seeks to mobilize about 9 crore households into community institutions like self-help groups
(c) It is wage employment scheme for the landless agricultural labour
(d) It proposes to build skills of the poor and to enable them to access formal sources of finance

29. East India Company, to begin with,  exported Indian goods to Western countries. Which one of the following is NOT one of the goods in the trade?
(a) Muslin
(b) Calico
(c) Silk
(d) Wool

30. Which one of the following is the common term to describe the main source of water for human withdrawals?
(a) Green water
(b) Hard water
(c) Blue water
(d) Storm water 

31. Which one of the following statements regarding the Solicitor General of India is NOT correct?
(a) It is a constitutional position under Article 76 of the Constitution of India
(b) He is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
(c) He assists the Attorney General of India
(d) It is a statutory position

32. Which one of the following is NOT  a parliamentary standing committee on financial matters?
(a) Estimates committee
(b) Public Accounts committee
(c) Committee on Members of Parliament Local Area Development Schemes
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings

33. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board?
(a) Cabinet Secretary
(b) Chairman, UPSC
(c) Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training
(d) Prime Minister of India

34. The National Statistical Commission was established on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following commissions/committees?
(a) Rangarajan Commission
(b) Lodha Commission
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) M.G.K. Menon Committee

35. Which one of the following countries in Asia established the first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) in 1965?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) South Korea
(d) Japan

36. According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2020, published by environmental think tank Germanwatch, in the year 2018 India’s rank in the list of top most climate affected nations is:
(a) 1^st
(b) 3^rd
(c) 5^th
(d) 7^th
 
37. Mission Indradhanush is a scheme pertaining to:
(a) immunization of children.
(b) traditional healing system.
(c) conservation and protection of environment.
(d) welfare of urban street vendors.

38. Which one of the following statements about the Finance Commissions, periodically established by the Government of India, is NOT true?
(a) It recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and the states
(b) It recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of revenues of states
(c) It recommends measures to augment the consolidated fund of a state
(d) It recommends measures regarding the salary of government employees

39. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:
(a) languages.
(b) Union, State and Concurrent Lists.
(c) land reforms.
(d) anti-defection.

40. The Swavalamban Scheme of the Government of India is directed to provide a social safety net to:
(a) senior citizens.
(b) unorganized workers.
(c) women.
(d) new born girl child.

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Para Military Force in India?
(a) Central Reserve Police Force
(b) Assam Rifles
(c) Indo Tibetan Border Police
(d) Border Security Force

42. The Justice J S Verma Committee was constituted in 2012 to propose legal reforms regarding the safety of which of the following sections of Indian society?
(a) Dalits and Backward castes
(b) Women
(c) Religious minorities
(d) Children 

43. Who among the following determines as to whether a particular matter (not enumerated in any of the 3 lists) falls under the residuary power of the Parliament?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President of India

44. Why was sub-lieutenant Shivangi in news recently?
(a) First woman officer to receive Sena Medal
(b) First woman officer to be deployed at Nathu La Pass as Signals in-charge
(c) First woman pilot of Indian Navy
(d) First woman officer from the Indian Air Force to summit the Mount Everest

45. Which of the following Five  Year Plans emphasized the need for establishing a “Socialist Pattern of Society” in India?
(a) 2^nd Five Year Plan
(b) 3^rd Five Year Plan
(c) 4^th Five Year Plan
(d) 5^th Five Year Plan

46. Which one of the following  Articles of the Constitution of India deals with Uniform Civil Code?
(a) Article 44
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 39A
(d) Article 41

47. Who among the following envisioned the framework of sustainable development called PURA (Providing Urban Amenities to Rural Areas)?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) K.R. Narayanan

48. Which one of the following about the Gandhian approach to development is NOT true?
(a) Voluntary limitation of wants
(b) Development of self-sufficient village community
(c) Achieve balance between man and nature
(d) Industrialization and participation of private players 

49. The ‘head count ratio’ relates to which one of the following?
(a) The poverty line
(b) Millennium development goals
(c) Food insecurity
(d) Population growth

50. The ministry of  Rural Development consists of which of the following departments?
(a) Department of Rural Development and Department of Land Resources
(b)Department of Community Development, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation and Department of Social Assistance
(c) Department of Rural Development, Department of Community Resources and Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
(d)Department of Land Resources, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation and Department of Social Assistance

51. Which among the following states in India is known as ‘Fruit Bowl’ of the country?
(a) Kerala
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka

52. The state of Telangana is  drained by two major rivers. What are they?
(a) Mahanadi and Godavari
(b) Mahanadi and Krishna
(c) Godavari and Krishna
(d) Krishna and Kaveri

53. Which one of the following states in India produces largest marketable surplus of wheat?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab

54. Which one among the following states does NOT share boundary with Chhattisgarh?
(a) Bihar
(b) Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh 

55. Which of the following two states have the highest per capita income in India?
(a) Punjab and Kerala
(b) Kerala and Goa
(c) Goa and Haryana
(d) Haryana and Punjab

56. Insolation percentage received on Pole as compared to Equator is approximately:
(a) 42 percent.
(b) 68 percent.
(c) 33 percent.
(d) 47 percent.

57.According to Census of India, ‘Main Worker’ is a person who works for at least:
(a) 100 days in a year.
(b) 153 days in a year.
(c) 183 days in a year.
(d) 200 days in a year.

58. Which one of the following states has a different female marriage migration practice in India?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Nagaland
(c) Goa
(d) Meghalaya

59. Which one of the following countries is the top producer of cereals in the world?
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) China

60. The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into how many categories?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six 

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61. Which one among the following Union Territories is largest in terms of area?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Puducherry

62. Global climates are classified on the basis of:
(a) annual averages in temperature and precipitation only.
(b) annual averages in temperature only.
(c) seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation only.
(d) annual averages and seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation.

63. Which one among the following countries has the highest consumption of food in terms of kcal per day per person?
(a) USA
(b) Australia
(c) Netherland
(d) Saudi Arabia

64. Which one of the following ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity?
(a) Rainforest
(b) Extreme desert
(c) Lakes and streams
(d) Mid-latitude grassland

65. Which one of the following Indian states does NOT have mangrove forest?
(a) Odisha
(b) Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

66. Which one of the following pairs of founder and newspaper is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Bande Mataram – Bankim Chandra
(b) Kesari – Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bombay Samachar – Fardonjee Marzban
(d) Al Hilal – Abul Kalam Azad 

67. Which one of the following was NOT a feature of Criminal Tribes Act, 1871?
(a) Communities of craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as criminal tribes
(b) The tribes were declared criminal on the basis of their profession
(c) The notified criminal tribes were expected to live only in the notified village settlements
(d) The criminal tribes were not allowed to move out without a permit

68. In 1797, under a clause of which one of the following settlements, Raja of Burdwan’s estate was auctioned when he failed to pay the revenue to the East India Company?
(a) Taluqdari
(b) Ryotwari
(c) Permanent
(d) Mahalwari

69. Which one of the following groups of movements/revolts/rebellions/riots is in chronological order (starting from the earliest)?
(a) Santhal uprising, Tebhaga movement, Deccan riots
(b) Kol rebellion, Santhal uprising, Deccan riots
(c) Santhal uprising, Tebhaga movement, Kol rebellion
(d) Kuka revolt, Deccan riots, Santhal uprising

70. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about Khilafat movement?
(a) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
(b) It demanded that Turkish Sultan must retain control over the Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire
(c) Khalifa must be left with sufficient territory to enable him to defend the Islamic faith
(d) The Congress did not support the movement

71. Which one among the following groups was known as ‘no-changers’ opposing Congress Party’s entry into Legislative Council following the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Dr. M.A. Ansari
(b) C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and S.C. Mitra
(c) Anil Baran Roy, Subhash Bose and S. Satyamurti
(d) Srinivas Iyengar and B.S. Munje

72. In which one of the following years did Indian National Congress include in its goal the independence of the Princely States?
(a) 1927
(b) 1929
(c) 1938
(d) 1939 

73. The life-size terracotta images of Ganga and Yamuna dating to the period 300-600 AD have been found at:
(a) Ahichchhatra, Uttar Pradesh
(b) Akhnur, Kashmir
(c) Devnimori, Gujarat
(d) Bhitargaon, Uttar Pradesh

74. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Mohammedan Literary Society – Abdul Latif
(b) National Mohammedan Association – Sayyid Ameer Ali
(c) Mohammedan Educational Conference – Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(d) Anglo-Mohammedan Defence Association – Nawab Muhsin-ul-Mulk

75. Which one of the following gave reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in the provincial and central legislative councils that were to be voted in by the general electorate?
(a) First round table conference
(b) Second round table conference
(c) Poona pact
(d)Government of India Act, 1935

76. Jahangir got impressed by the Turkish fluency  of which one of the following European travellers and made him a Mansabdar of 400 sawar?
(a) William Hawkins
(b) Ralph Fitch 
(c) William Finch
(d) Thomas Coryat

77. Which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Shantidas was a leading Jain jeweler and banker in Ahmedabad
2. Shajahan granted land to build poshalas to Shantidas
3. In 1656 Murad Bakhsh granted village Palitana to Shantidas for the use of Jain pilgrims. 
The grant was later confirmed by Aurangzeb in 1660
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 

78. Which one of the following Sufi saints of Qadiriyya order was condemned by Aurangzeb for his discussion on Wahdat-al-wujud with his father Shahjahan and elder brother Dara Shikoh?
(a) Shaikh Abdul Qadir
(b) Shaikh Hamid
(c) Miyan Mir
(d) Mulla Shah

79. The musical treatise Sangitasiromani was dedicated to which one of the following rulers? 
(a) Sultan Sikandar Lodi
(b) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi of Jaunpur
(c) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat
(d) Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior

80. Chronologically arrange the following Sanskrit texts (starting from the earliest):
1. Brihat Samhita of Varahmihir
2. Sushrut Samhita
3. Ashtadhyayi of Panini
4. Natyashastra of Bharat
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4

81.  At a given temperature and pressure, the force of attraction among the molecules will be highest in case of:
(a) helium
(b) sugar
(c) water
(d) carbon tetrachloride

82. Which one of the following has the similar physical state with water at room temperature?
(a) Iodine
(b) Bromine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine 

83. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of substances having densities in decreasing order?
(a) Iron, Water, Honey, Air
(b) Iron, Honey, Water, Air
(c) Iron, Honey, Air, Water
(d) Water, Iron, Air, Honey

84. Which one of the following statements is correct about camphor and ammonium chloride?
(a) Both of them are inorganic compounds
(b) Both of them are organic compounds
(c) Both of them undergo sublimation
(d) Camphor is an element but ammonium chloride is a compound

85. Number of states of matter known so far is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

86. The scattering of a beam of light by colloidal particles is termed as:
(a) Thomson effect
(b) Raman effect
(c) Tyndall effect
(d) Compton effect

87. Which one of the following is NOT an example of colloids?
(a) Milk
(b) Jelly
(c) Tincture of iodine
(d) Fog

88. The dye in black ink can be separated by the method of:
(a) evaporation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) dialysis
(d) chromatography 

89. Name the scientist who was NOT associated with the work of periodic classification of elements?
(a) Dmitri Mendeleev
(b) Robert Bunsen
(c) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
(d) John Newlands

90. When 10 g of calcium carbonate is decomposed completely, then 5.6 g of calcium oxide is formed along with the generation of carbon dioxide. Mass of the carbon dioxide formed is:
(a) 4.4 g
(b) 5.6 g
(c) 4.6 g
(d) 4.8 g

91. Which one of the following correctly represents RER?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum having no ribosomes attached to its surface
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum having ribosomes attached to its surface
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum with rounded vesicles
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum with Golgi appears on its surface

92. Plastids, in which materials such as starch, oils and protein granules are stored, are called:
(a) Leucoplasts
(b) Chromoplasts
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Chromatophores

93. Which of the following features are found in cells of meristematic tissues in plants?
(a) Cells active with thick cellulose walls
(b) Cells active with little cytoplasm and thin cellulose walls
(c) Cells active with dense cytoplasm, thick cellulose walls, and no nuclei
(d) Cell active with dense cytoplasm, thin cellulose walls and prominent nuclei

94. Squamous epithelial cells are NOT found in:
(a) lining of the mouth.
(b) oesophagus.
(c) skin.
(d) kidney tubules. 

95. Cells of which one of the following tissues in animals undergo contraction and relaxation?
(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Epithelial tissue
(d) Nervous tissue

96. Which of the following organisms are included in Kingdom Protista as given by R Whittakar?
(a) Nostoc, mycoplasma and protozoans
(b) Bacteria, amoeba and protozoan
(c) Anabaena, bacteria and paramecium
(d) Unicellular algae, diatoms, slime moulds and protozoans

97. Which one of the following represents the correct hierarchical sequence of taxonomic categories in ascending order?
(a) Species Genus Order Class Family
(b) Genus Species Order Family Class
(c) Species Genus Family Order Class
(d) Species Genus Order Family Class

98. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(a) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and anus
(b) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine and anus
(c) Buccal cavity, stomach, oesophagus, small intestine, large intestine and anus
(d) Buccal cavity, stomach, oesophagus, large intestine, small intestine and anus

99. Which one of the following provides buoyancy to aquatic plants to help them float?
(a) Aerenchyma
(b) Tracheid
(c) Guard cell
(d) Sclerenchyma

100. Which one of the following is correct with regards to animals with bilateral symmetry, triploblastic body and true body cavity?
(a) Roundworm, earthworm and leech
(b) Earthworm, leech and nereis
(c) Ascaris, round worm and earthworm
(d) Earthworm, sea cucumber and sea urchin 

101. Which one of the following is NOT a unit of magnetic field strength?
(a) Tesla
(b) Gauss
(c) Ampere - metre
(d) Ampere/metre

102. A straight conducting wire carries a DC current through it. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the magnetic field around the wire?
(a) The magnetic field does not depend upon the amount of current flowing through the  wire
(b) The magnetic field does not depend upon the distance from the wire
(c) The magnetic field depends upon the material of the wire
(d) The magnetic field decreases with an increase from the wire

103. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the magnetic field inside a current carrying solenoid?
(a) The magnetic field inside the solenoid is zero
(b) The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform at all the points
(c) The magnetic field inside the solenoid increases as we move towards the ends
(d) The magnetic field inside the solenoid decreases as we move towards the ends

104. A current carrying circular loop having n number of turns per unit length has a current I through it. If the current through it and the number of turns per unit length are doubled, then the magnetic field at the centre of the loop will:
(a) remain same.
(b) increase by four times.
(c) increase by two times.
(d) decrease by two times.

105. A metallic wire having length l and area of cross-section A has a resistance R. It is now connected in series with a wire of same metal but with length 2l and area of cross-section 2A. The total resistance of the combination will be:
(a) 2R
(b) 4R
(c) R
(d) R/2 

106. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the time period (T) of oscillation of a simple pendulum?
(a) T increases with increase in length of the pendulum
(b) T depends on the mass of the pendulum bob
(c) T decreases with increase in length of the pendulum
(d) T is independent of the length of the pendulum

107. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the infrared radiation?
(a) It is electromagnetic in nature
(b) Its wavelength is larger than that of the visible light
(c) It can travel through vacuum
(d) It is a longitudinal wave

108. In a thermos flask, the walls are made of shiny glass. Which one of the following heat loss process is minimised by using shiny walls?
(a) Convection
(b) Conduction
(c) Radiation
(d) Both radiation and convection

109. At atmospheric pressure, the density of water is maximum at a temperature of:
(a) 0 °C
(b) 4 °C
(c) –4 °C
(d) 1 °C

110. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the sound waves?
(a) Sound waves are longitudinal in nature
(b) Sound waves can propagate through water
(c) Speed of sound waves in steel is more than its speed in air
(d) Sound waves can propagate through vacuum

111. Which one of the following countries was ranked 1st in the IMD World Competitiveness ranking 2019?
(a) Singapore
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) Switzerland 

112. According to a UN Report, which one of the following countries has the highest number of living indigenous languages in the world?
(a) India
(b) Papua New Guinea
(c) South Sudan
(d) Fiji

113. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize is given as recognition of outstanding Indian work in the field of:
(a) Arts and crafts
(b) Journalism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Medicine

114. Who among the following became the first woman officer of the Indian Air Force to be appointed as the Flight Commander of a flying unit?
(a) Shaliza Dhami
(b) Bhawana Kanth
(c) Anuradha Shukla
(d) Nivedita Choudhary

115. How many member states are there in CARICOM, a grouping of Caribbean nations?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18

116. The International Astronomical Union has named an asteroid after an Indian singer. Name the singer:
(a) Lata Mangeshkar
(b) Pandit Jasraj
(c) Bhimsen Joshi
(d) Kumar Gandharva

117. Saraswati Samman is instituted by:
(a) Smile foundation.
(b) Gandhi Peace Foundation.
(c) K K Birla Foundation.
(d) Kamal Kumari Foundation. 

118. Football team of which one of the following countries was defeated by Indian football team to won the South Asian Football Federation (SAFF) under-18 Football Championships 2019?
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh

119. International Day for Total Elimination of Nuclear Weapons is celebrated on:
(a) July 26
(b) August 26
(c) September 26
(d) October 26

120.  ‘Surya kiran’ is a joint military exercise between the militaries of India and:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan 

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UPSC IAS Exam-2019 : Interview Dates Schedule

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Interview Dates Schedule :

 

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संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा - मुख्य परीक्षा

(Download) UPSC IAS Mains Exam 2019

(POLITICAL SCIENCE) राजनीति विज्ञान (Paper-1)

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• Exam Name: UPSC IAS Mains Political Science (राजनीति विज्ञान) (Paper-1)
• Marks: 250
• Time Allowed: 3 Hours

खण्ड A

1. निम्नलिखित में से प्रत्येक का लगभग 150 शब्दों में उत्तर दीजिए

1(a).राजनितिक थियोरी का पुनरुत्थान 

1(b).राज्य की बहुवादी थियोरी 

1(c).विचारधारा का अंत्य वादविवाद 

1(d).विमर्शी लोकतंत्र 

1(e).एम के गाँधी की स्वराज्य की संकल्पना 

प्रश्न 2.

2(a).प्लेटो के आदर्शवाद पर अरस्तु की मीमांसा को स्पष्ट कीजिये 

2(b).न्याय पर समुदायवादी परिप्रेक्ष्यों का परिक्षण कीजिये 

2(c).स्वतंत्रा की नकारात्मक और सकारात्मक संकल्पनाओं की तुलना कीजिये 

प्रश्न 3.

3(a).ग्राम्सी के अनुसार ,"प्राधान्य मुख्यतः सहमति के आयोजन पर आधारित है | "टिप्पणी कीजिये | 

3(b).राज्य के तत्वों पर कौटिल्य के विचारो की विवेचना कीजिये | 

3(c).उदारतावादी नारी-अधिकारवाद और उग्रवादी नारी - अधिकारवाद के बीच विभेदन कीजिये | 

प्रश्न 4.

4(a).हन्ना आरेंन की श्रम ,कार्य और कर्म (क्रिया) की संकल्पनात्मक तिकड़ी का समालोचनात्मक परिक्षण कीजिये | 

4(b).'सर्वोत्तम युक्ति के रूप अधिकार' के सिद्धांत की विवेचना कीजिये 

4(c).मार्क्सवाद की समकालीन प्रासंगिकता क्या है | 

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UPSC GS PRE Cum MAINS (HINDI Combo) Study Kit

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Written Result : (With Name) Indian Forest Service Examination (Main), 2019

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On the basis of the results of the Indian Forest Services (Main) Examination, 2019 held by the Union Public  Service  Commission  from  1st  December  to  8th  December,  2019,  the  candidates  with  the  under mentioned  Roll  Numbers  have  qualified  for  Personality  Test  for  selection  to  the  Indian  Forest  Service Examination‐2019 (Group ‘A’).  

2.  Candidature of these candidates is provisional subject to their being found eligible in all respects.  The candidates will be required to produce the original certificates in support of their claims pertaining to  age,  educational  qualifications,  community,  EWS,  Person  with  Benchmark  Disability  (PwBD)  and  other  documents such as TA Form, etc. at the time of their Personality Test. The formats of SC/ST/OBC and PwBD  certificates and TA Form, etc. can be downloaded from the website of the Commission. They are, therefore,  advised  to keep  the  said  documents  ready with  them.  Candidates seeking  reservation/relaxation benefits  available for SC/ST/OBC/PwBD/Ex‐servicemen must also produce original certificates dated earlier than the  closing  date  of  the  application  for  Indian  Forest  Service  Examination‐2019  through  Civil  Services  (Preliminary)  Examination,  2019  i.e.  19.03.2019.  Candidates  seeking  reservation/relaxation  benefits available  for  EWS  must  produce  original  Income  &  Asset  certificate  of  issuing  date  earlier  than 01.08.2019. 

3.  Personality Tests (Interviews) of these candidates are likely to commence in the month February, 2020.   Personality Tests will be held in the Office of the Union Public Service Commission at Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi‐110069. The e‐Summon Letter of Personality Test of candidates being called for Interview  may  be  downloaded  from  the  Commission’s  Website  http://www.upsc.gov.in  & http://www.upsconline.in from   24  Jan,  2020. The candidates who are not able  to download e‐Summon Letter  for Personality Test, should immediately contact  the office of  the Commission  through letter or on Phone Nos.  011‐23385271,  011‐23381125,  011‐23098543 or Fax No. 011‐23387310,  011‐23384472 or by email on (skindo‐upsc@gov.in). No paper Summon Letters will be issued for the Personality Test/Interview by the Commission.  

4.  No request for change in the date and time of the Personality Test intimated to the candidates will ordinarily be entertained. 

5.  All the candidates, who qualified for Personality Test/Interview are required to opt in/opt out for publically making available  their scores under  the Public Disclosure Scheme. Candidates are advised  to go through DoP&T letter No. 39020/1/2016‐Estt(B) dated 21.06.2016, 19.07.2017 and Commission’s Note on PUBLIC  DISCLOSURE,  THROUGH  PORTAL,  OF  SCORES  OF  CANDIDATES  NOT  RECOMMENDED  BY  THE COMMISSION  AGAINST  THE  RESULT  OF  AN  EXAMINATION.  Candidates  should  note  that  only  after submitting their option for opt in/opt out, they will be able to download their e‐Summon letter. 

6.  With regard  to  the Detailed Application Form‐II  (DAF‐II),  following provisions have been made in the Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination‐2019 Rules: 

I. A candidate who qualifies for Personality Test /Interview on the basis of Result of Indian Forest Service (Main) Examination, 2019, will be required to submit their Order of Preferences for Zone(s) /State(s) Cadre through DAF-II. DAF-II will be made available on the Commission’s website from 21 /01/2020 to 28 /01/2020 (06:00 P.M.)
II. The preferences once opted and submitted cannot be modified or changed at a later stage. Therefore, the candidates are advised to exercise due diligence while filling up the preferences for Zones as well as Cadres there under. No change in preferences for Zones once indicated by a candidate would be permitted. If a candidate fails to submit the DAF-II by last date/time, it will be considered that the candidate has no preference to make for Zones & Cadres and no request shall be entertained in this regard.
III. No request for any type of change/modification of information already supplied in DAF-II would be entertained by the Commission. However, wherever necessary the candidates are advised to notify changes in their address/contact details only, if any, to the Commission immediately through letter, email (skindo-upsc@gov.in) or Fax at numbers indicated above within 7 days of publishing this Press Note.

7.  Name and Roll Nos. of qualified candidates is also available in upsc website i.e. www.upsc.gov.in .Qualified Candidates have to bring their photo ID whatever they mentioned in the DAF‐II. 

8.  The marks sheets of candidates who have not qualified, will be put on the Commission’s Website within 15 days  from  the date of publication of  the  final  result  (after conducting Personality Test) and will remain available on the Website for a period of 30 days. 

                         Roll No.                                       Name

0103776                                             PARAYANA SHREE

0110512                                             RAJ KUMAR SHARMA

0211865                                             RISHABH JAIN

0301315                                             KANKANALA ANIL KUMAR

0305291                                             HEMA NAYAK

0305662                                             YOGEESHA C K

0305808                                             AMITHA K B

0308320                                             SWAGATH M M

0310344                                             NIDHIN K BIJU

0311130                                             PRITHA HOSUR

0311530                                             APURV

0314153                                             YADAV SURYABHAN ACHCHHELAL

0322470                                             SMILNA SUDHAKAR

0326343                                             SACHIN HANAMAPPA NADAGADDI

0328478                                             MITHIL T M

0331997                                             POOJA NAGLE

0337888                                             VADITHYA SHASIKANTH NAIK

0338741                                             DIGANTH NAYAK

0341419                                             KALE PRATIKSHA NANASAHEB

0405090                                             ANMOL JAIN

0425542                                             SHREYAS SRIVASTAVA

0504630                                             AMAN VERMA

0515047                                             SHINDE PRASAD SITARAM

0519692                                             MANDAR UMESH JEWARE

0520956                                             HARVIR SINGH

0701914                                             MOHAMMED FATAHUN AZEEZ KHAN

0709586                                             ANURAG MISHRA

0801516                                             AMIT KALER

0805418                                             DEVESH PANDEY

0806474                                             YOGENDRA SINGH

0807540                                             JIYAUR RAHMAN

0812481                                             SUNNY KHOKHAR

0813890                                             MOHD ARSHAD HAIDER NAQVI

0817437                                             BEERENDRA KUMAR PATEL

0819142                                             INDRA BHUSHAN

0819391                                             VARUN B R

0821863                                             AKASH GARG

0823637                                             SATYENDRA MAURYA

0826444                                             DIVYA SHAKTI

0828389                                             ANAND KUMAR

0830127                                             DHEERAJ YADAV

0831995                                             GARUD SUSHIL TULSHIDAS

0832401                                             RAJAT GUPTA

0832725                                             ANKUR KUMAR JAIN

0833281                                             LAVISH ORDIA

0834368                                             ROHIT YADAV

0836217                                             SHRUTI

0836397                                             DIVYANSHU SINGAL

0836410                                             RAHUL KUMAR AGRAWAL

0838486                                             KULDEEP SHARMA

0838508                                             PRASHANT SINGH

0838579                                             SHIKHAR PRADHAN

0838843                                             PRAVEEN KUMAR

0839368                                             MOHIT RAWAT

 

0841593                                             RAHUL KUMAR

0842204                                             KHATRI VISHAL DINANATH

0843016                                             PRATEEK JAIN

0849358                                             JATIN KUMAR

0849679                                             MANDEEP KUMAR

0853575                                             PRANAV JAIN

0855702                                             PRAKHAR JAIN

0857023                                             ASHISH KUMAR VERMA

0857467                                             MD MANZAR HUSSAIN ANJUM

0858415                                             SHUBHAM BARANWAL

0859221                                             ANURAG PRIYEDARSHI

0859382                                             MEENA AVDHESHKUMAR SHIVKUMAR

0861923                                             AMAN KUMAR JAIN

0862487                                             MONIKA

0863129                                             NAMAN JAIN

0864169                                             AMIT KUMAR

0866491                                             REVTI RAMAN

0866852                                             ARPIT GARG

0867503                                             MUKUL JAIN

0868669                                             ANURADHA MISHRA

0869360                                             RAHUL KUMAR MEENA

0869490                                             RAMGUDE YOGESH RAMCHANDRA

0871324                                             SAI MANISH B

0872626                                             SHUBHAM SINGH

0872777                                             SHASHANK KATARIA

0873098                                             NAMRATA BIJORIA

0873848                                             SUMIT DHAYAL

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Study Kit for Indian Forest Service (IFoS) Exam (GS Prelims)

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An economic revival plan for the States (The Hindu)

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• Mains Paper 3: Economy 
• Prelims level: Business Reforms Action Plan
• Mains level:  Economic growth and development 

Context:

• There are the numbers that keep flitting around to show the ongoing down-slide in India’s growth — GDP growth is at a 15-year low, unemployment rate is at a 45-year high, household consumption at a four-decade low, retail inflation at a new high, and banks are straddled with bad loans.

Quick fixes needed

• The fact is long-term solutions are best administered when the economy is out of the ICU and gained enough strength to continue its journey on the growth path. 
• For now, what the country needs are some quick fixes to ensure meaningful outcomes which are visible so that the scars don’t turn into chronic wounds.
• Slight policy tweaks and relaxations across industry sectors may work best in the current scenario, especially when any further tax sops or interest rate cuts seem improbable.
• To understand how such reforms can be achieved in a short time, there is no harm in borrowing sensible and practical ideas. 
• The recently launched report on ‘ease of doing business’ in States and Union Territories offers some interesting ideas.

Case study:

• The report, ‘An Integrated Value Chain Approach to Ease of Doing Business: A Case Study of Sugar, Alcohol Beverages, and Tourism Sectors’, put together by another policy think-tank, Pahle India Foundation, is interesting on many counts. 
• Firstly, it makes some unique observations and suggestions for the three industry sectors — sugar, alcoholic-beverages and tourism. These are high value and high employment generating sectors. 
• All these sectors already use existing low-cost resources, and have the potential to generate regular revenue and support employment in the States. These sectors have inter-linkages to support each other.

Business Reforms Action Plan:

• The report suggests that if the policy reforms being implemented under the Business Reforms Action Plan (BRAP) framework (under the Department of Industry and Internal Trade, or DPIIT) had been linked to these three inter-linked sectors, the GDP of States and UTs would have received a boost.
• Currently, the DPIIT’s BRAP framework comprises a list of general reforms, and we have used this generalised approach in benchmarking States based on the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business study. 
• The Pahle India Foundation study recommends that, in place of this generic method followed by DPIIT, policy reforms should take a sectoral approach after conducting sector-specific studies to understand the inter-linkages and impact on the value chain. 
• This makes sense as it will address ground-level challenges more effectively.

Right policy:

• The Pahle India Foundation report establishes how such small reforms in any one of the three sectors included in the report — sugar, alco-beverages and tourism — could create a cumulative economic impact across the entire value chain.
• In tourism:
• We have historical sites all over, and if we focus on allied activities to ensure better tourist experience a proper policy for restaurants and bars, safe and well-planned local transport, hygienically managed budget hotels, and tourist-friendly police and drivers.
• The country can generate much more revenue and employment. 
• Citing the example of the Pub, Bar, Café, Lounge (PBCL) segment, which is part of the tourism industry, the report says that by simply reducing the time taken to give approvals to restaurants from nine months to three months.

Way ahead:

• The States can get an additional revenue of ₹38.5 crore per annum, and sugar mills and distilleries an additional ₹51 lakh. 
• A major part of this will go in taxes and in generating localised employment. Interestingly, such reforms do not result in revenue outgo.
• This amount may seem insignificant on the face of it, but this is the outcome of just one small change in one sector. 
• If these minor reforms are replicated across all States and industries, the domino effect on their respective GDPs and employment generation opportunities will be huge.
• Even a small policy change can impact the entire value chain of the interlinked industry sectors, translating into better earnings for businesses and, therefore, higher revenues for the State exchequer.

Conclusion:

• A sector-specific approach can, thus, be the quick fix that our country needs now. 
• The outcome of the reforms can also be measured and quantified. 
• Will States re-look at their policy-making approaches? Only time will tell.

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General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

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A more rational tax classification of vehicles can drive up auto sales (The Hindu)

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• Mains Paper 3: Economy 
• Prelims level: Not much 
• Mains level:  Tax classification in automobile sector 

Context:

• The Finance Minister could urge the GST Council to review the basic rate and compensation cess framework for vehicles (without compromising on revenues), especially at a time when the government is keen on promoting cleaner vehicles through the imposition of BS VI fuel emission norms from April 1, 2020, as well as giving a push to electric vehicles. 

Tax classification of vehicles:

• Vehicles are taxed based on length, ground clearance, engine type and displacement.
• This does not help promote reduction in emissions or encourage technological advancement. 
• The draft National Automotive Policy put out in February 2018 sought to replace the current system of classification of vehicles for taxation purposes with a system based on vehicle length and carbon dioxide emissions. 
• Therefore, all small cars need not be taxed less just because of their size and all large cars need not necessarily attract the maximum GST rate and cess. 
• Such criteria will also help companies and buyers navigate the price increase due to BS VI changeover, as large cars and SUVs, especially the ones that run on diesel engines, are expected to bear the brunt of the price hike.

Highlights the reason behind slowing down in automobile sector:

• The slowdown in truck sales which began in November 2018 remains unrelenting. 
• Average freight rates in key routes across the country are down 14 per cent since then and monthly fleet utilisation has plummeted 30-35 per cent, according to data from IFTRT (Indian Foundation for Transport Research and Training). 
• The key point here is that this segment has been affected by both structural and cyclical factors. 
• A decrease in turnaround time of trucks after GST eased inter-State movement, while the higher freight loading capacity of vehicles following the revised axle load norms have dampened new truck sales. 
• According to CRISIL estimates, the latter has resulted in an increase in the freight capacity of the entire population of trucks operational in India by 20-25 per cent, equivalent to three years of incremental freight demand. 
• The time is ripe for the introduction of the scrappage policy for commercial vehicles, which will serve the twin purposes of reviving demand and reducing pollution. 
• Revenue loss from providing scrappage incentives can be made good by higher sales volumes as well as improved realisations from the costlier BS VI trucks.

Way ahead:

• However, the sector needs to look beyond Budget sops to ensure long-term growth. 
• It needs to right-size and right-price its offerings and get ahead of the technology curve, in the policy and consumer-driven shift towards cleaner technologies.

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General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

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Bilateral agreements are more desirable than multilateral deals (Mint)

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• Mains Paper 2: International Relations 
• Prelims level: RCEP
• Mains level:  Bilateral trade, grouping and free trade agreements

Context:

• Since 1991, the narrative has been created that the policy of free movement of goods and capital across nations and amending IPR laws to suit investors is the panacea of all ills for developing countries.
• In India, too, it was thought that with such a policy, Indian industry would become competitive, flow of investment would improve, thus making the IPR regime stronger in favour of the owners that will help innovations.

Background:

• To freeing trade in goods from tariff and non-tariff barriers, instead of making Indian industry generally more competitive.
• This had led to deindustrialization in many sectors and a manifold increase in import dependence in general, leading to a constantly multiplying trade deficit, especially after the entry of China in the World Trade Organization (WTO). 
• It is notable that India’s trade deficit increased from $6 billion in 2000-01 to $176 billion in 2018-19.

Opting out from RCEP:

• The decision to walk out of RCEP raises doubts about the future of free trade agreements (FTAs), including the FTA with the EU. 
• In the past, opposition to India-EU FTA was similar to those of RCEP, such as on non-agriculture market access, agriculture, IPR, and investment.
• The same arguments that were being given in support of RCEP are back in the narrative in favour of an India-EU FTA.
• These include that the country cannot live in isolation, that this FTA would improve competitiveness of Indian industry and that the export potential of agriculture would also improve, and that IPR related clauses, which are actually proposed by EU, would encourage innovation.
• The bizarre argument in favour of MTAs and RTAs is that they save nations from negotiating with other individual nations. 
• However, 72.6% of India’s imports are from merely 15 countries and 60.5% of exports go to just 15 countries.

Prioritising in local trade:

• Therefore, making trade deals with major trading partners is not a big exercise. 
• Rather, it gives us an opportunity to increase our trade relations with countries where our penetration is less, by making agreements with them and also helps us make diplomatic inroads there.
• It is always a good idea to negotiate with our trade partners and have a trade deal, based on mutual needs, competitiveness and local requirements. 
• The Swadeshi Jagran Manch has always been in favour of bilateral trade agreements rather than MTAs or RTAs. 
• This approach has given us an opportunity to negotiate on the basis of mutual needs and cost benefit analysis on sound basis, rather than projections.

Way forward:

• FTAs would lead to India becoming a part of the global value chain, which again is generally fallacious. 
• We must not forget that the essential condition for India becoming a part of the global value chain is not FTAs but ease of doing business. 
• We need to make special efforts by carefully making agreements with our trade partners wherever possible and entering into bilateral agreement and make special efforts to improve our competitiveness. 
• We need to work out a deal that is a win-win for all sectors, including manufacturing, agriculture, and dairy, and all people including workers, farmers, and small business

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Extreme weather, ahoy! (Mint)

• Mains Paper 3: Environment 
• Prelims level: World Meteorological Organization
• Mains level:  Report arises on climate change 

Context:

• Report published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) has findings that a close analysis of climate dangers.
• It warns of the impact of “retreating ice, record sea levels, increasing ocean heat and acidification, and extreme weather", all of which are in evidence. 
• It also corroborates the latest studies of the European Union’s climate monitor, which revealed that 2019 was the second hottest year on record after 2016. 
• The WMO forecasts extreme weather conditions for 2020 and beyond, and cites the prolonged bushfires that are ravaging Australia as a case in point.

Conclusion:

• Rising global temperatures are no blip, but a clear and present threat to the planet. 
• We must speed up collective action towards limiting temperature increases to 1.5 degree Celsius, as agreed upon in the landmark Paris accord, or be prepared to watch the world burn.

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General Studies Pre. Cum Mains Study Materials

Power replay (Indian Express)

• Mains Paper 3: Economy 
• Prelims level: Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana
• Mains level:  Energy sector reforms 

Context:

• Almost five years after the launch of the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY), there are indications that the power sector is once again in trouble. 
• The losses of state-owned distribution companies (discoms) risen, but their dues for power purchases have also surged. 
• At the end of November 2019, dues owed by discoms to power producers, both independent and state-run entities, stood at Rs 80,930 crore.
• Rs 71,673 crore extends beyond the allowed grace period of 60 days. 
• Rajasthan leads the states with the most dues, followed by Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.

Reasons behind the failure: 

• The UDAY scheme has failed to engineer a sustainable turnaround in the fortunes of the beleaguered distribution segment.
• The weakest link in the power chain. 
• The Centre is contemplating yet another scheme to address the issues that continue to plague the sector. 
• But, as distribution falls under the purview of states, rather than adopting an approach similar to that of the past schemes, the new scheme should focus on altering the incentive structure at the state level so as to ensure the achievement of targets. 
• The UDAY scheme, which involved state governments taking over the debt of discoms, had three critical components:
• A reduction in the aggregate technical and commercial (AT&C) losses, 
• The timely revision of tariffs, and 
• To elimination of the gap between average per unit of cost and revenue realised.

Way forward:

• The new plan, reportedly, aims to address these issues by reducing electricity losses, eliminating the tariff gap, smart metering, privatising discoms, and having distribution franchisees. 
• These would be welcome measures. 
• But, along with these, the Centre should also look at altering the incentive structures of states in order to ensure compliance. 
• Stiff penalties need to be imposed for not meeting the targets laid out in the new scheme.

 

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(Download) CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2021 Hindi Compulsory

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Exam Name: CS (MAIN) EXAM : 2021 Hindi Compulsory
Marks: 250
Time Allowed : Three Hours

1.निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर 600 शब्दों में निबन्ध लिखिए : 100 

(a) बच्चों में कुपोषण की समस्या 
(b) वैश्विक शांति की चुनौतियाँ 
(c) मातृभाषा और प्राथमिक शिक्षा  
(d) किराये की कोख की सामाजिक स्वीकृति 

Q2.निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उसके आधार पर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर स्पष्ट, सही और संक्षिप्त भाषा में दीजिए :12x5=60 

प्राचीन भारत में राजतंत्र का इतना प्रभाव था कि राजा को राज्य की आत्मा कहा गया । प्राचीन धार्मिक ग्रंथों के अनुसार राजा प्रजा के लिए ईश्वर का प्रतिनिधि है, ताकि प्रजा उसकी सहायता से अपने दखी जीवन से छुटकारा पा सके । राजाविहीन समाज का जीवन कष्टपूर्ण होता है । प्राचीन भारतीय विद्वानों ने राजा या राज्य की उत्पत्ति के संबंध में समय-समय पर अनेक विचार प्रस्तुत किए हैं । उनको विभिन्न सिद्धांतों के रूप में निर्धारित किया गया है, जैसे – दैवीय सिद्धांत, शक्ति का सिद्धांत, सुरक्षा का सिद्धांत, सामाजिक समझौते का सिद्धांत आदि । 

कौटिल्य ने राज्य को मानव जीवन के लिए एक महत्त्वपूर्ण, आवश्यक और कल्याणकारी संस्था माना है । उन्होंने राजा की उत्पत्ति की क्रमबद्ध विवेचना नहीं की, लेकिन उनके 'अर्थशास्त्र में स्पष्ट उल्लेख है कि जैसे छोटी मछली को बड़ी मछली खा जाती है, उसी तरह प्राचीन काल में बलवान लोग निर्बल लोगों को सताते थे । इस अन्याय (मत्स्य न्याय) यानी जंगल राज से प्रजा पीड़ित थी । पीड़ित प्रजा ने मिलकर एक समर्थ व्यक्ति को अपना राजा नियुक्त किया । उन्होंने राजा को कृषि उपज का छठाँ भाग और व्यापार की आय का दसवाँ भाग देने का निश्चय किया । इसके बदले राजा ने प्रजा के कल्याण का दायित्व अपने ऊपर लिया । जो लोग राजा द्वारा की गई व्यवस्था को नहीं मानते थे, उन्हें वह दण्ड देता था । राजा को इन्द्र और यम के समान प्रजा का रक्षक और कृपा करने वाला माना गया है । कौटिल्य के अनुसार राजा की आज्ञा का पालन न करना अथवा उसका अपमान करना निषिद्ध है। 

जिस समाज में राजा द्वारा प्रजा को रक्षण प्रदान किया जाता है, वहाँ लोग निर्भय होकर घर  के दरवाज़े खोलकर विचरण करते हैं । जब राजा रक्षा करता है तो स्त्रियाँ अकेली ही आभूषण पहन  कर मार्ग में विचरण कर सकती हैं । राजा द्वारा रक्षित समाज में मानवता का साम्राज्य होता है । ऐसे राज्य में सब प्रकार की उन्नति होती है । अन्य प्राचीन ग्रंथों के साथ कौटिल्य के 'अर्थशास्त्र' में भी इस सत्य को प्रतिपादित किया गया है । पहले राजा का पद अस्थिर और शक्तियाँ नियंत्रित थी । मगर उत्तर वैदिक काल में राज्यों का आकार ज्यों-ज्यों बढ़ता गया, त्यों-त्यों राजा के अधिकार एवं ऐश्वर्य में वृद्धि होती गई । प्रजा की रक्षा की अपेक्षा राजा की रक्षा पर अधिक ध्यान दिया जाने लगा । राज-पद की प्रतिष्ठा के अनुरूप राजा का वैभव, शान-शौकत और दिखावा बढ़ गया । शुक्र नीति में इसका विस्तृत वर्णन किया गया है । 

(a) राजा और राज्य की प्राचीन अवधारणा क्या है ? 
(b) “मत्स्य न्याय' को अन्याय कहने का क्या अभिप्राय है ? 
(c) राजा और प्रजा के आपसी सम्बन्धों का आधार क्या है ? 
(d) मानवता का साम्राज्य' से क्या अभिप्राय है ? 
(e) उत्तर वैदिक काल में प्रजा की स्थिति में क्या बदलाव हुए ? 

Q3. निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद का संक्षेपण लगभग एक-तिहाई शब्दों में लिखिए । इसका शीर्षक लिखने की आवश्यकता नहीं है । संक्षेपण अपने शब्दों में ही लिखिए ।  60 

राजा राममोहन राय के क्रियाकलापों के विरोधी भारतीय व्यापारियों ने ब्रह्म समाज के प्रभाव को खत्म करने के लिए 1830 ई. में एक धर्म समाज नामक संस्था की स्थापना की । इसी समय में हेनरी डेरोजियो ने आधुनिक ढंग के एक शैक्षिक संगठन, हिन्दू कॉलेज में अकादमिक एसोसिएशन की स्थापना की । यह संघ परंपरागत रूढ़ियों और अंधविश्वासों के विरोध में अन्य ऐसे संगठनों से अधिक दृढ़ था । इस संघ से ही युवा बंगाल की स्थापना हुई । हिन्दू कॉलेज के कर्मचारियों द्वारा तंग करने के कारण जब यह संगठन विघटित हो गया, तो इसके भूतपूर्व सदस्य ब्रह्म समाज में सम्मिलित हो गए । राममोहन राय की मृत्यु के बाद से इस समाज का नेतृत्व एक प्रमुख बंगाली व्यापारी द्वारकानाथ ठाकुर के हाथ में था । उन्नीसवीं शताब्दी के चौथे और पाँचवें दशकों के दौरान बगाल में ज्ञान प्रसार और ऐसे ही अन्य लक्ष्यों के संवर्धक सामाजिक संगठन एक के बाद एक अकट हुए । अंत में 1851 ई. में कलकत्ता में ब्रिटिश इंडियन एसोसिएशन नामक एक परिपक्व राष्ट्रवादी राजनीतिक संगठन कायम किया गया ।

इस तरह की घटनाएँ बंबई में भी देखी जा सकती थीं । देश के इस भाग में ऐसे आन्दोलनों के प्रमुख नेता धनी और सुसम्मानित पारसी थे, जो औपनिवेशिक शासन के साथ सहयोग कर रहे थे, और युवा उदीयमान महाराष्ट्रीय बुद्धिजीवी थे, जो यूरोपीय पद्धति पर संचालित स्थानीय शैक्षणिक संस्था, एलफिन्स्टन कॉलेज से जुड़े हुए थे । इन बुद्धिजीवियों में प्रमुख थे बालशास्त्री जाम्बेकर, जिन्होंने अंग्रेज़ी-मराठी साप्ताहिक 'बंबई दर्पण' की स्थापना की, जो अपने देश के प्रशासन में भारतीयों को हिस्सा लेने देने के लिए वकालत करता था तथा औपनिवेशिक कर एवं शुल्क नीतियों की आलोचना करता था; रामकृष्ण विश्वनाथ, जिन्होंने मराठी में भारत के इतिहास पर एक पुस्तक प्रकाशित की, जिसमें उन्होंने भारत में ब्रिटिश नीतियों की आलोचना की, हालाँकि उनका विचार था कि सब कुछ ठीक किया जा सकता है, बशर्ते कि प्रबुद्ध अंग्रेज़ों और भारतीयों के बीच घनिष्ठ संपर्क हो; गोपाल हरि देशमुख, जो पूना के 'प्रभाकर' में लोकहितवादी के उपनाम से लिखते थे । उन्होंने भारत की स्वतंत्रता के अपहरण के कारणों का विश्लेषण किया, जो उनकी राय में पुरानी सामंती प्रथाओं का पालन और अभिजात वर्ग तथा भारतीय जनता को एक-दूसरे से पृथक् करने वाली खाई थे। 

1852 में स्थापित बंबई एसोसिएशन में तब फूट पड़ गई, जब युवा छात्रों ने सभी भारतीयों के लिए अंग्रेज़ों के समान अधिकारों की माँग की, और नरमपंथी उच्च वर्गीय व्यापारी इससे अलग हो गए । अकेले मद्रास एसोसिएशन ने ही भारतीय ज़मींदारों द्वारा किसानों के शोषण को बंद करने के प्रश्न को उठाया । उस समय ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी के चार्टर का फिर पुनरीक्षण हो रहा था, इसलिए तीनों एसोसिएशनों ने भारत में औपनिवेशिक शासन के 'अन्यायों' के बारे में लंदन में संसद को याचिकाएँ भेजीं।  (456 शब्द) 

Q4. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश का अंग्रेज़ी में अनुवाद कीजिए : 

प्रत्येक देश के इतिहास पर उसके भूगोल का प्रभाव पड़ता है । जहाँ तक भारत का प्रश्न है, उसकी सभ्यता युग-युगांतरों से स्वतंत्र रूप से विकसित होती रही है । उत्तरी पर्वतों की भयंकर रुकावटों और दक्षिण के समुद्रों के कारण भारत शेष विश्व से प्रायः पृथक् रहा । फलस्वरूप उस पर अधिक विदेशी प्रभाव नहीं पड़ सका । हिमालय पश्चिम से पूर्व तक लगभग 1600 मील लंबी और 50 मील चौड़ी एक दोहरी दीवार है । पूर्व में पत्कोई, नागा और लुशाई की पहाड़ियाँ और उनके घने जंगल आने-जाने में बाधा डालते हैं । पश्चिमी छोर पर कुछ दर्रे अवश्य हैं; जैसे खैबर और बोलन के, जहाँ से होकर विदेशी आते थे । दक्षिण की ओर शताब्दियों तक समुद्र भारत में आसानी से आने-जाने में रुकावट डालता रहा । किंतु बाद में नौ-विद्या-क्षेत्र में पर्याप्त प्रगति हुई । फिर तो यह समुद्र व्यापार के लिए सुगम मार्ग ही बन गया । 1498 ई. में वास्को-दी-गामा के नेतृत्व में पुर्तगाली लोग सबसे पहले समुद्री रास्तों से भारत आए । उसके बाद डच, फ्रांसीसी और अंग्रेज़ आए । ये सभी बहुत समय तक भारत में अपना प्रभुत्व जमाने के लिए आपस में संघर्ष करते रहे । इस प्रकार कुल मिलाकर भारत की भौगोलिक पृथकता के कारण यहाँ की सभ्यता पर अधिक विदेशी प्रभाव नहीं पड़ा। 

Q5. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश का हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए : 20 

At the stroke of the midnight hour, when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom. A moment comes, when we step out from the old to the new. It is fitting that at this solemn moment we take the pledge of dedication to the service of India. The service of India means the service of the millions who suffer. It means the ending of poverty and ignorance. It means the ending of disease and inequality of opportunity. The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every  eye. That may be beyond us, but as long as there are tears and suffering, so  our work will not be over. This is no time for petty and destructive criticism  cism, no time for ill-will or blaming others. We have to build the noble  mansion of free India where all her children may dwell. 
It is a fateful moment for us in India, for all Asia and for the world. A  new star rises, the star of freedom in the East, a new hope comes into being.  May the star never set and that hope never be betrayed ! 

Q6. (a) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का अर्थ स्पष्ट करते हुए उनका वाक्यों में प्रयोग कीजिए : 2x5=10 

(i) आँख खुलना 
(ii) आकाश चूमना 
(iii) पानी में आग लगाना 
(iv) टेढ़ी खीर 
(v) धोखे की टट्टी 

(b) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों के शुद्ध रूप लिखिए : 2x5=10 

(i) पक्षी अंडे देता है। 
(ii) ये लड़का गानेवाला है। 
(iii) मरते क्या नहीं करते । 
(iv) घोड़ा लँगड़ाते हुए भागा । 
(v) जहाँ अभी जंगल है यहाँ कभी नदी थी। 

(c) निम्नलिखित शब्दों के दो-दो पर्यायवाची लिखिए : 2x5=10 

(i) अक्षर 
(ii) लहर 
(iii) दर्पण 
(iv) आभूषण 
(v) बाल 

(d) निम्नलिखित युग्मों को इस तरह से वाक्य में प्रयक्त कीजिए कि उनका अर्थ एव अतर  स्पष्ट हो जाए : 2x5=10 

(i) पास – पाश 
(ii) दिन – दीन 
(iii) प्रसाद - प्रासाद 
(iv) पानी – पाणि 
(v) शंकर – संकर

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